Practice Exam 2 Answers - pearsoncmg.comptgmedia.pearsoncmg.com/digital/bonus_content/... · 2016....

Answers to Exam Questions 1. Answers C and D are correct. Once you access msconfi g (System

Confi guration utility), you should access the Services and Startup tabs to disable the two components of DLP 2.0. The Startup tab will allow you to disable the actual application stored in Program Files, stopping the application from starting up when the user logs in. The Services tab will allow you to disable the underlying service so that fewer resources are used and there is less chance of system issues. See the section titled “System Tools and Utilities” in Chapter 9, “Confi guring Windows,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: The General tab gives you several different startup selections. The Boot tab allows you to modify how the system boots. The Tools tab enables you to launch various OS utilities directly from msconfi g.

2. Answer B is correct. Use Disk Cleanup (or other third-party cleanup application) to schedule the deletion of unwanted, compressed, older fi les. See the section titled “Maintaining Hard Drives” in Chapter 10, “Maintaining Windows,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Use Disk Defragmenter to reorganize a hard drive, making fi les contiguous and thus enabling greater hard drive effi ciency. Use CHKDSK in the Command Prompt to check for errors on a drive, and, depending on the usage of the command, fi x errors. Disk Management is the utility in Windows that allows a user to create and format partitions and otherwise work with drives.

3. Answer B is correct. Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) is a standard used by many router manufacturers to make connecting to a wireless net-work easier for the user. It usually consists of an 8- to 10-digit PIN and is located on the bottom of the router. It can also be viewed within the router’s fi rmware. There have been several problems with WPS, and most manufacturers recommend that you disable it within the fi rmware. See the section titled “SOHO Security” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Practice Exam 2 Answers

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Incorrect answers: Port forwarding forwards an external network port to an internal IP address and port. Wireless encryption is a method of rearranging wirelessly transferred data so that it is hard to decode. Examples include WPA and WPA2. Port triggering enables you to specify outgoing ports that your computer uses for special applications; their corresponding inbound ports will be opened automatically when the sessions are established.

4. Answer B is correct. If a virus was removed from a computer and the computer doesn’t subsequently boot, the Master Boot Record (MBR) or boot sector might have been damaged. In Windows, bootrec /fixmbr will rewrite the MBR, and bootrec /fixboot will rewrite the fi rst boot sector of the hard drive. See the section titled “Repair Environments and Boot Errors” in Chapter 11, “Troubleshooting Windows,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: DXDIAG is the DirectX Diagnostics tool used to interpret video and audio confi gurations and issues. Msconfi g is the Microsoft System Confi guration utility; it’s used to modify boot options and to disable services and apps. Safe Mode is not a command; it’s a recovery environment. In addition, you often boot the computer into Safe Mode before you initiate the virus scan and quarantine.

5. Answer C is correct. Disk Management can be located within Administrative Tools > Computer Management within Windows. It can display the hard drive’s status as well as enable partitioning, formatting, and so on. See the section titled “Files, File Systems, and Drives” in Chapter 9, “Confi guring Windows,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Tasklist is a command that, when issued in the Command Prompt, will show the processes currently running on the computer. The Administrative Tools are accessed from the Start Menu in Windows; they include Computer Management, Local Security Policy, and Performance Monitor. Ping is a Command Prompt tool used to determine whether another host on the network is available.

6. Answer A is correct. All networking racks should be grounded, either to grounding bars, an I-beam in the ceiling, or other methods of ground-ing. This should be done before installing any equipment to the racks to prevent any damage from ESD. See the section titled “Safety” in Chapter 19, “Safety, Procedures, and Professionalism,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: A dehumidifi er would make the problem worse by removing additional humidity from the air. An ESD strap will provide some protection to the devices while you work on them, but it won’t help when you disconnect. Fire suppression systems are important, but they won’t protect against ESD.


Answers to Exam Questions

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7. Answer D is correct. When you have fi nished the testing process, always shred any confi dential information that was printed out as part of those tests. See the section titled “Security Threats and Prevention” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Because they were test materials, there is no reason to keep them when the testing process is complete. Never throw away confi dential documents.

8. Answer C is correct. You should restart the smartphone fi rst before reconfi guring, updating, or resynchronizing. A quick restart will often reset things such as e-mail (or other network connections), allowing them to work properly. See the section titled “Android/iOS Networking and Synchronization” in Chapter 18, “Android, iOS, OS X, and Linux,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Always try to restart the device fi rst because it closes applications and clears cache for those programs. Only after that should you attempt to reconfi gure e-mail, update the mobile OS, or resynchronize the phone.

9. Answer F is correct. Inheritance is when a fi le or folder receives its NTFS permissions from the parent folder. It is the default setting of the Advanced confi guration dialog box within the Security tab of a fi le or folder. In Windows, it is described as “Include inheritable permissions from this object’s parent.” See the section titled “Desktop Operating System Security” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: This is different than permission propagation in that propagation is when a parent folder forces the permissions to the subfolder. It can be initiated by the user, is a separate confi guration, and is not necessarily confi gured to work by default. SSO is a type of authentication method where a single username/password combination (or other single authentication scheme) is used to gain access to multiple different resources. Client-side virtualization is when a client operat-ing system (such as Windows 7) is run in an emulator or on a virtual machine. The virtual software applications that house virtual machines have their own set of requirements, as do the virtual machines them-selves. For example, Windows running within a virtual machine will not require as many resources as Windows running on a physical com-puter in a standard installation. Proxy settings are Internet connectivity settings that are set up on a computer running an OS such as Windows. The proxy setting is usually an IP address of a special computer on the network that acts as a go-between for the client computer and the Internet. It stores web information so that the client computer can gain access to the information faster while conserving Internet bandwidth.


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A recovery image is an image fi le that can recover an operating system. It is created by the manufacturer or by the user as a form of preventive maintenance in the event of a system crash and can be saved to an opti-cal disc, to a USB fl ash drive, or to a special partition on the hard drive.

10. Answer C is correct. The fi rst thing you should do is report the incident to management. Prohibited materials need to be taken seriously. Before doing anything else, notify your superiors of the incident. See the sec-tion titled “Professionalism and Communication Skills” in Chapter 19, “Safety, Procedures, and Professionalism,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: After reporting this—and depending on your orders— you might remove them, delete them, or quarantine them. Generally, you would not copy the information to a company intranet or show the items to others (besides your superiors or management).

11. Answers B and D are correct. An RSA token can be a physical device, either located within a smart card or a key fob. This is intelligent technology that communicates with the security system, transferring information such as identifi cation, dynamic passcodes, and more, allow-ing for a more secure authentication method. A privacy fi lter is a fi lter placed in front of a monitor to reduce the viewing angle and make it more diffi cult for shoulder surfers (social engineers) to discern infor-mation from the screen. See the section titled “Security Threats and Prevention” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Directory permissions are the rights granted to users within Windows, allowing them (or denying them) access to fi les, folders, printers, and other resources. The principle of least privilege is a technical term that states that a person should only have access to what is absolutely necessary; the concept “need to know” is part of this principle.

12. Answer A is correct. Make sure the user is not using a proxy server within the browser before attempting anything else. A proxy address (whether added by malware or by the user himself) can redirect the browser to unwanted websites (often malicious in nature). See the section titled “Desktop Operating System Security” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Internet shortcuts that were added without the user’s knowledge could also be a culprit, so these should be checked, and the browser should also be cleared of cookies and cache if necessary. But check that proxy setting fi rst!



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13. Answer D is correct. The complex password is the best way to secure a Windows workstation. The word “complex” means that the password uses uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters. Probably just as important is the length of the password. For example, a 15-character-long password without much complexity is actually better than a complex, 6-character password. So make the password complex, but use at least 8 to 10 characters as well. In highly secure organizations, this number will often be 15. See the section titled “Desktop Operating System Security” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: A screensaver by itself does not protect Windows, but a screensaver with a required password will require the user’s login when the screensaver is deactivated. (Locking the workstation when going to lunch or taking breaks is also a smart idea.) Disabling Autorun is a good security precaution that will stop removable media from running automatically when it is inserted into the computer, but it is a distant second to a complex password when it comes to securing the Windows workstation. The rest of the answers are not options in Windows but are all good security practices. User education is impor-tant; one of your responsibilities as a PC technician is to stress the importance of complex passwords to your customers and to make sure they know how and where to confi gure the password. An ID badge is an authentication method used to allow access to a building or secure area. The badge will have a person’s information, photo, and possibly even a magnetic stripe that can be read by a security system. A key fob could be a variety of things, including a physical smart token for gaining access to individual computers or systems or for gaining access to auto-mated door systems. A retinal scan is a type of biometric authentication method where a security system scans a person’s eye before allowing admittance to a secure area.

14. Answer C is correct. iTunes is used with Apple iOS devices to syn-chronize them with a computer, upgrade them, or restore them to factory defaults. See the section titled “Android/iOS Networking and Synchronization” in Chapter 18, “Android, iOS, OS X, and Linux,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Safari is the iOS web browser. iMac is Apple’s desk-top/laptop computer. Bluetooth is a way of transmitting data wirelessly between devices and smartphones or PCs. Apple iOS devices generally synchronize to computers via USB or Wi-Fi.


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15. Answers B and C are correct. A hard drive shredder or drill can be used to physically tear the drive into multiple pieces or to make holes in the platters of a hard drive, thus making it inoperable. It can then be disposed of according to municipal guidelines. It is one of several types of ways to physically destroy a hard drive and is performed only when the drive has met the end of its lifecycle, is not going to be recycled within the organization, and is to be disposed of. See the section titled “Security Threats and Prevention” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Disabling ports is done on a fi rewall or SOHO router to block access into (or out of) the network. A low-level format is a type of formatting procedure done in the UEFI/BIOS of a system, through the use of special removable media, or is done at the manufac-turer. It removes more data than a standard operating system format but does not destroy the drive (though it can cause damage to particular sectors if performed too often).

16. Answer A is correct. The best answer is to squat down and lift with the legs, not with your back. This helps to avoid injury when lifting heavier items. See the section titled “Safety” in Chapter 19, “Safety, Procedures, and Professionalism,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Gloves are a good idea sometimes; however, it depends on how much grip they have. Never bend down or bend over to pick up an item. That is one way to injure your back. Having a second person help with a heavy item is a good idea also, but not when that per-son also uses the back to lift.

17. Answer A is correct. Bluetooth is a wireless technology that requires the pairing of devices to phones, tablets, and PCs. First, the Bluetooth device (such as a headset) is discovered by a Bluetooth-enabled mobile computer or smartphone. Then the device is “paired” to the com-puter or phone. This sometimes requires a passcode. See the section titled “Android/iOS Networking and Synchronization” in Chapter 18, “Android, iOS, OS X, and Linux,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Exchange is a type of Microsoft e-mail server used in larger organizations; it facilitates the download of e-mail to multiple users as well as the sharing of calendars. Locator applications are used to fi nd mobile devices such as tablets or smartphones—often GPS is required for the locator applications to function properly. Remote wipe is a type of program installed to mobile devices that enables you to delete information from the device in the event that the device is stolen and there is confi dential data that cannot fall into unwanted hands.



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18. Answer D is correct. You should recommend the Microsoft Domain setup. This means installing a server that acts as a domain controller where all logon authentication is centralized. This way, all access to net-work shares and print servers is also centralized. A domain controller is a server that is running a version of the Windows Server operating sys-tem and has Active Directory Domain Services running. See the section titled “SOHO and Windows Networking” in Chapter 16, “Computer Networking Part II,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: A workgroup is a good choice for networks with 20 computers or fewer. Once you exceed 20 computers, it becomes wise to confi gure a domain. The main reason for this is that a single Windows 8/7 client computer can handle only 20 connections simulta-neously. Storing all your data on one computer for every user to access is fi ne for networks with 10 to 15 computers. But as you increase your network to 20 computers or more, you are forced to store resources on multiple computers, which can create confusion. Ad hoc means that no one computer is in control; this especially applies to wireless networks and is suffi cient for a few systems, but defi nitely not for 25 computers. Star refers to the network topology, or how computers are connected. This isn’t covered in the A+ objectives but it essentially means that the computers are wired in such a way that all of them physically connect to a central connecting device (such as a switch) or wirelessly connect to a wireless access point. This is easily the most common way that comput-ers connect to the network. While you could recommend this as well, it is basically accepted that this will be the network confi guration in the vast majority of scenarios. The question was assessing your understand-ing of the Windows solution for how the data will be shared.

19. Answer A is correct. Chain of custody is the chronological documenta-tion (written) of evidence pertaining to a computer or other technical device that has prohibited content or has been confi scated. The tech-nician should write (or type) the date, time, and who took custody of the computer next. It’s important for the technician to adhere to the chain of custody rules when storing the computer or data. It’s also important to verify that the chain of custody remains intact, so as to ensure evidence is admissible in legal proceedings. See the section titled “Procedures and Environmental Controls” in Chapter 19, “Safety, Procedures, and Professionalism,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Committing such important facts to memory is not enough; this will not stand up in court as evidence. A third party will break the chain of custody. Calling the supervisor is part of fi rst response; it’s not part of chain of custody.


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20. Answer C is correct. In Windows, the Task Manager > Users tab will show all currently logged-on users and their status. See the sec-tion titled “System Tools and Utilities” in Chapter 9, “Confi guring Windows,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Msconfig is used to change boot settings and dis-able apps/services. Disk Management is used to monitor the status of drives and to work with partitioning/formatting. Administrative Tools is a collective group of tools used to confi gure the OS, but it does not offer a quick way to see which users are logged in to the system.

21. Answers A and E are correct. Compressed air and a vacuum are com-mon tools used to remove dust and debris from inside a computer. Of course, when you use compressed air, consider doing this outside because the dust and dirt will fl y all over the place. Use a vacuum to clean up after you are done. See the section titled “Safety” in Chapter 19, “Safety, Procedures, and Professionalism,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Cotton and alcohol (or a 50/50 mix of alcohol and water) might be used to clean a printer’s rubber rollers, the bottom of an ink cartridge (if it is very dirty), or a display. A feather duster would cause ESD and should be avoided; it is not a good tool for the job. Anti-bacterial surface cleaner should only be used on the outside of a com-puter case.

22. Answer B is correct. To do access contacts on a daily basis, the best answer is to enable contact synchronization by setting up the e-mail account on the phone. Android will generally synchronize via USB (although Wi-Fi and Bluetooth can also be accomplished with third-party programs.) See the section titled “Android/iOS Networking and Synchronization” in Chapter 18, “Android, iOS, OS X, and Linux,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: All of the other answers provide static, one-time copying of the contacts. The key here is to provide up-to-date synchro-nization on a daily basis.

23. Answer A is correct. The fi rst thing you should do is to report your fi ndings through proper channels. Your organization’s policies should state exactly whom you should report to. See the section titled “Procedures and Environmental Controls” in Chapter 19, “Safety, Procedures, and Professionalism,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: The important concept here is that you shouldn’t actually do anything until you have reported through proper chan-nels and received instructions from those channels. This might include



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tracking of evidence, documenting changes, and preserving data, but the response will vary according to the situation.

24. Answer D is correct. The best answer is, “Overwriting writes 1s and 0s to the drive, replacing the data; formatting only clears the reference to the data and only overwrites as space is used.” See the section titled “Security Threats and Prevention” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Formatting does not erase data or destroy the drive. In fact, neither destroys the drive, though excessive formatting or overwriting can damage the drive over time. Remember that short of physical destruction, overwrite programs are one of the most secure methods of ensuring that data on a hard drive cannot be recovered.

25. Answer B is correct. An invalid boot disk error is a common symptom of a problem loading the Windows operating system. It could be caused by removable media inserted into the computer (an optical disc or USB fl ash drive) that is not bootable. This could be avoided by setting the hard drive to fi rst in the BIOS boot order. Another possible symptom of problems loading the operating system would be if a RAID array was not detected during bootup or during installation of the OS. Either way, the hard drive, or RAID array of hard drives, should be inspected for faulty connections. See the section titled “Repair Environments and Boot Errors” in Chapter 11, “Troubleshooting Windows,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: A spontaneous shutdown and restart indicates either a problem with the power supply or the possibility of malware on the system. Note that the question referred to “starting up” Windows; a shutdown or restart can happen only when the system has already booted. WinRE is the Windows Recovery Environment, which includes System Recovery Options such as Startup Repair and System Restore. This is not performed during a routine bootup of Windows but can be initiated by booting from the Windows DVD or from a special parti-tion on the hard drive or by booting from a USB fl ash drive. If it won’t start, there could be a problem with the DVD, the DVD drive, the boot order, or how it was installed to the partition on the hard drive. If the optical disc fails, it shouldn’t stop the startup of Windows because Windows will most likely be located on the hard drive. An emergency repair disk (or disc) should only be booted to if there is a problem with Windows. It’s not a common symptom of a problem starting Windows, but we might use a recovery disc to fi x the problem. REGSVR32 (some-times misrepresented as REGSRV32) is a tool used in the Command


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Prompt to activate or deactivate ActiveX controls, none of which should stop Windows from booting.

26. Answer A is correct. Check if the phone cable is connected to the modem’s line RJ11 port. Remember that a dial-up modem uses a regu-lar household phone line. See the section titled “Types of Networks, Network Devices, and Cloud Technologies” in Chapter 15, “Computer Networking Part I,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: The modem will have two RJ11 ports: one for the line itself and a second for connection to a phone (optional). Dial-up modems do not have RJ45 ports; those are used by networking devices such as network adapter cards.

27. Answers A, B, and D are correct. Malware can have many symptoms. Viruses are especially prevalent in today’s society; there are millions of different kinds. Fake security alerts, failure to update Windows, and renamed system fi les are all possible symptoms of malware—more spe-cifi cally, symptoms of a virus. See the section titled “Security Threats and Prevention” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Security alerts could also be caused by spyware when accessing a malicious website. Windows has a preinstallation envi-ronment known as Windows PE or simply WinPE; this is a lightweight version of Windows that is often used to deploy the operating system. It can be booted from optical disc, USB fl ash drive, over the network via PXE or by the hard drive. It is an add-on to Windows available with the Windows Automated Installation Kit (WAIK). For example, Windows 7 uses WinPE version 3.0 and 3.1. It can be used to run recovery tools such as Windows RE and Winternals and for running drive-cloning utilities. Rogue antivirus programs are not symptoms of malware; they are malware! A rogue antivirus program can often be something that appears to be legitimate when it is not. Or it could be a part of a rogue security software suite, which deceives the user into paying for fake malware protection. User error is not a symptom of malware, but it could very well be the cause. If a user surfs to a malicious website or opens an unknown e-mail attachment without verifying the source of the e-mail fi rst, malware could be—and often is—the result. Educate the end user when it comes to screening e-mails and surfi ng the Web. Show the user how to be responsible when accessing online information.

28. Answer D is correct. On typical versions of iOS, the correct path to fi nd the IP address is Settings > Wi-Fi > SSID Name > IP Address. See the section titled “Android/iOS Networking and Synchronization” in Chapter 18, “Android, iOS, OS X, and Linux,” for more information.



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Incorrect answers: The other paths are not valid. On older devices, you might have to add a few taps, such as Settings > General > Net-work > Wi-Fi > SSID Name > IP Address. Keep in mind that these paths could change in the future. Understand that, in general, you want to fi nd the Wi-Fi connection’s IP address.

29. Answer D is correct. Non-water-based fi re extinguishers should be used during an electrical fi re. This could be a CO2-based fi re extinguisher such as a Class C extinguisher, a Halotron fi re extinguisher, or an FM-200 overhead system. See the section titled “Safety” in Chapter 19, “Safety, Procedures, and Professionalism,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Standard overhead sprinkler systems use water. They should not be present where expensive computer equipment is located (for example, in server rooms). Regular water-based fi re extin-guishers should not be used. Class B extinguishers are meant for burn-ing gases and liquids, whereas Class C are meant for electrical fi re (think “C” for “copper,” like the copper inside electrical wiring).

30. Answer C is correct. Attempt to install legacy (older) applications in compatibility mode. Select the older OS that the application was origi-nally written for. See the section titled “System Tools and Utilities” in Chapter 9, “Confi guring Windows,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: It is less likely that updates or the latest service pack (SP) will help in this situation. In fact, Windows 8 doesn’t use service packs, but it is wise to update to Windows 8.1. Service packs are used in Windows 7 and earlier. Security updates probably won’t have an effect on this scenario either.

31. Answer C is correct. Try adjusting the power settings so that wire-less connections will not time out as quickly. This can be done in Windows by accessing Control Panel > Hardware and Sound > Power Options > Edit Plan Settings. In the Power Options dialog box, go to Advanced settings and modify the Wireless Adapter Settings. See the section titled “System Tools and Utilities” in Chapter 9, “Confi guring Windows,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: If the wireless card was faulty, the customer would never be able to get onto a wireless network, so there is no reason to replace the wireless card. The capacity of the battery will not affect wire-less connections. Disabling the screensaver will also not affect the wireless connection; however, you can get to some of the power options necessary to solve the wireless problem indirectly from the screensaver window.


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32. Answer A is correct. Before rolling out patches to many computers on a network, it is best to test those patches on a single PC. A great way to do this is within a virtualized system. See the section titled “Custom PC Confi gurations” in Chapter 13, “Peripherals and Custom Computing,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: A thick client is simply a regular PC. Gaming workstations are powerful computers that normally do not run within a virtual machine and usually do not host virtual machines. PCs with minimal RAM are not good options for virtual machines.

33. Answer C is correct. Use gpedit.msc in the Run prompt or the Command Prompt. This will display the Local Group Policy Editor window, where you can make changes to the OS, such as remove the Shut Down button. See the section titled “Desktop Operating System Security” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: shutdown.exe is used to shut down the computer automatically or modify programmatically how the computer shuts down. bootrec.exe is a tool used to repair problems such as an error in the MBR (fi xing this requires the syntax bootrec /fixmbr). services.msc can be executed from the Run prompt; it brings up the Services window, where you can start/stop services.

34. Answer A is correct. Remove watches, jewelry, and any other metals when working on a computer so they are out of the way and do not pose any threats while working on the computer. See the section titled “Safety” in Chapter 19, “Safety, Procedures, and Professionalism,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: You should review local regulations and check for environmental concerns when disposing of hard drives, batteries, and toner cartridges. Read the MSDS (material safety data sheet) when you encounter a fl uid spill or other unknown chemical.

35. Answer B is correct. In this scenario, you have already identifi ed the problem: The computer cannot connect to any websites. So the next thing you should do according to the CompTIA A+ six-step trouble-shooting process is to establish a theory of probable cause. For example, maybe your theory is that the network cable is not plugged in to the computer, or perhaps the computer is not obtaining an IP address. Pick one theory (the most likely in the situation) and move to step 3: Test the theory to determine the cause. If you were to look behind the computer and see that the network patch cable was unplugged (and there is no possibility of wireless), then the theory has tested positive and you can



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move to step 4: Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem. In this case, it’s easy: Plug in the cable! Afterward, you would verify full system functionality (step 5) by testing whether the web browser can access websites. Finally, in the last step, document the problem, the solution, and any additional details, such as advice you gave to the customer. When working on computers, apply the six-step troubleshooting meth-odology to your thinking process as much as possible! See the section “The Six-Step A+ Troubleshooting Process” in Chapter 1, “Introduction to Troubleshooting,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: “Identify the problem” is the fi rst step of the trou-bleshooting process; you have already completed this when you discov-ered that the computer cannot connect to any websites. “Test your theo-ry to determine cause” is the third step of the process; you can’t do this yet because a theory hasn’t been established. “Establish a plan of action” is much too premature because it is the fourth step of the process and can be performed only after steps 1 through 3 have been completed.

36. Answer D is correct. Before you do anything else, disconnect the net-work cable from comp112. This can help to isolate the problem. You might also decide to disconnect the network cables from any other sys-tems that were infected by this worm. Sometimes, it is easier to do this at the server room. See the section “Security Threats and Prevention” in Chapter 17, “Security” for more information.

Incorrect answers: After the network cable is disconnected, the com-puter should be shut down (which will log off the user anyway) and rebooted into Safe Mode. Then the worm should be isolated and quar-antined. Finally, a full virus scan should be run. This, of course, is just a quick example; you probably need to do more to resolve this problem on all computers concerned.

37. Answer A is correct. The user will have only read access to the fi le. Remember that NTFS permissions take precedence over share permis-sions, even if the share-level permissions offer a higher level of access. See the section titled “Desktop Operating System Security” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: It is possible for the user to get write, modify, or full control access, but only if the NTFS permissions are confi gured to allow the user to do so.

38. Answer D is correct. The program would be installed to C:\Program Files (x86). This is the default folder for 32-bit programs when installed to a 64-bit version of Windows. This works in the same manner in


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Windows 7 and Vista. See the section titled “Files, File Systems, and Drives” in Chapter 9, “Confi guring Windows,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: 64-bit programs are installed to the C:\Program Files folder. The operating system is installed to C:\Windows. Finally, C:\ is the root of the hard drive. A few system fi les are placed in the root, but otherwise the OS and applications are installed to folders within the root. x86 is the general term applied to 32-bit computers, whereas x86-64 (or simply x64) is the term applied to 64-bit computers.

39. Answer A is correct. The Guest account should be disabled in Windows to adhere to security best practices. It is an insecure user account. In a SOHO network or in a home, you might use the Guest account; just be sure to set up a complex password for it. See the section titled “Desktop Operating System Security” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: The administrator account should have its pass-word changed. It might even be disabled, depending on your OS and your organization’s policy. In reality, you should disable any accounts that are not being used currently. However, consider leaving the admin-istrator account enabled because it might be needed to recover the sys-tem or data in an emergency. Standard user and Power users don’t need to be disabled. Power users are actually deprecated; they were used in Windows XP as an account with more rights than Standard users but fewer rights than administrators (they could install programs). However, in Windows 8/7/Vista, power users are treated as Standard user accounts. The Standard user account is the most common.

40. Answer C is correct. You must rejoin the computer to the domain. This can be done by navigating to the Computer Name tab of the System Properties dialog box, which is accessed from the Advanced settings link from the System window or by executing systempropertiescomputername.exe at the Run prompt. You might also use the netdom command in the Command Prompt if you have Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT) installed to the Windows client or are working directly on a Windows server. See the section titled “SOHO and Windows Networking” in Chapter 16, “Computer Networking Part II,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Updating the BIOS to the latest version will help with any fi rmware issues but won’t have any effect on trust relationships within Windows. Running CHKDSK will check for errors on the hard drive. Rebooting the PC will not automatically rebuild the relationship; you must manually rejoin the computer to the domain.



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41. Answer C is correct. The problem in this scenario is that the docu-ment is owned by the fi rst user. By default, fi les created under one user account cannot be seen by another user account. For the second user to see the fi le, the user needs to become an owner or needs to be given permissions to the fi le. See the section titled “Desktop Operating System Security” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: In this scenario, the fi rst user never locked, hid, or encrypted the document in any way; this type of “document ownership” is simply a default security precaution that is built into Windows.

42. Answer D is correct. One of the reasons for using a VM is to create a separate OS work environment from the hosting computer. By default, this creates a barrier that viruses and other malware do not cross. So, in most cases, the VM can be shut down with no harm to the host PC. However, this is not always the case. If the host PC has networked con-nections to the VM, malware could travel between the two. This is why it is important to secure your VMs, your VM software, and the host computer. See the section titled “Security Threats and Prevention” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Initially, the host computer does not monitor for malware on the VMs that it hosts. So it will not quarantine or delete any malware on a VM automatically. The VM should be treated as a wholly separate OS, even though it might run within a hosting OS.

43. Answers A and C are correct. Incorrect drivers can always cause issues with video. It’s important to get them from the manufacturer. The video chip (GPU) can also fail (though less common) and could cause artifacts as well as random loss of video. Drivers are easily fi xed by accessing the manufacturer’s website, downloading the correct version for the proper OS, and installing them—in Safe Mode, if necessary. However, a failed video chip can be a bit tougher to troubleshoot and repair. Some laptop GPUs are integrated directly to the motherboard. While solder-ing a new chip to the board might be able to fi x the problem, in many cases this is not possible, and the entire Mini PCIe (or Mini PCI) video card or entire motherboard will need to be replaced. See the section titled “Windows Tools and Errors” in Chapter 11, “Troubleshooting Windows,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Windows Update might work, but again, when working with components such as video and audio, it is better to get the device driver from the manufacturer’s website, not from Microsoft. The UEFI/BIOS is a less likely cause for these types of issues. If the video


16


card overheats, the system may be programmed by the UEFI/BIOS to shut down or to issue a series of beeps. Most laptops do not have an option for underclocking the video card, but if they did, this should not cause the video card to fail because it would be running within safe parameters.

44. Answer D is correct. Your friend might have an address such as [email protected]. To enable the iPad access to this e-mail account, you’ll need the server that handles e-mail (be it SMTP, POP3, IMAP, or an Exchange server) and the domain name that the server resides on. Often, this will be the same domain name as the e-mail address, but not always. An example of an SMTP mail server might be mail.abc-company.com. A POP3 server might be pop.abc-company.com. See the section titled “Android/iOS Networking and Synchronization” in Chapter 18, “Android, iOS, OS X, and Linux,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: IP addresses aren’t necessary when confi guring an e-mail account within an iPad, an Android device, a PC, or any com-puter, really. This is because the e-mail account software will auto-matically attempt to resolve the mail server name to IP address, in the same manner a web browser does when you type in a web address. The gateway address and DNS server are only necessary when attempting to connect a device to the Internet. This most likely won’t be an issue with an iPad, but it can be confi gured in the networking settings if necessary.

45. Answer C is correct. When working with RAID cards, you must select “Load driver” when installing Windows. This way, you will be able to install the proper driver for the RAID card from disc; then the instal-lation should continue. See the section titled “Installing and Upgrading to Windows 7” in Chapter 8, “Installing and Upgrading Windows,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: It isn’t likely that your RAID card will connect to PATA (IDE) drives. Plus, many RAID cards have their own separate BIOS that is apart from the PC’s BIOS. So enabling PATA in the BIOS is unlikely—and a vague answer at best. Hitting refresh will simply pro-vide the same result. Pressing F8 is used to access the Advanced Boot Options menu, but only after an OS has been installed.

46. Answer A is correct. Msconfig can help with long load times by dis-abling unwanted startup applications/services and modifying how the computer boots. Over time, a user might install a lot of programs that the user doesn’t necessarily use, but these programs still load up after logon. To run msconfig, type msconfig in the Run prompt or search



17

box. Its proper name is the System Confi guration utility. See the section titled “Windows Tools and Errors” in Chapter 11, “Troubleshooting Windows,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: SFC is a command-line-based tool for analyzing and repairing system fi les. bootrec /fixmbr is a command used to rewrite the Master Boot Record in Windows. Disk Management is the Windows utility that enables you to work with hard drives and optical drives.

47. Answer D is correct. You should disable the physical ports within the switch or router. Let’s say that there are three areas of a small offi ce that have network jacks that lead to the switch, but only two areas are being used. The area with unused network jacks is the area you want to secure. By logging in to the switch or router and then accessing the fi rmware, you can confi gure the unused ports so that they cannot be used—thus securing them. (Note: Some routers/switches do not have this functionality.) See the section titled “SOHO Security” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Logical protocols such as DNS and DHCP do not come into play here because you are trying to secure tangible, physical ports. Powering down the router would make all of the ports unusable and would deny all wired network access.

48. Answer C is correct. Chkntfs is the command utility that can be used to initiate chkdsk at bootup. For example, chkntfs /d will check drives at boot time. If a drive is judged to be “dirty,” chkdsk is run automatically on that drive. A “dirty” drive is one that causes a system hang or has open fi les. For more information on chkntfs, type chkntfs /?. See the section titled “Command-Line Tools” in Chapter 11, “Troubleshooting Windows,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: convert enables a partition change from fat32 to ntfs without losing data. Ipconfig is used to analyze the confi gura-tion of a network adapter. Netdom enables administrators to manage Active Directory domains and trust relationships from the Command Prompt. For example, it could be used to join a Windows 7 computer to a domain. It is used primarily on Windows Server operating systems.

49. Answer B is correct. The best answer listed is that the parent folder has explicit Deny rights set for the third-party user. If this is the case, then by default, that permission will propagate to any subfolders and fi les within the parent. This can also be expressed as the default action for a subfolder (also known as a child folder) to inherit its permissions from


18


the parent. Basically, you should remember two things: one, that a folder inherits its permissions from the parent; and two, that Deny rights will always override Allow rights. See the section titled “Desktop Operating System Security” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: If the folder was set with Allow rights, the third party should be able to access the data. If the user forgot to share the folder, the third party would not be able to access the data. However, it’s the second part of that answer that is impossible because you can’t share a specifi c fi le; you can only share folders. The archive attribute would simply create a backup copy of a fi le or folder. Permissions questions can be some of the toughest on the A+ exam, but if you remember a few basic rules (such as the ones mentioned here), you should survive them!

50. Answer C is correct. The Encrypting File System (EFS) is the Windows built-in fi le encryption standard. EFS fi lenames display in green by default. This means that the individual fi le has been encrypted from within the properties page in Windows. This is done so that other users cannot read the fi le. See the section titled “Desktop Operating System Security” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Compressed fi les show up in blue. Color assign-ments for encrypted and compressed fi les can be removed in Windows by accessing the Folder Options window and going to the View tab. Regular fi les are shown in black. Red fi les are ones that can be accessed only by Windows.

51. Answer A is correct. Taskkill is the command in Windows that can stop a single process from the command line. See the section titled “Command-Line Tools” in Chapter 11, “Troubleshooting Windows,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Shutdown is a command used to shut down the entire system either right away or at a designated time. Tasklist pro-vides a list of all processes running in the command line. It associates each process with an ID. This is integral when running the taskkill command—you need to know the executable or the process ID (PID) of the task you want to stop. DEL is short for the delete command, which is used to delete fi les.

52. Answer B is correct. The best answer is that Bluetooth allows a peripheral to be contacted by the mobile device. For example, when a Bluetooth headset is put into discovery mode, a smartphone or other Bluetooth-equipped device can contact it for use (as long as that smart-phone or other device has Bluetooth installed). Or a smartphone can be



19

put into discovery mode so that a PC or other computer can locate it. See the section titled “Android/iOS Networking and Synchronization” in Chapter 18, “Android, iOS, OS X, and Linux,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: This function works one device at a time. Often, a code needs to be entered for the computer or smartphone to communi-cate with the Bluetooth device.

53. Answer C is correct. Basically, the only way a fi le can retain its NTFS permissions is if the fi le is moved to a new location on the same volume. See the section titled “Desktop Operating System Security” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Moving it to any other volume and copying it any-where can create new NTFS permissions for that newly moved or cop-ied fi le. These permissions are taken by default from the parent folder.

54. Answer C is correct. Encryption (for example, WPA2 with AES) will prevent unauthorized users from accessing confi dential data that is transmitted over the wireless network. One of the best ways to protect confi dentiality of data in general is through encryption. Use the highest level of encryption possible on a SOHO wireless network to eliminate this threat. See the section titled “SOHO Security” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Enabling MAC fi ltering looks like a good answer. However, this is used to stop unauthorized computers from accessing the wireless network. While a good idea, it does nothing to protect the actual data itself. Plus, a good hacker can get past MAC fi ltering. If that happens, encryption is going to be the savior anyway. While anything is hackable, the AES cipher will require a powerful computer and a long time to break. Changing the SSID name only modifi es the name of the wireless network. However, by default, the SSID is broadcast from most SOHO routers, which is easily found by various wireless scan-ning software packages. Reducing the broadcast power is a smart idea as well, but this simply reduces the distance the SOHO router sends its wireless signal. If the hacker is within this range, he will have access to the network. The key here is confi dential. To protect confi dentiality, use encryption.

55. Answer D is correct. Programs and Features is the place to go in the Control Panel (CP) to remove an application in Windows 8/7/Vista. Any one of these can also be opened by typing appwiz.cpl in the Command Prompt. See the section titled “System Tools and Utilities” in Chapter 9, “Confi guring Windows,” for more information.


20


Incorrect answers: Disk Cleanup is used to remove temporary fi les; it’s not used to remove applications. Administrative Tools is a group of tools, such as Computer Management and the Task Scheduler. Folder Options is where you can go to change how folders are displayed.

56. Answer D is correct. If the user could print to the printer previously and the job is just sitting in the print queue, you should most likely restart the Print Spooler service at the user’s computer. This can be done in the GUI of Windows within Computer Management > Services and Applications > Services or by typing net stop spooler and net start spooler in the Command Prompt. See the section titled “Installing, Confi guring, and Troubleshooting Printers” in Chapter 14, “Printers,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Deleting the job and resubmitting it will probably have the same effect, and you will have to restart the spooler anyway. Printer drivers are not the cause of a stalled print job. Resetting the physical printer will not help; the job will still be sitting in the user computer’s print queue.

57. Answer B is correct. The most likely answer is that the IP address is invalid. 86200.43.118 is missing a dot; the IP address should actually be 86.200.43.118. This is more likely than the other three answers. See the section titled “TCP/IP” in Chapter 15, “Computer Networking Part I,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Though the FTP program could be confi gured improperly, it is more likely that user error is the culprit here. A com-pany’s servers will rarely go down (hopefully). The FTP server would usually not block port 21 because that is the default FTP port; blocking it would block all traffi c to the FTP server!

58. Answer D is correct. Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) is the default for making phone calls and transferring data via the Internet on a smartphone. As long as the phone has a signal, it can do both simultaneously. See the section titled “Android/iOS Networking and Synchronization” in Chapter 18, “Android, iOS, OS X, and Linux,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Wi-Fi is usually a better, faster option for transfer-ring data; however, phone calls through Wi-Fi would require additional functionality (such as Wi-Fi calling, if supported) or software (such as Skype) or additional hardware. Bluetooth is primarily used to connect peripherals to the phone, such as headsets or mobile printers. It can be “confi gured” to connect to the Internet through a PC or in other



21

ways, but it cannot make voice calls. You might indirectly use cable Internet from your smartphone via a wireless network, which allows you to transfer data, but it does not allow voice calls without additional software/hardware. For the exam, be sure you know the various ways a mobile device can connect to the Internet and make voice calls.

59. Answer D is correct. The DIR command shows the contents of a folder or directory within the command line. For example, if you were within the System32 folder, you could just type DIR to display its contents. If you were in any other folder, you would type DIR C:\Windows\System32. But be prepared to use the /p switch because there will be a lot of results! See the section titled “Files, File Systems and Drives” in Chapter 9, “Confi guring Windows,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: The NET command has many uses; for example, net stop spooler to stop the print spooler, net use to map net-work drives, and so on. CD stands for change directory. Within the command line it enables you to move from one directory to any other directory in the tree. The System Information Tool displays details about hardware resources, components, and the software environment.

60. Answer D is correct. NTFS is the most commonly used fi le system in Windows. It is a secure log-based fi le system. See the section titled “Files, File Systems, and Drives” in Chapter 9, “Confi guring Windows,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: exFAT (Extended File Allocation Table) is another fi le system created by Microsoft that is designed to be optimized for fl ash drives. FAT32 is a fi le system used by older versions of Windows. It is still available on Windows 8/7/Vista for backward compatibility and so that Windows can read various external media that might be for-matted to that fi le system. CDFS is the Compact Disc File System; this is used by optical discs.

61. Answer A is correct. iCloud is Apple’s remote backup storage solution. This can be used to back up and/or synchronize data. See the section titled “Android/iOS Networking and Synchronization” in Chapter 18, “Android, iOS, OS X, and Linux,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: iOS is the operating system that runs on Apple mobile devices. iOS-enabled devices that are updated can back up data remotely to the iCloud. Apple iOS applications are downloaded from the App Store (not the App Market). Android-based applications are down-loaded from Google Play (previously known as the Android Market).


22


62. Answers D and E are correct. Besides e-mail, the iPhone’s calendar and address book can be synchronized to the Exchange Server (assum-ing the Exchange Server version is up to date). End users generally want to synchronize e-mail, calendar, and contacts. See the section titled “Android/iOS Networking and Synchronization” in Chapter 18, “Android, iOS, OS X, and Linux” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Shared calendars, archives, and global address lists are all things that Exchange can work with, but the client side would need to be running Outlook.

63. Answer A is correct. For proper quarantining and removal of malware, you will usually have to disable System Restore fi rst because it can get in the way of the antimalware scanning and removal processes. See the section titled “Security Threats and Prevention” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: You might ask, “Well, what about disabling the net-work cards so that the malware doesn’t spread?” While this might work, the best way is to physically disconnect the computer from the wired network, and turn off any wireless on/off switches if at all possible. Or remove the wireless antenna from the computer. It’s just impossible to tell if a virus or other type of malware is playing tricks on the Windows option to disable a networking card. Windows Update should be run after quarantining and removal processes are complete. CHKDSK /R can be run to locate bad sectors and recover readable information, if neces-sary, after the malware removal is complete.

64. Answers B and D are correct. Among other things, you should recom-mend strong passwords and assigning security rights based on job roles. Strong passwords are important on routers, wireless devices, switches, computers, and anything else that can be logged in to. Role-based access control is when rights and permissions are assigned based on the person’s job in a company: accounting, marketing, and so on. See the section titled “Desktop Operating System Security” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Daily security audits might be a good idea, but they do not increase security; they only determine whether there is a threat or vulnerability that needs to be attended to. The customer already said that her AV software is up to date, so additional AV software should not be necessary. In fact, you shouldn’t run any more than one type of AV software because they can have confl icting results that can slow down the system. Disabling screensavers doesn’t really increase the security of



23

the network, but setting up a password lock within the screensaver can make the individual systems more secure.

65. Answer B is correct. You should confi gure the Local Security Policy utility. This can be accessed by going to the Run prompt and typing secpol.msc or by accessing it through Administrative Tools. From this utility you can set who can access which systems and when. See the section titled “Desktop Operating System Security” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: System Confi guration is msconfig, which is used to modify how the system boots and enable/disable applications and services. BCD stands for Boot Confi guration Data. The BCD store con-tains information about the operating system(s) that can be booted to. Advanced Security is a place you can go for the Windows Firewall that allows you to create advanced port exceptions for applications.

66. Answer C is correct. Performance Monitor is the tool to use to set thresholds and alerts that will notify an administrator that a particu-lar resource is working above normal usage for an extended period of time. See the section titled “System Tools and Utilities” in Chapter 9, “Confi guring Windows,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Task Scheduler is used to specify times when a par-ticular application or process will be run. Task Manager is used to view CPU usage, but it cannot be used to set alerts. System Confi guration is msconfig, which is used to enable/disable apps/services and modify how the system boots.

67. Answer D is correct. Authentication enables a user to reset his pass-word with a series of security questions that only he should know. See the section titled “Desktop Operating System Security” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: An example of verifi cation would be if you logged in to a bank with your username (or account number) and password, are authenticated, and you are then asked to type a code (known as a verifi cation code). Permission propagation is when NTFS rights (per-missions) are automatically copied from the parent folder to a subfolder. The subfolder inherits the permissions when they are propagated from the parent. Administration could mean many things, but one example would be when an administrator sets a policy where a user needs to type a verifi cation code after logging in.


24


68. Answer B is correct. The VER command shows the version of Windows. However, it might be more cryptic than accessing the System window in the GUI. For example, the VER command, when typed in a Windows 7 SP0 Command Prompt, can result in the following: Microsoft Windows [Version 6.1.7600]. 6.1 is the actual version of Windows 7, whereas 7600 is the build number! Another option is to use the System win-dow. Or you could use the systeminfo command in the Command Prompt, which gets a bit more in depth for this explanation. See the section titled “Command-Line Tools” in Chapter 11, “Troubleshooting Windows,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: The SET command shows, and allows you to mod-ify, all the variables in the computer; for example, where the temp folders are located. The Device Manager is not a command; it is an application where you can confi gure hardware. CMD (cmd.exe) is the Command Prompt executable.

69. Answer B is correct. Rootkit is the best answer. Rootkits are used to gain privileged access to the computer, perhaps with a hidden backdoor. A remote access Trojan (RAT) might be used to access the backdoor, which then uses the rootkit code to gain that privileged access. See the section titled “Security Threats and Prevention” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: XSS stands for cross-site scripting, a vulnerability in web applications. Hidden backdoors are usually found in software (operating systems or applications), not in fi rmware (BIOS). SQL injec-tion is another type of attack on websites that uses code to extract confi -dential information from website databases.

70. Answers A, C, and E are correct. Professionalism comes in many forms. When dealing with a customer, you should avoid distractions, avoid being judgmental, and meet expectations that are set. Also, avoid arguing, talking to co-workers, and personal interruptions. Be posi-tive, and listen to the customer. See the section titled “Professionalism and Communication Skills” in Chapter 19, “Safety, Procedures, and Professionalism,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: It is important to retain a chain of custody, but this has more to do with tracking evidence and less to do with professional-ism. Documentation is important as well and should be developed by you as the technician; it should not be left to the customer.



25

71. Answer A is correct. Hosting a virtual machine on a PC reduces the amount of physical hardware required. Instead of installing an OS to a separate physical computer, you take advantage of existing computers and install the VM on one of those computer’s hosting operating sys-tems. See the section titled “Custom PC Confi gurations” in Chapter 13, “Peripherals and Custom Computing,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: However, when you host virtual machines on a PC, that computer requires more CPU and RAM resources, not less. The virtual machine is still an OS. It won’t have an effect on employee train-ing, except perhaps that a user would have to know the basics of how to use virtual machine software.

72. Answer C is correct. You should ask the customer to explain the last thing that occurred before the computer stopped functioning properly. See the section titled “Professionalism and Communication Skills” in Chapter 19, “Safety, Procedures, and Professionalism,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Try not to ask users what they might have done. That line of questioning implies that the user is to blame. Instead, ask what the user witnessed. Never blame the user or insinuate blame. Telling the user not to use the computer will not solve the problem, and it will not help the customer’s frustration. Approach conversations with customers from a methodical standpoint and try to be objective, calm, and understanding.

73. Answers C and D are correct. Confi gure DHCP and MAC fi ltering. The “defi ned IP range” is set up by confi guring the DHCP on the SOHO wireless router. The way to limit the number of connections to fi ve authorized computers is to use MAC fi ltering. This will stop unknown wireless users from connecting to the network and possibly gobbling up bandwidth. See the section titled “SOHO Security” in Chapter 17, “Security,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: The SSID is the name of the wireless network; one needs to be confi gured to have a wireless network, but it won’t help with a specifi c number of authorized computers. In fact, once the wireless router is confi gured with the various MAC addresses of the comput-ers on the network, the SSID should be disabled (or set to invisible). A DMZ is a demilitarized zone, an area between the wireless network and the Internet that is accessible to workstations on the Internet. A DMZ might be used to store a web server, e-mail server, or gaming server. ARP stands for Address Resolution Protocol, which translates IP addresses to MAC addresses. This runs by default on Windows com-puters and is viewable/confi gurable by using the arp command in the Command Prompt.


26


74. Answers B and D are correct. You should look in the Event Viewer (Application log), and look for any other log fi les that are created by that new application. These might contain clues as to why the service won’t start. Perhaps the service is dependent on another service, or perhaps a particular fi le needs to be replaced. See the section titled “Windows Tools and Errors” in Chapter 11, “Troubleshooting Windows,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: The registry contains all the parameters of the operating system, but it won’t give you error information. %systemroot%\System32\Drivers contains drivers for hardware. Who knows, the log fi le might lead you to believe that a driver needs to be replaced, but it isn’t the fi rst place you should look. Task Manager shows the performance of the CPU and RAM and shows what services are running. You might have attempted to start the service from there (or the Services Console) as part of the scenario.

75. Answer A is correct. System > Advanced is the best answer. For example, in Windows 8/7, go to the System Properties dialog box and select the Advanced tab. Then go to the Performance section and select Settings. This opens the Performance Options dialog box. Next, select the Advanced tab and click the Change button for virtual memory. The Advanced tab of the System Properties dialog box can be quickly accessed by going to Start, right-clicking Computer, and then select-ing the Advanced system settings link. You can also access it by going to the Run prompt and typing systempropertiesadvanced.exe. See the section titled “Windows Tools and Errors” in Chapter 11, “Troubleshooting Windows,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: The Remote tab concerns the Remote Desktop and Remote Assistance features in Windows. The System Restore tab allows you to enable and confi gure the System Restore program. The Hardware tab allows you to access the Device Manager and device installation settings.

76. Answers B and D are correct. You should run antivirus and Windows updates as part of the computer maintenance to bring it up to date before placing it back on the main computer network. See the section titled “Updating Windows” in Chapter 10, “Maintaining Windows,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: The rest of the answers should not be necessary because the system boots fi ne and worked fi ne before it was temporarily decommissioned.



27

77. Answer C is correct. Most likely, the application was not developed to react to changes to the gyroscope. The gyroscope idea was originated by Apple, but has taken hold with other devices as well, building on the original three-axis accelerometers. Remember the difference between accelerometers (which measure velocity in a given direction—left to right, up and down, and back to front) and gyroscope (which deals with pitch, roll, and yaw). Also note that some questions might use these terms somewhat interchangeably. See the section titled “Android and iOS Basics” in Chapter 18, “Android, iOS, OS X, and Linux,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: The common name for the screen adjusting from portrait to landscape mode automatically is “screen rotation,” not “auto-adjust.” (Although not a listed answer, another possibility is that the mobile device is locked so that it won’t turn to landscape mode.) The tablet should still be able to rotate the screen even on low power. The user should not have to switch the tablet’s mode in the OS—simply rotating the tablet should suffi ce (if it’s unlocked).

78. Answers A and D are correct. Of the listed answers, the operating systems that support full usage of 8 GB of RAM are Windows 8.1 Pro 64-bit and Windows 7 Home Premium x64. x64 tells you that it is a 64-bit OS. See all the sections in Chapter 8, “Installing and Upgrading Windows,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: The other answers list 32-bit OSes, which can only access approximately 4 GB of RAM. x86 refers to 32-bit versions of the OS.

79. Answer C is correct. The best answer to maintain data security is to initiate a remote wipe on a device that has been lost or stolen. That will delete the data and make it very diffi cult to reconstruct. See the section titled “Android/iOS Security” in Chapter 18, “Android, iOS, OS X, and Linux,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Passcode locks and login attempt restrictions will only hamper a hacker who has appropriated the device. GPS can help to fi nd the device; however, if a device has been stolen or lost, time is of the essence, and the data should be remote-wiped right away.

80. Answer B is correct. Questioning the obvious is a part of the second step of the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting process. In full, the second step is “Establish a theory of probable cause (Question the obvious).” For example, from a software standpoint, if there is no sound, is the volume muted in the OS? Or if a network adapter is not functioning,


28


is it disabled in the Device Manager? Always look for the simple solu-tions fi rst—they are the most common. See the section titled “The Six-Step A+ Troubleshooting Process” in Chapter 1, “Introduction to Troubleshooting,” for more information.

Incorrect answers: Questioning the user is part of the fi rst step, which is identifying the problem. Testing the theory to determine cause is the third step of the troubleshooting process. Establishing a plan of action is the fourth step.

For review, here are the steps of the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting theory:

Step 1: Identify the problem.

Step 2: Establish a theory of probable cause. (Question the obvious.)

Step 3: Test the theory to determine cause.

Step 4: Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and imple-ment the solution.

Step 5: Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures.

Step 6: Document fi ndings, actions, and outcomes.

Know the A+ troubleshooting theory like the back of your hand for both exams!

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