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PMP Mock Questions

Subject: Length Mock Test 04 - (200 questions)

No of Questions: 200

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Question - 1

A document or tool which describes when and how human resources will be brought onto and taken off the project team is called a:A. Staffing Management PlanB. Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)C. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)D. Resource Assignment Chart

Answer :A is the correct answer.

No Expl 0

Question - 2

A tool which links the project roles and responsibilities to the project Define Scope is calledA. Define Scope MatrixB. Responsibility Assignment MatrixC. Roles Assignment MatrixD. Project Scope and Roles Matrix

Answer :B is the correct answer.

No Expl 1

Question - 3

Which of the following is not a process of Project Communications ManagementA. Administrative Closure

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B. Report PerformanceC. Distribute InformationD. Conflict Resolution

Answer :D is the correct answer.

No Expl 2

Question - 4

Which of the following is output of the Plan Communications process ?A. Project recordsB. Communications management planC. Performance reportsD. Formal acceptance


Communications management plan and Project document updates are output of Plan Communications process.

Question - 5

The receiver filters messages based on all but the followingA. CultureB. SemanticsC. LanguageD. Distance


No Expl 4

Question - 6

How much time does the typical project manager spend communicating both formally and informallyA. 40-60%B. 50-70%C. 60-80%D. 75-90%


No Expl 5

Question - 7

In communications management, to assimilate through the mind or senses is the process ofA. ReceivingB. DecodingC. ComprehendingD. Understanding


No Expl 6

Question - 8

The sending or conveying of information from one place to another is the process ofA. NetworkingB. TransmittingC. EncryptingD. Promoting


No Expl 7

Question - 9

Group brainstorming encourages all of the following exceptA. Team buildingB. Analysis of alternativesC. Convergent thinkingD. Uninhibited verbalization

Answer :C is the correct answer.

No Expl 8

Question - 10

The three major types of communication areA. Written, verbal, and non-verbal.B. Verbal, formal documentation, informal documentation.C. Verbal, written, and graphicD. Verbal, written, and electronic


No Expl 9

Question - 11

All of the following are outputs from Report Performance EXCEPTA. Trend analysisB. "S" curves, histograms, bar charts, and tablesC. Performance reportsD. Change requests


Trend analysis is a tool and technique used in Monitor and Control Risks.

Question - 12

All of the following aid in achieving consensus EXCEPTA. Maintaining a focus on the problem, not each other.B. Avoiding conflict.C. Seeking facts.D. Avoiding voting, trading, or averaging.


No Expl 11

Question - 13

All of the following are communication tools EXCEPTA. MemosB. Verbal circulation of a rumourC. VideosD. Inputting data into a spreadsheet


No Expl 12

Question - 14

Communication is the PRIME responsibility of a ProjectA. Manager in a weak matrixB. Manager in a projectized environmentC. CoordinatorD. Expeditor


No Expl 13

Question - 15

A tight matrix isA. A balanced matrix organization.B. Where all team members are brought together in one location.C. Where functional managers operate in a dual reporting structure reporting to both their own departments and to the project manager.D. a and c


No Expl 14

Question - 16

The sender is responsible forA. Confirming the message is understoodB. Ensuring the receiver agrees with the message.

C. Scheduling communication exchange.D. Presenting the message in the most agreeable manner.


No Expl 15

Question - 17

What are the four parts of the communications modelA. Sending, Receiving, Decoding, and ComprehendingB. Sender, Message, Medium, ReceiverC. Communicator, Message, Receiver, DecoderD. Communicating, Transmitting, Receiving, Comprehending


No Expl 16

Question - 18

A leadership style in which the project manager shares problems with team members and formulates solutions as a group is calledA. AutocraticB. Consultation in a groupC. ConsensusD. One-to-one consultation


No Expl 17

Question - 19

A type of organization in which the project manager has little formal authority and basically acts as a staff assistant to an executive who is ultimately responsible for the project is calledA. FunctionalB. Weak matrixC. Project coordinatorD. Project expediter


No Expl 18

Question - 20

Formal acceptance by the client or sponsor of the project should be prepared and distributed during which processA. Distribute InformationB. Administrative CloseoutC. Organizational PlanningD. Report Performance


No Expl 19

Question - 21

In which of the following organizations is the project manager role likely to be part-timeA. Weak matrixB. FunctionalC. Balanced matrixD. a and b


No Expl 20

Question - 22

Project Risk Management includes all of the following processes exceptA. Risk QuantificationB. Identify RisksC. Risk AnalysisD. Risk Response Development


No Expl 21

Question - 23

Using the PMBOK definition of contingency reserve, which of the following statements about contingency reserves is falseA. A contingency reserve is a separately planned quantity used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part.B. Contingency reserves may be set aside for known unknowns.C. Contingency reserves may be set aside for unknown unknowns.D. Contingency reserves are normally included in the project's cost and schedule baselines.


No Expl 22

Question - 24

Which of the following is not a tool or technique used during the Risk Quantification ProcessA. Expected monetary valueB. Contingency planningC. Decision TreesD. Statistical sums


No Expl 23

Question - 25

Which of the following is true about pure riskA. The risk can be deflected or transferred to another party through a contract or insurance policy.B. Pure risks involve the chance of both a profit and a loss.C. No opportunities are associated with pure risk, only losses.D. a and c


No Expl 24

Question - 26

A contingency plan isA. A planned response that defines the steps to be taken if an identified risk event should occur.B. A workaroundC. A reserve used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part.D. a and c


No Expl 25

Question - 27

The normal risk of doing business that carries opportunities for both gain and loss is calledA. favourable riskB. opportunity riskC. pure riskD. business risk


No Expl 26

Question - 28

A risk response which involves eliminating a threat is calledA. MitigationB. DeflectionC. AvoidanceD. Transfer


No Expl 27

Question - 29

Deflection or transfer of a risk to another party is part of which of the following risk response categoriesA. MitigationB. AcceptanceC. AvoidanceD. Analysis


No Expl 28

Question - 30

When should Identify Risks be performedA. During Concept PhaseB. During Development PhaseC. During Implementation PhaseD. Identify Risks should be performed on a regular basis throughout the project.


No Expl 29

Question - 31

Which of the following statements is falseA. Uncertainty and risk are greatest at the start of the project and lowest at the endB. The amount at stake is lowest at the end of the project and greatest at the start.C. Expected monetary value can be expressed as the product of the risk event probability and the risk event value.D. Opportunities are positive outcomes of risk.


No Expl 30

Question - 32

A contingency plan is executed whenA. A risk is identifiedB. An identified risk occurs.C. When a workaround is neededD. All of the above


No Expl 31

Question - 33

Management reserves are used to handle which type of riskA. Unknown unknownsB. Known unknownsC. business risksD. pure risks


No Expl 32

Question - 34

Which of the following techniques accounts for path convergence and generally estimates project durations more accuratelyA. CPMB. PERTC. Schedule simulationD. Path convergence method


No Expl 33

Question - 35

Most schedule simulations are based on some form of which of the followingA. DelphiB. PERT

C. CPMD. Monte Carlo Analysis


No Expl 34

Question - 36

When should a risk be avoidedA. When the risk event has a low probability of occurrence and low impact.B. When the risk event is unacceptable - generally one with a very high probability of occurrence and high impact.C. When it can be transferred by purchasing insurance.D. A risk event can never be avoided


No Expl 35

Question - 37

If a project has an 80% chance of having the scope defined by a certain date and a 70% chance of obtaining approval for the scope by a certain date, what is the probability of both events occurringA. 75%B. 65%C. 50%D. 56%


No Expl 36

Question - 38

The independence of two events in which the occurrence of one is not related to the occurrence of the other is calledA. event phenomenonB. independent probabilityC. statistical independence

D. statistical probability


No Expl 37

Question - 39

The one document that should always be used to help identify risk is theA. Risk Management PlanB. WBSC. Scope StatementD. Project Charter


No Expl 38

Question - 40

Risks are accepted whenA. You develop a contingency plan to execute should the risk event occur.B. You accept the consequences of the risk.C. You transfer the risk to another party.D. a and b


No Expl 39

Question - 41

An example of risk mitigation isA. Using proven technology in the development of a product to lessen the probability that the product will not workB. Purchasing insuranceC. Eliminating the cause of a riskD. a and b


No Expl 40

Question - 42

A unilateral contract under which the seller is paid a preset amount per unit of service is calledA. A cost reimbursable contractB. A lump sum contractC. A unit price contractD. A fixed price contract


No Expl 41

Question - 43

Which of the following is considered during the Procurement Planning ProcessA. Whether to procureB. How to procure and how much to procureC. What and when to procureD. all of the above


No Expl 42

Question - 44

From a buyer's standpoint, which of the following is trueA. Procurement planning should include consideration of potential subcontractsB. Procurement planning does not include consideration of potential subcontracts since this is the duty of the contractor.C. Subcontractors are first considered during the Solicitation ProcessD. none of the above


No Expl 43

Question - 45

Which of the following processes involves obtaining information (bids and proposals) from prospective sellersA. Procurement PlanningB. Source SelectionC. Contract AdministrationD. Solicitation


No Expl 44

Question - 46

Which of the following is true about procurement documentsA. Procurement documents are used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers.B. Invitation for Bid and Request for Proposal are two examples of procurement documents.C. Procurement documents should be structured to facilitate accurate and complete responses from prospective sellers.D. all of the above


No Expl 45

Question - 47

Which of the following is a method for quantifying qualitative data in order to minimize the effect of personal prejudice on source selectionA. Weighting systemB. Screening systemC. Selecting systemD. none of the above


No Expl 46

Question - 48

Which of the following is true concerning evaluation criteriaA. Can often be found in procurement documentsB. Can be objective or subjectiveC. Used to rate or score proposalsD. all of the above


No Expl 47

Question - 49

Which of the following are inputs to the Source Selection ProcessA. Evaluation criteriaB. Organizational policiesC. Procurement documentsD. a and b


No Expl 48

Question - 50

A significant difference between independent estimates and proposed pricing could mean thatA. The independent estimates are most likely incorrect and the proposed pricing correctB. The SOW was not adequateC. The prospective seller either misunderstood or failed to respond fully to the SOW.D. b or c


No Expl 49

Question - 51

Which of the following are examples of indirect costsA. Salaries of corporate executivesB. Salaries of full-time project staffC. Overhead costsD. a and c


No Expl 0

Question - 52

Which of the following contract types places the greatest risk on the sellerA. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contractB. Cost plus-incentive-fee contractC. Fixed-price-incentive contractD. Firm-fixed-price contract


No Expl 1

Question - 53

In which of the following contract types is the seller's profit limitedA. Cost-plus-percentage-cost contractB. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contractC. Fixed-price-plus-incentiveD. b and c


No Expl 2

Question - 54

A cost-plus-percentage-cost (CPPC) contract has an estimated cost of $120,000 with an agreed profit of 10% of the costs. The actual cost of the project is $130,000. What is the total reimbursement to the sellerA. $143,000

B. $142,000C. $140,000D. $132,000


No Expl 3

Question - 55

A cost-plus-incentive-fee (CPIF) contract has an estimated cost of $150,000 with a predetermined fee of $15,000 and a share ratio of 80/20. The actual costs of the project is $130,000. How much profit does the seller makeA. $31,000B. $19,000C. $15,000D. none of the above


No Expl 4

Question - 56

A fixed-price-plus-incentive-fee (FPI) contract has a target cost of $130,000, a target profit of $15,000, a target price of $145,000, a ceiling price of $160,000, and a share ratio of 80/20. The actual cost of the project was $150,000. How much profit does the seller makeA. $10,000B. $15,000C. $0D. $5,000


No Expl 5

Question - 57

Under what circumstances is it better for a contractor to subcontractA. The subcontractor possesses special technical and engineering skills that the

contractor does not have.B. The work to be subcontracted represents almost all of the overall work effort.C. The subcontractor can perform the work at a lower cost than the contractor.D. a and c


No Expl 6

Question - 58

Which type of bilateral contract is used for high dollar, standard itemsA. Purchase orderB. Request for proposal (RFP)C. Invitation for bid (IFB)D. Request for quotation (RFQ)


No Expl 7

Question - 59

Which of the following are characteristics of a purchase orderA. A bilateral contract used for low dollar itemsB. A unilateral contract used when routine, standard cost items are requireC. A bilateral contract used for high dollar, standard itemsD. a and c


No Expl 8

Question - 60

In which stage of the negotiation meeting are points of concession identifiedA. probingB. closureC. agreementD. scratch bargaining


No Expl 9

Question - 61

Which type of warranty is enacted if a service or product does not meet the level of quality specified in the contractA. Implied warranty of merchantabilityB. Implied warranty of specified qualityC. Express warrantyD. none of the above


No Expl 10

Question - 62

As part of the quality audit, the scope statement is checked against the work results to ensure the conformance to the customer requirements. The results should be documented and used for:A. Estimating future projects.B. Changing the project scope.C. Defining future project tasks.D. Validating the quality process


No Expl 11

Question - 63

The quality team for the project consists of several groups. Which of the following project participants plays the most important role in the quality functionA. CustomerB. Project ManagerC. Project TeamD. Vendors and suppliers


No Expl 12

Question - 64

In order to anticipate your management's approval of the amount of risk you plan to take on with your chosen project approach, you would useA. Probability analysisB. The Delphi methodC. The Monte Carlo methodD. The utility theory


No Expl 13

Question - 65

Collect Requirements is:A. Developing a comprehensive plan based on input from major stakeholders.B. Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions.C. The process, which provides information for planning project milestones.D. Subdividing the project into smaller, more manageable components.


No Expl 14

Question - 66

Completion of the _____________ scope is measured against the plan.A. ProjectB. TechnicalC. ProductD. Baseline


No Expl 15

Question - 67

Project initiation is all of the following except:A. A process of formally recognizing that a new project exists.B. A process of formally recognizing that an existing project should continue into its next phase.C. It links the project to the ongoing work of the performing organization.D. Its inputs are product description, strategic plan, constraints, and assumptions


No Expl 16

Question - 68

Decision models used in project initiation includeA. Comparative approaches and scoring modelsB. Koenig analysisC. Sales projectionsD. Iterative risk sensitivity analysis


No Expl 17

Question - 69

A work breakdown structure is aA. Result of the Collect Requirements processB. Deliverable oriented grouping of project elements that organizes and defines the total scope of the projectC. Structure that can be used to track the project's time, cost, and quality performance against a defined baselineD. Valuable communications tool, but cannot be used to establish the number of required networks for Control Costs.


No Expl 18

Question - 70

The items at the lowest level of the WBS are calledA. Code of accountsB. SubtasksC. Work packagesD. Nodes


No Expl 19

Question - 71

All of the following statements about the project charter are correct exceptA. It is often an internal legal documentB. It identifies the project manager's authority and responsibilityC. It identifies management and/or customer approved scope of the projectD. It usually does not identify cost and time estimates


No Expl 20

Question - 72

Maintenance shouldA. Be considered part of the project life cycle because it is part of the total life cycle costing needed to do benefit/cost analysis in Collect RequirementsB. Should be part of the work breakdown structure to give the total scope of the required activities and effortC. Not be considered as a part of the project life cycleD. Be managed carefully because it is often a source of scope creep


No Expl 21

Question - 73

Projects are typically authorized as a result of any of the following exceptA. Market demandB. Successful RFP biddingC. Regulatory requirementD. Technological advance


No Expl 22

Question - 74

The major project scope management processes includeA. Change order controlB. InitiationC. Program evaluationD. Scope validation


No Expl 23

Question - 75

The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions isA. Product scopeB. Staffing scopeC. The projectD. Project scope


No Expl 24

Question - 76

The ___________ documents the characteristics of the product or service that the project was undertaken to create.A. Project charter

B. Scope statementC. Product descriptionD. Technical article


No Expl 25

Question - 77

An input to the Control Scope process is:A. Work resultsB. Work Performance informationC. Customer requirementsD. Product defects


Work Performance information is input of Control Scope.

Question - 78

The project manager should be assigned ___________ as an output from the Initiation processA. Once a budget has been approvedB. As early in the project as is feasibleC. After the stakeholders have approved the assignmentD. As soon as the project plan is ready to be executed


No Expl 27

Question - 79

Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions is calledA. Product analysisB. Define ScopeC. Project developmentD. Collect Requirements


No Expl 28

Question - 80

Techniques for conducting product analysis includeA. Technical benefit analysisB. Value engineeringC. Expert judgmentD. Alternatives identification


No Expl 29

Question - 81

Collect Requirements includes alternatives identification, which can be conducted by the common technique ofA. Lateral thinkingB. Value engineeringC. Cost/benefit analysisD. Constraints analysis


No Expl 30

Question - 82

A scope management plan describesA. An assessment of the stability of the stakeholder environmentB. A highly detailed approach to managing the work breakdown structure scopeC. How the project scope will be managed and how scope changes will be integrated into the projectD. The stakeholder's expectation on how changes will be identified and by what priority they will be addressed


No Expl 31

Question - 83

Decomposition isA. What happens when changes to the project scope are ignoreB. Subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components.C. Defining a general product description into more discrete definitions of individual componentsD. Subdividing the project into logical divisions of effort aligned within the performing organization's functional areas


No Expl 32

Question - 84

A project management professional can compare earned value performance data to all of the following project management tools EXCEPTA. Critical path analysis.B. Technical performance metrics.C. Risk mitigation plans.D. Forecasted final costs and schedule estimates.


No Expl 33

Question - 85

You are the controller on your project. Your project manager has requested that you provide him with a forecast of project costs for the next 12 months. He needs this information to determine if the budget should be increased or decreased on this major construction project. In addition to the usual information sources, which of the following should you also considerA. Cost estimates from similar projectsB. The WBS

C. Long-range weather forecastsD. Existing change requests


No Expl 34

Question - 86

The party that needs the change resulting from the project, and who will be its custodian on completion is theA. OwnerB. SponsorC. CustomerD. Client


No Expl 35

Question - 87

The core planning processes includeA. Collect Requirements, Sequence Activities, Plan CommunicationsB. Plan Quality, Plan Communications, risk response developmentC. Define Scope, Estimate Activity Durations, Determine BudgetD. Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Estimate Costs, Plan Quality, plan Risk Responses


No Expl 36

Question - 88

In project communications, the sender is responsible forA. Making the information clear, unambiguous, and complete so that the receiver can receive it correctly.B. Ensuring information conveyed is accurate, clear, and timely so that it is useful to the receiver.C. Making sure that the information is received in its entirety and understood

correctly.D. Identifying the proper choice of media, eliminating communications barriers, and utilizing the appropriate style and tone.


No Expl 37

Question - 89

The seller delivers a fixed price plus incentive fee project at a cost of $90,000. The terms of the contract are a ceiling price of $120,000, a target cost of $ 100,000, a target profit of $10,000, and a target price of $110,000. The share ratio is 70/30. The final price (your total reimbursement) isA. $93,000B. $96,000C. $97,000D. None of the above


No Expl 38

Question - 90

A project is defined asA. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan.B. An endeavour, which is planned, executed, and controlled; performed by people; and constrained by limited resources.C. A temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product or service.D. An objective based effort of temporary nature.


No Expl 39

Question - 91

Project management processes can be organized intoA. Initiating, planning, contracting, executing, and administrationB. Designing, developing, testing, and implementing

C. Initiating, designing, planning, executing, controlling, and implementationD. Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closing


No Expl 40

Question - 92

_____________ involve coordinating people and other resources to carry out the planA. Work breakdown structureB. Resource planningC. Planning processesD. Executing processes


No Expl 41

Question - 93

___________ must be measured regularly to identify variance from the plan.A. Stakeholder requirementsB. Project performanceC. Schedule progressD. Cost and schedule


No Expl 42

Question - 94

The party that needs the change resulting from the project, and who will be its custodian on completion is theA. OwnerB. SponsorC. CustomerD. Client


No Expl 43

Question - 95

During the execution phase, a resource is added to the project team. What effect will this have on the project?A. The effect cannot be determineD. B. The project duration will be shortenedC. A scope change will be requiredD. The quality of the project will be increased


No Expl 0

Question - 96

In order shorten project duration, resources have been added to tasks on the critical path. The plan should then be reviewed for the:A. Lagging time on other paths.B. Emergence of a new critical path.C. Resource assigned to other tasks on the critical path.D. Longest task remaining in the plan.


No Expl 1

Question - 97

The adjustment of task schedules in order to deploy human resource more effectively is called resource _______.A. Tracking.B. Loading.C. Crashing.D. Levelling.


No Expl 2

Question - 98

Work packages are described in the __________.A. Work breakdown structure.B. Work charter.C. Statement of work.D. Work project plan.


No Expl 3

Question - 99

During project lose out, The final task is __________.A. Verify that contractual obligations were met.B. Transfer the deliverables to the client.C. Reassign team member.D. Complete lessons learned records.


No Expl 4

Question - 100

"Cost of quality" is a project management concept that in includes cost of _________.A. Exceeding requirements.B. Changes to the requirementsC. Ensuring conformance to requirements.D. The quality control requirements.


No Expl 5

Question - 101

Ideally, resource leveling should be limited to activities:A. With negative float.B. With zero float.C. On the critical path.D. With positive float.


No Expl 6

Question - 102

Which of the following are not functions of the project kick off meeting.A. Identifying project goals.B. Obtaining commitment.C. Presenting the project cost.D. Introducing the stakeholders.


No Expl 7

Question - 103

The PERT method is MOST used in situations where:A. It is important to know the inter relationships of activities.B. Little is known about the cost estimated related to the project.C. Little experience exists on which to base estimated of activity duration.D. Resource requirements are well define


No Expl 8

Question - 104

Which of the following approaches to quality improvement is LEAST likely to produce positive results?A. Continuous improvement

B. Increased inspectionC. Statistical quality controlD. IS09001 certified process


No Expl 9

Question - 105

During which process group does team motivation, problem resolution, and space verification occur?A. InitiationB. PlanningC. ExecutionD. Close


No Expl 10

Question - 106

You are project manger of an existing project. You have been with your company for several years but not in the area where this project is occurring. A Project Management Plan is in place. The project has not exceeded may baseline change thresholds. The customer is not happy with the status of the project. Which of the following, is the BEST initial action?A. Prepare a corrective action plan.B. Conduct team-building with all stakeholders.C. Verify the customer's needs and expectations.D. None


No Expl 11

Question - 107

Conflict resolution techniques that may be used on a project include:A. Withdrawing, compromising, controlling, and forcing.

B. Controlling forcing smoothing, and withdrawing.C. Confronting, compromising, smoothing and directing.D. Smoothing, confronting, forcing, and withdrawing.


No Expl 12

Question - 108

On a project, quality should generally be of:A. Equal priority with schedule, but higher priority than cost.B. Higher priority than cost and schedule.C. Equal priority with cost, but higher priority than schedule.D. Equal priority with cost and schedule.


No Expl 14

Question - 109

The most effective method in developing a project team within a matrix organization is to follow the:A. communications plan.B. Control Scope plan.C. Staffing management plan.D. Training development plan.


No Expl 15

Question - 110

A service or product's reliability and maintenance characteristics are MOST affected by:A. Function.B. Design.C. Cost.D. Fabrication.


No Expl 16

Question - 111

You are the project manager of a project .The senior executive of your company wants monthly schedule update of your project. Which of the following would you send to the executive?A. Milestone chartB. Time-scaled network diagramC. Arrow activity diagramD. PERT chart


No Expl 17

Question - 112

When closing a project that involved significant procurement, attention must be given to archiving:A. Financial records.B. Inspection specifications.C. Project charter.D. Project reports.


No Expl 18

Question - 113

The principle state that: "Employees who believe that their efforts will lead to effective performance and who anticipate important rewards for their accomplishments become productive stay productive." Illustrates the:A. Expectancy theory.B. Maslow theory.C. Herzberg theory.D. None


No Expl 19

Question - 114

Project Procurement Management includes all of the following EXCEPT:A. Administration.B. Stakeholder analysisC. PlanningD. Solicitation


No Expl 20

Question - 115

The BEST way to organize project activities for scheduling is by the:A. WBS.B. Critical path.C. Task start date.D. Responsible organization.


No Expl 21

Question - 116

In a large, complex project, the authority to accept or reject a requested change should rest with the:A. Lead. B. Client.C. Project manager.D. Change control board.


No Expl 22

Question - 117

Correspondence, contract changes, and payment requests are ___________ of contract administration.A. OutputsB. ToolsC. FunctionsD. Inputs


No Expl 23

Question - 118

Which statement is true about Quality control?A. Monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards.B. Evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis.C. Taking action to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of they project.D. Identifying which quality standards are standards are relevant to the project.


No Expl 24

Question - 119

During the execution of a software project, the vendor proposes an upgrade of a part of project without a change in the schedule or cost. After the change is approved, where would this change BEST be documented?A. Project charterB. Procurement Management planC. Work breakdown structureD. Quality assurance plan


No Expl 25

Question - 120

You are the project manager of a project. The project plan has been developed. A project end date has been established. The customer later requesters additional work to be included in the project, but will not renegotiate the end date. Cost is not a factor. The project team should immediately.A. Invoke the change control process.B. Initiate contingency plans.C. Modify the original project scope to include the additional work.D. Commit to original project scope and open a new project to handle additional work.


No Expl 26

Question - 121

An individual's willingness to take a risk can be determined by:A. Decision tree modelling.B. Monte Carlo method,C. Sensitivity analysis.D. Utility theory.


No Expl 27

Question - 122

You are the project manager of a project. You have to determine the staffing requirements of the project, you need a(n) _______.A. Resource breakdown schedule.B. Responsibility assignment matrix.C. Work breakdown structure.D. Organization chart.


No Expl 28

Question - 123

Which of the following techniques is used to control the project schedule?A. Pareto diagramB. Performance measurementC. Parametric modellingD. Statistical sampling


No Expl 29

Question - 124

The communications management plan is primarily dependent on the ____________.A. Length of the project.B. Physical location of team members.C. Specific needs of the project.D. Project deliverables.


No Expl 30

Question - 125

Technical staffs tend to be particularly responsive to:A. Referent power.B. Formal power.C. Functional power.D. Expert power.


No Expl 31

Question - 126

Determining conformance with scope requirements is called _________.A. Quality Management.B. Quality Assurance.C. Plan Quality.D. Quality Control.


No Expl 32

Question - 127

The person responsible for obtaining funding for a new project's conceptual study is the:A. Project manager.B. President.C. Chief financial officer.D. Project sponsor.


No Expl 33

Question - 128

Which of the following statements concerning bottom-up estimating is true?A. The cost and accuracy of bottom-up estimating is driven by the size of the individual work items.B. Smaller work items increase both cost and accuracy.C. Larger work items increase both cost and accuracy.D. A and B


No Expl 0

Question - 129

Percent complete is calculated by:A. ACWP/BACB. BCWP-ACWP

C. BCWP/BACD. EAC/BAC


No Expl 1

Question - 130

Life cycle costingA. Includes acquisition, operating, and disposal costs when evaluating various alternatives.B. Includes only the cost of the development or acquisition of a product or service.C. Does not take into consideration the effect of project decisions on the cost of using the resulting product.D. B and C


No Expl 2

Question - 131

Analogous estimatingA. Uses bottom-up estimating techniques.B. Uses the actual costs from a previous, similar project.C. Is synonymous with top-down estimating.D. B and C


No Expl 3

Question - 132

Estimated at Completion is determined byA. ETC + ACWPB. BAC - ETCC. BAC/CPID. A and C


No Expl 4

Question - 133

Parametric Estimate Costs involvesA. Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package.B. Using rates and factors based on historical experience to estimate costs.C. Using the actual cost of a similar project to estimate total project costs.D. A and B


No Expl 5

Question - 134

A cost management plan isA. A plan for describing how cost variances will be managed. B. A subsidiary element of the project charter.C. An input to the Estimate Costs process.D. A and C


No Expl 6

Question - 135

Estimate CostsA. Involves developing an estimate of the costs of the resources needed to complete project activities.B. Includes identifying and considering various costing alternatives.C. Involves allocating the overall estimates to individual work items.D. A and C


No Expl 7

Question - 136

Which of the following are inputs belongs to Estimates Activity Resources ?A. Activity ListB. Resource CalendarC. Activity attributesD. All of the above are inputs of Estimates Activity Resources


All of the above are inputs of Estimates Activity Resources.

Question - 137

The process of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards is calledA. Quality AssuranceB. Quality ControlC. Plan QualityD. Quality Review


No Expl 9

Question - 138

The process of monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards is calledA. Quality AssuranceB. Quality ControlC. Plan QualityD. Quality Review


No Expl 10

Question - 139

A histogram ordered by frequency of occurrence that shows how many results were generated by each identified cause isA. Statistical HistogramB. Juran HistogramC. Fishbone DiagramD. Pareto Diagram


No Expl 11

Question - 140

Tools and techniques used during the Plan Quality process includeA. Benefit/cost analysisB. BenchmarkingC. Quality auditsD. a and b


No Expl 12

Question - 141

The overall intentions and direction of an organization with regard to quality as formally expressed by top management is aA. Quality PlanB. Quality StatementC. Quality PolicyD. TQM


No Expl 13

Question - 142

Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in

_______ .A. Plan ProcurementsB. Conduct ProcurementsC. Administer ProcurementsD. Close Procurements


Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in Close Procurements.

Question - 143

___________ is a groups of processes required to purchase or acquire the products, services, or results needed from outside the project team to perform the work.A. Procurement ManagementB. Planning ManagementC. Scope ManagementD. Control Management


Procurement Management is a groups of processes required to to purchase or acquire the products, services, or results needed from outside the project team to perform the work.

Question - 144

CIP isA. Continuous improvement processB. A sustained, gradual changeC. Includes constancy of purpose and commitment to quality as part of its focusD. all of the above


No Expl 14

Question - 145

The practice of ceasing mass inspections and ending awards based on price is credited toA. Edward DemingB. Philip CrosbyC. JuranD. Pareto


No Expl 15

Question - 146

Quality isA. Zero defects foundB. Conformance to requirementsC. The totality of features and characteristics of a product or service that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needsD. b and c


No Expl 16

Question - 147

The concept of making a giant leap forward followed by a period of maturity isA. InnovationB. Continuous improvementC. Just in timeD. Paradigm


No Expl 17

Question - 148

The concept that it is easier and less costly to do the work right the first time is calledA. Zero defects

B. Continuous improvementC. DTRTRTFTD. The customer is the next person in the process


No Expl 18

Question - 149

The ability of a product to be used for different purposes at different capacities and under different conditions determines itsA. UsabilityB. FlexibilityC. OperabilityD. Availability


No Expl 19

Question - 150

Which of the following is not considered a cost of nonconformance to quality?A. ScrapB. ReworkC. ExpeditingD. Process control


No Expl 20

Question - 151

Cost of quality includesA. Cost of all work to build a product or service that conforms to the requirementsB. Training programsC. Cost of all work resulting from nonconformance to the requirementsD. all of the above


No Expl 21

Question - 152

What percentage of sales is estimated to be the cost of non-quality?A. 3-5%B. 12-20%C. 30-40%D. 6-8%


No Expl 22

Question - 153

A series of consecutive points on the same side of the average is calledA. RunB. TrendC. OutliersD. Cycle


No Expl 23

Question - 154

Which of the following statements concerning acceptance sampling is false?A. Used when expensive and time-consuming to test the product 100%.B. The number of allowable defects before lot is rejected is predetermined. C. Inspection and test standards must be established to ensure that procedures can adequately determine conformance and nonconformance.D. All of the above are true


No Expl 24

Question - 155

80% of the problems are found in 20% of the work is a concept ofA. Edward DemingB. Philip CrosbyC. JuranD. Pareto


No Expl 25

Question - 156

A structured tool, usually industry or activity specific, used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed is calledA. Quality PolicyB. Check listC. Trend analysisD. Pareto diagram


No Expl 26

Question - 157

A tool that analyzes the inputs to a process to identify the causes of errors is called:A. Cause and effect diagramB. fishbone diagramC. Ishikawa diagramD. all of the above


Cause and effect diagram also called Ishikawa diagram or fishbone diagram.

Question - 158

The concept of zero inventory is calledA. Six sigmaB. Continuous improvementC. Just in TimeD. Zero defects


No Expl 28

Question - 159

The project manager's leadership style should be matched to the corresponding developmental level of the project team and should move through successive steps in the following orderA. Disciplinary, autocratic, participativeB. Staff planning, team training, performance monitoringC. Team building, team development, responsibility assignmentD. Directing, coaching, supporting, delegating


No Expl 29

Question - 160

Human resource administration is the primary responsibility of theA. Project Management TeamB. Human Resources DepartmentC. Executive ManagerD. Project Manager


No Expl 30

Question - 161

A mandatory prerequisite for team building isA. Funding for staff development activities

B. Shared work ethics among team membersC. Commitment from top level managementD. Removal of troublesome individuals


No Expl 31

Question - 162

Which of the following is best for handling cross-functional project needs for a large, complex project?A. A strong matrix organizationB. A project coordinatorC. A project expeditorD. Direct executive involvement


No Expl 32

Question - 163

Collocation can meanA. All, or almost all, team members are moved to a central physical location for the life of the project.B. Active team members may be at different physical locations, but meet on a regular basis.C. A war room is established where team members can meet periodically.D. a and c


No Expl 33

Question - 164

A key barrier to team development isA. A strong matrix management structure.B. When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets.C. When team members are acountable to both functional and project managers.

D. When formal training plans cannot be implementeD.


No Expl 34

Question - 165

Legitimate power isA. Power derived from a person's formal position in the organization.B. Power bestowed due to a person's personal qualities and abilities.C. Power earned based on a person's technical knowledge, skill, or expertise in a particular area. D. Power to distribute information as one sees fit.


No Expl 35

Question - 166

What impact does a matrix organization have on project team development?A. No impact at allB. It complicates team development.C. It simplifies team development.D. It hinders team development completely.


No Expl 36

Question - 167

Which of the following is not a process of project human resource management?A. Organizational PlanningB. Staff AcquisitionC. Distribute InformationD. Team Development


No Expl 37

Question - 168

A technique for resolving conflict in which the parties agree to have a neutral third party hear the dispute and make a decision is called:A. NegotiationB. ArbitrationC. SmoothingD. Forcing


No Expl 38

Question - 169

Which of the following is not an input into organizational planning?A. Recruitment practicesB. Project interfacesC. Staffing requirementsD. Constraints


No Expl 39

Question - 170

Forcing, as a means to manage conflictA. Exerts one's view at the potential expense of another party.B. Emphasizes areas of agreement while avoiding points of disagreement.C. Establishes a lose-lose situation.D. a and c


No Expl 40

Question - 171

When should the project expeditor form of organization be used?A. When the project is extremely important to the organization.B. When a project's cost and importance are relatively low.C. When the project manager has a lot of responsibility and accountability.D. When the organization's primary source of revenue is derived from projects.


No Expl 41

Question - 172

The belief that management's high levels of trust, confidence and commitment to workers leads to high levels of motivation and productivity on the part of workers is a part of which motivation theory?A. Theory YB. Theory ZC. Theory XD. Contingency Theory


No Expl 42

Question - 173

Which of the following is part of the expectancy theory of motivation?A. Clear, specific, and challenging goals generally motivate team members.B. Project managers should ensure that tasks assigned to project participants match their skills and the organizational climate is conducive to helping them meet their needs and achieving a sense of competence.C. People tend to be highly productive and motivated if they believe their efforts will lead to successful results and that success will lead to personal rewards.D. b and c


No Expl 43

Question - 174

Which of the following statements concerning compromise as a conflict resolution is false?A. Neither party wins but both parties get some degree of satisfaction.B. Important aspects of the project may be hindered in order to achieve personal objectives.C. Compromise is generally considered a lose-lose situation.D. A Definitive resolution is seldom achieved.


No Expl 44

Question - 175

In which type of organization is team building likely to be most difficult?A. FunctionalB. ProjectizedC. MatrixD. Project expediter


No Expl 45

Question - 176

Project management processes organized into:A. Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closingB. Initiating, planning, contracting, executing, and closingC. Designing, developing, testing, and implementingD. Initiating, planning, contracting, developing, and closing


Within the structure of a project, there are five phases: Initiation, Planning, Execution, Control, and Closing

Question - 177

Which process invloves Coordinating people and other resources to carry out plan?A. Executing processesB. Planning processesC. Controlling ProcessesD. Closing processes


Planning Processes :Approach to executing project. Executing processes :Coordinating people and other resources. Controlling Processes :Monitoring, measuring, and taking corrective action. Closing processes : Formal product acceptance and end of project.

Question - 178

Which process invloves Monitoring, measuring, and taking corrective action?A. Executing processesB. Planning processesC. Controlling ProcessesD. Closing processes



Question - 179

Which process invloves Formal product acceptance and end of project?A. Executing processesB. Planning processesC. Controlling ProcessesD. Closing processes



Question - 180

_______ must be measured regularly to identify variance from the plan.A. Project performanceB. Stakeholder requirementsC. Schedule progressD. Cost and schedule


Variance Analysis: Project performance measurements are used to assess the magnitude of variation.

Question - 181

The party that needs the change resulting from the project, and who will be its custodian on completion is theA. OwnerB. ClientC. SponsorD. Customer


Owner

Question - 182

You are a project manager for your organization. Management has asked you to help them determine which projects should be selected for implementation. In a project selection model, the most important factor is which one of the following?A. Business needsB. Type of constraintsC. BudgetD. Schedule


Projects are selected based on business needs first.

Question - 183

On any project, Who created the the Lessons Learned document?A. CustomersB. Project teamC. Project SponsorD. Stakeholders


The project team contributes to the Lessons Learned document.

Question - 184

A project Control Scope system is documented during which of the Project Scope Management processes?A. Collect RequirementsB. Define ScopeC. Verify ScopeD. Control Scope


A project scope management plan should document the Control Scope system

Question - 185

Your project is moving ahead of schedule. Management elects to incorporate additional quality testing into the project to improve the quality and acceptability of the project deliverable. This is an example of which one of the following?A. Scope creepB. Change controlC. Quality AssuranceD. Integrated Change Control


Additional quality testing will require additional time and resources for the project. This is an example of Integrated Change Control.

Question - 186

Which is not true about change requests :A. They always require additional funding.B. They happen while the project work is being done.C. They can be written or verbal.D. They can be requested by a stakeholder.


Change requests do not always require more money. Approved changes may require more funds, but not always

Question - 187

During project integration activities, a project sponsor's role can best be described as doing which one of the following?A. Helping the project manager and stakeholders to resolve any issues .B. Acting as a sounding board for the project stakeholdersC. Showing management the project progress and status reportsD. None


The project sponsor can help the project manager and the stakeholders resolve issues during project integration management.

Question - 188

A project is considered successful when:A. The project meets or exceeds the expectations of the stakeholders.B. The product of the project has been manufactured. C. The project sponsor announces the completion of the project.D. None of the above


A project is considered successful when stakeholder needs and expectations are met or exceeded.

Question - 189

When a project is being performed under contract, Who provides SOW ?A. The buyerB. The contractorC. The project sponsorD. The project manager


The buyer provides SOW when projects are performed under contract.

Question - 190

Which of the following is inputs of Develop Project Charter process?A. Project statement of work, Contract, Business case and organizational process assetsB. Project SOW, project selection methods, and enterprise environmental factorsC. Contract, project selection methods, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assetsD. Contract, project SOW, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets


Inputs to the Develop Project Charter process are Project statement of work, Contract, Business case and organizational process assets.

Question - 191

Employees in a balanced matrix often report to ______________.A. two or more managers.B. one manager.C. only Functional manager.D. None


Employees in a balanced matrix often report to two or more managers. Functional managers and project managers share authority and responsibility for projects.

Question - 192

According to the PMBOK Guide, the project statement of work(SOW) should contain or reference all the following elements except ?A. Business need, strategic plan, product scope descriptionB. Requirements, business need, stakeholder expectationsC. Strategic plan, product scope description, stakeholder influences, and business needD. Project purpose, business case, stakeholder influences, product scope description


The project SOW should contain the business need for the project and the product scope description and should support the organization's strategic plan.

Question - 193

What are the tools and techniques used in Collect Requirements ?A. Prototypes B. Group Decision Making TechniquesC. ObservationsD. all of the above


Tools and techniques used in Collect Requirements are Prototypes , Group Decision Making Techniques, Observations and Collect Requirements Process.

Question - 194

What are the two approaches to observation ?A. Passive and ActiveB. Active and EngineerC. CollectorD. Engineer


There are two approaches to observation: Passive (invisible) and Active (visible). In Passive observation, the observer does not interfere by asking questions or participating in the work they simply observe and take notes (afterwards they may ask

questions). In Active observation, the observer is free to ask questions and may even perform some of the work

Question - 195

Which of the following is true regarding NPV?A. NPV assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital.B. NPV assumes reinvestment at the prevailing rate.C. NPV assumes reinvestment at the NPV rate.D. NPV decisions should be made based on the highest value for all the selections.


Net present value (NPV) assumes reinvestment is made at the cost of capital.

Question - 196

You are the project manager for a organization. You are considering recommending a project that costs $280,000; expected inflows are $10,000 per quarter for the first two years and then $25,000 per quarter thereafter. What is the payback period?A. 48 monthsB. 40 monthsC. 36 monthsD. 50 months


Year 1 and 2 inflows are each $40,000 for a total of $80,000. Year 3 inflows are an additional $100,000. Add one more quarter to this total, and the $280,000 is reached in 4 years, or 48 months.

Question - 197

Which of the following is true regarding IRR?A. IRR is a constrained optimization method. B. IRR assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital.C. IRR is the discount rate when NPV is greater than zero.D. IRR is the discount rate when NPV is equal to zero.


IRR assumes reinvestment at the IRR rate and is the discount rate when NPV is equal to zero.

Question - 198

Mathematical models using linear, dynamic, integer, or algorithm models are consideredA. Project selection methodsB. Project selection criteriaC. A form of expert judgmentD. A form of historical information


Mathematical models are one of the methods described in the project selection methods tool and technique of the Develop Project Charter process

Question - 199

Your selection committee is debating between two projects. Project A has a payback period of 20 months. Project B has a cost of $150,000, with expected cash inflows of $50,000 the first year and $25,000 per quarter after that. Which project should you recommend?A. Either Project A or Project B, because the payback periods are equalB. Project A, because Project B's payback period is 24 monthsC. Project A, because Project B's payback period is 20 monthsD. Project A, because Project B's payback period is 21 months


Project B has a payback period of 24 months; $50,000 is received in the first 12 months, with another $100,000 coming in over next 12 months.

Question - 200

Which of the following is true about the project charter?A. The project charter should be published under the name of a manager external to the project.B. The project charter should be published under the project sponsor's name.C. The project charter should be published under the name of the project manager.D. The project charter should be published under the name of the project champion.


According to the PMBOK Guide, the project charter should be published by a manager external to the project but with sufficient power and authority to carry it off.

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