PMP assessment exam 1.1

Dove Cote Enterprises

How Good Is Your Project Management Knowledge?

A self assessment guide to best practices

12/3/2008

© Dove Cote Enterprises 2008 All Rights Reserved

FOREWORD

The purpose of this document is to allow project managers and those who aspire to be project managers a value-priced tool for assessing their current level of knowledge in the profession. The author (a PMP) has worked in the field of project management for over twenty-five years. During that time, he has seen the Project Management Professional (PMP) designation evolve from being almost a second thought for project managers in the construction industry into becoming a requirement or a ‘desire to have’ for project management in all industries. Though this does not profess to be a PMP preparatory exam, it does closely follow the Project Management Institute’s (PMI) Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK). One can be a very competent project manager without having the PMP. Today, however, most organizations (especially large ones) adhere to at least some form of the PMBOK structure and that has influenced the wording of the questions.

Many have made the PMP a requirement for entry of new project management applicants. If part of the reason for the purchase of this product is to prepare for the PMP qualification exam, the author strongly advises that one take advantage of every test preparation resource that fits within his budget, utilizing books, boot camps, online/on campus courses, exam CD’s, etc. Customer reviews and testimonials for all resources are great for determining how to allocate your budget. Though the author passed on the first try, he personally discovered that one cannot be overly prepared, having taken many test exams and a prep course (scoring extremely high on all) as well as utilizing several reference books prior to its undertaking. The actual exam is not the same and it is a challenge.

For those who may fear this is a replay of someone else’s (or all’s) copyrighted material, nothing from any of those has been copied for this work. It is meant to be another view to a multi-dimensional discipline and concept.

HOW TO USE THIS DOCUMENT

This assessment also uses various methods of presenting information, possible answers and response choices. Read each over carefully as it is easy to get tripped up when having to consider responses with multiple right answers. Refer to question 78 as an example. For those who may use this as a prep test, this is consistent with the PMP exam as you will face many different looks. You will note there is no Table of Contents which is intentional. A random mixing of the questions was used as we feel such an approach will better reflect true knowledge of the subject matter rather than using a sequential approach through phases, knowledge areas and processes individually. Many of the questions will present possible answers from marginally or non-pertinent subject matter. The explanation of the right answer will explain why the others were not correct, thus covering more than one topic within a single question.

There is no passing or failing. Errors should be noted and reviewed to determine particular areas of weakness and strength for further study. In your particular role or industry, you may determine the deficiency is not pertinent. However, should you wish to change jobs, you may find the area of weakness has become a requirement.

© Dove Cote Enterprises 2008 All Rights Reserved Page 2

NOTE: Some questions will appear to use process groups and phases almost interchangeably. The author’s experience is that this is common depending on the organization and uses it for the benefit of the user.

1. Which of the following is not a project management knowledge area?a. Time Managementb. Communications Managementc. Schedule Managementd. Procurement Managemente. Risk Management

Answer: c. Schedule management is included in Time Management

2. Which of the following could be considered projects?Researching new technologies/productsImplementing a software solutionChanging all corporate collateral to use new marketing standardsBuilding a back-up power plantUpgrading desktop productivity tools

a. All of the aboveb. Some of the abovec. None of the above

Answer: a. All of the above could be projects if they require mobilizing people into a team, have limited time or resource constraints, and have specific defined deliverables or expected results.

3. A project manager with a full-time role and a part-time administrative staff would be considered to be in a ________________ matrix.a. Weakb. Collaborativec. Balancedd. Strong

Answer: c. Balanced; in a weak matrix, both the PM and his staff are part-time, all are full-time in a strong matrix, and there is no such thing as a collaborative matrix.

4.


5. All of the following are project management process groups except:InitiatingFundingClosingPlanningControlling ExecutingQA

a. Closing and Fundingb. Controlling and QAc. QA and Fundingd. Controlling

Answer: c. QA and Funding are not recognized as distinct processes. QA is included in the Controlling process and Funding is part of Initiation.

6. The purpose of the Initiation phase is to:A. To authorize the project or phaseB. To identify the project teamC. To provide interim checkpoints to ensure the project remains focused on the business

needD. To get funding approval for the project

a. A onlyb. B & Dc. A & Cd. All of the above

Answer: b. At the start of a project, the objective is to authorize the commencement of the effort. Prior to each new phase, the project is assessed to ensure it is still meeting the business need and the business need is still valid. Phase assessments may initiate change controls if changes are necessary to meet business objectives. B & D are usually part of the planning process as the scope is defined and resource/staffing plans and cost estimates are produced. Funding approval in the Initiation process usually covers the costs to define the scope and magnitude of the total effort.

7. A properly executed project addresses all the process groups within each knowledge area.

a. True


b. False

Answer: False. Knowledge areas only use the processes pertinent to their domains. For instance, Scope management is addressed in the Initiation, Planning and Controlling phases while Quality management is part of the Planning, Execution and Controlling phases.

8. The following is not considered to be a project management process:a. Projectb. Qualityc. Product

Answer: b. Project processes are those used to define and organize the project effort; product processes are those used to specify and produce the end products and deliverables of the project (the outputs by which the project will be considered a success). Quality management is a knowledge area which would have its own product and project processes.

9. Stakeholders are those individuals or organizations who are actively involved in the project.

a. Trueb. False

Answer: False. Stakeholders also include those whose interests will be impacted by the project, either positively or negatively. Example: A bank is changing all its ATMs to a new physical look along with new and different menus for executing transactions. The customer is a stakeholder but not an active member of the project team even though the result of the project may have a positive or negative impact on him.

10. Which of the following are various project lifecycles?A. WaterfallB. Fast trackingC. ParallelD. IterativeWhich of the following is the correct answer?a. A & Db. A, C & Dc. A & Bd. All of the above

Answer: d. All of the above


11. Integration management includes the following processes:A. Plan DevelopmentB. Plan ExecutionC. InitiationD. Integrated Change ControlWhich of the following is the correct answer?a. All the aboveb. A, B, & Cc. A, B & Dd. A & D only

Answer: c. Initiation is included in Scope Management. All of the others are part of Integration Management.

12. The following are outputs of the Initiation process:A. Assignment of the project managerB. Product descriptionC. ConstraintsD. AssumptionsWhich of the following is the correct answer?a. B, C & Db. A, C & Dc. A, B & Dd. All of the above

Answer: b. Product description is an input to the initiation process. Along with the project charter, project manager assignment, constraints and assumptions are all outputs.

13. The purpose of Integration management is: a. To ensure that the elements of scope, time, and cost are all documented.b. To ensure that all project elements are properly coordinated.c. To ensure that project communications include all stakeholders.d. To ensure that the project is completed on time and on budget.

Answer: b. The integrated project plan should address all the other knowledge areas as well as those listed above. Choice a. only covers three of the nine knowledge areas; c. is a


single component of the project; and d., though very important, does not take into account all the attributes of a successful project.

14. Scope definition:a. Produces a written scope document b. Produces sign-off by the project stakeholdersc. Subdivides the major deliverables into smaller and more manageable components

Answer: c. The written scope document (a.) is produced in scope planning and agreement by the stakeholders (c.) is achieved in scope verification. Both a. and c. are components of the Planning process.

15. The purpose of Scope management is:a. To assure that the scope is properly definedb. To ensure that all the work is successfully completed and only the approved work is

performedc. To produce a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)d. All of the above

Answer: d. As part of Scope management, choices a. and c. are determined during the Planning process and b. carries that through to project completion by including the Controlling processes of verification and change control.

16. Distributing information to stakeholders is included in which process group?a. Planningb. Executionc. Controlling

Answer: b. In the Planning process (a.), the communications plan is developed and performance reporting of the results (such as during Execution) in the Controlling process (c.) is used to communicate how the project is meeting its stated objectives.

17. To determine if a proposed project should be approved, the evaluation team should consider:

A. A product description of what will be produced as a result of the projectB. How the project satisfies overall business goals as defined by the strategic plan


C. The selection criteria for determining how the project fits within the organizational culture and needs

D. Historic information to better understand the cost/benefit effect from previous similar projects.

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. All of the aboveb. B & Cc. A, B & Dd. A, C & D

Answer: a. All of the above are inputs for the decision process to authorize a new project.

18. The main purpose for organizations to use benefits measurement as a decision tool is:a. To determine the net present value of expected gains from the projectb. To determine the highest overall returnc. To measure risk factors and tolerance against probability of successd. To compare the investment and value of projects against each other and organizational

objectives.Which of the following is the correct answer?a. A onlyb. B onlyc. A & Bd. D

Answer: D. Whereas a, b and c are different methods for conducting benefits measurement, the main reason is to best allocate limited resources to projects best satisfying organizational objectives. The other choices may be ways of gauging values against standards or thresholds as defined by the organization’s objectives.

19. Who is responsible for securing funding for the project? a. The Executive Committeeb. The Project Sponsorc. The Project Managerd. The Customer

Answer: b. The Project Sponsor grants the authority to perform the project, securing the funding and, ultimately, is responsible for the project’s success or failure. An Executive Committee may have to approve the funding request and the Customer may end up paying for the project. The Project Manager and project team may develop the estimates that make up the funding request but would not be responsible for obtaining the funding.


20. In developing the project’s objectives, SMART stands for:a. Special, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic and Timelyb. Specific, Measurable, Accurate, Realistic and Timelyc. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Risk-averse and Timelyd. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic and Timely

Answer: d.

21. Organizations use the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) to:A. To determine how much a future income stream must be discounted in order to produce a net present value of 0B. To measure a project against a defined threshold for undertaking itC. To compare projects of diverse scopes and sizesD. To compare the projected IRR against external investment optionsWhich of the following is the correct answer?a. Bb. B & Cc. A, B & Cd. All of the above

Answer: d. Unless there is an overriding strategic reason for undertaking a project, an organization may opt to invest available funds externally if the returns are higher than its proposed project or projects. The defined threshold (B) may be set against an external return for a project to be considered.

22. The bulk of the project management processes are undertaken in which phase?a. Initiatingb. Planningc. Executingd. Controlling

Answer: b. The bulk of the project management processes are undertaken in Planning though the bulk of the work is performed in Executing.

23. The scope statement includes all the following except:a. The project productb. Project deliverablesc. Assumptions


d. Exclusions from scopee. The frequency of status meetings

Answer: e. Status meetings and reports are defined in the Communications Plan. All the others are critical components of a good scope document. Other critical components include the project justification, its objectives and identified constraints.

24. How project scope will be managed and changes integrated into the project is:a. Part of the scope statementb. Included in the Communications Planc. Would be considered supporting detaild. The scope management plan

Answer: d.

25. The method for ranking and comparing a list of alternatives to each other is called:a. Benefit-cost analysisb. Scoring c. Pair-wise comparisond. Peer review

Answer: c. In pair-wise comparison, each alternative is compared to the other and the better one selected. In benefit-cost analysis, the costs and benefits of different approaches are determined. This could, in turn, be used in pair-wise comparison. Peer reviews collect the expert opinions from other sources, both inside and outside the project. Scoring models provide the means to track and weigh the benefits of the alternatives.

26. Sub-dividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components is:A. Known as decompositionB. May result in updating the scope statementC. Conducted in scope definitionD. Is critical in defining the performance measurement baselinea. A.b. Bc. A & Cd. All the above

Answer: d.


27. Organizing and defining the total scope of the project into logical deliverable-oriented groupings:

A. Results in a work breakdown structure (WBS)B. Identifies lower level work packages for estimating costs and assigning resourcesC. Ties the work to be performed to project objectivesD. Helps minimize detailed documentation

a. All the aboveb. A & Cc. B& Cd. A, B & C

Answer: d. The WBS (A) forces more detailed planning and documentation for better execution and control.

28. The work package:A. Is a deliverable at the lowest level of the WBS, therefore the lowest level at which the

work is measured and controlledB. May be subdivided into activitiesC. Has a single ownerD. Is defined as the statement of work for a subcontractor or other third party

Which of the following is correct?

a. A & Cb. A, B & Cc. Dd. All of the above

Answer: b. Though a work package may be part of a subcontractor’s statement of work, it is neither a requirement nor the definition of a work package. The subcontractor may have a turnkey scope of work, making his individual work packages transparent to the project manager. Detailed activity schedules, cost reporting and milestones are used to manage the subcontractor’s overall progress against project objectives.

29. A work package can result in multiple schedule activities and a schedule activity can encompass multiple work packages. True or false?

a. Trueb. False

Answer: b. False; by being the lowest level of the WBS, a work package’s corresponding cost elements and schedule tasks/activities are distinct to it.


30. After the WBS has been developed, the next step is to:A. Define the specific activities that must be performed to meet project objectivesB. Use the activity list to produce the project network diagramC. Create the supporting detail as necessary for each activity that must be performedD. Move into the time planning process of activity definition

a. A, B & Db. A & Dc. A, C & Dd. All the above

Answer: c. The project network diagram is an output of the activity sequencing process, a later step.

31. Some of the tools and techniques used in activity sequencing are:A. Network templatesB. Precedence diagramming methods (PDM)C. Conditional diagramming methodsD. Activity Lists

a. A, B & Cb. A, B & Dc. B, C & Dd. All of the above

Answer: a. Activity lists are an input. Some organizations have standard activity templates and naming conventions (A). PDM (B) is a common diagramming method for sequencing activities into an overall project schedule. Conditional diagramming methods include uncertainty into the activity planning process. PERT is an example of this.

32. The difference between the precedence diagramming method (PDM) and the activity diagramming method is:

A. ADM may require dummy activities and is therefore a less preferred methodB. In PDM, nodes are activities and arrows are dependencies which is the opposite in ADMC. PDM allows for more dependency typesD. ADM allows for more detailed activity sequencing

a. A, B & Cb. B, C & Dc. A, C & Dd. B & C


Answer: d. Though PDM is more commonly used for activity sequencing, the use of dummy activities does not, in itself, make it a less preferred diagramming technique (A). PDM allows for finish to start, finish to finish, start to start and start to finish dependency types whereas ADM only uses finish to start. The level of detail in activity sequencing is dictated by the level required to measure and control the work being accomplished and is not an attribute of one method over the other.

33. Estimating activity durations takes into account:A. The amount of time that must elapse for the work to be completeB. The work time required to complete the activityC. The productivity and skill levels of those performing the workD. Should consider the impact of risk to activity duration

a. A, B & Cb. B & Cc. B, C & Dd. All of the above

Answer: d. An example is the pouring of concrete. The setup and pouring of the concrete would take into account the work time required and the productivity/ skillsets of the crew (based upon historical information and/or expert opinion). The curing of the concrete would be based upon elapsed time as it has nothing to do with designated work schedules. Time of season and projected weather forecasts bring risk into play as the probability that the work can be undertaken on the days scheduled.

34. At the completion of estimating activity durations, the project team should have documented the basis of the estimates and updated the activity list. True or false?a. Trueb. False

Answer: a. Documenting the basis of estimates and updating the activity list are outputs of the process of estimating activity durations.

35. Resource pools, calendars and risk management plans are inputs to:A. Estimating activity durationsB. The schedule development processC. The schedule management planD. Are used in project schedule simulation exercises

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. A & B


b. Cc. B & Cd. B & D

Answer: d. Estimating activity durations is part of the process preceding schedule development (a). The schedule management plan (b) is an output of the schedule development process, requiring the utilization of schedule development tools and techniques to be applied to the above inputs and would not be the preferred answer. These inputs (d) are part of the schedule development process and are utilized in project simulation exercises in evaluating schedule alternatives.

36. Assumptions and constraints may include:A. The availability of workers at the required timesB. Timely procurement of required materialsC. Imposed datesD. The use of overtime (or lack of it) as an option to meet schedule

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. A & Bb. A, B & Dc. All of the above

Answer: c. Imposed dates on work such as a drop dead date to meet time to market requirements ( i.e., Christmas retail season for a new toy line) or equipment retooling to be done during a scheduled plant shutdown should be documented and accounted for in the schedule. Overtime may be scheduled into the project schedule upfront, held out as a contingency for schedule recovery or specified as not optional for any reason.

37. Compressing activity and schedule duration:A. Utilizes mathematical analysis to discover ways to shorten the project schedule within

the defined scopeB. Should result in lower project costC. May be required to meet imposed datesD. Looks at lag and lead times as opportunities for compression Which of the following is the correct answer?a. A & Cb. A, B & Cc. A, C & Dd. All the above

Answer: a. Compressing duration may result in lower costs but not necessarily so (B). Often the reverse is true in that there is a cost to compression. Lag and lead times (D) are used as non-working time ‘spacers’ between activities such as concrete curing or paint drying.


There may be some opportunity for compressions by using drying units or fans in these cases but these may not be physical or cost effective options.

38. Bar charts:A. Are time scaled diagrams showing the lapsed time of project activitiesB. Reflect effort and resources required for activity completionC. Are commonly known as Gantt chartsD. Take into account project calendars and resource limitations in showing the activity

duration bars.a. A & Cb. A, B & Cc. A, C & Dd. All of the above

Answer: c. Bar charts may display resources required for an activity but do not reflect the effort involved. Bar charts do use project calendars for displaying the time required for an activity and can take into account limited resource availability through resource leveling exercises.

39. The difference between free float and total float is:a. Free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early

start of the immediately following activities and total float the amount of time an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the project finish date

b. Free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start of the immediately following activities and total float the amount of time an activity can be delayed from its late start without delaying the project finish date

c. Free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the late start of the immediately following activities and total float the amount of time an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the project finish date

d. Free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the late start of the immediately following activities and total float the amount of time an activity can be delayed from its late start without delaying the project finish date

Answer: a.

40. The critical path of a project is:A. The earliest a project can completeB. Shows the latest dates that individual activities can start without affecting the project end

dateC. Shows how task interdependencies affect start datesD. Remains fixed throughout the project


a. Ab. A & Bc. A, B & Cd. All of the above

Answer: c. The critical path of a project can change throughout the life of the project as critical tasks may get ahead of schedule and/or non-critical tasks fail to complete as scheduled, using up available float or slack. The baselined timeline of the project may remained fixed throughout the project (D) but, based upon real progress or lack thereof, the critical path is dynamic.

41. Determining the physical resources required, their respective quantities and when they should be utilized is called:

a. Cost managementb. Resource planningc. Cost estimatingd. Cost budgeting

Answer: b. This is the definition of resource planning. Cost management is the umbrella process consisting of resource planning, cost estimating and cost budgeting. The output of resource planning is an input into cost estimating.

42. Tools and techniques used in cost estimating are:A. Analogous estimatingB. Parametric modelingC. Bottom-up estimating D. Budget breakdownsWhich of the following is the correct answer?a. All of the aboveb. A & Cc. B, C & Dd. A, B & C

Answer: d. Analogous estimating is a form of expert judgment when historical data is absent and is more appropriate in the early stages of a project. Parametric modeling derives from historical cost factors such as $/SF, $/CY, 3X Equipment Costs. Bottoms up estimating is a detailed estimate developed at the lowest level of the WBS and depends upon completed detailed design and schedules for the project. Budget breakdowns as a tool and technique are a made up answer.

43. Lifecycle costs are defined as :


a. Acquisition costsb. Ownership costsc. Acquisition plus ownership costsd. Acquisition plus ownership plus disposal costs

Answer: d

44. The estimating team presents its estimate to executive oversight for review and approval. They believe it to be accurate within a range of -10% to +25%. This would be a __________ estimate:

a. Order of magnitudeb. Controlc. Definitived. Estimate at completion

Answer: b. Control estimates can also be known as budget, appropriation, or design estimates. These are produced in the early planning stages. Order of magnitude estimates are within the -25% to +75% range, definitive estimates within the -5% to +10% range. Estimate at completion is an estimate of what the final cost of a project will be based upon performance factors of a project already in progress.

45. Resource pools may include equipment and indirect resources such as inspectors.a. Trueb. False; resource pools only include the actual personnel performing the workc. False; resource pools can include indirect labor but no non-labor resourcesd. False; resource pools may include non-labor resources (i.e., equipment) but not indirect

labor such as inspectors which are considered level of effort and thus not a manageable resource

Answer: a. Any resource required for the project that is not considered limitless, thus needing to be scheduled and controlled, can be included in a resource pool.

46. Procurement planning:A. Is best done during scope definitionB. Determines which services are best provided internally and which should come from

external sources through make or buy analysisC. Is part of the estimating processD. Is not necessary if the project team can perform all the work on the project

Which of the following is the correct answer:

a. A, B & C


b. B & Cc. A, B & Dd. All of the above

Answer: c. Procurement planning is part of the Procurement management knowledge area whereas cost estimating is part of the Cost management knowledge area. Procurement planning may be performed in parallel with estimating activities but it is separate from them. If all the work can be self-performed, there is no procurement to plan (D).

47. A project manager is about award a contract for a small custom fabrication job valued at $550. In order to save time, he instructs the procurement officer to use a purchase order, avoiding the red tape of preparing a subcontract. Will this approach be legally binding?a. Yesb. No

Answer: No. Contract law states that a sale over $500 must be in writing to be legally binding. In this case, the reality may be that there is minimal risk of default or non-performance and proceeding expeditiously may be a determining factor, but from a technical and legal viewpoint, it is not legally binding. The purchase order may also be necessary in addition to become incorporated into cost management and reporting systems.

48. Proposal evaluation criteria:A. Should be objectiveB. Can include subjective criteriaC. Are meant to allow the best decision to be madeD. Are meant to allow a fair decision to be made

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. A & Cb. A & Dc. A, B & Cd. All of the above

Answer: d.

49. The following are contract types except:a. Unit priceb. Cost reimbursablec. Fixed priced. Best efforts

Answer: d


50. The difference between a contract and a purchase order is:A. Purchase orders are used for materials and contracts are meant for servicesB. A contract is mutually binding whereas a purchase order only obligates the buyer to pay

if and when the specified goods or services are deliveredC. A purchase order specifies payment terms such as discounts, freight allowances and

remittance due dates whereas a contract does not

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. Ab. Bc. A & Cd. All of the above

Answer: b. Both purchase orders and contracts can be used for materials and/or services. Contracts often include sections defining payment terms such as listed above. By being mutually binding, the contract can include provisions for penalties and/or damages resulting from non-performance.

51. Human resource management is a distinct function on a project because:A. Personal and organizational relationships are new and temporaryB. The project manager may not be aware of all the regulations that then organization must

be in complianceC. The constitution of project teams may change over the course of the projectD. A team member’s role and assigned responsibilities may not exactly line up with those of

his ‘real’ job.

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. A & Cb. A, B & Cc. A, C & Dd. All of the above

Answer: d. Along with not being aware of all regulatory requirements, the project manager may not be aware of all the other HR administrative policies and procedures. Projects by definition are temporary and dynamic, requiring a specialized approach to teams, team members and their respective project roles and responsibilities.

52. The project organization structure should always mirror that of the corporate culture.a. Trueb. False


Answer: b. The project organizational structure does not have to mirror the corporate culture, but, the more it deviates from that culture, the more potential for conflict and the more attention it should receive in the risk management plan.

53. A project manager has a former project manager as a team member. He often directs the tasks of others without clearing it with the current manager. This would be an example of:a. An organizational interfaceb. A technical interfacec. An indirect management interfaced. An interpersonal interface

Answer: d. An organizational interface represents the formal and informal reporting relationships among organizational entities. Technical interfaces are those between technical disciplines. Indirect management interfaces is a fabricated answer.

54. You are selecting a project manager for a low risk project with a short time frame. You have a candidate who came up through a command and control management culture. Would he be a good candidate?a. Yesb. No

Answer: a. This would be called an autocratic management style which can be successful for low risk projects. The laissez-faire style of management is successful for creative, open-ended non-urgent projects. A democratic management style relies on participation between management and staff for decision making. The drawbacks are that this does not necessarily result in the best choice and can be a detriment where quick decisions are required.

You have a project team consisting of John, Jill, Ike, Jennifer, Mickey, Sara, Adrienne, Steve, and Donald. Sara is the testing coordinator. Ike is the department manager for the technical resources assigned but a non-active team member. Steve and Donald have been designated as ultimately accountable for the success of the project. Jennifer is the customer representative. John is the project sponsor but will not be actively involved..

55. From the limited information above, does this represent a good Responsibility Assignment Matrix?

a. Yes, because the customer is representedb. Yes, because the technical department manager is includedc. Uncertain; not enough information is given


d. No, because there can be only one person accountable for the overall success of the project

Answer: d. The other choices are possible answers but they are overridden by having two managers with ultimate accountability for the overall project. There can be multiple persons with accountability for various phases as long as only one is accountable for any particular phase or the overall effort.

56. As testing coordinator, Sara’s role in the requirements phase would be:a. Participantb. Reviewerc. To provide inputd. To sign off the final requirements

Answer: a. Development of test plans should begin in the requirements phase so Sara should be participating. Since she does not provide the requirements, she would be processing inputs into the test plan, not providing them. It is not necessary for her to sign off on the requirements.

57. As the customer, Jennifer’s role would most likely be:a. Participant in requirements and sign-off on testingb. Sign off in requirements, participant in design and development and sign off in testingc. Sign off for requirements and testing with possible reviews in other stagesd. Sign off in every stage

Answer: c. To lock in the requirements (and the scope), the customer should formally approve them as meeting her business needs. Rarely will the customer be knowledgeable enough nor is it necessary for her to participate (i.e., be a ‘doer’) in or approve every stage of the project (b. & d.). The customer’s role in a project is concerned with the ‘what’, not the ‘how’. Once the what (requirements) have been determined, other project members are engaged to determine how it will be accomplished. Interestingly, the customer now evaluates the deliverables against his requirements. Periodic reviews with the customer during the other stages help assure the team is correctly translating the “what” into the “how”.

58. Negotiation is a technique in staff acquisition because:A. Some components may be subcontracted to a third partyB. Various functional areas have the authority over who is assignedC. Salary and benefits are negotiated when a new hire is required for the project teama. Ab. A & Bc. B & Cd. All of the above


Answer: d. Staff acquisition may involve negotiating with third parties, functional managers, and selection of a new employee.

59. In the above example, the project manager is least likely to be involved with:A. Negotiating scope and deliverables with third partiesB. Negotiating with functional managers to obtain the appropriate resourcesC. Negotiating salary with a job candidatea. Ab. Bc. Cd. A & C

Answer: c. The project manager may be involved in employee selection, but is not usually involved with negotiating his compensation.

60. In staff acquisition, recruitment practices would be:a. An inputb. A tool and techniquec. An output

Answer: a. Recruitment practices are an input to staff acquisition.

61. A description of the staffing pool would be an output of staff acquisition.a. Trueb. False

Answer: b. The staffing pool description is an input to staff acquisition.

62. Identifying risks are part of the risk management plan.a. Trueb. False

Answer: b. The risk management plan is an input to risk identification. The plan documents the procedures for dealing with risks as they arise (or are identified) throughout the life of the project.

63. Risk management planning is defined as :a. Determining and documenting which risks which might affect the project


b. Developing the procedures and techniques to lower the threats and to improve the opportunities for meeting project objectives

c. Deciding how to approach and plan a project’s risk management activitiesd. Measuring risks’ probabilities of occurrence, their consequences and impacts to project

objectives

Answer: c. Choice ‘a.’ is risk identification; ‘b.’ is risk response planning; and, ‘d.’ is quantitative risk analysis.

64. Company Z has a standard risk management methodology which uses a published scoring and weighting technique for categorizing identified risks. Should this be part of the risk management plan?

a. Yes; though it is a recognized corporate standard, it should be included in the risk management plan

b. No; it is part of a later stage of risk management known as risk response planning

Answer: a. The risk management plan is an input to risk response planning.

65. Company Y has a history of project’s missing deadlines and having cost overruns. An outside consultant comes in and observes the following: 1) employee turnover is running the industry average of 23%; 2) poorly executed scope control resulting in changing requirements throughout projects;3) design errors; 4) ambiguous definitions of roles and responsibilities.

As the project manager, which should you address in the risk identification stage?a. All should be includedb. All but employee turnover since the turnover % is no worse than the industry averagec. Scope control and design error risksd. Scope control, design error and roles and responsibility definition risks

Answer: a. Regardless of whether employee turnover is equal to or better than industry norms, a high % can have a negative impact on your project. Poorly executed scope control and design errors may be resulting from poorly documented and understood requirements, things you, as the project manager, need to be aware of as you progress through the project stages. Clear definition of roles and responsibilities are necessary for assuring that all work is assigned to someone for execution.

66. The following would be considered external risks to the project except:A. An Act of GodB. A change in federal regulationsC. Lack of funding


D. Poor product quality

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. None of the above; all are examples of external risksb. A, B & Cc. A, B & Dd. C & D

Answer: d. Competition for or lack of funding is an organizational risk and product quality is a product risk.

67. Asking why five times to identify risks and impacts would be part of which technique:a. Brainstormingb. Interviewing c. Ishikawa diagrammingd. SWOT

Answer: c. Ishikawa uses a fishbone diagramming technique of documenting the cause (why) and effect of risks a minimum of five times up to the point where all causes and effects are known. SWOT stands for strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats. Interviewing is used to understand risk factors from the perspectives of stakeholders and subject matter experts.

68. The following are true about the probability-impact matrix:A. Helps decide which risks need a response strategyB. Is used in preparing the avoidance planC. Can be used to determine which risks will be accepted without a response planD. Is a good tool for ranking risks as high, medium and low

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. All are trueb. A, B & C are truec. A, B & D are trued. A, C & D are true

Answer: a. Though an ‘avoidance plan’ is not a formally recognized PMI term, the matrix is an input for determining which risks can and need to be avoided as part of the risk response plan. Risk ranking assists with deciding whether the risk will be avoided, mitigated or accepted.

69. Decision trees:A. Associate decisions with chance events resulting from those decisions


B. Uses all probable outcomes to determine a calculated expected monetary outcome from a single decision.

C. Considers that different conditions for a certain decision can result in different outcomesD. Uses branches to connect decisions (circles) to uncertain outcomes (squares) and

possible outcomes.

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. All are trueb. All are true but Bc. B & C are trued. A, B & C are true

Answer: d. In a decision tree, decisions are depicted as squares and uncertain outcomes as circles.

70. The difference between the computing the standard mean of a triangular distribution from computing the standard mean with PERT is:

a. There is no differenceb. PERT places a heavier weight to the most likely valuec. The inclusion of PERT will always result in a higher meand. The inclusion of PERT will always result in a lower mean

Answer: b. PERT weights the most likely value with a multiplier of 4. Depending on what this value is relative to the higher and lower limits, the mean may be higher or lower than the standard arithmetic average.

71. With both methods,A. The project mean is the sum of the activity meansB. The project variance is the sum of the activity variancesC. The project standard deviation is the sum of all the activity variances

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. All are trueb. A & B are truec. A & C are trued. None are true

Answer: b. The project standard deviation is the square root of the project variance.

72. In a set of values, the value occurring most frequently would be the:a. Absolute meanb. Median


c. Moded. Weighted mean

Answer: c. Median value is the one where there are equal values higher than and lower than that value. Mode, mean and median can be equal, depending on the distribution of the value set. Mode is the value occurring most frequently. Weighted mean is a nonsense answer.

73. The range of a set of values is:A. The difference between the highest value and the lowest valueB. Is always expressed as a positiveC. Is the sum of (median value minus the high value) and (median value minus the low

value)D. Is equal to two times the median value

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. A & Bb. A, B & Cc. A, B & Dd. B & D

Answer: b.

74. Where several schedule nodes converge into a single activity,A. There is increased risk for project delaysB. This needs addressing as part of the quantitative risk analysisC. This needs addressing as part of the qualitative risk analysisD. The project manager should redo the schedule to eliminate the bottleneck

a. A, B & Cb. A, B & Dc. A & Bd. A & D

Answer: c. Assuming the project schedule already represents the true dependencies between activities, it is highly unlikely that the schedule can be manipulated to eliminate the convergence. However, this does bear revisiting the schedule to confirm the convergent activity is truly dependent upon the converging ones.

75. A company has taken out an insurance policy to cover the loss of revenues that would result from missing a key time to market date. This is known as:a. Risk avoidance


b. Risk mitigationc. Risk transferenced. A risk event

Answer: c. The financial impact of the revenue loss has been transferred to the insurance carrier. Missing the date would be a risk event.

76. Contingencies are:A. Reflected in predefined actions a project will take should a known risk event occursB. Are reflected as dollars in the project cost baselineC. Can be quantified in time (schedule)D. Are an output of the risk response plan

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. All the aboveb. A, C & Dc. A, B & Dd. C & D

Answer: a.

77. ISO stands for the International Organization of Standards.a. Trueb. False

Answer: b. ISO stands for the International Organization of Standardization

78. Product quality is the responsibility of:a. Senior managementb. The QA teamc. The project managerd. The individual project team member

Answer: d. Senior management is responsible for quality policy; the project manager is responsible for project quality and the QA team enforces the quality standards. For product quality, it comes down to the individual team member to ‘’build it in’.

79. Quality planning uses all the following tools and techniques except:A. BenchmarkingB. Checklists


C. Design of experimentsD. Standards and regulations

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. None; quality planning uses all of the aboveb. Cc. B & Dd. D

Answer: c. Checklists are an output of the quality planning process and standards and regulations are inputs. Along with benchmarking and design of experiments, cost/benefit analysis and flowcharting are the tools and techniques used here.

80. In quality planning, the technique of identifying the impact of different project variables is called:

a. Cost/benefit analysisb. Benchmarkingc. Design of experimentsd. An Ishikawa diagram

Answer: c. Cost/benefit analysis is used to identify the costs and benefits of the quality processes themselves. Benchmarking compares similar processes to identify best practices. The Ishikawa diagram relates causes to problems.

81. The Project Management Institute definition of quality is:A. The same as the ISO definitionB. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or

implied needs.C. The totality of project characteristics that will satisfy defined needs.D. Conformance to requirements

a. Bb. A & Bc. A & Cd. D

Answer: b.

82. Quality control is a structured review of specific quality management activities meant to identify lessons learned and to improve performance on current or future projects.a. True


b. False

Answer: b. Quality control monitors specific project results for compliance to quality standards and quality audits are structured reviews of specific quality management activities meant to identify lessons learned and to improve performance on current or future projects.

83. Communication planning:A. Determines the information and communications needs of stakeholdersB. Defines who needs what when and how it will be deliveredC. Considers the information inputs and outputs of each primary stakeholder groupD. Recognizes that there are often communications barriers within organizations which

must be overcome for effective project management.

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. All of the aboveb. A & Bc. A, B & C

Answer: a.

84. The project manager has recognized 5 stakeholder groups (besides himself) to be included in the communications plan. This represents how many communications channels.a. 5b. 6c. 15d. 25

Answer: c. The number of communications channels is calculated by the formula n *(n-1)/2. In this example that is 6 (because the PM is part of the channel)*5/2=15

85. Methods for communicating to stakeholders should consider:A. LocationB. Available technologyC. Level of detailD. Cultural factors

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. All of the aboveb. Cc. A, B & Cd. A, B & D


Answer: d. Level of detail is a component of the information being communicated, not a method.

86. In determining the use of communications technology, the following factors are to be considered:A. Timeliness required in the information disseminatedB. Accessibility and availability of technology instrumentsC. Staff experienceD. Length of project

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. All of the aboveb. Cc. A, B & Cd. A, B & D

Answer: a.

87. Written plans and reports would be considered:A. A formal communication typeB. A key information typeC. Sent only to senior managementD. Should be available to all team members

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. A.b. B.c. A & Cd. B & D

Answer: a. Written plans and reports are formal types of communication; key information types represent what gets communicated. Distribution of plans and reports are determined by content and need to know as defined in the communications plan.

88. Integration management:A. Is necessary to ensure that all the various elements of the project are coordinatedB. Considers organizational policies for project adherenceC. Utilizes earned value as a technique for management and controla. A b. A & Bc. A & Cd. All the above


Answer: d.

89. The structured approach used to guide the development of the project plan is called:a. Project planning methodologyb. Project Management Information System (PMIS) c. Earned value managementd. Project objective

Answer: a.

90. A properly prepared project plan includes:A. All subsidiary management plansB. A complete WBS down to the work package levelC. All plans except the facilitating plans which are included as supporting detailD. Unresolved issues

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. All of the aboveb. A, B & Cc. A & D

Answer: d. Facilitating plans are considered subsidiary management plans and would be included. In the project plan, the WBS is only defined to the control level at which the baseline scope is established. Unresolved (open) issues and pending decisions are included in the project plan. As these are resolved, any resultant change is handled through the change management process.

91. The project team has completed the project plan except for not having identified the dates for the major milestones. The project manager wants to include this as an unresolved issue and continue to publish the plan. Is this an acceptable management practice?

a. Yesb. No

Answer: b. Major milestone dates are required to establish the baseline. If these dates are missing, that indicates that lower level planning has not been sufficiently completed as these activities roll up to higher level milestones, meaning that the project plan is missing key elements and detail. The iterative method of the rolling wave approach adds detail throughout the project but still requires a base understanding of the milestones and expected durations for achieving them.

92. Scope planning:A. Is the process of progressively elaborating and documenting the project work that

produces the productB. Establishes the basis for future project decisions and actionsC. Includes success criteria for project/phase completionD. Uses the scope statement as a guide


Which of the following is the correct answer?a. All the aboveb. A, B & Dc. A, B & Cd. B, C & D

Answer: c. The scope statement is an output of scope planning.

93. As an output of scope planning, the scope management plan :A. Includes the scope statementB. Identifies potential scope changesC. Addresses the change management process along with approval and authority levelsD. Includes the expected stability of the project scope

Which of the following is the correct answer?

a. All of the aboveb. A, B & Cc. A & Cd. B, C & D

Answer d. The scope statement is also an output of scope planning. The other choices are part of the scope management plan.

Task Duration

Depends on

A 2B 3 AC 4 AD 5 BE 2 C, DF 1 E

Refer to the table above for questions 92 through 97

94. In the above schedule table, the shortest duration for completing this project is:a. 8b. 12c. 13d. 17


Answer: c. The longest path (A->B->D->E->F) creates the shortest amount of time the project can be completed.

95. B, C, & D are considered to be parallel activities.a. Trueb. False, because their durations are not the samec. False, because D cannot begin until B completes

Answer: c. Sequences, not durations, of activities indicate whether activities are parallel or not. In this example, both components of B and D will execute in parallel to C should they be worked as planned but are not required to be in parallel to each other.

96. Total slack for activity C is:a. 1b. 4c. 6d. None of the above

Answer: b. B & C are parallel activities which begin after A. They both are in the path leading to activity E. The progression of activities leading to E are A->C (duration 2+4=6) and A->B->D (total duration 2, 3 & 5= 10). The A-> sequence can slip 4 days before affecting the commencement of activity E.

97. The project team has found a way to reduce activities A & C by one day each. The impact is:

A. There is no impact as the critical path sequence has not changed.B. The non-critical path has acquired one additional day of floatC. The non-critical path has acquired two additional days of floatD. The overall duration has decreased by one day

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. A & Cb. B & Dc. B & Cd. All of the above

Answer: b. The shortened duration of C gives it and its successors (up to task E) an additional day of float and the reduction to A shortens the critical path by one day as it is part of the critical path.

98. Should B complete a day sooner:A. There is now a dual critical path B. The project will complete a day soonerC. The non-critical path has lost a day of floatD. D can slip a day without affecting the projected completion date



a. Ab. A & B c. B & Cd. D

Answer: c. A dual critical path will exist when the overall float of 4 days is consumed via time savings on the critical path and/or slippages to the non-critical activities. The projected completion date is now 12 vs. the previous 13 so a slippage in D could affect this date. 13 may have been set as the baseline duration and would be changed via change control.

99. In decomposing the scope,A. The level of detail is confirmed as being adequate for estimating cost and durationB. The sub elements are tied to measurable criteriaC. More work is required of the project team D. Higher level elements remain unchanged

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. All of the aboveb. A, B & Dc. A, B & Cd. A & D

Answer: c. A result of scope decomposition is to identify the higher level elements or confirm they are correct; therefore, they could change as a result of this effort. To properly decompose the work to lower levels does require more work of the team upfront. By having measurable criteria for the sub elements, it may become necessary to modify higher level elements through change control.

100. Project plan execution is the primary purpose of Integration Management. Which is not a tool or technique in this process?

a. Preventative actionb. General management skillsc. Product knowledged. The PMIS

Answer: a. Preventative action is an input to this process.

101. In Maslow’s Hierarchy, social needs are which level?a. There isn’t such a levelb. The second level upc. The third level upd. The fourth level up

Answer: c. In ascending order, they are physiological, safety, social, esteem and self-actualization.


102. The formal procedure for sanctioning work at the right time utilizing the right resources in the right sequence is called:

a. The code of accountsb. The work authorization systemc. The chart of accountsd. The PMIS

Answer: b. The work authorization system is part of the PMIS and the other terms refer to ways of collecting/reporting progress after it’s begun.

103. As the project manager for building the plant for a company product, you learn offhand that the product development team has modified the product to be produced. You :

a. Confirm it and how much the product is changing b. Immediately institute the change management processc. If a., then b.d. If the change is minor, formally inform the product development team to be better

communicators in the future

Answer: c. Any change should be formally addressed and documented with all relevant stakeholders. As a result, the performance measurement baseline may need modifying. Otherwise, the project archives would then show that, at the time, there was no recognized impact to the project.

104. As part of the project records that are recognized as legitimate include:A. Call back slipsB. The project manager’s daily journalC. Sticky notesD. None mentioned here; all need to be formal communications to be legitimate

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. A & Bb. B onlyc. A, B & Cd. D

Answer: c. Informal communications can be legitimate if consistently and persistently maintained.

105. The process that measures project performance, identifies variances and initiates corrective actions is called:

a. Planningb. Executingc. Controllingd. Closing

Answer: c.


106. Tools and techniques used in integrated change control include all except:a. Configuration managementb. The PMISc. Additional planningd. Corrective action

Answer: d. Corrective action is an output of integrated change control. The others are tools and techniques.

107. The regular monitoring and measurement of progress:A. Helps ensure project objectives are satisfiedB. Allows for more timely corrective actionsC. Can be waived for non-critical tasksD. Is by nature reactive

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. All of the aboveb. A & Bc. A, B & Cd. A, B & D

Answer: b. Regular monitoring and measurement of non-critical tasks help assure they do not become critical. This process also allows for recognition and correction of trends to keep activities in line with objectives and is, therefore, proactive.

108.Performance reporting is a sub-level to:a. Information distributionb. Communication managementc. Executiond. Integrated change control

Answer: b. Performance reporting and information management are both sub-levels to communications management. Performance reporting as the communications process within performance measurement is a tool and technique for integrated change control.

109. Forecasting is considered part of performance reporting.a. Trueb. False

Answer: a. Status reporting, progress reporting and forecasting are included in performance reporting. Performance reporting also includes the dissemination of this information to stakeholders according to the communications plan.

110. When team members/stakeholders assess project status and progress, it is known as:a. Performance reviewsb. Variance analysisc. Trend analysis


d. Earned value analysis

Answer: a. Variance analysis is comparing actual results to expected or planned results. Trend analysis evaluates project results over time to identify improvements or deterioration of performance. Earned value analysis takes an integrated approach to scope, cost and schedule for a quantitative perspective of performance.

111.Earned value:A. Is also referred to as budgeted cost of work performed (BCWP)B. Is the actual work completedC. The sum of the approved estimates for the activities completed within a specified time

periodD. The physical work scheduled plus the budget to accomplish that work

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. Db. A & Bc. Cd. A, B & CAnswer: d. Planned value (PV) or budgeted cost of work scheduled (BCWS) is the physical work scheduled plus the budget to accomplish that work.

112. A project manager uses earned value to:A. Compare actual performance against a baselineB. Indicate the ongoing performance or health of the projectC. Predict final cost and scheduleD. Identify trends for proactive intervention where necessary

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. All of the aboveb. Ac. A & Bd. A & C

Answer: a.

113. Planned Value (PV):A. Is always time phasedB. Quantifies scope in terms of dollarsC. Quantifies scope in terms of timeD. Is best depicted in graphic format

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. Bb. Cc. B, C & D


d. A, B & C

Answer: d. There is no right or wrong presentation format; it is best determined by considering the needs or preferences of the recipients of the information.

114. Using fixed formulas for calculating earned value is an acceptable method.a. Trueb. False

Answer: a. Typical formulas include 0/100, 25/75, and 50/50.

115. Using weighted milestones in earned value calculation:A. Allows higher values to be placed on more difficult or critical subtasksB. Is not a good method compared to other methods availableC. Should have stakeholder concurrence on the weightingD. Is best used when tasks have a direct relationship to other tasks

a. Ab. Bc. A & Cd. D

Answer: c. D is the definition of apportioned relationships which would not lend itself to weighted milestones. When using weighted milestones, all stakeholders should agree to the weights beforehand to eliminate possible controversy later on with reported progress.

116. Level of Effort (LOE):A. Is good for repetitive tasksB. May be more appropriately placed in overheadC. Is used for tasks with no measurable outputD. Computes earned value as a percent of a base task or set of base tasks

a. A & Cb. C & Dc. B & Cd. All of the above

Answer: c. Choice A. is usually best served by using equivalent completed units (ECU). D. is how EV is computed for apportioned relationships. Since EV is always equal to planned value (PV) in LOE tasks, there is no inherent value to ‘reporting’ these tasks as having performance indices of 1.

117. If a project’s monthly costs follow a normal distribution over the life of the project, the resultant cumulative cost graph would be:a. A flat line graph of the averagesb. A bell curvec. An S curve


d. A straight 45 degree angle line graph

Answer: c. A normal distribution of monthly costs would be a bell curve which would equate to an S curve of cumulative costs. If monthly costs were all equal, the graph would be a 45 degree line graph.

The following example is for the questions 117-120:

A project has actual costs of $112. Planned value to date is $130. Earned value is $102. Total budget is $150.

118. Using CPI to compute Estimate at Completion (EAC), the EAC would be:a. 150b. 165c. 174d. 242

Answer: b. Using this method of forecasting, the formula is EAC = ACWP + (BAC-BCWP)/CPI. 165= 112 + (150-102)/(102/112). This assumes the rest of the project will perform no better and no worse than the project has to date. Choice c is using the SPI method {EAC=ACWP+(BAC-BCWP)/SPI. SPI is EV/PV. Choice a ignores CPI and assumes the budget will be met even in spite of evidence to the contrary. Choice d is the sum of ACWP and PV which isn’t a forecasting method.

119. For the project to complete within budget, what would the remaining CPI have to be?a. 1.10b. 1.17c. 1.26d. 1.65

Answer: c. 150= 112+ (150-102)/1.26. Though not entirely impossible, this is highly improbable as it represents a 39% performance improvement (1.26/.91) over the remaining third of the project ([150-102]/150).

120. Using the cumulative CPI and SPI method, the EAC would be:a. 165b. 178c. 180d. 242

Answer: c. EAC= ACWP + (BAC-BCWP)/CPI*SPI.[180=(150-102)/(.91*(102/130)).

121. Ignoring ACWP and using only the SPI, the EAC would be:a. 174b. 178c. 211d. 242


Answer: c. EAC= BAC/SPI or 211= 150/.71. See 118 above for a. Choice b is invalid as it is the sum of BAC and the schedule variance to date. Choice d is the sum of PV and ACWP which is not a valid forecasting method.

122. A project has a CPI of 1.1 and an SPI of .91. The project manger reports he will meet budget. Is this a reasonable forecast?

a. Yesb. Noc. Cannot tell from the information given

Answer: a. Using the cumulative CPI and SPI method, the divisor (CPI*SPI) would be 1.1*.91, equaling 1. An EAC = BAC/1 would be equal to the BAC. Since the CPI already factors in actual cost performance to date, this is reasonable.

123. When should a project reforecast using bottoms up estimating for remaining work?a. When variances exceed 10%b. When variances exceed 20%c. Only if remaining work is equal to or greater than 50% and the variance exceeds 20%.d. It depends

Answer: d. Depending on the project’s tolerance for risk, it could be any threshold. However, it is good practice to define these thresholds upfront in the various management plans.

124. Which of the following is not included in the performance measurement baseline (PMB)?a. The WBSb. The detailed budgetc. The schedule baselined. The procurement baseline

Answer: d. The other choices and the quality baseline are all part of the PMB.

125. Configuration management:A. Tracks detailed information about system features and characteristicsB. Is only relevant to information technology projectsC. Is key to acceptance testingD. Reports changes to item features and characteristics

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. All of the aboveb. A & Dc. A, B & Dd. A, C & D

Answer: d. Configuration management is typically used in IT efforts but not exclusively. It can be used for administrative controls such as procedures or for any deliverable. Since it documents the detailed information (both physical and functional) about a deliverable,


configuration management allows the testing team to track each requirement through acceptance testing. Configuration management also includes the reporting of changes to the product/deliverable when recognized.

126. Configuration management includes an audit function to assure compliance.a. Trueb. False. The audit function is part of quality management.

Answer: a. Configuration management covers the documentation of system characteristics, the auditing of them and the reporting of changes. In quality management, quality planning identifies the quality standards relevant to the project and how to satisfy them; quality assurance evaluates overall project performance and quality control monitors specific project results.

127. The formal acceptance of the project scope by the stakeholders is called:a. Scope acceptanceb. Scope initiationc. Scope verificationd. Scope approval

Answer: c.

128. Product reviews:A. Are used to determine conformance to requirementsB. Are also known as walk-throughs and inspectionC. Is an input to scope verificationD. Requires formal acceptance

Which of the following is the correct answer:

a. A & Bb. A & Cc. A, B & Cd. A, B & D

Answer: d. Product reviews, also known as inspection, audit and walk-throughs, is a tool and technique of scope verification. There may or not be formal acceptance at these stages.

129. The synchronization and coordination of product changes with scope changes:A. Becomes integrated with change control to assure baselines are maintained

appropriatelyB. May require changes to contractsC. Keeps project deliverables in line with product specificationsD. Is done at the beginning and end of the project

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. A & C


b. A & Dc. A, B & Cd. A, B & D

Answer: c.

130. Corrective action is a tool and technique of scope change control.a. Trueb. False

Answer: b. Corrective action is an output of scope change control.

131. Lessons learned is the formal evaluation of project successes and failures conducted during project closure.a. Trueb. False

Answer: b. Lessons learned can and should be conducted throughout the project lifecycle. An output of change control, it documents the causes of variances and the history of actions leading to those successes and failures. NOTE: Evaluation of successes is also part of lessons learned to, hopefully, perpetuate their practice.

132. Changes to baselines:A. Are known as the revised baselineB. Are known as the adjusted baselineC. Are done to assure accurate performance measurementD. Are actions to change project plan execution

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. A & Cb. B & Cc. A, C & Dd. B, C & D

Answer: b. Choice D is the definition of corrective action.

133. Continuous planning and revisions to existing plans:A. Is a tool for change controlB. Integrates performance reporting with scope managementC. Is used when variances exceed their thresholdsD. Evaluates the WBS against current understanding of deliverables

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. All of the aboveb. A, B & Cc. A, C & Dd. A, B & D


Answer: d. Additional planning should be proactive and looking ahead, not just reacting to what has already occurred.

134. The cost account matrix:A. Is also known as the control account matrixB. Relates the project organization to the WBSC. Indicates where expenses and time should be chargedD. Ties responsibility to scope

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. A & Cb. B & Cc. B & Dd. A, B & D

Answer: d. The chart of accounts (C.) is used for reporting time and expenses.

135. Schedule change control:A. Is concerned with controlling slippageB. Determines a schedule change has occurredC. Needs clearly defined requirements to be effectiveD. Is an input to lessons learned

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. All of the aboveb. B & Cc. A, B & Dd. B, C & D

Answer: a.

136. In schedule change control, change requests :a. Are an inputb. Are an output

Answer: a. Change requests are inputs and approved modifications are outputs.

137. The project manager reports to the executive sponsor that the project SPI is .78 and the SV is + 110, concluding the project is on track. The executive sponsor should:a. Agree with this assessment as he uses these indicators as snapshots of project healthb. Should compare these to the agreed upon thresholds to determine if more information is

necessary.c. Should ask for a detailed performance audit

Answer: c. A schedule performance index (SPI) [EV/PV] less than 1.0 indicates the project is behind schedule and a schedule variance (SV) [EV-PV] above 0 indicates being ahead of


schedule. Since they are products of the same data, the above status report is an impossibility.

138. Fast tracking :A. Is also known as ‘crashing’B. Performs activities in parallel that would normally be done in sequenceC. Uses overtime and expanded work weeks to get ahead of scheduleD. Requires closer coordination between activities to prevent downtime

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. All of the aboveb. B & Dc. B, C & Dd. A & D

Answer: b. “Crashing’ is a form of schedule compression that usually requires additional resources being applied, thereby increasing costs. Fast tracking does not necessarily mean overtime and expanded work schedules but, since these activities are usually performed sequentially (B), closer coordination is required to eliminate waiting or downtime in one activity while another completes.

139. Cost control:A. Monitors cost performance to identify variances from planB. Includes the accurate recording of changes to the baselineC. Assures unauthorized changes do not become part of the cost baselineD. Includes communicating authorized changes to stakeholders

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. A & Bb. A, B & Dc. A, B & Cd. All of the above

Answer: d.

140. Earned value management:A. Is used to update budgets and revise cost estimatesB. Can result in a change requestC. Is a tool and technique in the cost control processD. Is used in evaluating EAC

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. A, B & Cb. A, C & Dc. A & Cd. All of the above


Answer: b. Change requests are inputs to earned value management.

141. A project manager has his team re-baseline with each month’s performance report.a. This is good management practice as it keeps the team in the here and now of what’s

going onb. This indicates either poor scope management or needless effortc. Is only good or bad based upon the requirements in the scope management pland. As a re-baseline, there should also be an attendant approved change request

Answer: b. Re-baselining occurs upon an approved change which could make d. a possible answer. However, if there is a requirement to re-baseline monthly based upon recognized changes to scope, this would indicate poor scope management. If there are no changes to scope, this constitutes wasted effort on the part of the team and also minimizes the value of variance analysis since the cumulative variances are erased with each re-baseline.

142. Rework:A. Occurs because of defective workmanshipB. Is an action to bring defective items into compliance with requirementsC. Indicates poor supervision and managementD. Is the corrective action resulting from quality control measurement

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. All of the aboveb. Bc. A & Bd. A, B & C

Answer: b. Rework can become necessary due to defective materials of which the workers and their supervision may not be aware at the time. D. is the definition of process adjustment.

143. The executive sponsor has asked that the project manager present quality issues to him in a Pareto diagram. To do this, the project manager will need to:A. Identify these issues by cause and by the number of occurrences B. Identify the significant causes for displayC. Order them by frequency of occurrenceD. Have access to a CAD program to produce the diagrams

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. A, B & Cb. A & Cc. B, C & Dd. All of the above

Answer: a. Manual charting or the charting function of a spreadsheet program are sufficient. A CAD program would not lend itself to this activity.


144. The QA analyst tells the project manager that a certain range of values represents 75% of the range for all the possible outcomes. This means:

a. They all fall within 1 standard deviation from the meanb. They all fall within 2 standard deviations from the meanc. They do not account for the top 25 % of possible outcomesd. From the information given, one cannot tell what it means

Answer: b. One standard deviation from the mean is 68.27% within the range and 2 standard deviations are 95% within the range, putting 75% between the two. Standard deviation ranges are from the mean, not the lowest or highest possible value or outcome.

145. Six Sigma as defined by Motorola is:a. 6 defects per billionb. 2 defects per millionc. 4.5 defects per billiond. 3.4 defects per million

Answer: d. 3.4 defects per million is the Motorola definition and is generally accepted as the standard within quality organizations. True six sigma is 2 defects per billion.

146. The Pareto principle:a. States that if seven or more observations in a row occur on the same side of the mean,

they should be investigated for a probable cause.b. States that there are variations inherent to a processc. States that 80% of the benefit comes from 20% of the work and that focus should be on

the top defect causes.d. Specifies a range of acceptable variation.

Answer: c. Answer a. is the rule of seven; b. defines random causes and d. is the definition of tolerance.

147. Failure mode effects and criticality analysis is used to:A. Assign risk prioritiesB. Analyze design reliability in new productsC. Defines potential failure points in each component of a product.D. Defines the criticality of a failure point and the probability of detection

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. All of the aboveb. A, C & Dc. A & Dd. B,C & D

Answer: a.

148.The following are all tools and techniques in risk monitoring and control except:a. Risk response plan


b. Risk response auditsc. Earned value analysisd. Technical performance measurement

Answer: a. The risk response plan is an input.

149. A workaround plan:a. Is a response to planned or unplanned risksb. Is an unplanned response to riskc. Is a change that occurs due to risk events or responsesd. Is used when the workspace is congested and allowances have to be made for work

teams to get their jobs done.

Answer: b. Answer a. is corrective action; c. is a project change request and d. is nonsense.

150. Performance reporting is part of:a. Executionb. Communications managementc. Status reportingd. Work results

Answer: b. Status reporting is a subset of performance reporting and work results are inputs to performance reporting.

151. Earned value uses all of the below except:a. Budgeted cost of work scheduledb. Trend analysisc. Actual cost of work performedd. Budgeted cost of work performed

Answer: d.

152. The integrated baseline review establishes schedule mileposts, and, at the completion of each one, compares the work completed against the cumulative actual costs to the budgeted cost of work scheduled.a. Trueb. False

Answer: a.

153. Inputs to scope verification include all the following except:a. Work resultsb. Product documentationc. The WBSd. Inspection

Answer: d. Inspection is a tool and technique. The other choices plus the scope statement and the project plan constitute inputs. Formal acceptance is an output.


154. Schedule change control can occur without their being an impact to scope or cost.a. Trueb. False

Answer: a. True

155. The purpose of cost change control is:A. To monitor cost performance to detect variances from the approved planB. To ensure all changes are captured accurately in the cost baselineC. To prevent unauthorized changes from being included in the cost baselineD. To assure all appropriate stakeholders are informed of authorized changes

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. All of the aboveb. Bc. A, B & Cd. B & C

Answer: a.

156.As the project’s quality control inspector, you would:A. Measure levels of performance against predetermined standardsB. Be involved in measuring, examining and testingC. Be very active in seeking ways to improve performanceD. Develop a plan for the various points in the project where you would perform reviews, audits and walkthroughs

Which of the following is the correct answer?a. All of the aboveb. Bc. A, B & Cd. A, B & D

Answer: d. The QC inspector measures against predetermined standards. He does not work to change standards as a project progresses. If a necessary change is identified, it is up to the product team to define the new standards.

157. The mathematical formulas which relate values within a population to their probability of occurrence is known as:

a. A probability distributionb. A normal distributionc. Statistical samplingd. A control chart

Answer: a.


158. A control chart is used to plot variable data against upper and lower control limits.a. Trueb. False

Answer: a.

159. The value of statistical sampling is:a. It allows one to cover all possible outcomesb. It does not require 100% inspectionc. It makes for easier diagrammingd. It identifies special causes vs. random causes

Answer: b.

160. In project close-out, the largest source of conflict is:a. Scheduleb. Technical issuesc. Resourcesd. Cost

Answer: a. All can be issues with resources being re-assigned, etc.

161. Ending a contract without successful performance or breach is called mutual agreement.a. Trueb. False

Answer: b. This is the definition of early termination. Mutual agreement is when both parties release each other from any obligation without full successful performance. Other key definitions are: breach of contract where the contract is terminated because of one party’s failure to perform; liquidated damages are an agreed upon amount that a seller would pay a buyer should the seller not meet performance requirements; payment bonds are insurance that a seller will pay for all materials, labor and subcontractors used in the performance of its work; and performance bonds are those a seller purchases to assure he performs to the terms and conditions of his contract.

162. Administrative closure:A. Verifies and documents project resultsB. Formalizes product acceptance by designated stakeholdersC. Is a subset of communications managementD. Has as its output project documentation, lessons learned, and project archives



a. All of the aboveb. A & Bc. A, B & Cd. A, C & D

Answer: c. Lessons learned and project archives are outputs of administrative closure and project documentation is an input.


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PMP assessment exam 1.1

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