Practice Test

Space for Rough Work

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Practice Test (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

[ SCIENCE]

Time : 3 Hrs. MM : 600

Choose the correct answer :

1. The physical quantity that changes or tends to

change the state of motion of solid body is called

(1) Mass (2) Force

(3) Speed (4) Velocity

2. In the shown figure, the difference between pressures

at points P1 and P

2 of the vessel filled with a liquid

of density d is ______. [P0 is the magnitude of

atmospheric pressure and g is acceleration due to

gravity]

h

P1 P

0

(1) P0 – hdg (2) P

0 + hdg

(3) hdg (4)0

P

hdg

3. If atmospheric pressure at a place is 101325 N/m2,

then the air pressure over a 10 cm2 area is

(1) 101.325 N/m2

(2) 10.1325 × 10–4 N/m2

(3) 1.01325 × 10–4 N/m2

(4) 101325 N/m2

4. Which of the following cannot be the unit of

pressure?

(1) N/m2 (2) pascal

(3) torr (4) N–1m2

5. Four vessels with different base area shown below

are filled with water. The increasing order of pressure

exerted due to water on the base is

(i)

A

h

(ii)

2h

3A

2

(iii)

2A

3h

(iv)

5A

2

h/2

(1) (iv) < (i) < (ii) < (iii)

(2) (iii) < (ii) < (i) < (iv)

(3) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)

(4) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i)

6. On which of the following factors friction does not

depends?

(1) Roughness of surfaces in contact

(2) Normal reaction in between the surfaces in

contact

(3) Area of contact in between the surfaces

(4) Weight of the body

PRACTICE TEST


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All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII) Practice Test (Code A)

7. An object about to move, comes into motion over a

rough surface by applying an increasing force on it.

Then

(1) The force of friction on the body increases

(2) The force of friction on the body decreases

(3) The force of friction remains constant

(4) The force of friction ceases to zero

8. Arrange the following types of friction forces in

increasing order.

(1) Rolling friction < sliding friction < limiting friction

(2) Rolling friction < limiting friction < sliding friction

(3) Limiting friction < sliding friction < rolling friction

(4) Sliding friction < limiting friction < rolling friction

9. An aeroplane gets charged while flying mainly due to

(1) Atmospheric pressure

(2) Friction

(3) Solar radiation

(4) Heat of the earth

10. Fluid friction acting on a submarine moving inside the

sea

(1) Increases with increase in the speed of

submarine

(2) Decreases with increase in the speed of

submarine

(3) Is independent of speed of submarine

(4) First increases and then decreases with the

increase in the speed of submarine

11. Find the odd one out amongst the following musical

instruments.

(1) Dholak (2) Bongos

(3) Sarod (4) Mridangam

12. The characteristic of sound wave that decides its

shrillness is called

(1) Amplitude (2) Speed

(3) Loudness (4) Pitch

13. If loudness of a sound wave increases to 4 times its

initial value, then the amplitude becomes _____

times the original.

(1) 16 (2) 8

(3) 4 (4) 2

14. A simple pendulum oscillates 10 times in

5 seconds. What is the ratio of its frequency to the

time period?

(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1

(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 3

15. The part of human ear that vibrates when sound

enters through the canal is called

(1) Pinna (2) Cochlea

(3) Eardrum (4) Auditory canal

16. In metals, the charge carriers are

(1) Ions (2) Electrons

(3) Atoms (4) Molecules

17. When electric current passes through the water added

with common salt, the gas/gases released is/are

(1) Hydrogen gas only

(2) Chlorine gas only

(3) Both hydrogen and chlorine gas

(4) Neither hydrogen nor chlorine gas

18. The cations in the electrolysis of sodium sulphate

solution move towards

(1) Anode

(2) Cathode

(3) Neither of the electrodes

(4) Any of the electrodes


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19. When the two terminals of a battery of unknown

polarity are inserted into a chopped potato then the

end which turns greenish blue is identified as

(1) Positive terminal

(2) Negative terminal

(3) Either positive or negative terminal

(4) Neither positive nor negative terminal

20. The free ends of copper wire connected with battery

is wrapped around the magnetic compass needle,

shows maximum deflection if connected with

(1) Graphite (2) Diamond

(3) Germanium (4) Silicon

21. Consider the following statements,

Statement-I : Esters are the chemicals with fruity

smell.

Statement-II : Terylene is also known as dacron.

Choose the correct option.

(1) Only Statement-I is correct

(2) Only statement-II is correct

(3) Both the statements are correct

(4) Both the statements are incorrect

22. Which of the following are the properties of Nylon?

(i) It is a linear polymer.

(ii) It is resistant to attack by moths and other

insects.

(iii) It is non-lustrous and easily wrinkled.

(iv) It is tough, strong and water resistant.

(1) (i), (ii) and (iv) (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(3) (i), (iii) and (iv) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

23. ‘Y’ is a polymer of ‘X’. Cotton is made up of ‘Y’.

What are ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively?

(1) Glucose and glycogen

(2) Glucose and cellulose

(3) Amino acid and proteins

(4) Glucose and starch

24. Which of the following synthetic fibres is generally

used to make sweaters and shawls?

(1) Orlon (2) Dacron

(3) Terrycot (4) Nylon

25. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

(1) Teflon — Thermoplastic

(2) Polystyrene — Thermocol

(3) Bakelite — Cross-linked polymer

(4) Synthetic rubber — Polyisoprene

26. Consider the following table :

Types of

polymers

A

D

Branched Chain

Properties of

Polymers

These are hard, rigid and brittle in nature

Have comparatively low densities and low melting points

Generally have high densities and high melting point

Examples

B

C

PVC

A, B, C and D respectively are

(1) Linear, Bakelite, Glycogen and Cross-linked

(2) Cross-linked, Bakelite, Glycogen and Linear

(3) Branched chain, Bakelite, Nylon and Linear

(4) Cross-linked, Glycogen, Melamine and Linear


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27. ‘X’ is a biodegradable polymer which is specially

used in coating of capsules. ‘X’ is

(1) PHBV (2) PHB

(3) Nylon-2-nylon-6 (4) Nylon-6,6

28. Consider the given equation

2(Black)

Ag(s) M(g) N H

Identify ‘M’ and ‘N’

(1) M = CO2

(2) M = SO2

N = Ag2CO

3N = Ag

2S

(3) M = H2S (4) M = O

2

N = Ag2S N = Ag

2O

29. Consider the metals given in the box

Cu, Ni, Hg, Pb, Zn

The correct order of their decreasing reactivity is

(1) Ni > Zn > Cu > Pb > Hg

(2) Zn > Ni > Pb > Cu > Hg

(3) Hg > Pb > Zn > Ni > Cu

(4) Zn > Ni > Hg > Cu > Pb

30. Which of the given metals produce H2 gas on

reacting with dil.HNO3?

(i) Mg (ii) Na

(iii) Mn (iv) Zn

(1) Only (i) and (ii) (2) Only (ii) and (iv)

(3) Only (iii) and (iv) (4) Only (i) and (iii)

31. Match the following :

Column-I Column-II

a. Metal + dil. acid (i) Allotrope of carbon

b. Water (ii) Metal oxide

c. Diamond (iii) Hydride of oxygen

d. Metal + Oxygen (iv) Hydrogen gas

Choose the correct option.

(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

32.n

Metal Cation

M ne M

The above general equation depicts that metals are

(1) Electropositive (2) Electronegative

(3) Malleable (4) Ductile

33. Identify the products of the given chemical reaction.

Mg + H2O (g)

(1) Mg(OH)2 + H

2 (2) Mg(OH)

2

(3) MgO + H2 (4) MgO + H

2O(l)

34. The oxide of a metal ‘M’ is amphoteric in nature,

which on reaction with NaOH produces a salt ‘P’

along with water. Metal ‘M’ is a constituent of brass.

‘M’ and ‘P’ respectively are

(1) Al and NaAlO2

(2) Zn and NaZnO2

(3) Al and Al(OH)3

(4) Zn and Zn(OH)2

35. Which of the following reactions is not possible?

(1) Mg(s) + CuSO4(aq) MgSO

4(aq) + Cu(s)

(2) CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s) FeSO

4(aq) + Cu(s)

(3) FeSO4(aq) + Zn(s) ZnSO

4(aq) + Fe(s)

(4) Zn(s) + MgSO4(aq) ZnSO

4(aq) + Mg(s)

36. Consider the given chemical equations

(i) P4(s) + O

2 X

(ii) X + H2O Y

‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively are

(1) P2O

2 and H

3PO

2(2) P

2O

5 and H

3PO

4

(3) PO2 and H

2PO

2(4) P

2O

5 and PO

2

37. The chemical composition of water gas is

(1) CO2 + H

2(2) CO + H

2

(3) CO + H2O (4) CO

2 + H

2O


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38. Consider the given table :

Elements

A

B

C

D

Atomic Number

9

19

11

15

A, B, C and D respectively are

(1) F, K, Na and P (2) Na, F, K and P

(3) Na, P, K and F (4) K, Na, F and P

39. Choose the incorrect statement.

(1) Na, Mg, K and Ca are essential metals required

as mineral in living body

(2) Hg is used in barometers

(3) Ti and Zr are used in atomic energy and space

science projects

(4) Mn is present in chlorophyll

40. Which of the given plastic is used to coat the

uniform of firemen?

(1) Teflon (2) Melamine

(3) Bakelite (4) Polyprene

41. Who discovered the microscopes

I. Which can be used to study living and

unstained cells and their activities like

cytoplasmic movements and cell division?

II. Which has high resolution of 0.25 Å and can be

used to observe very small organelles like

ribosomes?

Knoll and Ruska

Janssen

Zernike

Leeuwenhoek

Janssen

Leeuwenhoek

Knoll and Ruska

Zernike

(I) (II)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42. A scientist told a farmer that soil of his field is

suitable for growing plantation crops. Which of the

following crops can he grow in his field?

(i) Mustard (ii) Coconut

(iii) Beetroot (iv) Jute

(v) Coffee (vi) Barley

(1) (ii) & (v) only (2) (i), (iii) & (vi)

(3) (iii) & (iv) only (4) (i), (iv) & (vi)

43. The bacterium that causes cholera is

(1) Rod-shaped (2) Spherical-shaped

(3) Spiral-shaped (4) Comma-shaped

44. Select the incorrect statement regarding rock

shelters.

(1) These are shallow cave-like openings present in

Corbett National Park

(2) These are important archaeological evidences of

pre-historic human life

(3) Rock paintings depicting figures of animals,

tools for hunting, fighting, etc. are found in these

shelters

(4) They give an idea of the life of primitive people

45. Match the following columns and select the correct

option.

Column-I Column-II

a. Catla (P) Fresh water fish

b. Mrigal (Q) Marine water fish

c. Sardine

d. Salmon

e. Carp

(1) a(Q), b(Q), c(P), d(P), e(Q)

(2) a(P), b(P), c(Q), d(Q), e(P)

(3) a(Q), b(P), c(Q), d(P), e(P)

(4) a(P), b(Q), c(P), d(Q), e(Q)


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46. A person was diagnosed with the deficiency of

vitamin-D. Which of the following food items should

he consume regularly?

(1) Carrots

(2) Pulses

(3) Fish

(4) Nuts

47. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the

organism which lie on the borderline, separating living

organisms from the non-living things?

(1) They have a cellular structure

(2) They have either DNA or RNA as their genetic

material

(3) They are also called obligate parasites

(4) They can cause several diseases like AIDS,

polio, chicken pox, etc.

48. A farmer was worried because of the poor growth of

his wheat crop. He saw some unwanted plants

growing in his field along with wheat plants. Which

of the following unwanted plants could be growing

along with wheat and which chemical should he use

to kill them, respectively?

(1) Wild oat and methanol

(2) Rose and hydrochloric acid

(3) Mentha and DDT

(4) Chenopodium and 2,4,1-MCPA

49. Which of the following is a free-living nitrogen fixing

cyanobacteria and nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria

associated with Azolla, respectively?

(1) Rhizobium and Nostoc

(2) Nostoc and Anabaena

(3) Azotobacter and Rhizobium

(4) Anabaena and Azotobacter

50.

P

Q

R

Match the different zones of a biosphere reserve

labelled as P, Q and R in the given diagram with the

following information.

X. Non-conservational activities are prohibited here.

Y. It is a legally protected area.

Z. Human settlement is allowed here.

(1) X-P, Y-Q, Z-R (2) X-Q, Y-R, Z-P

(3) X-R, Y-P, Z-Q (4) X-P, Y-R, Z-Q

51. How many of the following is are air-borne bacterial

disease(s)?

Measles, Cholera, Typhoid, Tuberculosis

Polio, Chicken pox

(1) One (2) Three

(3) Four (4) Two

52. In an examination, the students were asked to write

the names of the cell organelles that are

(A) Responsible for osmoregulation in cells.

(B) Protein factories of a cell.

(C) Sites of aerobic respiration in a cell.

The students gave the following answers.

Arun : A - Vacuole, B - Nucleolus & C - RER

Bipasha : A - Cell membrane, B - RER & C - Vacuole

Diksha : A - Vacuole, B - Ribosomes & C -

Mitochondrion

Firoz : A - SER, B - Chloroplast & C - Cell wall


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Geetika : A - Vacuole, B - Ribosomes & C -

Mitochondrion

Kartik : A - Cell membrane, B - RER & C - Vacuole

Lokesh : A - Cell membrane, B - RER & C - Vacuole

Identify the students who gave the correct answers.

(1) Kartik, Lokesh and Bipasha

(2) Diksha and Geetika

(3) Arun and Feroz

(4) Arun, Lokesh, Feroz and Kartik

53. Who is known as the father of operation flood?

(1) Norman E. Borlaug (2) M.S. Swaminathan

(3) Dr. V. Kurien (4) Luc Montagnier

54. Statement I : Birds who cover long distances to

reach another land are called migratory birds.

Statement II : Migratory birds fly to far away places

every year during a particular time because of

climatic changes.

Statement III : Siberian crane that comes to

Bharatpur, Gujarat is a very good example of

migratory birds.

(1) Only statement III is incorrect

(2) All statements are incorrect

(3) Statements II & III are incorrect

(4) All statements are correct

55. After eating roadside food, Diya suffered from

gastrointestinal trouble, nausea, vomiting and

diarrhoea. Doctor told her that she is suffering from

food poisoning. Which of the following might have

caused this?

(i) Aspergillus (ii) Salmonella

(iii) Bacillus (iv) Penicillium

(v) Clostridium (vi) Xanthomonas

(1) (i), (iii) & (v) (2) (iii) & (vi)

(3) (ii), (iii) & (iv) (4) (ii) & (v)

56. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct

sequence of words to be filled in the gaps provided.

Seeds of many vegetables are not sown directly in

the field. Instead they are sown in a small seed bed

where they are allowed to grow into small ______

which are then transferred to the field. This process

is called ______. ______ and ______ can be grown

by this process.

(1) Seedling, transplantation, tomato, chilli

(2) Plantlet, sowing, paddy, maize

(3) Plantlet, weeding, potato, banana

(4) Seedling, lodging, strawberry, tea

57. Classify the following high yielding varieties of wheat,

paddy and maize.

(i) Deccan hybrid

(ii) Sharbati Sonara

(iii) Arjun

(iv) Jaya

(v) Padma

(vi) Ganga-101

(vii) Sonalika

(ii) & (vii)

(i) & (vi)

(i), (ii) & (iii)

(ii), (iii) & (vii)

(i), (iv) & (v)

(ii), (iv) & (vii)

(vi) & (v)

(i) & (vi)

Wheat

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Maize

(iii) only

(iii) & (v)

(iv) & (vii)

(iv) & (v)

Paddy

58. Which of the following vaccines is given to prevent

infantile paralysis?

(1) OPV

(2) BCG

(3) HBV

(4) Hib


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59. The owner of a barn was worried as some sheep,

goat and cattle of his farm were showing symptoms

like breathing problems, loss of appetite, blood in

vomiting, etc. Doctor told him that it is happening

because of a bacterial disease. Which of the

following diseases is most likely affecting the

animals?

(1) Anthrax

(2) Foot and mouth disease

(3) Rinderpest

(4) Ranikhet disease

60. Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve consists of

A National Park(I)

Two Wildlife Sanctuaries

(II) (III)

Identify I, II and III.

(1) I - Satpura National Park

II - Bori Wildlife Sanctuary

III - Pachmarhi Wildlife Sanctuary

(2) I - Bandipur National Park

II - Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary

III - Manas Wildlife Sanctuary

(3) I - Manas National Park

II - Manas Wildlife Sanctuary

III - Bori Wildlife Sanctuary

(4) I - Gir National Park

II - Pachmarhi Wildlife Sanctuary

III - Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary

61. Mesosomes present in prokaryotic cells are

functionally similar to which cell organelle of a

eukaryotic cell?

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Golgi apparatus

(3) Mitochondrion

(4) Centrosome

62. Which of the following sets of words should be used

to replace the underlined words (wherever necessary)

to make the given statements correct?

(i) A.V. Leeuwenhoek published his work in the

book Micrographia.

(ii) Micro-irrigation system provides water to plants

drop by drop.

(iii) The first virus which was discovered was pox

virus.

(iv) The headquarters of WWF are located in

Geneva.

Rudolf Virchow

Robert Hooke

A.V. Leeuwenhoek

Schleiden & Schwann

(i)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Sprinkler method

Micro-irrigation

Sprinkler method

Drip irrigation

Pox

Tobacco mosaic

FMD

Human immuno- deficiency

Geneva

Switzerland

New York

Switzerland

(ii) (iii) (iv)

63. Vishnu saw his grandmother putting papads on the

roof for drying. What could be the reason(s) for this?

(i) It increases the moisture content.

(ii) It prevents spoilage.

(iii) It inhibits the growth of bacteria.

(iv) It enhances its taste.

(1) (i), (ii) & (iii) (2) (ii) & (iii)

(3) (i) & (iv) (4) (iv) only


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64. A student was asked to make a diagram of

bacteriophage. Identify the number of part(s)

incorrectly labelled by him.

Capsid

Nucleic acid core (DNA/RNA)

Sheath

Tail fibres

Head

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four

65. In which of the following plants biological nitrogen

fixation would occur?

(i) Gram (ii) Clover

(iii) Cowpea (iv) Sunflower

(v) Maize (vi) Coffee

(vii) Jute (viii) Potato

(ix) Bamboo

(1) (i), (ii) & (iii) (2) (ii), (iv), (vi) & (viii)

(3) (iii), (v) & (vii) (4) (iii), (v), (vi) & (vii)

66. For a class project, Rajat added 2-3 table spoons of

sugar in about 500 mL of water with half a spoon of

yeast powder in the solution. He kept this solution

for 4-5 hrs. in a warm place and observed a smell

coming out of the solution. What could be the

reason for this smell?

(1) Evolution of oxygen

(2) Production of ethyl alcohol

(3) Formation of acetic acid

(4) Growth of bacteria

67. Centromere

Chromatid

The given structure is formed in the (i) of a cell

during (ii) .

(1) (i) Nucleolus, (ii) Cell division

(2) (i) Cytoplasm, (ii) Cell death

(3) (i) Vacuole, (ii) Cell formation

(4) (i) Nucleus, (ii) Cell division

68. Select the incorrect match.

(1) Citrus canker – Xanthomonas citri

(2) Tobacco mosaic – Tobacco mosaic virus

disease

(3) Rust of wheat – Acetobacter aceti

(4) Yellow vein mosaic – Yellow vein mosaic

disease virus

69. All of the following can be used for weeding, except

(1) Trowel

(2) Harrow

(3) Seed drill

(4) Combine

70. Which of the following is not a consequence of

deforestation?

(1) Soil erosion

(2) Forest fire

(3) Lowering of ground water level

(4) Change in water cycle


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71. Select an incorrect statement w.r.t. plasma

membrane.

(1) It is present in both plant cells and animal cells

(2) It is thin, elastic and porous

(3) It is completely permeable

(4) It is mainly formed of proteins and lipids

72. Kaziranga National Park is famous for

(1) Asiatic lion (2) One-horned rhinoceros

(3) Hyenas (4) Snow leopard

73. Gobar gas is produced during

(1) Composting

(2) Formation of green manure

(3) Ploughing

(4) Fallowing

74. Match the following columns and select the correct

option.

Column-I Column-II

a. Bacteria (P) Prokaryotic cell

b. Mycoplasma (Q) Eukaryotic cell

c. Onion cells

d. Blue green algae

e. Human cheek cells

(1) a(P), b(P), c(Q), d(P), e(Q)

(2) a(Q), b(P), c(P), d(Q), e(P)

(3) a(P), b(Q), c(Q), d(P), e(Q)

(4) a(Q), b(Q), c(P), d(P), e(P)

75. Select the incorrect match.

(1) Vulnerable species – Elephant

(2) Endangered species – Stellar’s cow

(3) Critically endangered – Thick billed parrot

species

(4) Extinct species – Dodo

76. In India, a farmer has just harvested the crop of

watermelon in the month of June. Which of the following

crop(s) now he can choose to sow in his field?

(i) Wheat (ii) Soyabean

(iii) Cotton (iv) Bajra

(v) Muskmelon (vi) Mustard

(1) (i), (v) & (vi) (2) (i) & (vi) only

(3) (ii), (iii) & (iv) (4) (iii), (v) & (vi)

77. Which of the following is not a fumigant?

(1) Ethylene dibromide (2) Malathion

(3) Aluminium phosphide(4) Methyl bromide

78. The scientists who discovered virus and nature of

viruses respectively, are

(1) Wendell Stanley and M. Beijerinck

(2) Leeuwenhoek and D.J. Ivanowski

(3) M. Beijerinck and Alexander Fleming

(4) D.J. Ivanowski and Wendell Stanley

79. Ribosomes

‘X’Present in eukaryotic cells only

‘Y’Present in

prokaryotic cells and mitochondria of eukaryotic cells

Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’.

(1) ‘X’ - 80 S and ‘Y’ - 70 S

(2) ‘X’ - 70 S and ‘Y’ - 50 S

(3) ‘X’ - 40 S and ‘Y’ - 60 S

(4) ‘X’ - 30 S and ‘Y’ - 50 S

80. The vector which transmits the pathogen of filariasis

is

(1) Dengue virus

(2) Female Anopheles mosquito

(3) Housefly

(4) Female Culex mosquito


11/17


[ MATHEMATICS

]

81. The greatest rational number amongst 1 3 5, ,

2 5 9 and

7

12 is

(1)1

2(2)

3

5

(3)5

9(4)

7

12

82. A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days. If A

alone can do the same piece of work in 20 days,

then B alone can do the same piece of work in

(1) 24 days (2) 12 days

(3) 30 days (4) 36 days

83. If ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral as shown in the

figure, then 'x' equals

70°

x

40°

B

C

DA

(1) 30° (2) 40°

(3) 70° (4) 80°

84. The number of distinct parallelograms that can be

formed if two adjacent sides and one included angle

are given is

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4

85. A positive fraction is such that the sum of the

numerator and the denominator is 10. Of all such

fractions, the number of fractions that can be

simplified further is

(1) 5 (2) 6

(3) 8 (4) 9

86. The minimum number of measurements required to

draw a unique quadrilateral is

(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 4 (4) 5

87. Consider the kite as shown in the figure. If AB = 10

cm, BC = 17 cm and BD = 16 cm, then AC equals

A

B

C

D

E

(1) 21 cm (2) 24 cm

(3) 30 cm (4) 36 cm

88. Out of 25 observations, it is known that 11 occurs

4 times, 15 occurs 8 times and 17 occurs 6 times.

The remaining 7 observations are unknown. The

median of the data, M satisfies the relation

(1) M < 11 (2) 11 M < 15

(3) 15 M 17 (4) M > 17

89. The cube root of 1 3 42

1– 3 – 4 –2 –3 5 64

⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠ is

(1) 1 (2)6

5

(3) 2 (4)7

3


12/17


90. The number of two-digit numbers that cannot be

expressed as the sum of the squares of two

consecutive natural numbers is

(1) 74 (2) 81

(3) 85 (4) 87

91. If 3a = 4b = 24c (a, b, c 0), then –

b b

c a equals

(1)1

2(2) 1

(3)3

2(4) 2

92. The number of perfect cubes having exactly 3 digits

is

(1) 3 (2) 4

(3) 5 (4) 6

93. The mean and the median of 19 observations are 30

and 25 respectively. Then, the number of

observations more than 30 can be

(1) 17 (2) 11

(3) 13 (4) 7

94. The sum of the squares of 3 consecutive natural

numbers when divided by 12 gives a remainder of

(1) 1 or 4 (2) 2 or 5

(3) 4 or 8 (4) 3, 6 or 9

95. If 1

1

11 19S

and

2

1

13 17S

, then

(1) S1 < S

2(2) S

1 = S

2

(3) S1 > S

2(4) S

1 = 2S

2

96. Five years ago, the father was ten times as old as

his son. Fifteen years from now, the father will be

twice as old as his son. The father’s present age is

(1) 25 years

(2) 30 years

(3) 35 years

(4) 40 years

97. In the given figure, the value of x is

90° 85°

70°

80°

130°x

(1) 75° (2) 80°

(3) 85° (4) 90°

98. In the given figure, ABCD is a quadrilateral with

diagonals AC and BD such that AB = 3 cm,

BC = 4 cm, AD = 4 cm and AC = 6 cm. Which of

the following additional information can help in

constructing a unique quadrilateral?

AB

C

D

(1) CAB

(2) CBA

(3) ACB

(4) DAB


13/17


99. Five observations a1, a

2, a

3, a

4 and a

5 are such that

a1 < a

2 < a

3 < a

4 < a

5 and the average of a

1 and a

4

is greater than a3. Then, which of the following is not

true?

(1) Mean of a2 and a

5 is greater than a

3

(2) Mean of all the five observations is greater than

a3

(3) Median of all the five observations is less than

the mean of all the five observations

(4) Median of all the five observations is greater than

the mean of all the five observations

100. The value of

3 3 3 3 3 33 7 3 7 3 77 – 7 – 2 7 – 7 – 2 7 – 7 – 2 1 is

(1) 1 (2) 3 5

(3) 3 6 (4) 2

101. If n is a natural number such that n2 = 1681, then

n equals

(1) 39 (2) 41

(3) 49 (4) 51

102. Out of the numbers 1, 2, 3........., 20, one number

is chosen at random. The probability that the

number selected is a perfect square is

(1)2

5(2)

1

5

(3)7

20(4)

3

20

103. If 2

42x and

1

21

4y x

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠ , then the value of y is

(1) 2 (2) 4

(3) 16 (4) 256

104. If a is a natural number such that a3 + a is a

multiple of 10, then the last digit of a3 – a cannot be

(1) 0 (2) 2

(3) 4 (4) 6

105. If p, q, r and s are positive rational numbers such

that p – q = r – s < 0, then

(1)p r

q s when q < s (2)

p r

q s when q = s

(3)p r

q s when q > s (4)

p r

q s is always true

106. Mr. Patel has ` 5000 with him. He has 22 currency

notes of which some are of denomination ` 500,

while the rest are that of ` 100. The number of notes

of ` 100 is

(1) 5 (2) 10

(3) 15 (4) 20

107. Let Tn denotes the number of diagonals in a n-sided

regular polygon. If Tk = kT

5

and T = Tk, then the

value of – k is

(1) 5 (2) 13

(3) 120 (4) 133

108. Which of the following is not a factor of 83 + 93 +

103 + .......+143?

(1) 3 (2) 7

(3) 11 (4) 19

109. x and N are both natural numbers such that

1 1 1

2 3 3 4 4 5N x x x ........

1

9 10x

. If x > 1 and

N > 1, then the least possible value of N is

(1) 2 (2) 4

(3) 16 (4) 27


14/17


110. If five rational numbers a, b, c, d and e are inserted

between 1

100 and

1

5, then which of the following is

always true?

(1)1

20< a + b + c + d + e <

1

5

(2)1

2000< a + b + c + d + e <

1

100

(3)1

2000< a2 + b2 + c2 + d2 + e2 <

1

5

(4)1

2000< a2 + b2 + c2 + d2 + e2 <

1

100

111. The sum of the digits of a two digit number n is 11.

If the digits are reversed, then the new number

becomes N. The value of n + N equals

(1) 100 (2) 101

(3) 99 (4) 121

112. If the sum of the interior angles of a n-sided polygon

is 1 × 2 × 3 × .......× n, then the value of n is

(1) 5 (2) 6

(3) 7 (4) 8

113. If x is a natural number such that 9 < x + 1

x

< 16,

then the maximum possible value of x is

(1) 9 (2) 10

(3) 15 (4) 16

114. The last 3 digits of 193 is

(1) 361 (2) 163

(3) 595 (4) 859

115. If x is a non-zero real number, then –1 2

1

1 x x +

1 3

1

1 x x +

–3 –2

1

1 x x equals

(1) 1 (2) x

(3) x2 + x3 (4)1

–x

x

116. A train travels at 55 km/h. If the speed of the train

is increased by 5 km/h, then it takes 1 hour less to

reach the station. The original time taken to reach

the station is

(1) 10 hrs (2) 11 hrs

(3) 12 hrs (4) 15 hrs

117. The greatest perfect square, which is a factor of

2016 has the last digit

(1) 2 (2) 4

(3) 6 (4) 8

118. Mr. Ajit draws a pie chart (as shown in the figure) to

depict the various expenses and savings in a month.

If x < y, then

House rent

Education

Saving

Oth

er

Exp

ense

s

110°x

y

130°

(1) 0° < y < 60° (2) 60° < y < 120°

(3) 120° < y < 130° (4) y > 130°

119. The value of

1 1 1

p q rpq qr rp

q r p

x x x

x x x

⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠

(x 0) is

always equal to

(1) 1 (2) xpqr

(3) xpq + qr + rp (4) xp + q + r

120. If the average of the first n natural numbers is 28,

then the average of the squares of these n natural

numbers is

(1) 55 (2) 84

(3) 784 (4) 1036


15/17


[ MENTAL ABILITY

]

Directions (Q121 to Q123) : Choose a option which is

correct for given patterns.

121. 216, 343, 512, 729, 1000, ?

(1) 1728 (2) 1331

(3) 2197 (4) 2744

122. 7047, 2349, 783, 261, ?

(1) 77 (2) 97

(3) 87 (4) 67

123. 14 __ __ 81 __ 1 __

(1) 8484 (2) 4844

(3) 8844 (4) 4848

124. 6 : 36 : : 14 : 196 : : 19 : 361 : : 23 : ?

(1) 629 (2) 429

(3) 729 (4) 529

125. CW : DV : : EU : FT : : IQ : ?

(1) LO (2) JP

(3) IS (4) IP

126. ‘Barometer’ is related to ‘atmospheric pressure’ in

the same way as ‘seismograph’ is related to

(1) Fever (2) Mercury

(3) Earthquakes (4) Doctor

Directions (Q127 to Q129) : If ‘ ’ means ‘+’, ‘#’ means

‘ ’, ‘ ` ’ means ‘×’, ‘%’ means ‘greater than’, ‘!’ means

‘–’ and ‘’ means ‘less than’, then answer the following

questions.

127. The value of 65 # 13 4 ! 16 # 4 ` 1 is

(1) 5 (2) 4

(3) 3 (4) 2

128. If a b % b d, then

(1) a d

(2) d % a

(3) Results cannot be determine

(4) a % d

129. Which of the following equation is correct?

(1) 18 ! 3 20 ` 5 # 5 = 4

(2) 18 3 ! 20 # 5 ` 5 = 1

(3) 18 20 ! 3 # 5 ` 5 = 5

(4) 18 # 3 ! 20 5 ` 5 = 6

130. Which of the following position of a standard dice is

not correct?

(1)1

23(2)

4

56

(3)1

25(4)

3

26

131. A cube is painted on two opposite faces only. Now

it cut into 27 smaller cubes of equal size. How

many cubes are painted exactly on one face only?

(1) 18 (2) 9

(3) 2 (4) 7

132. Three position of a same dice is given below :

5

62

1 1

6 55 3

Which number is opposite to number ‘4’?

(1) 2 (2) 1

(3) 6 (4) 5


16/17


133. If ‘TEXT’ is coded as 5725, ‘EXIT’ is coded as 7245

and ‘AIM’ is coded as 943, then ‘IEXAM’ will be

coded as

(1) 57429 (2) 47293

(3) 94275 (4) 34725

134. If red is called green, green is called blue, blue is

called grey, grey is called yellow, then colour of

clear sky is

(1) Blue (2) Yellow

(3) Grey (4) Orange

135. If A = 26, B = 25, C = 24 and so on upto Z, then

CAT = 57. Similarly HEN is equal to

(1) 54 (2) 45

(3) 56 (4) 59

136. If east is called ‘north-west’, then west is called

(1) North (2) South-west

(3) South-east (4) North-east

137. In the evening, Ram and Rahim are standing in a

park facing each other. If Ram is facing towards

South, then Sun shadow of Rahim is

(1) Right of Ram

(2) Left of Ram

(3) Infront of Ram

(4) Behind of Ram

138. Indu and Khazan starts walking from point A.

Khazan move 14 2 m towards south-west and

reaches at point B. Indu moves 48 m towards east

and reaches at point C. From point B Khazan moves

14 m towards east and reaches at D. The distance

between point D and C is

(1) 49 m (2) 48 2 m

(3) 50 2 m (4) 50 m

Directions (Q139 to Q141) : Read the given information

carefully and answer the following questions.

Jay is heavier than Vijay, who is taller than Arun. Ankit is

heavier than Ramesh and lighter than Vijay, who is taller

than Ramesh. Ankit is taller than Arun but smaller than

Ramesh.

139. Who is tallest?

(1) Ramesh (2) Vijay

(3) Ankit (4) Jay

140. Who is heaviest?

(1) Jay (2) Vijay

(3) Ramesh (4) Ankit

141. Who is smallest?

(1) Ramesh (2) Ankit

(3) Arun (4) Vijay

Directions (Q142 to Q144) : Read the given information

carefully and answer the following questions.

Four friends Joy, Sanjay, Veer and Ajay like colour yellow,

green, blue and white but not necessarily in order. Each

likes only one colour. Sanjay is older than Ajay and not

likes white or blue. Joy is oldest and likes green. Veer is

younger than Sanjay and older than Ajay, who likes white.

142. Who is youngest?

(1) Joy (2) Ajay

(3) Sanjay (4) Veer

143. Who likes blue colour?

(1) Joy (2) Veer

(3) Sanjay (4) Ajay

144. Which colour is liked by Sanjay?

(1) Yellow (2) Green

(3) Blue (4) White


17/17


Directions (Q145 to Q147) : Find the mirror image of the

word / figure / number in the following questions.

145. WELCOME

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

146. 256987364

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

147.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Directions (Q148 to Q150) : Choose the correct option to

complete the given figure.

148.

?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

149.

?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

150.?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

� � �

1/7

Practice Test (Code A) - (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

ANSWERS

1. (2)

2. (3)

3. (4)

4. (4)

5. (1)

6. (3)

7. (2)

8. (1)

9. (2)

10. (1)

11. (3)

12. (4)

13. (4)

14. (1)

15. (3)

16. (2)

17. (3)

18. (2)

19. (1)

20. (1)

21. (3)

22. (1)

23. (2)

24. (1)

25. (4)

26. (2)

27. (1)

28. (3)

29. (2)

30. (4)

Test Date : 04-10-2015

31. (2)

32. (1)

33. (3)

34. (2)

35. (4)

36. (2)

37. (2)

38. (1)

39. (4)

40. (2)

41. (3)

42. (1)

43. (4)

44. (1)

45. (2)

46. (3)

47. (1)

48. (4)

49. (2)

50. (2)

51. (1)

52. (2)

53. (3)

54. (1)

55. (4)

56. (1)

57. (4)

58. (1)

59. (1)

60. (1)

61. (3)

62. (2)

63. (2)

64. (2)

65. (1)

66. (2)

67. (4)

68. (3)

69. (4)

70. (2)

71. (3)

72. (2)

73. (1)

74. (1)

75. (2)

76. (3)

77. (2)

78. (4)

79. (1)

80. (4)

81. (2)

82. (3)

83. (1)

84. (1)

85. (1)

86. (4)

87. (1)

88. (3)

89. (3)

90. (3)

91. (3)

92. (3)

93. (4)

94. (2)

95. (3)

96. (2)

97. (3)

98. (4)

99. (4)

100. (1)

101. (2)

102. (2)

103. (4)

104. (2)

105. (1)

106. (3)

107. (3)

108. (1)

109. (2)

110. (3)

111. (4)

112. (2)

113. (3)

114. (4)

115. (1)

116. (3)

117. (2)

118. (2)

119. (1)

120. (4)

121. (2)

122. (3)

123. (1)

124. (4)

125. (2)

126. (3)

127. (1)

128. (4)

129. (2)

130. (3)

131. (1)

132. (4)

133. (2)

134. (3)

135. (1)

136. (3)

137. (2)

138. (4)

139. (2)

140. (1)

141. (3)

142. (2)

143. (2)

144. (1)

145. (2)

146. (3)

147. (4)

148. (2)

149. (3)

150. (4)

PRACTICE TEST

2/7

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII) Practice Test (Code A) - (Answers & Hints)

Hints to Selected Questions

[ SCIENCE]

1. Answer (2)

2. Answer (3)

3. Answer (4)

Atmospheric pressure is independant of area.

4. Answer (4)

5. Answer (1)

Pressure is directly proportional to height of liquid

column.

6. Answer (3)

7. Answer (2)

8. Answer (1)

9. Answer (2)

10. Answer (1)

11. Answer (3)

12. Answer (4)

13. Answer (4)

Loudness (L) [Amplitude (A)]2

Let initial loudness = L

Final loudness = 4L

2

4 '

L A

L A

⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠

A2 = 4A2

A = 2A

Hence, amplitude becomes twice.

14. Answer (1)

Frequency = 10

5 = 2Hz

Time period =5

10 =

1

2 sec

Frequency 2

1Time Period2

= 4 : 1

15. Answer (3)

16. Answer (2)

17. Answer (3)

18. Answer (2)

19. Answer (1)

20. Answer (1)

As graphite is a good conductor of electricity.

21. Answer (3)

22. Answer (1)

23. Answer (2)

24. Answer (1)

25. Answer (4)

26. Answer (2)

27. Answer (1)

28. Answer (3)

29. Answer (2)

30. Answer (4)

31. Answer (2)

32. Answer (1)

33. Answer (3)

34. Answer (2)

35. Answer (4)

36. Answer (2)

37. Answer (2)

38. Answer (1)

39. Answer (4)

40. Answer (2)

41. Answer (3)

Phase contrast microscope is used to study living or

unstained cells and their activities like cytoplasmic

movements and cell division.

Electron microscope has a high resolution of 0.25 Å

and can be used to observe small organelles like

ribosomes.

42. Answer (1)

43. Answer (4)

Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae.

44. Answer (1)

45. Answer (2)

46. Answer (3)

47. Answer (1)

Viruses lie on the borderline, separating living

organisms from non-living.

48. Answer (4)

3/7


49. Answer (2)

Nostoc is a free-living cyanobacteria and Anabaena

is a symbiotic cyanobacteria.

50. Answer (2)

P, Q, R are transition, buffer and core area,

respectively.

51. Answer (1)

52. Answer (2)

53. Answer (3)

Operation flood is also known as white revolution.

54. Answer (1)

55. Answer (4)

56. Answer (1)

57. Answer (4)

Polio is also known as infantile paralysis.

58. Answer (1)

59. Answer (1)

60. Answer (1)

61. Answer (3)

Mitochondria are sites of aerobic respiration in a cell.

62. Answer (2)

63. Answer (2)

64. Answer (2)

65. Answer (1)

Biological nitrogen fixation occurs in leguminous

plants.

66. Answer (2)

Yeast is used for the purpose of fermentation, a

process of anaerobic conversion of sugars into

alcohol.

67. Answer (4)

The given figure is of chromosome.

68. Answer (3)

Acetobacter aceti is used for the production of

vinegar.

69. Answer (4)

A combine is a “combined harvester and thresher”.

70. Answer (2)

71. Answer (3)

Plasma membrane is selectively permeable in nature.

72. Answer (2)

73. Answer (1)

74. Answer (1)

75. Answer (2)

Stellar’s cow is an example of extinct species.

76. Answer (3)

Soyabean, cotton and bajra are examples of Kharif

crop.

77. Answer (2)

Malathion is sprayed mechanically on the gunny

bags in storage houses.

78. Answer (4)

79. Answer (1)

80. Answer (4)

[ MATHEMATICS

]

81. Answer (2)

82. Answer (3)

83. Answer (1)

84. Answer (1)

85. Answer (1)

Let ‘x’ be the denominator (x 0, 10).

Then, the fraction is 10 – x

x

, which can be simplified

further if x and 10 – x have common factors which is

possible if x = 2, 4, 5, 6, 8

So, there are 5 such fractions possible.

86. Answer (4)

87. Answer (1)

88. Answer (3)

The median will take the least value when all the 7

unknown observations are less than 11. Then, the

median (13th observation) is 15.

So, M 15

The median will take the greatest value when all the

7 unknown observations are greater than 17. Then,

the median (13th observation) is 17.So M 17

Hence, 15 M 17

89. Answer (3)

4/7


90. Answer (3)

Consider this

12 + 22 = 5; 22 + 32 = 13; 32 + 42 = 25;

42 + 52 = 41; 52 + 62 = 61; 62 + 72 = 85;

72 + 82 = 113

So, the only two digit numbers that can be


consecutive natural numbers are 13, 25, 41, 61 and

85 i.e., 5 numbers. The remaining 2 digit numbers

(90 – 5 = 85) are the numbers that cannot be


consecutive natural numbers.

91. Answer (3)

Let 3a = 4b = 24c = k

3 =

1

ak , 4 =

1

bk , 24 =

1

ck

Now, 24 = 3 × 8 = 3 ×

3

24

1

ck =

1

ak ×

3 1.

2 bk

1 1 3

2c a b

1 1 3–

2c a b

3

–2

b b

c a

92. Answer (3)

93. Answer (4)

25 = Median of 19 observations = 10th observation

So, 30 > 25

Hence, the number of observations more than 30 can

be at the most 9.

94. Answer (2)

Case-I : If the 3 consecutive natural numbers are

2k – 1, 2k and 2k + 1, then

N = (2k – 1)2 + (2k)2 + (2k + 1)2

= 12k2 + 2

Case-II : If the 3 consecutive natural numbers are 2k,

2k + 1 and 2k + 2, then

N = (2k)2 + (2k + 1)2 + (2k + 2)2

= 12k2 + 12k + 5

So, if N is divided by 12, then the remainder can be

2 or 5.

95. Answer (3)

96. Answer (2)

Let son’s present age be x years.

5 years ago, father's age = 10(x – 5) years

15 years from now, father's age = 2(x + 15) years

Also, 2(x + 15) – 10(x – 5) = 20

x + 15 – 5x + 25 = 10

x = 71

2

So, father's present age = 10(x – 5) + 5

= 30 years

97. Answer (3)

98. Answer (4)

99. Answer (4)

1 4

32

a a

a

[Given]

2 51 4

32 2

a aa a

a

[∵ a

1 < a

2 and a

4 < a

5

(given)]

a3 + a

3 <

2 51 4

2 2

a aa a

4a3 < a

1 + a

2 + a

4 + a

5

5a3 < a

1 + a

2 + a

3 + a

4 + a

5

a3 < Mean of all the five given observations

Median < Mean

100. Answer (1)

73 – 27 + 1 = 343 – 128 + 1 = 216 = 63

3 3 77 – 2 1 = 6

The given expression becomes

3 3 3 33 7 3 7 37 – 7 – 2 7 – 7 – 2 7 – 6

= 3 3 3 33 7 3 77 – 7 – 2 7 – 7 – 2 1

= 3 3 3 7 37 – 7 – 2 7 – 6

= 3 3 3 77 – 7 – 2 1

= 37 – 6 = 1

101. Answer (2)

102. Answer (2)

5/7


103. Answer (4)

x = 216

1 1

162 2(2 )y x = 28 = 256

104. Answer (2)

a3 + a is a multiple of 10. So, the last digit of a can

be 0, 2, 3, 5, 7 or 8. Hence, the last digit of a3 – a

can be 0 – 0, 8 – 2, 7 – 3, 5 – 5 i.e., 0, 4 or 6

105. Answer (1)

p – q = r – s < 0

p – r = q – s = k (say)

Now, ( – )

– –( – )

p r p r r r

q s q s s s

= –

k r r

k s s

= – – ( – )

( ) ( )

ks rs rk rs k s r

s k s s k s

Now, s > 0, k + s = q > 0 and s – r > 0 [Given]

– 0

p r

q s if k < 0

i.e., if q – s < 0

i.e., if q < s

106. Answer (3)

107. Answer (3)

5

5 (5 – 3)5

2T

Now, Tk

= kT

5 = 5k

( – 3)

2

k k = 5k

k – 3 = 10

k = 13

Again, T= Tk = T

13 = ×

13 (13 – 3)65

2

– 3

2

= 65

= 133

– k = 133 – 13 = 120

108. Answer (1)

83 + 93 + 103 + ........+ 143

= (13 + 23 + ........+143) – (13 + 23 + ........+73)

=

2 2 2 214 15 7 8

–4 4

= (7 × 15)2 – (7 × 4)2 = 72 (152 – 42)

= 72 × 11 × 19

109. Answer (2)

1 1 1 1.....

2 3 3 4 4 5 9 10N x

=

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1........– – – –

2 3 3 4 4 5 9 10x

⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠

=

1 1 5–1 2–

2 10 10 5x x x

But x and N are both natural numbers and are both

greater than 1. So,

1

5x = 2 x = 32

N =

2

5(32) = 22 = 4

110. Answer (3)

1

100 < a, b, c, d, e <

1

5

15

100 < a + b + c + d + e <

15

5

1

20 < a + b + c + d + e < 1 …(i)

Also,

21

5100

⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠ < a2 + b2 + c2 + d2 + e2

<

21

55

⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

1

2000< a2 + b2 + c2 + d2 + e2 <

1

5

111. Answer (4)

Let the digit in the units place be x

Then, the digit in the ten's plane = 11 – x

n = 10(11 – x) + x = 110 – 9x …(i)

and N = 10x + (11 – x) = 11 + 9x …(ii)

n + N = 121

112. Answer (2)

1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × 6 × 7 × ...× n = (n – 2) × 180º

As 180 is a multiple of 9, so n 6.

Also, 180 is not a multiple of 7

n < 7

Hence, n = 6 is the only possibility

For n = 6,

LHS = 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × 6 = 720

and RHS = (6 – 2) × 180° = 720°

So, n = 6.

Note : The possibility n – 2 = 7 or n = 9 makes

LHS a multiple of 81 whereas (n – 2) × 180 is not

a multiple of 81.

6/7


[ MENTAL ABILITY

]

113. Answer (3)

9 < x + 1

x

< 16

But x is a natural number.

9 x 15

So, the greatest value of x is 15.

114. Answer (4)

115. Answer (1)

Given expression can be written as

32

3 2

1 1 1

1 1 111 1

x xx

x x x

=

3

3 3 3

1

1 1 1

x x

x x x x x x

=

3

3

11

1

x x

x x

116. Answer (3)

Let the original time taken be ‘t ’.

Then, according to the question,

55t = 60(t – 1)

5t = 60

t = 12 hrs

117. Answer (2)

2016 = 25 × 32 × 71

= (24 × 32) × (2 × 7)

So, the greatest perfect square which is a factor of

2016 is 24 × 32 = 16 × 9 = 144 whose last digit is 4.

118. Answer (2)

House rent

Education

Saving

Oth

er

Exp

ense

s

110°x

y

130°

x + y + 110° + 130° = 360°

x + y = 120°

Since x < y, therefore, y > 60°

Also x > 0°

y < 120°

119. Answer (1)

120. Answer (4)

1 2 3 .........28

n

n

( 1)

282

n nn

n = 55

2 2 2 21 2 3 ......... n

n

=1 ( 1)(2 1)

6

n n n

n

2 2 2 21 2 3 ....... 55

55

= 56 111

6

= 1036

121. Answer (2)

216, 343, 512, 729, 1000, 1331

63

73

83

93

103

113

122. Answer (3)

7047, 2349, 783, 261, 87

3 3 3 3

123. Answer (1)

148 481 814

124. Answer (4)

a : a2, 6 : 36, 14 : 196, 19 : 361, 23 : 529

125. Answer (2)

CW : DV : : EU : FT : : IQ : JP

26 26 26 26 26 26

323 422 521 620 917 1016

126. Answer (3)

Barometer : Atmospheric pressure

Seismograph : Earthquakes

127. Answer (1)

On putting signs, we get

65 13 + 4 – 16 4 × 1

= 5 + 4 – 4

= 5

7/7


128. Answer (4)

a b % b d

a + b > b + d

a > d, a % d

129. Answer (2)

On changing the symbols with signs in option (2),

we get

18 + 3 – 20 5 × 5

= 21 – 20

= 1

130. Answer (3)

In standard dice sum of numbers on opposite faces

is always 7.

131. Answer (1)

Small cubes obtained from 2 opposite faces are only

one side painted. i.e., 9 × 2 = 18

132. Answer (4)

4

2

5

1

36

133. Answer (2)

T E X T, E X I T, A I M, I E X A M

5 7 2 5 7 2 4 5 9 4 3 4 7 2 9 3

134. Answer (3)

135. Answer (1)

H + E + N = 19 + 22 + 13

= 54

136. Answer (3)

N

S

(SE)W E(NW)

NW NE

SESW

137. Answer (2)

Shadow of Rahim is left of Ram.

RamSun shadow of Ram

South facing

North facing

RahimSun shadow of Rahim

138. Answer (4)

14 2 m

A

D

C

B

14 m

50 m

48 m

14 m

2 2(14) (48) 50

139. Answer (2)

Weight Height

Jay > Vijay

Ramesh < Ankit < Vijay

Jay > Vijay > Ankit > Ramesh

Vijay > Arun

Vijay > Ramesh

Ramesh > Ankit > Arun

Vijay > Ramesh > Ankit > Arun

140. Answer (1)

141. Answer (3)

142. Answer (2)

Joy > Sanjay > Veer > Ajay

green yellow blue white

143. Answer (2)

144. Answer (1)

145. Answer (2)

146. Answer (3)

147. Answer (4)

148. Answer (2)

149. Answer (3)

150. Answer (4)

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