Quiz Pharmacology Part 2 of 2

Pharmacology – Part 2 14Mar2009

DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 1 -

1 – General Principles of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy

1) Antibiotics are chemicals produced by which of the following?

a) Cancer cells

b) Viruses

c) Bacteria

d) Fungi

e) Microorganisms

2) When choosing antibiotics for chemotherapy, critically ill patients need immediate

administration of drugs covering infection by both gram-positive and gram-negative

classes of organisms. This is known as:

a) Site-specific therapy

b) Sensitivity

c) Cost-effective therapy

d) Empiric therapy

e) Selective toxicity

3) Imipenem/Cilastatin is an example of a:

a) Narrow spectrum antibiotic

b) Combination broad spectrum antibiotic

c) Single broad spectrum antibiotic

d) Gram-positive antibiotic

e) Gram-negative antibiotic

f) Anaerobic antibiotic

4) A patient presents with a rapid heart rate, fever, and diaphoresis. Infection is highly

suspected and a blood sample is sent to the lab. In the disk diffusion method for lab

testing cultured bacteria, what would a large zone of inhibition indicate?

a) Drug sensitivity

b) Drug resistance

c) Presence of anaerobic bacteria

d) Presence of gram-positive bacteria

e) Presence of gram-negative bacteria

5) Several families of drugs such as penicillins and cephalosporins act to ____ the

bacterial ____ and thereby promoting lysis. The mechanism is through prevention of

murein (peptidoglycan) synthesis.

a) Weaken; Cell membrane

b) Weaken; Cell wall

c) Strengthen; Cell membrane

d) Strengthen; Cell wall

6) Which of the following would be a quantitative method of measuring selective

toxicity?

a) Equilibrium dissociation constant

b) Toxic dosage

c) Effective dosage

d) Sensitivity

e) Therapeutic index



7) The enzyme that sulfonamides inhibit (para-aminobenzoic acid, PABA) is needed for

bacterial production of which of the following, which is required for synthesis of DNA,

RNA, and protein?

a) Murein

b) Niacin

c) Folic acid

d) Arachidonic acid

e) Phosphodiesterase

8) Bactrim is an effective and cheap medication containing a sulphonamide and

trimethoprim. Which enzyme is targeted by trimethoprim?

a) Monohydropteroate synthase

b) Monohydrofolate reductase

c) Dihydropteroate synthase

d) Dihydrofolate reductase

9) When prescribing Bactrim, care must be taken for patients with glucose-6-phosphate

deficiencies. In which of the following cases is Bactrim contraindicated?

a) Gram-negative infected patients

b) Hemological deficiency patients

c) Congestive heart failure patients

d) Thyroid hormone deficiency patients

e) Alcoholics

10) Fluoroquinolones works by which of the following mechanisms?

a) Disruption of protein synthesis via ribosomes

b) Inhibition of DNA gyrase

c) Inhibition of reverse transcriptase

d) Inhibition of fungal membrane

11) Erythromycin works by which of the following mechanisms?

a) Disruption of protein synthesis via ribosomes

b) Inhibition of DNA gyrase

c) Inhibition of reverse transcriptase

d) Inhibition of fungal membrane

12) Which of the following mechanisms is NOT correctly matched with the drug?

a) Vancomycin; Inhibitor of cell wall synthesis

b) Amphotericin B; Disruption of cell wall membrane

c) Tetracyclines: Bacteriostatic inhibitor of protein synthesis

d) Ketokonazole; Disruption of cell wall membrane

e) Rifampin; Inhibitor of cell wall synthesis

13) Which of the following is NOT an antibiotic?

a) Flucytosine

b) Clindamycin

c) Fluroquinolone

d) Imipenem

e) Cephalosporin

14) Which of the following is a prodrug (must be activated by bacterial catalase) and

works by inhibiting mycolic acid synthesis?

a) Flucytosine



b) Acyclovir

c) Zidovudine

d) Isoniazid

e) Pyrazinamine

15) Which of the following drugs does NOT inhibit viral enzymes?

a) Acyclovir

b) Zidovudine

c) Ethambutol

d) Saquinavir

e) Indinavir

16) What is the mechanism of action for the drug amantadine, which is used against type

A influenza?

a) Antimetabolite

b) Interference with synthesis of bacterial DNA or RNA

c) Viral enzyme inhibitor

d) Mycolic acid synthesis inhibitor

e) Unknown

Match the drug with the inhibited ribosomal subunit:

17) Tetracycline a) 30s inhibitor

18) Clindamycin b) 50s inhibitor

19) Gentamicin

20) Erythromycin

21) Streptomycin

22) Chloramphenical

23) Spectinomycin

24) Which of the following types of drugs disrupts the DNA unwinding process?

a) Penicillins

b) Cephalosporins

c) Macrolides

d) Aminoglycosides

e) Fluoroquinolones

f) Sulfonamides

Match the type of targeting with the mechanism or example:

25) Bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibitors a) Common targeting

26) Drug targets protein isoform; DHFR inhibitor b) Unique targeting

27) Drug targets metabolic pathway; 5-Fluorouracil c) Selective targeting

28) Which of the following narrow spectrum antimicrobial drugs would affect gram-

negative aerobes (versus gram-positive cocci/bacilli)?

a) Nafcillin

b) Vancomycin

c) Gentamycin

d) Erythromycin

e) Clindamycin

29) Which of the following would NOT be a narrow spectrum antibiotic used for

Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

a) Isonizid



b) Rifampin

c) Ethambutol

d) Imipenem

e) Pyrazinamide

30) A(n) ____ drug will halt bacterial growth but not deplete it, while a(n) ____ drug will

start to decline the growth of bacteria.

a) Bactericidal; Antibiotic

b) Antibiotic; Bacteriostatic

c) Bactericidal; Bacteriostatic

d) Bacteriostatic; Bactericidal

e) Antibiotic; Bactericidal

31) Penicillin is a ____ drug and tetracycline is a ____ drug.

a) Bactericidal; Bacteriostatic

b) Bacteriostatic; Bactericidal

c) Bactericidal; Bactericidal

d) Bacteriostatic; Bacteriostatic

32) Which of the following drugs is bactericidal?

a) Sulfonamides

b) Trimethoprim

c) Macrolides

d) Lincosamides

e) Choramphenicol

f) Cephalosporins

33) What does an increase in minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) response mean,

such as seen with Staphylococcus aureus, Enterococcus, and Mycobacterium

tuberculosis?

a) The drug was not originally effective

b) Intracellular uptake of the drug has increased

c) The bacteria has gained resistance to the drug

d) The bacteria has halted growth (bacteriostatic)

e) The bacterial growth is declining (bactericidal)

34) Spontaneous mutation usually results in resistance to ____ drug(s) and conjugation

(via plasmid) usually results in resistance to ____ drug(s).

a) One; One

b) One; Multiple

c) Multiple; One

d) Multiple; Multiple

e) No; One

35) Selective pressure can occur with plasma-mediated infections (hospital or

nosocomial). This occurs when:

a) Drug-resistant and drug-sensitive bacteria survive

b) Drug-resistant bacteria survive (drug-sensitive killed)

c) Drug-sensitive bacteria survive (drug-resistant killed)

d) Drug-resistant and drug-sensitive bacteria are killed (lack of nutrients)

36) Emergence of drug resistance during primary treatment (suprainfection) is facilitated

most likely by broad-spectrum antibiotics.



a) True

b) False

37) What type of drug would be needed to enter the brain and CNS?

a) Hydrophilic

b) Hydrophobic

c) Lipophilic

d) Lipophobic

e) Large molecular weight

38) Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in neonates as it causes kernicterus

(brain yellowing from bilirubin)?

a) Tetracyclines

b) Aminoglycosides

c) Cephalosporins

d) Fluoroquinolones

e) Sulfonamides

39) Which of the following drugs is considered FDA pregnancy category D

(contraindicated)?

a) Tetracyclines

b) Macrolides

c) Cephalosporins

d) Penicillins

e) Sulfonamides

40) Which of the following patients would have to rely on bactericidal antibiotics?

a) Liver disease patient

b) Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) patient

c) Congestive heart failure (CHF) patient

d) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) patient

e) Abdominal trauma patient

41) Along with infected abscesses, which type of infection can impede drug access?

a) Pneumonia

b) Upper respiratory tract infections

c) Urinary tract infections

d) Gastroenteritis

e) Endocarditis

42) When treating meningitis, one of the steps to achieve the MIC is by injecting

antibiotic where?

a) Epidural space

b) Subdural space

c) Subarachnoid space

d) Subpial space

e) Corneal space

43) A patient undergoes a procedure to implant a cardiac pacemaker and prosthetic heart

valve. One month later, the patient returns with a high fever. Infection is found in the

pacemaker pocket, along the pathway of the electrical lead, and near the prosthetic valve.

Which of the following is the most likely cause?

a) Staphylococcus aureus



b) Staphylococcus epidermidis

c) Staphylococcus saprophyticus

d) Viridans Streptococci

e) Escherichia Coli

44) Accumulation of antibiotics to toxic levels can most likely occur in which of the

following patient populations?

a) AIDS patients

b) Elderly

c) Pregnant

d) Neonates

e) B & D

f) A & C

45) Which of the following types of drugs binds to teeth and can cause discoloration?

a) Tetracyclines

b) Macrolides

c) Cephalosporins

d) Penicillins

e) Sulfonamides

46) Which of the following clinical results is associated with gentamicin

(aminoglycoside), not tetracyclines?

a) Hepatic necrosis

b) Pancreatitis

c) Hearing loss

d) Renal damage

47) Which of the following types of drugs can enter breast milk?

a) Tetracyclines

b) Macrolides

c) Cephalosporins

d) Penicillins

e) Sulfonamides

48) Severe allergic reactions are more common with what family of drugs?

a) Tetracyclines

b) Macrolides

c) Cephalosporins

d) Penicillins

e) Sulfonamides

49) Which of the following types of drugs is NOT associated with an incidence of

allergic response?

a) Trimethoprim

b) Tetracyclines

c) Erythromycin

d) Penicillins

e) Sulfonamides

50) Sulfonamides and nalidixic acid can cause hemolysis in patients that are deficient in

what enzyme?

a) Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase



b) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase

c) Glucose 6-phosphate

d) Glucokinase

f) Fructokinase

51) If a bacteriostatic agent, such as tetracycline, is given in synergy with a bactericidal

agent, such as penicillin, what is the likely result?

a) Additive response

b) Potentiative response

c) Antagonistic response

52) If trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole are given together, what decrease in MIC must

be seen to be considered a synergistic (potentiative) interaction?

a) 5-fold (1/5 MIC)

b) 4-fold (1/4 MIC)

c) 3-fold (1/3 MIC)

d) 2-fold (1/2 MIC)

e) 1-fold (MIC)

53) Although the use of multiple antibiotics can lead to drug resistance, what disease is

treated with several drugs as it has a risk for CNS damage?

a) Leprosy

b) Syphilis

c) Thrush

d) Pneumonia

e) Tuberculosis

54) When treating fungal meningitis with combined flucytosine and amphotericin B,

reducing the dose of ____ can decrease the risk of damage to the ____.

a) Flucytosine; Kidney

b) Flucytosine; Liver

c) Amphotericin; Kidney

d) Amphotericin; Liver

55) Penicillin is used in combination with what drug to enhance antibacterial action in the

treatment of enterococcal endocarditis?

a) Sulfonamides

b) Cephalosporins

c) Macrolides

d) Aminoglycosides

e) Fluoroquinolones

56) Which of the following, along with beta-lactams and aminoglycosides, is excreted by

the kidney?

a) Erythromycin

b) Clindamycin

c) Vancomycin

d) Rifampin

e) Chloramphenicol

57) Which of the following tests would be used to monitor kidney function?

a) D-dimer, Fibrin degradation products (FDP)

b) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN), Creatinine



c) Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)

d) Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)

e) Bilirubin

58) It is estimated that 30-50% of antibiotics used in the United States are administered

for prophylaxis. The drug trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX, Bactrim) is often

given in what situation?

a) Before dental appointments for patients with endocarditis

b) For young women with recurrent urinary tract infections

c) For elderly patients with an increased risk of pneumonia

d) For pregnant women showing signs of systemic infection

e) For all neonates with mild neutropenia

59) Prophylactic penicillin is indicated following exposure to STDs as well as for patients

with rheumatic carditis. If the patient is allergic to penicillin, which drug should be used?

a) Sulfonamides

b) Cephalosporins

c) Macrolides

d) Aminoglycosides

e) Fluoroquinolones

60) Which of the following antibiotics should be used for the treatment of fever with

unknown origin?

a) Sulfonamides

b) Cephalosporins

c) Macrolides

d) Aminoglycosides

e) Penicillins

f) Antibiotics should not be used

61) Saquinavir and ritonavir are what type of drugs?

a) Fusion inhibitors

b) Ion channel blockers

c) Polymerase inhibitors

d) Protease inhibitors

e) Neuraminidase inhibitors

62) Amantadine and rimantadine are what type of drugs?






63) Zanamivir and oseltamivir are what type of drugs?






64) Efuvirtide (T-20) is what type of drug?








65) Acyclovir, zidovudine, and efavirenz are what types of drugs?






66) Amphotericin and nystatin are what type of antifungal drugs?

a) Polyenes

b) Azoles

c) Pyrimidines

67) What is the principal goal in antimicrobial chemotherapy?

a) Site-specific therapy

b) Sensitivity

c) Cost-effective therapy

d) Empiric therapy

e) Selective toxicity

68) What type of antibiotic has bacteriostatic activity?

a) Penicillins

b) Chloramphenocol

c) Macrolides

d) Aminoglycosides

e) Fluoroquinolones

69) Which of the following types of antibiotics should be used to treat the common cold?

a) Sulfonamides

b) Cephalosporins

c) Macrolides

d) Aminoglycosides

e) Penicillins

f) Antibiotics should not be used

2 – Antimicrobial Case Reviews

For the next few questions, use the following case. A mother brings her 3-year-old girl to

your office because the child has a fever and complains that her ear hurts. She has no

significant medical history. The child is not pleased to be in the physician's office and has

been crying. Her mother explains that she developed a “cold” about 3 days ago with

sniffles. Her temperature is 37.8°C (100°F), and the rest of the physical examination is

completed with some difficulty. The only abnormalities are slight redness of the throat, a

nose full of thick green mucus, and red tympanic membranes.

1.1) What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

a) Common cold

b) Gastroenteritis

c) Otitis media



d) Pneumonia

e) Immune deficiency

1.2) Symptoms of this infectious disease are nonspecific.

a) True

b) False

1.3) Cloudiness and bulging of the tympanic membrane would help with this diagnosis.

a) True

b) False

1.4) Antibiotic therapy in this case has no important effect on hearing loss.

a) True

b) False

1.5) What is the most common pathogen in the presumed diagnosis for this case?

a) Streptococcus pyogenes

b) Streptococcus agalactiae

c) Bacillus anthracis

d) Listeria monocytogenes

e) Streptococcus pneumoniae

1.6) What is the antibiotic of choice in this case?

a) Gentamycin

b) Vancomycin

c) Amoxicillin

d) Erythromycin

e) Clindamycin

1.7) If the patient is allergic to the initial antibiotic of choice, what should be given

instead?

a) Sulfonamides

b) Cephalosporins

c) Macrolides

d) Aminoglycosides

e) Fluoroquinolones

For the next few questions, use the following case. A 29 yr-old male from rural South

Carolina presents with fever, chills, and headache for past 10 days. Also noted are

worsening depression and anxiety. He developed dark urine, back pain, oliguria (scanty

urine production), nausea and anorexia. On examination, bumpy rash, edema and

petechial rash were noted on his hands and trunk. At the time of examination, the

patient’s temperature was high (>102°F).

2.1) Which of the following intracellular pathogens is the most likely cause?

a) Rickettsiae

b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

c) Salmonella typhi

d) Chlamydia

e) Shigella dysenteriae

2.2) Which of the following is the antibiotic of choice in this case as it shows 30s

inhibition and thus interferes with tRNA anticodon reading of mRNA?

a) Erythromycin

b) Clindamycin



c) Chloramphenical

d) Doxycycline

2.3) Which of the following adverse effects of the antibiotic is the most life threatening?

a) GI adverse effects

b) CNS adverse effects

c) Allergies

d) Phototoxicity

e) Steven-Johnson Syndrome (SJS)

For the next few questions, use the following case. A 32-yr-old man with a history of

skull trauma presents with headache, mental status changes, and fever. He reports two

brief episodes seizures (3-5 seconds of duration). A CT scan of brain shows brain abscess

with accompanying edema. CSF analysis revealed aerobic and anaerobic streptococci.

3.1) Which of the following antibiotics should be given?

a) Gentamicin

b) Streptomycin

c) Chloramphenicol

d) Erythromycin

e) Tetracycline

3.2) Which of the following is the most commonly seen adverse effect when giving this

antibiotic?

a) UTI

b) Brain swelling

c) Allergies

d) Migrane headaches

e) Aplastic anemia

3 – Penicillins

1) Penicillin was first discovered when colonies of staphylococci lysed when

contaminated with what?

a) Penicillium bacteria

b) Penicillium virus

c) Penicillium fungi

d) Penicillium parasite

2) Which of the following sites in an antibiotic molecule is the site of cleavage for

bacterial enzymes?

a) Thiazolidine ring, C–S bond

b) Thiazolidine ring, C–C bond

c) Thiazolidine ring, C–N bond

d) Beta-lactam ring, C–C bond

e) Beta-lactam ring, C–N bond

Match the chemical R-group ring side-chain group with the antibiotic it signifies:

3) Penicillin G a) –CH–COOH

4) Penicillin V b) –OCH2

5) Ampicillin c) –CH–NH2

6) Carbeniccilin d) –CH2



7) Penicillin G is ____ to penicillinase and methicillin is ____ to penicillinase. Both are

considered ____ spectrum antibiotics. Penicillin G cannot be taken orally due to stomach

acids.

a) Resistant; Sensitive; Narrow

b) Resistant; Sensitive; Broad

c) Sensitive; Resistant; Narrow

d) Sensitive; Resistant; Broad

8) What is the order of bacterial wall biosynthesis?

a) Murein synthesis, polymerization, cross-linking

b) Murein polymerization, cross-linking, synthesis

c) Murein cross-linking, polymerization, synthesis

d) Murein synthesis, cross-linking, polymerization

e) Murein polymerization, synthesis, cross-linking

9) Gram-negative bacteria have a thicker murein (peptidoglycan) layer than gram-

positive bacteria.

a) True

b) False

10) Which of the following enzymes is the main target for penicillin?

a) Transglucosylases

b) Transpeptidases

c) D-alanine carboxykinases

d) Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)

11) Which of the following is NOT a common indication for penicillin?

a) Meningitis

b) Pneumonia or chronic bronchitis

c) UTIs

d) MRSA

e) Gonorrhea or syphilis

12) Which of the following has the highest bacterial resistance pattern?

a) Penicillin G

b) Penicillin V

c) Methicillin

d) Ampicillin

e) Carbencillin

13) Which of the following is considered extended-spectrum as it can fight pseudomonal

aeroginosa, enterobacter species, proteus, bacteroids fragilis, and many klebsiella?

a) Oxacillin

b) Ampicillin

c) Amoxicillin

d) Penicillin G

e) Carbencillin

14) Which of the following would be used to treat Neisseria gonorrhoeae if the patient

was allergic to penicillins?

a) Ticarcillin

b) Carbencillin

c) Ceftriaxone



d) Penicillin G

e) Penicillin V

15) Penicillin V is given via orally (PO) versus IM or IV.

a) True

b) False

16) Ampicillin has a bioavilability of 40% with initial dose (F=0.40). What is the

bioavailability of amoxicillin with one dose?

a) 5%

b) 25%

c) 50%

d) 75%

e) 95%

17) Clavulanate is added to amoxicillin (Augmentin) to protect the drug molecule. This

results in a ____ bioavailability and a change from dosage three times a day (tid) to ____

times a day. However, this produces a high incidence of diarrhea.

a) Increase; Four (qid)

b) Increase; Two (tid)

c) Decrease; Four (qid)

d) Decrease; Two (tid)

18) When adding a second antibiotic to a drug regimen, which of the following would

have the least affect on improving health due to drug-drug interactions?

a) Both drugs have mild protein binding

b) Both drugs are highly protein bound

c) The first drug is highly protein bound and the second is not

d) The second drug is highly protein bound and the first is not

19) Which of the following is the least protein-bound?

a) Oxacillin

b) Cloxacillin

c) Dicloxacillin

d) Flucoxacillin

e) Amoxicillin

20) Which of the following is considered the least toxic?

a) Ticarcillin

b) Oxacillin

c) Ampicillin

d) Penicillin G

e) Penicillin V

21) Which of the following would NOT be an adverse effect seen with hypersensitivity to

penicillin?

a) Vomiting

b) Pruritus (need to scratch)

c) Bradycardia

d) Vertigo

e) Loss of consciousness

22) Which of the following adverse effects to penicillin is a sign of hematologic toxicity,

not nephropathy?



a) Fever

b) Macular rash

c) Eosinophilia

d) Neutropenia

e) Hematuria

23) Which of the following should be monitored (lab work) when administering

penicillins or cephalosporins to older adults?

a) D-dimer

b) Creatinine



e) Bilirubin

24) What is the drug of choice for an anaphylactic reaction?

a) Adenosine

b) Atropine

c) Epinephrine

d) Dobutamine

e) Midazolam

25) Which of the following drugs delays renal excretion of penicillin, therefore

prolonging antibacterial effects?

a) Gentamicin

b) Probenecid

c) Chloramphenicol

d) Erythromycin

e) Tetracycline

26) Genes that code for synthesis of beta-lactamases are located on bacterial plasmids,

thus they can be transferred from one bacterium to another.

a) True

b) False

27) Clavulanic acid and sulbactam ____ antibiotics, and are added to give better ____

properties and effects.

a) Are; Antibacterial

b) Are; Pharmacokinetic

c) Are not; Antibacterial

d) Are not; Pharmacokinetic

28) In which of the following cases would you use penicillin G procaine aqueous

(APPG), which serves as a long-term depot to slowly release peniciliin G?

a) Oritis media

b) Sinusitis

c) Lower respiratory tract infection

d) Urinary tract infection

e) Rheumatic fever

29) Which of the following drugs would be used to treat methicillin-resistant

Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?

a) Nafcillin

b) Vancomycin



c) Gentamycin

d) Erythromycin

e) Clindamycin

30) Which of the following is a broad spectrum antibiotic reserved chiefly for use against

Pseudomonas aeroginosa?

a) Penicillin G

b) Penicillin V

c) Methicillin

d) Ampicillin

e) Carbencillin

31) The mechanism of bacterial resistance to penicilins can be described as:

a) Inactivation of drug by beta-lactamases

b) Overproduction of PBPs

c) Overproduction of peptidoglycans

d) Breakdown of penicillins by the immune system

e) Rapid biotransformation

32) Which of the following penicillins is an aminopenicillin?

a) Methicillin

b) Ampicillin

c) Penicillin G

d) Penicillin V

e) Carbencillin

33) Which of the following penicillins produces a higher incidence of diarrhea?

a) Cloxacillin

b) Ampicillin

c) Amoxicillin

d) Augmentin

e) Penicilin G

34) Which of the following penicillins is effective against Bacteroides fragilis?

a) Oxacillin

b) Ampicillin

c) Penicillin G Procaine

d) Amoxicillin

e) Ticarcillin-clavulanate

4 – Cephalosporins

1) Cephalosporins are very similar chemically to penicillins. However, unlike penicillins,

cephalosporins have ____ members in their chemical ring?

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 6

e) 7

2) Cephalosporins have a ____ spectrum of antimicrobial activity and are considered

____.

a) Broad; Bactericidal



b) Broad; Bacteristatic

c) Narrow; Bactericidal

d) Narrow; Bacteristatic

3) Which of the following classes of drugs is used the most in hospitals (hospitals in the

United States spend the most on these)?

a) Penicillins

b) Cephalosporins

c) Macrolides

d) Aminoglycosides

e) Fluoroquinolones

f) Sulfonamides

4) Which of the following are in the correct order from most gram-positive activity to

most gram-negative activity?

a) First-generation, second-generation, third-generation

b) Third-generation, second-generation, first-generation

c) First-generation, third-generation, second-generation

d) Second-generation, third-generation, first-generation

e) Third-generation, first-generation, second-generation

Match the drug with the cephalosporin generation:

5) Cefamanidole a) First-generation

6) Cefotaxime b) Second-generation

7) Cephalothin c) Third-generation

8) A patient is given a first-generation and second-generation cephalosporin for a

bacterial infection. In which of the following cases would the drug be ineffective?

a) Blood infection

b) GI infection

c) UTI

d) CSF infection

e) Respiratory infection

9) Which of the following bacteria would not be affected by a second-generation

cephalosporin, but would be affected by ceftazidime?

a) Staphylococcus

b) Streptococcus

c) Listeria

d) Enterococcus

e) Pseudomonas

10) Which of the following should be given for gram-negative bacterial meningitis?

a) First-generation cephalosporin

b) Second-generation cephalosporin

c) Third-generation cephalosporin

11) Cefepime is considered a:

a) First-generation cephalosporin

b) Second-generation cephalosporin

c) Third-generation cephalosporin

d) Fourth-generation cephalosporin



12) Which of the following cephalosporins would be destroyed by beta-lactamases

(cephalosporinases)?

a) Cephalothin

b) Cefamandole

c) Cefotaxime

d) Cefepime

13) Which of the following best describes ceftazidime and cefepime?

a) First-generation cephalosporins

b) Second-generation with Haemophilus influenzae activity

c) Second-generation with Bacteroids fragilis activity

d) Third-generation cephalosporins

e) Third-generaion with Pseudomonas aeruginosa activity

f) Oral broad-spectrum cephalosporins

14) Which of the following describes cefazolin and cephalexin?







15) Which of the following describes cefmetazole, cefotetan, and cefoxitin?







16) Which of the following describes cefixime and cefpodoxime proxecil?







17) Which of the following describes cefoperazone and ceftriaxone?







18) Which of the following describes cefaclor and cefuroxime?









19) Which of the following are eliminated largely by non-renal routed?

a) Ceftazidime and cefepime

b) Cefazolin and cephalexin

c) Cefmetazole, cefotetan, and cefoxitin

d) Cefixime and cefpodoxime proxecil

e) Cefoperazone and ceftriaxone

20) All of the following cause bleeding by reducing pro-thrombin levels, except for ____,

which causes bleeding by impairing platelet aggregation and has been removed from use

in the United States.

a) Cefamandole

b) Cefmetazole

c) Cefoperazone

d) Cefotetan

e) Moxalactam

21) Which of the following drugs prolongs cephalosporin effects?

a) Gentamicin

b) Probenecid

c) Chloramphenicol

d) Erythromycin

e) Tetracycline

22) Which of the following drugs is NOT associated with alcohol intolerance?

a) Cefuroxime

b) Cefmetazole

c) Cefoperazone

d) Cefotetan

e) Cefamandole

23) Which of the following has the shortest half life?

a) Cefotetan (Cefotan)

b) Cefazolin (Ancef)

c) Cefadroxil (Duricef)

d) Cephalothin (Keflin)

e) Cefaclor (Ceclor)

24) Which of the following has the longest half life?

a) Cefotaxime (Claforan)

b) Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

c) Cefpodoxime proxetil (Vantin)

d) Cefepime (Maxipime)

e) Cefrazidime (Fortaz)

25) Which of the following is used to treat otitis media and has a risk of significant

serum-sickness type reaction, especially in children?

a) Cefotetan (Cefotan)

b) Cefazolin (Ancef)


d) Cephalothin (Keflin)



e) Cefaclor (Ceclor)

26) Which of the following would be treated with a first-generation cephalosporin?

a) E. Coli

b) Klebsiella

c) Proteus

d) Staphylococcus

e) Enterobacter

f) Serratia

g) Providencia

27) A patient is prescribed a cephalosporin for their gonorrhea infection. After injection,

the patient complains of pain at the injection site. A rash appears later and the patient

develops difficulty breathing (dyspnea). Which of the following drugs was likely given?

a) Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

b) Loracarbef (Lorabid)


d) Cephalexin (Keflex)

e) Cefazolin (Ancef)

28) Imipenem (Primaixin) is a beta-lactam antibiotic that is eliminated by glomerular

filtration, thus is combined with cilastin (renal dehydropeptidase inhibitor). Which of the

following is true of this drug?

a) Acid stable and cannot cross the blood brain barrier (BBB)

b) Acid instable and cannot cross the blood brain barrier (BBB)

c) Acid stable and is able to cross the blood brain barrier (BBB)

d) Acid instable and is able to cross the blood brain barrier (BBB)

29) Imipenem is NOT active against MRSA.

a) True

b) False

30) Which of the following is NOT true of Azetreonam (Azactam)?

a) It is not affected by beta-lactamases

b) It is active against gram-negative bacteria

c) It is active against Pseudomonas aeroginosa

d) It has a high potential to produce hypersensitivity reactions

31) A 2-mo-old male neonate presents with a thick eye discharge. The mother admits to

having sexual partners and complains of a vaginal discharge. Exams of both eyes of

infant reveals a thick purulent discharge and conjunctival congestion and edema. Corneal

ulcerations was also noted. Conjunctival swabs on gram staining revealed presence of

gram-negative diplococci and many polymorphonuclear cells. What organism, which can

be treated with penicillin G or a third-generation cephalosporin, is the most likely cause?

a) C. trachomatis

b) T. pallidum

c) N. gonorrhea

d) H. ducreyi

e) H. influenza

5 – Macrolide Antibiotics

1) Which of the following antibiotics can be taken safely and effectively as three tablets?



a) Erythromycin (Erythrocin)

b) Clarithromycin (Biaxin)

c) Azithromycin (Zithromax)

d) Dirithromycin (Dynabac)

e) Telithromycin (Ketek)

2) Which of the following is best suited to treat mycoplasma, chlamydiae, and legionella?






3) Macrolids are ____ ribosomal subunit inhibitors that are ____ at low concentrations

and ____ at high concentrations.

a) 30s; Bactericidal; Bacteriostatic

b) 30s; Bacteriostatic; Bactericidal

c) 50s; Bactericidal; Bacteriostatic

d) 50s; Bacteriostatic; Bactericidal

4) Macrolides and clindamycin have which mechanism of action during protein

synthesis?

a) Interfere with the donor site growing peptide

b) Interfere with tRNA release

c) Interfere with acceptor site so next tRNA cannot bind

5) Tetracyclines and aminoglycosides have which mechanism of action during protein

synthesis?




6) Chloramphenicol has which mechanism of action during protein synthesis?




7) Which of the following types of infection would erythromycin be the least effective

against?

a) Throat

b) Ears

c) Skin

d) Respiratory tract

e) GI tract

8) Patients with diphtheria or whooping cough will not respond to penicillin. Which of

the following drugs would be the best choice?








9) Resistant strains of which of the following have emerged with the use of

erythromycin?



c) Bacillus anthracis



10) Although erythromycin is not normally effective with gram-negative bacteria, cell

wall deficient forms of E. coli and Proteus mirabilis (L-forms) are exceptions. These are

seen in recurrent:

a) Pneumonia



d) Gastroenteritis

e) Endocarditis

11) Which of the following bactericidal antibiotics is the drug of choice for pneumonia

caused by H. influenzae?






12) A patient presents with mild symptoms of fever, chills, headache, and coughing.

However, they show little sign of bacterial infection. Lab blood results show infection is

present and the physician chooses to use a macrolide antibiotic. Which of the following

was most likely the cause of the patient’s symptoms?



c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae



13) Oral erythromycin is enterically coated because it is sensitive to ____ pH. This

allows the drug to be absorbed in the ____.

a) Acidic; Stomach

b) Acidic; Small intestine

c) Basic; Stomach

d) Basic; Small intestine

14) Estolate esters can be added to macrolide antibiotics (e.g. erythromycin estolate) to:

a) Decrease resistance to acidic pH

b) Increase resistance to basic pH

c) Decrease bioavailability

d) Increase bioavailability

e) Lyse bacterial cell walls

15) Eating while taking azithromycin will decrease the drug’s concentration.

a) True

b) False



16) In which of the following locations would erythromycin be the least concentrated, at

less than 20% or serum blood levels?

a) Liver

b) Spleen

c) Fetal blood

d) Breast milk

e) Tears

17) Which of the following antibiotics would persist for the shortest amount of time in

tissues?

a) Azithromycin

b) Clarithromycin

c) Dirithromycin

d) Erythromycin

18) Which of the following is the main organ for biotransformation of macrolides such as

erythromycin (90%) and clarithromycin?

a) Spleen

b) Kidneys

c) Brain

d) GI tract

e) Liver

19) Azithromycin has a volume of distribution of over 2000L. This indicated that the

drug is concentrated in which of the following locations?

a) Extracellular fluid

b) Plasma

c) Tissues

d) Liver

e) CNS

20) The most common patient complaint with oral macrolides is which of the following?

a) Cardiac

b) GI tract

c) Neurologic

d) Urinary

e) Respiratory

21) Severe pain and nausea with macrolides may be suggestive of inflammation to what

organ?

a) Pancreas

b) Spleen

c) Kidneys

d) Gall bladder

e) Heart

22) Which of the following drugs can occasionally cause thrombocytopenia with bruising

or bleeding?

a) Azithromycin

b) Clarithromycin

c) Dirithromycin

d) Erythromycin



23) Which of the following can damage the liver by direct drug toxicity or an immune

reaction, called cholestatic hepatitis or cholestatic jaundice, which can be seen in

newborns if the drug is taken by pregnant women?

a) Azithromycin

b) Clarithromycin

c) Erythromycin

d) Erythromycin estolate

e) Azithromycin estolate

24) If erythromycin is given with drugs that must be excreted by ____ mechanisms (e.g.

warfarin, acetaminophen), those drugs will show a gradual ____ in serum levels due to

P450-mediated drug metabolism.

a) Renal; Increase

b) Renal; Decrease

c) Hepatic; Increase

d) Hepatic; Decrease

25) A patient presents with Mycobacterium avium intracellulare and is given Rifampin.

This can significantly lower the serum concentrations of zidovudine and what other drug?






26) Which of the following drugs was designed to overcome erythromycin resistance

within gram-positive cocci, such as community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) from S.

pneumoniae?

a) Telithromycin (Ketek)




27) Ketolide (telithromycin) blocks which domain of 23S rRNA of the 50S ribosomal

subunit, preventing protein synthesis?

a) I

b) II

c) III

d) IV

28) Which of the following is NOT true regarding telithromycin?

a) Contraindicated in patients taking cisapride

b) Not recommended if patient has myasthenia gravis (MG)

c) Can cause visual disturbances and hepatic dysfunction

d) Can prolong cardiac QTc interval, increasing ventricular arrhythmias

e) Is not considered effective against mild to moderate respiratory tract infections

29) JJ is a 22-yr-old pregnant woman in her first prenatal visit. She is 14 weeks pregnant

and complains of lower abdominal pain, and symptoms of urinary tract infections. She is

allergic to penicillins and cephalosporins, which cause a rash. JJ is diagnosed with

Chlamydia infection (a leading cause of conjunctivitis, known as ophthalmia neonatorum,

and febrile pneumonia in neonates). She has scant vaginal discharge, and no odor.



Culture is negative for gonorrhea, and syphilis. Which drug should be given to this

patient if they do not want abdominal cramping, nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea?






30) An 8-yr-old child presents with pharyngitis and fever of 3 days duration.

Microbiology lab confirms translucent beta-hemolytic colonies. Past history includes a

severe allergic reaction to amoxicillin when used for ear infection. Which one of the

following agents as an oral drug is most likely appropriate in terms of both effectiveness

and safety?

a) Penicillin G

b) Cefaclor

c) Doxycycline

d) Vancomycin

e) Azithromycin

6 – Aminoglycosides

1) Aminoglycosides are effective only against which of the following and are a good

choice for septicemia (a serious toxicity)?

a) Gram-positive aerobic bacteria

b) Gram-positive anaerobic bacteria

c) Gram-negative aerobic bacteria

d) Gram-negative anaerobic bacteria

2) Which of the following antibiotics would be used topically and thus has the most

common adverse effect being dermatitis?

a) Gentamicin

b) Tobramycin

c) Neomycin

d) Amikacin

3) Aminoglycosides are ____, thus their main form of metabolism is through the ____.

a) Polar; Liver

b) Polar; Kidneys

c) Non-polar; Liver

d) Non-polar; Kidneys

4) Which of the following would be the preferred treatment for infections caused by

Pseudomonas aeroginosa?

a) Gentamicin

b) Tobramycin

c) Neomycin

d) Amikacin

e) Netilmicin

5) Aminoglycosides inhibit bacterial protein synthesis through binding to ____ bacterial

ribosome subunits. They cause leakage of intracellular contents and thus are ____.

a) 30s; Bactericidal



b) 30s; Bacteriostatic

c) 50s; Bactericidal

d) 50s; Bacteriostatic

6) At low dosages, which of the following describes the mechanism of aminoglycosides?

a) Misreading of mRNA during elongation leading to synthesis of proteins

containing incorrect amino acids.

b) Nonsense insertion in mRNA during elongation leading to a stop codon

c) Complete inhibition of protein causing ribosomes to become trapped at the

AUG strand condons of mRNA

d) Partial inhibition of protein causing ribosome to translate incorrectly

e) Amino acid deletions during protein synthesis leading to nonfunctional proteins

7) At high dosages, which of the following describes the mechanism of aminoglycosides?

a) Misreading of mRNA during elongation leading to synthesis of proteins

containing incorrect amino acids.

b) Nonsense insertion in mRNA during elongation leading to a stop codon

c) Complete inhibition of protein causing ribosomes to become trapped at the

AUG strand condons of mRNA

d) Partial inhibition of protein causing ribosome to translate incorrectly

e) Amino acid deletions during protein synthesis leading to nonfunctional proteins

8) Following administration of aminoglycosides, where would concentrations be the

lowest?

a) Prostate

b) Brain

c) Vitreous fluid

d) CSF

e) Intracellular

9) Accumulation of aminoglycosides is most common in what location?

a) Liver capsule

b) Renal medulla

c) Nephrons

d) Renal cortex

e) Spleen

10) Which of the following is NOT a dose-dependent toxicity location for

aminoglycosides?

a) Auditory canal

b) Vestibular canal

c) Kidney

d) Liver

e) Neuromuscular

11) Which of the following drugs would require doing a BUN and creatinine lab serum

test before administering?

a) Kanamycin

b) Gentamicin

c) Amikacin

d) Neomycin



12) If aminoglycosides are administered with neuromuscular blockers, respiratory

paralysis can take place due to competition of ____ at the presynaptic site, leading to

acetylcholine (Ach) release reduction.

a) Na+

b) Cl-

c) K+

d) Mg++

e) Ca++

13) Which of the following drugs can be mixed with aminoglycosides, such as for use

against Staphylococcus aureus?

a) Diuretics

b) NSAIDs

c) Cisplatin (Platinol)

d) Amphotericin B

e) Penicillin G

14) Aminoglycoside resistance is becoming common for enterococci infections causing

which of the following?

a) Pneumonia


c) Endocarditis

d) Gastroenteritis

e) Urinary tract infections

15) Which of the following is NOT a membrane enzyme involved in aminoglycoside

resistance?

a) Acetylases

b) Adenlyl transferases

c) Phosphorylases

d) Phosphatases

16) What is meant by gentamicin having a trough serum level of 2mcg/mL?

a) No drug effect is seen at <2mcg/mL

b) Drug effect is seen at <2mcg/mL

c) No drug toxicity is seen at <2mcg/mL

d) Drug toxicity is seen at <2mcg/mL

e) The drug should be administered IV at 2mcg/mL

17) Which of the following drugs is combined with isoniazid to treat tuberculosis?

a) Neomycin

b) Streptomycin

c) Amikacin

d) Kanamycin

e) Gentamicin

18) AE is a 75-yr-old man admitted to ICU with sepsis resulting from a urinary tract

infection. He has had an indwelling urinary catheter for 2 weeks while rehabilitating

from hip fracture. AE has a history of type 2 diabetes and is on glucotrol XL. He has

allergies to beta-lactam antibiotics and erythromycim. The result of blood cultures are

positive for P. aeroginosa; the urine culture is positive for P. aeroginosa and E. coli.

From aminoglycoside class, which one would you choose?



a) Neomycin

b) Streptomycin

c) Netilmicin

d) Kanamycin

e) Gentamicin

19) The most active aminoglycoside against Mycobacterium tuberculosis is:

a) Kanamycin

b) Tobramycin

c) Streptomycin

d) Amikacin

e) Neomycin

7 – Fluoroquinolones

1) Which of the following fluoroquinolones is the most potent?

a) Ciproflocaxin (Cipro)

b) Levofloxacin (Levaquin)

c) Lomefloxicin (Maxaquin)

d) Moxifloxacin (Avelox)

e) Norfloxacin (Noroxin)

2) Which of the following features were combined to create fluoroquinolones (e.g

norfloxin) from quinilone (e.g. nalidixic acid) antibiotics?

a) Broader gram-negative activity, less protein binding, longer half-life

b) Broader gram-negative activity, more protein binding, longer half-life

c) Broader gram-positive activity, less protein binding, shorter half-life

d) Broader gram-positive activity, more protein binding, shorter half-life

3) The addition of a cyclopropyl group to norfloxacin, making ciprofloxacin (first-

generation), accomplished which of the following?

a) Decreased potency (toxicity)

b) Increased potency (effectiveness)

c) Decreased protein binding (less drug-drug interaction)

d) Added activity against anaerobes

e) Improved gram-positive antibiotic activity

4) Which of the following was accomplished with second-generation fluoroquinolones?






5) Which of the following was accomplished with third-generation fluoroquinolones,

such as moxifloxacin?








6) Which of the following second-generation fluoroquinolones has anti-anaerobic

activity?

a) Temafloxacin

b) Sparfloxacin

c) Grepafloxacin

d) Gatifloxacin

7) Which of the following is NOT a third-generation fluoroquinolone?

a) Cliaflnoxacin

b) Trivafloxacin

c) Ciprofloxacin

d) Moxifloxacin

e) Gemifloxacin

8) Fluoroquinolones inhibit which topoisomerase (DNA gyrase) in gram-negative

bacteria?

a) I

b) II

c) III

d) IV

9) Fluoroquinolones inhibit which topoisomerase in gram-positive bacteria?

a) I

b) II

c) III

d) IV

10) Plasmids and increasing transport mechanisms to move antibiotics out of bacterial

cells are two common mechanisms for fluoroquinolone resistance.

a) True

b) False

11) Which of the following would NOT be a situation where fluoroquinolones are

recommended?

a) Urinary tract infections

b) Gonorrhea

c) Urethritis

d) Cervicitis

e) Listeriosis

12) Which of the following would be used for pelvic inflammatory disease (C.

trichomatic, N. gonorrhoeae, Enterobacteriaceae, anaerobes)?

a) Ofloxacin

b) Gatifloxacin

c) Levofloxacin

d) Ciprofloxacin

e) B & C

13) Which of the following is the most effective against Pseudomonas aeroginosa,

although resistance is becoming more common?

a) Ofloxacin

b) Gatifloxacin

c) Levofloxacin



d) Ciprofloxacin

e) B & C

14) Which of the following is indicated for pyelonephritis, an ascending UTI that has

reached the kidney pelvis (pyelum)? These are also the most effective against gram-

positive bacteria.

a) Ofloxacin

b) Gatifloxacin

c) Levofloxacin

d) Ciprofloxacin

e) B & C

15) Fluoroquinolones are well distributed to the lung (pneumonia) and soft tissues (skin

infections). Which of the following, along with moxifloxacin, has the most activity

against anaerobic bacteria?

a) Ofloxacin

b) Gatifloxacin

c) Trovafloxacin

d) Ciprofloxacin

e) Levofloxacin

16) Which of the following is the drug of choice for cutaneous and pulmonary anthrax?

a) Ofloxacin

b) Gatifloxacin

c) Trovafloxacin

d) Ciprofloxacin

e) Levofloxacin

17) Which of the following is indicated, along with alatrofloxin, for life-threatening

infections of the urinary or respiratory tract, but can cause acute liver failure?

a) Ofloxacin

b) Gatifloxacin

c) Trovafloxacin

d) Ciprofloxacin

e) Levofloxacin

18) Which of the following is active against anaerobic pathogens including B. fragilis?

a) Ofloxacin

b) Gatifloxacin

c) Moxifloxacin

d) Ciprofloxacin

e) Levofloxacin

19) What is the oral bioavailability of fluoroquinolones?

a) 0-10%

b) 10-40%

c) 40-70%

d) 70-100%

e) 100%

20) Which of the following can cause CNS symptoms and have a tendancy to damage

cartiledge, thus should never be given to children under the age of 18?

a) Penicillins



b) Cephalosporins

c) Macrolides

d) Aminoglycosides

e) Fluoroquinolones

f) Sulfonamides

21) Which of the following may cause hypoglycemia?

a) Ofloxacin

b) Gatifloxacin

c) Moxifloxacin

d) Ciprofloxacin

e) Levofloxacin

22) Which of the following can cause macrulopapular rash with evolving bullae on the

lower extremities of patients with toxic epidural necrolysis (TEN) in the elderly?

a) Ofloxacin

b) Gatifloxacin

c) Moxifloxacin

d) Ciprofloxacin

e) Levofloxacin

23) What affect do moxafloxacin and gatifloxacin have on the cardiac conduction

system?

a) Increased atrial rate, leading to atrial arrhythmias

b) Increased PR interval, leading to possible heart block

c) Decreased conduction speed through the AV node

d) Increased QTc interval, leading to possible fainting

e) Decreased QTc interval, leading to less risk of ventricular arrhythmias

24) Patients on what kind of diet can get alkaline and crystal urine when taking high

doses of ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin?

a) Very high protein

b) Very low fat

c) Very low carbohydrates

d) Increased dairy intake

e) No meat or dairy

25) Which of the following should NOT be consumed while taking ciprofloxacin as it

decrease absorption of the drug?

a) Meat

b) Dairy

c) Excess sugar

d) Excess salt

e) Excess fat

26) Lower plasma and urinary concentrations of fluoroquinolones and loss of

antibacterial effectiveness may result if the drug is taken within two hours of which of the

following?

a) Antacid

b) Aspirin

c) Tylenol

d) Daily vitamin



e) Throat lozenges

27) Crystalluria can occur if fluoroquinolones are taken with which of the following?

a) Penicillin

b) Caffeine

c) Enzyte

d) Theophylline

e) Didanosine

f) St. John’s Wort

28) Which of the following drugs, used for asthma, can cause seizures if mixed with

fluoroquinolones?

a) Penicillin

b) Caffeine

c) Theophylline

d) Didanosine

e) Viagra

29) Which of the following should be monitor for patients who are taking warfarin and

going to receive fluoroquinolones?

a) Pro-thrombin

b) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)



e) Bilirubin

f) Creatinine

30) Which of the following drugs would NOT increase QT interval (potential for

ventricular arrythmias, torsade de pointes) when given with grepfloxacin or sparfloxacin?

a) Disopyramide

b) Erythromycin

c) Magnesium

d) Phenothiazines

e) Tricyclic antidepressants

31) TT is a 74-yr-old woman who complains of a headache, fever, and sudden onset of

chills; pleuritic chest pain; a cough with dark, thick, bloody sputum; increasing shortness

of breath; and anorexia. TT’s routine medications include multiple vitamins, warfarin,

furosemide, and enalapril. TT’s posterioanterior (PA) and lateral chest x-ray studies

show multifocal peribronchial consolidation consistent with CAP (community-acquired

pneumonia). Sputum culture is positive for Strep. Pneumoniae. What antibiotic from the

fluoroquinolones class would you choose?

a) Ofloxacin

b) Gatifloxacin

c) Trovafloxacin

d) Ciprofloxacin

e) Moxifloxacin

32) A patient presents with the symptoms of fever, chest pain, rales on chest auscultation,

and a purulent sputum. A chest x-ray confirms the presence of infiltrates.

Geographically, this patient lives in a county where there are drug-resistant pneumococci.

Empiric therapy of this patient therefore should include:



a) Penicillin G

b) Ceftriaxone

c) Levofloxacin

d) Amoxicillin

e) Vancomycin

8 – Chloramphenicol & Tetracyclines

1) A histological slide shows intracellular inclusions. Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) are

used to confirm C. trachomatis. Which of the following is the drug of choice for

Chlamydia?

a) Doxycycline (Vibramycin)

b) Minocycline (Arestin)

c) Oxytetracycline (Terramycin)

d) Tetracycline (Achromycin)

e) Tetracycline phosphate complex (Tetrex)

2) Which of the following is considered very toxic and thus is only used topically for

acne treatment?

a) Doxycycline (Vibramycin)

b) Minocycline (Arestin)

c) Oxytetracycline (Terramycin)

d) Tetracycline (Achromycin)

e) Tetracycline phosphate complex (Tetrex)

3) Tetracyclines are bacteriostatic and have which of the following mechanisms of

action?

a) Changes the shape of 30 rRNA to cause mRNA to be read incorrectly

b) Binds to 50s rRNA and inhibits formation of peptide bond

c) Binds to 50s rRNA and prevents movement along mRNA

d) Interferes with the tRNA anticodon reading of mRNA codon

e) Inhibits folic acid metabolism

4) Chloamphenicol has what mechanism of action?






5) Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, are effective against rare infections. Which of the

following infections that can be treated with doxycycline is associated with voluminous

rice-water diarrhea and may be seen as an epidemic in third world countries?

a) Chancroid (Haemophilus ducreyi)

b) Rabid fever (Francisella tularensis)

c) Black plague (Yersinia pestis)

d) Brucellosis (Brucella species)

e) Cholera (Vibrio cholera)

6) Tetracyclines are highly affective at treating all of the following. Which one is also

known as parrot fever?

a) Chlamydophila psittaci



b) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

c) Borrelia burgdorferi

d) Treponema pallidum

e) Rickettsia rickettsii

7) What is the elimination mechanism of doxycycline?

a) Urine via renal route

b) Fecal via biliary route

c) Blood via bone marrow route

d) Blood via hepatic route

e) White cells via splenic route

8) Which of the following is extensively biotransformed in the liver?

a) Demeclocycline

b) Oxytetracycline

c) Doxycycline

d) Tetracycline

9) What is the most common adverse reaction for tetracyclines?

a) Prolonged bleeding

b) Hepatomegaly

c) Bloody diarrhea

d) Seizures

e) GI irritation

10) What type of bacteria is associated with life-threatening enterocolitis producing

bloody diarrhea after the use of tetracyclines?

a) Staphylococcus

b) Streptococcus

c) Enterococcus

d) Gram-negative

e) Spirochetes

11) Patients on tetracycline should due which of the following to prevent toxicity?

a) Brush their teeth

b) Exercise regularly

c) Limit exposure to sunlight

d) Rest at least six hours each night

e) Eat a complete diet including meat and dairy

12) A patient presents with weakness, thirst, and increased urination. They are diagnosed

with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (NDI). Which of the following tetracyclines likely

caused this problem?

a) Demeclocycline

b) Oxytetracycline

c) Doxycycline

d) Tetracycline

e) Minocycline

13) A patient presents with pain in their right side. After physical exam and testing, a

fatty liver is found. History is negative for excessive alcohol use. Which of the following

classes of antibiotics could have caused this?

a) Tetracyclines



b) Aminoglycosides

c) Cephalosporins

d) Fluoroquinolones

e) Sulfonamides

14) Which of the following would absorb well even in the presence of food in the

stomach?

a) Demeclocycline

b) Doxycycline

c) Tetracycline

d) Oxytetracycline

15) A female patient presents for a pregnancy consultation. She is angry that the birth

control method she was using did not work. This patient had been given tetracyclines for

an infection a little over a month ago. Which of the following birth control methods was

she likely using?

a) Condoms

b) Spermicidal cream

c) Progestogen only pill (POP)

d) Estrogen combined pill

e) Depo Provera (DMPA)

16) What affect do barbiturates have when taken in combination with doxycycline?

a) Increased duration of action of doxycycline

b) Decreased duration of action of doxycycline

c) Increased effectiveness of barbiturate

d) Decreased effectiveness of barbiturate

17) Which of the following drugs is associated with gray baby syndrome?

a) Demeclocycline

b) Doxycycline

c) Tetracycline

d) Oxytetracycline

e) Chloamphenicol

18) Which of the following drugs would be given to a patient with rickettsia who is

allergic to doxycycline?

a) Demeclocycline

b) Tetracycline

c) Chloamphenicol

d) Minocycline

e) Oxytetracycline

19) Which of the following can cause irreversible bone marrow depression, leading to

aplastic anemia?

a) Demeclocycline

b) Tetracycline

c) Chloamphenicol

d) Minocycline

e) Oxytetracycline

20) Along with alfentanil and warfarin, what anti-seizure drug does chloamphenicol react

adversely with?



a) Amiodarone

b) Phenytoin

c) Theophylline

d) Didanosine

e) Viagra

21) JJ is an 18-yr-old grill who complains of an expanding rash, fever, headache, and

muscle and joint pains for the last three weeks. She was in a spring camp expedition in

the wood of Minnesota. JJ is allergic to penicillins and cephalosporins, which causes

rash. ELISA test results show elevated IgM and IgG levels and the punch biopsy culture

is positive for spirochete Borellia burgdorferi. What drug should be used?

a) Demeclocycline

b) Doxycycline

c) Tetracycline

d) Oxytetracycline

e) Minocycline

22) A bacteremic patient is being treated with an antibiotic. Following one week of

therapy, this patients develops severe bone marrow depression resulting in pancytopenia.

Which one of the following antibiotics is the most likely cause of this patient’s toxic

reaction?

a) Doxycycline

b) Chloramphenicol

c) Azithromycin

d) Gentamycin

e) Ciprofloxacin

23) A one-yr-old baby who has been diagnosed with brain abscess is undergoing an

antibiotic treatment. The baby develops abdominal distention, emesis, and irregular

respiration. Which one of the following antibiotics is the most likely cause of this baby’s

toxic reaction?

a) Oxytetracycline

b) Amikacin

c) Clarithromycin

d) Sparfloxacin

e) Chloamphenicol

9 – Sulfonamides, Trimethoprim, & Nitrofurantoin

1) Sulfonamides, which are primarily used to treat UTIs and cystitis, have what

mechanism of action against microbes?






2) Which enzyme is targeted by sulfonamide?

a) Monohydropteroate synthase

b) Monohydrofolate reductase

c) Dihydropteroate synthase



d) Dihydrofolate reductase

3) Which of the following drugs is a monotherapy used prophylactically to treat urinary

tract infections, such as with AIDS patients?

a) Sulfacetamide

b) Trimethoprim

c) Co-trimazole (TMP-SMX)

d) Sulfamethoxazole

e) Sulfasalazine

4) Which of the following drugs is used topically for ocular infections?

a) Sulfacetamide

b) Trimethoprim


d) Sulfamethoxazole

e) Sulfasalazine

5) Which of the following drugs is a sequential inhibitor of folate metabolism?

a) Sulfacetamide

b) Trimethoprim


d) Sulfamethoxazole

e) Sulfasalazine

6) Which of the following adverse effects is the most common with sulfonamides (sulfa

drugs)?

a) Allergic reaction

b) Acute hemolytic anemia

c) Crystalluria

d) Stevens-Johnson syndrome

7) Sulfonamides are ____ and can be resisted if para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)

production is greatly ____.

a) Bactericidal; Decreased

b) Bacteriostatic; Decreased

c) Bactericidal; Increased

d) Bacteriostatic; Increased

8) Sulfonamides bind to plasma proteins and can displace warfarin and what other drug?

a) Amiodarone

b) Phenytoin

c) Theophylline

d) Didanosine

e) Isoproterenol

9) Which of the following is the most commonly found in urinary tract infections?

a) E. Coli

b) Klebsiella

c) Proteus

d) Staphylococcus

e) Enterobacter

f) Shigella

10) Which of the following would NOT typically be treated with sulfonamides?



a) Nocardia infection

b) Chlamydia trachomatis infection

c) Toxoplasmosis

d) E. coli infection

e) Legionella infection

11) Silver sulfadiazine, which is useful for P. aeroginosa, is a common treatment for


a) Facial trauma

b) Clotting disorders


d) Burns

e) Hepatitis

12) Which of the following would be used to treat ulcerative colitis?

a) Sulfacetamide

b) Trimethoprim


d) Sulfamethoxazole

e) Sulfasalazine

13) Which of the following would NOT be a major therapeutic drug for urinary tract

infections, as it can cause crystalluria?

a) Sulfadiazine

b) Sulfixazole

c) Sulfamethoxazole

14) Co-trimazole (TMP-SMX) is used in patient who develop P. carinii pneumonia. This

type of pneumonia is seen in what type of patient?

a) Neonates

b) Elderly

c) Immune compromised

d) Patients taking warfarin

e) Patients with glucose-6-phosphate deficiency

15) Which of the following is taken in tablet form and exerts its antimicrobial effect in

the urine, working well against E. coli?

a) Sulfadiazine

b) Sulfixazole

c) Sulfamethoxazole

d) Nitrofurantoin

e) Trimethoprim

16) A patient is being treated with nitrofurantoin for long-term prophylaxis of lower

urinary tract infections. Which of the following can be done to help acidify urine and thus

improve antibacterial efficacy?

a) Take sodium bicarbonate

b) Drink cranberry juice

c) Eat potatoes

d) Eat dandelion greens

17) Pulmonary hypersensitivity with fibrosis can occur with long-term use of which of

the following?



a) Sulfadiazine

b) Sulfixazole

c) Sulfamethoxazole

d) Nitrofurantoin

e) Trimethoprim

18) A 28-yr-old AIDS patient requires prophylaxis against PCP (Pneumocystis

pneumonia) and cerebraltoxoplasmosis. Patient past medical history indicates no drug

allergies. Which one of the following agents is appropriate?

a) Nitrofurantoin

b) Gentamicin

c) Ciprofloxacin

d) Sulfadiazine

e) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

19) A 3-yr-old baby is given a presumptive diagnosis of sulfomanide-induced

kernicterus. Which one of the following mechanisms is involved ?

a) Competition for bilirubin-binding sites on plasma proteins

b) Defective bilirubin metabolism

c) Drug-induced RBC lysis

d) Hepatitis during pregnancy

e) Liver cirrhosis

10 – Antiviral Agents

1) Which of the following viral infections alternates between active replication and latent

periods where the virus remains dormant?

a) Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

b) Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)

c) Hepatitis B

d) Hepatitis C

2) Therapy for viral infections is aimed at which of the following?

a) Enhancing CD4 counts

b) Enveloping viral infected cells

c) Lysing viral infected cells

d) Destroying viruses directly

e) Preventing or delaying viral replication

3) Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapy (HAART) is used instead of monotherapy for


a) Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

b) Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)

c) Hepatitis B

d) Hepatitis C

e) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

4) Which of the following drugs is used for CMV, not HSV?

a) Acyclovir (Zovirax)

b) Vidarabine (Vira-A)

c) Fomivirsen (Vitravene)

d) Foscarnet (Foscovir)



e) Cidofovir (Vistide)

5) Acyclovir is phosphorylated by viral kinsases at which step?

a) First (mono-phosphate)

b) Second (di-phosphate)

c) Third (tri-phosphate)

6) AZT (Zidovudine) has what mechanism of action?

a) Blocks viral absorption

b) Blocks uncoating stage

c) Blocks early protein synthesis

d) Blocks reverse transcriptase

e) Blocks packaging and assembly

7) Which of the following is NOT initially phosphorylated by host cell kinases?

a) Idoxuridine

b) Cytarabine

c) Ganciclovir

d) Vidarabine

e) Zidovudine

8) Acyclovir is phosphorylated by ____, idoxuridine is phosphorylated by ____, and

Ganciclovir is phosphorylated by ____.

a) Thymidine kinase (TK); CMV protein kinase (UL97); host cell kinases

b) CMV protein kinase (UL97); host cell kinases; Thymidine kinase (TK)

c) Host cell kinases; Thymidine kinase (TK); CMV protein kinase (UL97)

d) CMV protein kinase (UL97); Thymidine kinase (TK); host cell kinases

e) Thymidine kinase (TK); host cell kinases; CMV protein kinase (UL97)

9) Acyclovir is considered “fraudulent” because it is missing a sugar moiety and thus

terminates the viral DNA chain. Resistance to this drug can develop in which of the

following, via alteration in viral thymidine kinases (TK-) or viral polymerase?

a) Herpes simples virus

b) Varicella-zoster

c) Epstein-Barr virus

d) A & B

e) A, B, & C

10) Which of the following is NOT a side-effect of Acyclovir (Zovirax)?

a) Delirium

b) Tremors/Seizures

c) Hypotoxicity

d) Hypotension

e) Significant bone marrow toxicity

11) Valacyclovir (Valtrex) is the ester form of acyclovir and is used for recurrent genital

herpes or zoster infections. Which of the following is NOT true of the valacyclovir when

compared to acyclovir?

a) Longer acting

b) Improved bioavailability

c) Increased serum drug levels

d) Should not be taken orally

12) Which of the following is NOT true of famciclovir (Famvir)?



a) Improved bioavailability

b) Resistant to first-pass metabolism

c) Used for acute herpes zoster infections

d) Used for recurrent genital herpes

13) Ganciclovir (Cytovene) is a drug that works by acting as what type of analog?

a) Adenine

b) Thymine

c) Cytosine

d) Guanine

e) Uracil

14) Which of the following is standard therapy for CMV infections?

a) Idoxuridine

b) Cytarabine

c) Ganciclovir

d) Vidarabine

e) Zidovudine

15) What type of patient would most likely be symptomatic for CMV infection?

a) Kidney transplant

b) Endocarditis

c) Trauma

d) Congestive heart failure

e) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

16) Which of the following drugs is given prophylactically to prevent CMV disease in

AIDS patients and has adverse effects including leucopenia and thrombocytopenia?

a) Idoxuridine

b) Cytarabine

c) Ganciclovir

d) Vidarabine

e) Zidovudine

17) Cidofovir (Vistide) is a broad-spectrum treatment for mucocutaneous herpes

infections and CMV retinitis in AIDS patients. The drug works by acting as what type of

analog?

a) Adenine

b) Thymine

c) Cytosine

d) Guanine

e) Uracil

18) Cidofovir should be co-administered with probenecide to minimize damage (toxicity)

to which of the following?

a) Brain

b) Heart

c) Liver

d) Spleen

e) Kidneys

19) Cidofovir is 1000-fold more effective against herpesvirus DNA polymerases than

host cell polymerases. Which of the following activates cidofovir?



a) Thymidine kinase (TK)

b) Host cell kinases

c) CMV protein kinase (UL97)

d) Phosphorylation is not required

20) Foscarnet (Foscavir) is used for CMV and is activated by which of the following?

a) Thymidine kinase (TK)

b) Host cell kinases

c) CMV protein kinase (UL97)

d) Phosphorylation is not required

21) Resistance to foscarnet in HSV and CMV is due to which of the following occurring

in the DNA polymerase gene?

a) Point mutations

b) Missense mutations

c) Nonsense mutations

d) Insertion mutation

e) Deletion mutations

22) Which of the following should be monitored when giving foscarnet?

a) D-dimer, Fibrin degradation products (FDP)

b) Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)

c) Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)

d) Electrolytes

e) Bilirubin

23) Which of the following drugs would be used for HSV encephalitis and HSV keratitis?

a) Idoxuridine

b) Cytarabine

c) Ganciclovir

d) Vidarabine

e) Zidovudine

24) Which of the following drugs is associated with GI irritation, along with paresthesia,

tremor, convulsions, and hepatic dysfunction?

a) Vidarabine

b) Zidovudine

c) Idoxuridine

d) Ganciclovir

e) Cytarabine

25) A 26-yr-old nursing mother is diagnosed as suffering from genital herpes. Apart

from her current problem, she is in good health. Which one of the following drugs is most

likely to be prescribed?

a) Acyclovir

b) Amantadine

c) Foscarnet

d) Ritonavir

e) Ganciclovir

26) Which one of the following antiviral agents is primarily phosphorylated by viral-

encoded enzymes?

a) Cytarabine



b) Amantadine

c) Foscarnet

d) Idoxuridine

e) Ganciclovir

11 – Antiretroviral Agents

1) What is the genus of the HIV retrovirus, acting slowly and replicating itself by

generating a DNA copy by reverse transcriptase?

a) Spumavirus

b) Lentivirus

c) Gammaretrovirus

d) Epsilonretrovirus

e) Deltaretrovirus

2) Which of the following is the primary target for HIV?

a) TH cells

b) TC cells

c) B cells

d) NK cells

e) Granulocytes

f) Macrophages

3) Antisense antiviral drugs block which of the following steps in the viral life cycle?

a) Binding

b) Reverse transcription

c) Integration

d) Transcription

e) Translation

f) Assembly

4) Protease inhibitors (PIs) block which of the following steps in the viral life cycle?

a) Binding


c) Integration

d) Transcription

e) Translation

f) Assembly

5) AZT (Retrovir), also called zidovudine, is used in the treatment of HIV by inhibiting

which step in the viral life cycle?

a) Binding


c) Integration

d) Transcription

e) Translation

f) Assembly

6) AZT can cause viral resistance, mitochondrial toxicity, and which of the following?

a) Anemia

b) Somnolence

c) Neutropenia



d) Leukocytopenia

e) Bone marrow over-production

7) HAART therapy usually includes which of the following?

a) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI), non-nucleoside reverse

transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI), and transcription inhibitor (TI)

b) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI), transcription inhibitor (TI),

and protease inhibitor (PI)

c) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI), non-nucleoside reverse

transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI), and protease inhibitor (PI)

d) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI), transcription inhibitor

(TI), and protease inhibitor (PI)

8) Which of the following drugs, when given with AZT, does NOT inhibit the

glucoronidation pathway and leads to decreased serum levels of AZT?

a) Naproxin

b) Beta-lactam antibiotics

c) Phenytoin

d) Phenobarbital

e) Clarithromycin

9) Rifampin causes serum levels of what drug to increase when given together?

a) AZT

b) Intraconazole

c) Fluconazole

d) Ketoconazole

10) Didanosine, ddI (Videx) can show cross resistence with zalcitabine (Hivid).

Resistance can also occur with a mutation to what codon?

a) Codon 45

b) Codon 47

c) Codon 54

d) Codon 74

e) Codon 184

11) Which of the following drugs is associated with dose-dependent pancreatitis as well

as peripheral neuropathy?

a) AZT, Zidovudine (Retrovir)

b) 3TC, Lamivudine (Epivir)

c) ddC, Zalcitabine (Havid)

d) ddI, Didanosine (Videx)

e) d4T, Stavudine (Zerit)

12) Co-administration of diadenosine with which of the following would result in an

increased area under the curve (AUC) plasma concentration as a function of time and

thus is contraindicated?

a) Cytarabine

b) Amantadine

c) Foscarnet

d) Idoxuridine

e) Ganciclovir



13) Lamivudine (Epivir) is a reverse transcriptase inhibitor that works in synergism with

AZT against HIV-1. Concomitant administration with which of the following drugs is

contraindicated?

a) Nitrofurantoin

b) Gentamicin

c) Ciprofloxacin

d) Sulfadiazine

e) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

14) Stavudine (Zerit), a reverse transcriptase inhibitor, works as what type of analog?

a) Adenine

b) Thymidine

c) Cytosine

d) Adenosine

e) Tyrosine

15) What is the major toxicity for stavudine?

a) Peripheral sensory neuropathy

b) Arthralgia

c) Pancreatitis

d) Elevated serum transaminases

16) Which of the following is NOT a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor?

a) Zalcitabine (Hivid)

b) Nevirapine (Viramune)

c) Efavirenz (Sustiva)

d) Delaverdine (Rescriptase)

17) Which of the following is the most common adverse reaction with nevirapine?

a) Rash

b) Jaundice

c) Facial swelling

d) Conjunctivitis

e) Dark urine

18) Which of the following is the correct order from most drug contraindications (drug-

drug interations) to least contraindications?

a) Nevirapine > Delavirdine > Efavirenz

b) Nevirapine > Efavirenz > Delavirdine

c) Delavirdine > Efavirenz > Nevirapine

d) Delavirdine > Nevirapine > Efavirenz

e) Nevirapine > Efavirenz > Delavirdine

19) Proease inhibitors (PI) block HIV aspartyl protease (AP). What is the function of AP?

a) Cleaves gag and gag-pol polyproteins into functional proteins

b) Assembles gag and gag-pol polyproteins into a function segment

c) Synthesis of the phenylalanine-proline peptide bond only

d) Cleaves at phenylalanine-tyrosine peptide bond only

e) Cleaves at phenylalanine-proline peptide bond only

20) Protease inhibitors are associated with accumulation of fat and hyperglycemia. Which

of the following has the highest toxicity toward nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea?

a) Indinavir



b) Nelfinavir

c) Ritonavir

d) Saquinavir

21) Which of the following is the most powerful inhibitor of the hepatic cytochrome

P450 enzyme system?

a) Indinavir

b) Nelfinavir

c) Ritonavir

d) Saquinavir

22) Which of the following is the weakest inhibitor of the hepatic cytochrome P450

enzyme system?

a) Indinavir

b) Nelfinavir

c) Ritonavir

d) Saquinavir

23) Ethinyl estradiol and AZT levels are lowered by which of the following?

a) Indinavir

b) Nelfinavir

c) Ritonavir

d) Saquinavir

24) Ritonavir and saquinavir are contraindicated with use of which of the following?

a) Penicillin

b) Caffeine

c) Theophylline

d) Didanosine

e) Sildenafil

25) The goal of HAART therapy is to increase CD4+ T-cell counts above what level,

signifying the patient no longer has AIDS?

a) 25 cells/mm3

b) 50 cells/mm3

c) 100 cells/mm3

d) 200 cells/mm3

e) 1000 cells/mm3

26) Which of the following is a fusion inhibitor that consists of a 36 amino acid synthetit

peptide which binds to gp41?

a) Efuvirtide

b) Raltegravir

c) Elvitegravir

d) Nelfinavir

e) Delavirdine

12 – Antitubercular & Antileprosy Drugs

1) Mycobacterium tuberculosis becomes a primary infection (TB) through which route of

transmission?

a) Ingestion

b) Injection



c) Inhalation

d) Absorption

e) Mutation

2) M. tuberculosis reproduces within what type of cells, leading to necrosis and the

presence of Ghon complexes on chest x-ray?

a) TH cells

b) TC cells

c) Neutrophils

d) NK cells

e) Granulocytes

f) Macrophages

3) Which of the following is NOT true regarding treatment of tuberculosis?

a) Isoniazid (IHN) is considered a first-line agent

b) Multidrug therapy (MDT) may be needed

c) Resistance can become an issue

d) Patient compliance is an issie

e) Treatment is short-term

4) If three drugs are given to a patient and each drug has a 50% chance of failure due to

bacterial resistance, what is the overall probability that chemotherapy resistance will

develop?

a) 1 in 2

b) 1 in 4

c) 1 in 6

d) 1 in 8

e) 1 in 12

5) Which of the following drugs has the highest pattern of resistance?

a) Ethambutol

b) Isoniazid

c) Rifampin

d) Pyrazinamide

e) Streptomycin

6) Which of the following is considered a second-line antitubercular agent?

a) Para-aminosalicyclic acid

b) Isoniazid

c) Rifampin

d) Pyrazinamide

e) Streptomycin

7) Which of the following is an aminoglycoside only used for tuberculosis?

a) Ethambutol

b) Isoniazid

c) Rifampin

d) Pyrazinamide

e) Streptomycin

8) Isoniazid has a genetic polymorphism profile. Which of the following is NOT true

regarding the use of isoniazid?

a) 50% of African American are fast acetylators



b) 50% of Caucasians are slow acetylators

c) Most Native American are fast acetylators

d) Most Asians are fast acetlators

e) Slow acetylators should be given an increased dose of isoniazid

9) Isoniazid inhibits mycolid acid synthesis, disrupting bacterial walls and is associated

with hepatotoxicity, peripheral and central neuropathy, and optic neuritis. What vitamin

should be given as a supplement with isoniazid to help prevents these effects?

a) Vitamin A

b) Vitamin K

c) Vitamin B6

d) Vitamin B12

e) Vitamin E

10) Use of isoniazid is contraindicated in what patient population?

a) Elderly

b) Epileptics

c) Diabetics

d) Transplant

e) Pregnant

11) A patient is started on ethambutol after lab results show an infection of

Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare. What disease should the patient be tested for?

a) Tuberculosis

b) Diabetes

c) Epilepsy

d) Dementia

e) HIV

12) Which of the following drugs can cause joint pain and reversible optic neuritis?

a) Ethambutol

b) Isoniazid

c) Rifampin

d) Pyrazinamide

e) Streptomycin

13) Which of the following drugs would be used to treat Chlamydia if doxycycline is not

available for use?

a) Ethambutol

b) Isoniazid

c) Rifampin

d) Pyrazinamide

e) Streptomycin

14) A patient returns complaining of a reddish-orange color in their urine, saliva, sweat,

and tears. Which of the following drugs was the patient likely taking?

a) Dapsone

b) Isoniazid

c) Rifampin

d) Pyrazinamide

e) Streptomycin



15) Which of the following is a pro-drug that is activated by tuberculosis and can cause

hyperuricemia?

a) Ethambutol

b) Isoniazid

c) Rifampin

d) Pyrazinamide

e) Streptomycin

16) Which of the following TB drugs is the least toxic?

a) Para-aminosalicyclic acid

b) Ethionamide

c) Ethambutol

d) Cycloserine

Match the drug with the adverse effect:

17) Intense gastric pain a) Para-aminosalicyclic acid (PAS)

18) CNS toxicity b) Ethionamide (Trecator-SC)

19) Hypersensitivity c) Cycloserine (Seromycin)

20) A patient from Southeast Asia presents with discoloration of the skin. Neurological

testing of the skin shows sensory loss over the areas of discoloration. Which of the

following is the most likely?

a) AIDS

b) Huntington disease

c) Parkinson disease

d) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

e) Hansen disease

21) Which of the following drugs is combined with trimethoprim for prophylaxis of

Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in AIDS patients?

a) Dapsone

b) Isoniazid

c) Rifampin

d) Pyrazinamide

e) Streptomycin

22) Which of the following drugs is used for Mycobacterium leprae?

a) Dapsone

b) Isoniazid

c) Didanosine

d) Pyrazinamide

e) Streptomycin

23) Dapsone is contraindicated in which of the following cases?

a) AIDS

b) Folate deficiency

c) Splenomegaly

d) Glucose 6-phosphate deficiency

f) Marfan syndrome

24) Which of the following drugs may block Dapson’s absorption?

a) Penicillin

b) Furosamine



c) St. John’s Wort

d) Warfarin

e) Didanosine

25) What drug is the single most effective bactericidal drug against M. leprae?

a) Dapsone

b) Isoniazid

c) Rifampin

d) Pyrazinamide

e) Streptomycin

26) RL is a 46-yr-old African American man who has had intermittent, dull chest pain for

3 months; other symptoms include fatigue, night sweats, and bloody sputum. He has no

known allergies. He has been on a 6-mo regimen of MTX for seropositive rheumatoid

arthritis. RL is currently on active military duty and just returned from a 4-yr assignment

in Southeast Asia. He admits to a daily consumption of alcohol (12-14 ounces). RL’s

chest X ray reveals interstitial infiltrates and cavitation in left upper lobe. His sputum

culture is positive for acid-fast bacilli. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

a) Streptococcus pneumoniae

b) Pneumocystis carinii

c) Mycobacterium leprae

d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

e) Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare

27) A 34-year-old man under treatment for pulmonary TB has acute-onset right big toe

pains, swelling, and low-grade fever. His physical exam is consistent with gouty arthritis,

and he is found to have high serum uric acid levels. Which one of the following anti-TB

drugs is the most likely cause of this patient’s UA levels?

a) Isoniazid

b) Pyrazinamide

c) Cycloserine

d) Rifampin

e) Ethionamide

28) A 30-year-old Haitian man has acute-onset confusion and suicidal tendency. Three

weeks ago he began combination therapy for multidrug-resistant pulmonary TB. Which

of the following anti-TB drugs is the most likely cause of the patient’s neurological

symptoms?

a) Rifampin

b) Isoniazid

c) Pyrazinamide

d) Streptomycin

e) Cycloserine

13 – Antifungal Agents

1) Which of the following is NOT considered opportunistic, and thus may be seen in non-

immunocompromised patients?

a) Aspergillosis

b) Histoplasmosis

c) Cryptoccosis



d) Candidiasis

2) Which of the following types of patients would be the least susceptible to fungal

infections?

a) Surgical patients

b) Patients in the ICU

c) Patients with prostheses

d) Patients with diabetes

e) Immunocompromised patients

3) Which of the following is used to treat dermatophytosis (skin mycosis)?

a) Amphotericin B (Fungizone)

b) Miconazole (Monistat)

c) Griseofulvin (Fulvicin)

d) Terbinafine (Lamisil)

e) Caspofungin (Cancidas)

Match the antifungal mechanism with the drug:

4) Disruption of membrane structure a) Amphotericin B

5) Inhibition of cell membrane ergosterol synthesis b) Flucytosine

6) Inhibition of fungal DNA synthesis c) Miconazole

7) Which of the following shows synergistic characteristics for fungal infections when

combined with amphotericin B?

a) Flucytosine

b) Clindamycin

c) Fluroquinolone

d) Imipenem

e) Cephalosporin

8) Antifungal azole drugs are very nephrotoxic and should not be taken orally.

a) True

b) False

9) Which of the following locations shows the least penetrance of amphotericin B?

a) Parotid bland

b) Urine

c) CNS

d) Blood

10) What is the major adverse risk for amphotericin B, which is enhanced with drugs

such as cyclosporine and aminoglycosides?

a) Nephrotoxicity

b) Nausea and vomiting

c) Electrolyte imbalances

d) Fever and chills

e) Anemia

11) Due to “cytokine storm” effects, how should amphotericin B be administered?

a) Orally

b) Rapid push IV

c) Slow push IV

d) IV slow infusion

e) IM



12) Which of the following is used for cryptococcal infections in non-AIDS patients?

a) Amphotericin B

b) Amphotericin B and flucytosine

c) Flucytosine

d) Ketoconazole

e) Voriconazle

13) Which of the following interferes with nucleic acid synthesis by inhibiting

thymidylate synthase?

a) Amphotericin B

b) Miconazole

c) Flucytosine

d) Ketoconazole

e) Voriconazle

14) Which of the following antifungal agents is removed by dialysis?

a) Voriconazle

b) Miconazole

c) Amphotericin B

d) Ketoconazole

e) Flucytosine

15) Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect seen with flucytosine?

a) Hepatotoxicity

b) Hair loss (alopecia)

c) GI distress

d) Rash

e) Bone marrow suppression

16) Which of the following is available over the counter (OTC) for acute vaginal

infections?

a) Ketoconazole

b) Fluconazole

c) Itraconazole

d) Miconazole

e) Clotrimazole

17) Which of the following should be used in gastric surgery?

a) Ketoconazole

b) Fluconazole

c) Itraconazole

d) Miconazole

e) Clotrimazole

18) Which of the following should NOT be taken with azole antifungals?

a) Antacids

b) Cranberry juice

c) Alcohol

d) Aspirin

19) Which of the following drugs can cause hormonal imbalances as well as GI distress

and rash?

a) Ketoconazole



b) Fluconazole

c) Itraconazole

d) Miconazole

e) Clotrimazole

20) Administration of which of the following drugs with ketoconazole could lead to life-

threatening cardiac arrhythmias?

a) Cyclosporine

b) Digoxin

c) Phenytoin

d) Isoniazid

e) Rifampin

f) Coumadin

21) Which of the following decreases serum concentrations of fluconazole?

a) Cyclosporine

b) Digoxin

c) Phenytoin

d) Coumadin

e) Rifampin

22) Which of the following drugs is used for histoplasmosis and blastomycosis, and can

possibly lead to minearalcorticoid excess?

a) Ketoconazole

b) Fluconazole

c) Itraconazole

d) Miconazole

e) Clotrimazole

23) Which of the following is used for refractory invasive aspergillosis?

a) Amphotericin B (Fungizone)

b) Miconazole (Monistat)

c) Griseofulvin (Fulvicin)

d) Terbinafine (Lamisil)

e) Caspofungin (Cancidas)

24) Which of the following inhibits fungal cytochrome P-450 mediated 14-alpha-

lanosterol demethylation and has excellent activity against Aspergillus and Candida?

a) Amphotericin B

b) Caspofungin

c) Flucytosine

d) Ketoconazole

e) Voriconazle

25) The oral azoles itraconazole and terbinafine are used because they have a ____

spectrum of activity and a ____ duration of treatment.

a) Narrow; Short

b) Narrow; Long

c) Broad; Short

d) Broad; Long

James Lamberg



AnswerKey

Pharm #1

1) E

2) D

3) C

4) A

5) B

6) E

7) C

8) D

9) B

10) B

11) A

12) E

13) A

14) D

15) C

16) E

17) A

18) B

19) A

20) B

21) A

22) B

23) A

24) E

25) B

26) C

27) A

28) C

29) D

30) D

31) A

32) F

33) C

34) B

35) C

36) A

37) C

38) E

39) A

40) B

41) E

42) C

43) B

44) E

45) A

46) C

47) E

48) D

49) B

50) C

51) C

52) B

53) E

54) C

55) D

56) C

57) B

58) B

59) B

60) F

61) D

62) B

63) E

64) A

65) C

66) A

67) E

68) B

69) F

Pharm #2

1.1) C

1.2) A

1.3) A

1.4) B

1.5) E

1.6) C

1.7) B

2.1) A

2.2) D

2.3) E

3.1) C

3.2) E

Pharm #3

1) C

2) E

3) D

4) B

5) C

6) A

7) C

8) A

9) A

10) B

11) D

12) C

13) E

14) C

15) A

16) D

17) B

18) B

19) E

20) D

21) C

22) D

23) B

24) C

25) B

26) A

27) D

28) E

29) B

30) E

31) A

32) B

33) D

34) E

Pharm #4

1) D

2) A

3) B

4) A

5) B

6) C

7) A

8) D

9) E

10) C

11) D

12) A

13) E

14) A

15) C

16) F

17) D

18) B

19) E

20) E

21) B

22) A

23) D

24) B

25) E

26) D

27) A

28) D

29) A

30) D

31) C

Pharm #5

1) C

2) A

3) D

4) B

5) C

6) A

7) E

8) A

9) A

10) C

11) C

12) C

13) B

14) D

15) B

16) C

17) D

18) E

19) C

20) B

21) A

22) B

23) D

24) C

25) B

26) A

27) B

28) E

29) C

30) E

Pharm #6

1) C

2) C

3) B

4) B

5) A

6) A

7) C

8) E

9) D

10) D

11) B

12) E

13) E

14) C

15) D

16) A

17) B

18) E

19) C

Pharm #7

1) D

2) A

3) B

4) E

5) D

6) D

7) C

8) B

9) D

10) A

11) E

12) A

13) D

14) E

15) C

16) D

17) C

18) C

19) D

20) E

21) B



22) E

23) D

24) E

25) B

26) A

27) E

28) C

29) A

30) C

31) B

32) C

Pharm #8

1) A

2) B

3) D

4) B

5) E

6) A

7) B

8) C

9) E

10) A

11) C

12) A

13) A

14) B

15) D

16) B

17) E

18) C

19) C

20) B

21) B

22) B

23) E

Pharm #9

1) E

2) C

3) B

4) A

5) C

6) A

7) D

8) B

9) A

10) E

11) D

12) E

13) A

14) C

15) D

16) B

17) D

18) E

19) A

Pharm #10

1) B

2) E

3) A

4) C

5) A

6) D

7) C

8) E

9) D

10) E

11) D

12) B

13) D

14) C

15) A

16) C

17) C

18) E

19) B

20) D

21) A

22) D

23) D

24) A

25) A

26) E

Pharm #11

1) B

2) A

3) D

4) F

5) B

6) A

7) C

8) E

9) D

10) D

11) D

12) E

13) B

14) C

15) A

16) A

17) A

18) C

19) A

20) C

21) C

22) D

23) B

24) E

25) D

26) A

Pharm #12

1) C

2) F

3) E

4) D

5) B

6) A

7) E

8) E

9) C

10) B

11) E

12) A

13) C

14) C

15) D

16) C

17) B

18) C

19) A

20) E

21) A

22) A

23) D

24) E

25) C

26) D

27) B

28) E

Pharm #13

1) B

2) D

3) C

4) A

5) C

6) B

7) A

8) B

9) C

10) A

11) D

12) B

13) C

14) E

15) C

16) E

17) B

18) A

19) A

20) B

21) E

22) C

23) E

24) E

Date post:	12-Nov-2014
Category:	Documents
Upload:	medshare
View:	7,690 times
Download:	7 times

Quiz Pharmacology Part 2 of 2

Documents