Regd. Office Admission-cum-Scholarship Test

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. The initial 10 minutes are earmarked for the candidates to carefully read the instructions. (Note : The

candidates are not allowed to either look inside the question booklet or start answering during these

initial 10 minutes.)

2. The question booklet and answer sheet are issued separately at the start of the examination.

3. This question booklet contains 90 questions.

4. Read each question carefully.

5. Determine the correct answer, one out of the four available choices given under each question.

6. It is mandatory to use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the appropriate circle in the answer sheet.

7. For each correct answer, four marks will be awarded. There is no negative marking.

For Example

Q. 12 : In the Question Booklet is : Which one is known as ‘black gold’?

(Answer Sheet)

(1) Old gold Q.12. � � � �

(2) Petroleum

(3) Silver

(4) Coal

Thus as the correct answer is choice 2, the candidate should darken completely (with a blue/black Ball

point pen only) the circle corresponding to choice 2 against Question No. 12 on the Answer Sheet. If

more than one circle is darkened for a given question such answer will be rejected.

8. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet. No change in the answer once

marked is allowed. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should check that

Roll No. and Test-Booklet code have been filled and marked correctly.

9. Rough work should be done only on the space provided in the question booklet.

10. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer sheet and Question booklet

are to be returned to the invigilator. If the candidate wants to leave the examination hall before time,

he/she should hand over the question paper and answer sheet to the invigilator. However, no student can

leave the examination hall before half time.

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Admission-cum-Scholarship Test(Sample Paper)

(Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017)

(Syllabus of the Test : Science & Mathematics of Class IX)

Time : 2 Hrs. Max.Marks : 360

Test Booklet Code : A

Space For Rough Work

- 1 -

Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017 Sample Paper

SCIENCE

Choose the correct answer :

1. Two objects of mass 1 kg and 2 kg are fixed at a

certain distance between them. If a mass of 4 kg,

placed between them, attains equilibrium at a

distance r from the smaller mass, then its distance

from the larger mass will be

(1) r (2) 2 r

(3) 2r (4) 4r

2. Which of the following speed-time graph is not

possible physically?

(1)

t

v

(2)

t

v

(3) t

v

(4) t

v

3. If ratio of relative densities of two liquids is 2 : 5,

then the ratio of their densities would be

(1) 5 : 2 (2) 1 : 1

(3) 2 : 5 (4) 2 : 3

4. Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth

is g. What will be the acceleration due to gravity

on the surface of a planet having same mass and

diameter half as that of earth?

(1)2

g(2)

4

g

(3) 4g (4) 2g

5. A body of mass 15 kg moving with a velocity of

10 m/s, is brought to rest by applying brakes.

Work done by the brakes is

(1) –250 J (2) –500 J

(3) –750 J (4) –1000 J

6. A shell explodes and its pieces fly off in opposite

directions. Which of the following quantities will be

conserved?

(1) Kinetic energy only

(2) Momentum only

(3) Neither momentum nor kinetic energy

(4) Both momentum and kinetic energy

7. Identify the mechanical wave from the following.

(1) Sound waves (2) X-rays

(3) -rays (4) -rays

8. An object weights 600 N when measured on the

surface of earth. What would be its mass when

measured on the surface of the moon? [g = 10 m/

s2]

(1) 100 kg (2) 600 kg

(3) 60 kg (4) 36 kg

9. According to Archimedes principle when a body is

immersed fully or partially in a liquid, it

experiences an upward force that is equal to

(1) Weight of the body

(2) Weight of the part of body which is immersed

(3) Weight of the liquid displaced by it

(4) Weight of the part of body not immersed

10. If the wavelength of a sound wave is 35 cm and its

frequency is 2 kHz, then speed of the wave is

(1) 350 m/s (2) 700 m/s

(3) 175 m/s (4) 7000 m/s

11. For an object undergoing uniformly accelerated

motion, average velocity is given by [symbols have

their usual meaning]

(1)–

2

v u

(2)2

v u

(3)

2 2

2

v u(4)

2 2–

2

v u


- 2 -

Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017

12. The velocity time graph of a body is shown below.

The corresponding displacement time graph will be

V

t

(1)

S

t

(2)

S

t

(3)

S

t

(4)

S

t

13. Sound from a source vibrating at frequency 200 Hz

travels at speed of 300 m/s in air. Wavelength of

the sound is

(1) 15 m (2) 1.5 m

(3) 150 m (4) 6 m

14. An object is thrown up with a speed of 50 m/s. Its

height from the ground after 7 s is [Take g = 10 m/s2]

(1) 125 m (2) 20 m

(3) 105 m (4) 100 m

15. A net force of 20 N acts on a 5 kg mass kept at

rest. Distance travelled by the mass in 6 s is

(1) 72 m (2) 36 m

(3) 24 m (4) 12 m

16. Which of the following has the maximum number

of moles?

(1) 112 g of Na

(2) 50 g of Ne

(3) 40 g of He

(4) 60 g of C

17. If 10 g of sugar is dissolved in 90 g of water, then

what will be the mass percentage (w/w) of the

solution?

(1) 10% (2) 9%

(3) 1.11% (4) 0.11%

18. Which of the following mixtures can be separated

by sublimation?

(1) NaCl and KCl (2) NH4Cl and NaCl

(3) KCl and CaCl2

(4) MgCl2 and CaCl

2

19. Which of the following elements has the valency of

2?

(1) Sodium (2) Carbon

(3) Boron (4) Oxygen

20. The chemical formula of ammonium phosphate is

(1) (NH4)2PO

4(2) NH

4PO

4

(3) NH4(PO

4)3

(4) (NH4)3PO

4

21. Brass is an alloy of

(1) Copper and tin (2) Copper and zinc

(3) Iron and copper (4) Iron and zinc

22. The process ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ respectively are

Salt +Sand+Ammoniumchloride

Process ‘X’Salt +Sand

+ Ammonium chloride

Dissolu-tion inwater

Sand +Salt +Water

Salt +Water

Process ‘Y’Process ‘Z’Puresaltcrystals +

Sand(1) Melting, filtration and evaporation

(2) Evaporation, crystallisation and filtration

(3) Sublimation, filtration and crystallisation

(4) Sublimation, crystallisation and evaporation

23. Which of the following elements becomes liquid at

a temperature slightly above room temperature?

(1) Boron (2) Gallium

(3) Germanium (4) Bromine

24. The total number of oxygen atoms present in

1.12 g quick lime is

(1) 6.022 1022 (2) 6.022 1023

(3) 1.204 1022 (4) 1.204 1023


- 3 -


25. The isotope of an element ‘X’ is used as a fuel in

the nuclear reactor. Element ‘X’ is

(1) Carbon (2) Hydrogen

(3) Iodine (4) Uranium

26. Read the following statements carefully

(A) One water atom contains two hydrogen atoms

and one oxygen atom.

(B) Number of moles of oxygen atom present in

0.22 g of carbon dioxide is 0.01.

(C) The charge on the particle which was

discovered by J.J. Thomson is negative.

The correct statements are/is

(1) Only (A) (2) Both (A) & (C)

(3) Both (B) & (C) (4) All (A), (B) & (C)

27. The electronic configuration of an element with

atomic number 20 is

(1) 2, 8, 10 (2) 2, 8, 8, 2

(3) 2, 8, 2, 8 (4) 2, 2, 8, 8

28. The molecular mass of calcium carbonate is

(1) 50 u (2) 75 u

(3) 100 u (4) 120 u

29. The composition of the nuclei of three elements are

given as

A B C

Number of neutrons 6 8 7

Number of protons 6 6 7

Elements

Consider the following statements

(i) The atomic number of element 'B' is 6 and

mass number of both 'A' and 'C' is 14

(ii) Element 'A' and 'B' are isotopes

(iii) Element 'A' and 'C' are isobars

Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?

(1) Only (i) (2) Both (i) & (ii)

(3) Only (ii) (4) All (i), (ii) & (iii)

30. The dispersion medium in milk is

(1) Liquid (2) Gas

(3) Solid (4) Plasma

31. Who divided kingdom Monera into Archaebacteria

and Eubacteria?

(1) Robert Whittaker (2) Carolus Linnaeus

(3) Carl Woese (4) Aristotle

32. 'X' which causes Japanese Encephalitis is carried

by 'Y' and affect the organ 'Z' in humans. Identify

'X', 'Y' and 'Z'.

(1) X-bacterium, Y-mosquito and Z-liver

(2) X-virus, Y-air and Z-lung

(3) X-fungus, Y-water and Z-kidney

(4) X-virus, Y-mosquito and Z-brain

33. Statement-1: Rainfall patterns are decided by

prevailing wind patterns.

Statement-2: In large parts of India, rains are

mostly brought by the south-west or north-west

monsoons.

(1) Both the statements are true

(2) Both the statements are false

(3) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false

(4) Statement-2 is true and statement-1 is false.

34. Which of the following cell organelles is

responsible for storage, modification and packaging

of products in vesicles?

(1) Lysosomes

(2) Mitochondria

(3) Endoplasmic reticulum

(4) Golgi apparatus

35. Identify the connective tissue on the basis of given

information.

� It fills the space inside the organs.

� It supports internal organs and helps in repair

of tissues.

(1) Cartilage

(2) Ligament

(3) Adipose tissue

(4) Areolar connective tissue


- 4 -


36. Select the incorrect match.

(1) Mycoplasma – Monera

(2) Agaricus – Fungi

(3) Ulothrix – Protista

(4) Marchantia – Plantae

37. Statement-1: Making anti-bacterial medicines is

harder than making anti-viral medicines.

Statement-2 : Viruses have few biochemical

mechanisms of their own.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect

(3) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is

incorrect

(4) Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is

correct

38. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. the organism

given in the figure.

(Housefly)Musca

(1) It has bilateral symmetry and segmented body

(2) It belongs to the largest group of animals

(3) It has closed circulatory system

(4) It has jointed legs

39. How many of the following crops are grown in rainy

season?

(i) Paddy (ii) Wheat

(iii) Linseed (iv) Mustard

(v) Soyabean (vi) Cotton

(1) Three (2) Two

(3) Five (4) Four

40. Identify the cell organelle on the basis of the given

information.

These are sacs for storing solid and liquid

contents.

These are small sized in animal cells and very

large sized in plant cells.

(1) Mitochondria (2) Lysosomes

(3) Vacuoles (4) SER

41. Select an incorrect statement w.r.t. the given

figure.

(1) It controls a voluntary actions

(2) Its cells are spindle-shaped and uninucleate

(3) It is also called unstriated muscle

(4) It is found in ureters and bronchi

42. Which of the following groups of diseases are

caused by bacteria?

(1) Dengue, anthrax and cholera

(2) Typhoid, cholera and tuberculosis

(3) Malaria, AIDS and elephantiasis

(4) Kala azar, influenza and typhoid

43. Statement-1: Oxygen is an abundant element on

our earth.

Statement-2: Oxygen from atmosphere is used up

in processes like combustion, photosynthesis,

respiration, etc.

(1) Both the statements are true

(2) Both the statements are false

(3) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false

(4) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true

44. How many micronutrients given in the box are

absorbed by plants through soil?

Nitrogen, Hydrogen, Sulphur, Zinc,

Iron, Magnesium

(1) Two (2) Three

(3) Four (4) Five

45. Which of the following permanent tissues becomes

modified to give buoyancy to aquatic plants and

helps them float?

(1) Collenchyma (2) Parenchyma

(3) Sclerenchyma (4) Xylem


- 5 -


MATHEMATICS

46. Which of the following is not a rational number?

(1)7

11 (2) 7.232332333.....

(3) 0 (4) 18.25

47. Which of the following points is a solution of the

linear equation 2 3 4?x y

(1) (3, 2) (2) ( 2, 4)

(3) ( 3, 2) (4) ( 2, 2)

48. The statements which are proved using definitions,

axioms, previously proved statements and

deductive reasoning are called

(1) Theorems (2) Axioms

(3) Postulates (4) Consistent axioms

49. In the given figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral

with its circumcircle having centre O. Side DC is

extended to E. If BOD = 160°, then BCE is of

160°

O

A B

CD E

(1) 40° (2) 80°

(3) 20° (4) 160°

50. If points C and D lie between two points A and B

such that AC = CD = DB, then CB is equal to

(1)2

3AB (2)

3

AB

(3)1

2AB (4)

4

AB

51. Area of a rhombus, whose diagonals are of length

10 cm and 24 cm respectively, is

(1) 240 sq. cm

(2) 120 sq. cm

(3) 60 sq. cm

(4) 480 sq. cm

52. Which of the following angles cannot be

constructed with the help of a compass and a

scale?

(1) 30° (2)1

222

(3) 165° (4) 87°

53. The difference between total surface area and

curved surface area of a hemisphere of radius r is

(1) 2r2 (2) 3r

2

(3) r2 (4) 4r

2

54. If there are 20 blue balls, 15 red balls and 10

green balls in a bag and a ball is drawn at random

from the bag, then the probability of the ball not to

be green is

(1)2

9(2)

4

9

(3)13

9(4)

7

9

55. If (3, – 4) lies on the graph of the equation 4x +

3ky = 2, then the value of k is

(1) –6 (2)5

6

(3) 6 (4)5

6


- 6 -


56. If PQ || RS || UV and a transversal AB intersects

PQ, RS and UV at C, D and E respectively, then

which of the following is an incorrect conclusion?

A

C

D

E

S

QP

R

U V

B

(1) ACQ + VEB = 180°

(2) ACQ = UEB

(3) RDE + VEB = 180°

(4) ACP = DEV

57. ABC and PBC are two isosceles triangles on

the same base BC such that AB = AC and

PB = PC. If BAC = 30° and BPC = 40°, then

ABP is

B C

P

A

(1) 170°

(2) 135°

(3) 145°

(4) 180°

58. In the given ABC, if AC > AB and ADB >

ADC, then

B D C

A

(1) BAD > CAD (2) BAD < CAD

(3) BAD = CAD (4) BAD CAD

59. x3 + 3x

2 – 2x – 6 can be factorised as

(1) ( 3)( 3)( 2)x x x

(2) (x + 2) (x – 3) (x + 1)

(3) (x – 2) (x + 3) (x – 1)

(4) ( 2)( 2)( 3)x x x

56. If the ratio of curved surface area and total surface

area of a cone is 3 : 4, then the ratio of height and

radius of the cone is

(1) 4 2 :1 (2) 2 2 :1

(3) 3 : 1 (4) 2 : 1

61. If (x – 3) and (x – 2) are factors of ax3 – 19x

2 + bx

– 6, then 13a + 2b is equal to

(1) 200 (2) 300

(3) 100 (4) 150

62. A polynomial of degree 6 in y has at most____

unlike terms

(1) 6 (2) 5

(3) 7 (4) 2

63. In the given figure, PQ || SW and QT || UV. If

PQT = 70°, then the measure of VUW is

PS

R

U

W

Q T

V

(1) 110° (2) 70°

(3) 120° (4) 20°


- 7 -


64. In the given figure, DEAL is a rectangle. If P and

Q are the mid-points of AL and DL respectively,

then the length of PQ is

L P A

D E24 cm

18 cmQ

(1) 60 cm (2) 90 cm

(3) 15 cm (4) 30 cm

65. The mean of first eight composite natural numbers

is

(1) 10 (2) 9.75

(3) 3.625 (4) 8

66. The probability of an event of a trial cannot be

(1)1

2(2)

2

3

(3)4

3(4)

5

6

67. The distance of the point (–6, –2) from the x-axis

is

(1) 8 units (2) 6 units

(3) 2 units (4) 4 units

68. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle. If

OA = 10 cm, AB = 16 cm, then the distance of

AB from the centre is

A C B

O

(1) 12 cm (2) 10 cm

(3) 8 cm (4) 6 cm

69. If 1

,3 2 2

x

then the value of

2

1

x

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

is

(1) 17 12 2 (2) 17 2 2

(3) 12 17 2 (4) 12 17 2

70. If p2 + 4p + q

2 + 8q + r2 + 10r = –45, then the

value of p + q – r is

(1) 11 (2) –1

(3) 1 (4) –11

71. In the given figure, NETA is a square. If PQ || EA

and M is the mid-point of PQ, then which of the

following is true?

3 12

4 8

6

M

PA T

7

5

Q

EN

(1)1

7 82

(2) 3 = 24

(3) 12 (4) 56

72. On putting x = 15 in x – 10 0,7

y we get y2 –

5 as

(1) 1225 (2) 1210

(3) 1220 (4) 1230

73. To construct a triangle, if its base and a base

angle are given, then which of the following

conditions must also be given?

(1) Product of other two sides

(2) Sum of other two angles

(3) Difference of other two sides

(4) Difference of other two angles

74. The capacity (in liters) of a cylindrical vessel of

height 100 cm and radius 70 cm is

(1) 1540 (2) 15.4

(3) 154 (4) 1.54


- 8 -


75. If ax3 – b3 = (3x – 2) (9x

2 + 6x + 4), then the value

of a – (b)2 is

(1) 27 (2) 4

(3) 23 (4) 25

76. Three coins are tossed 570 times and the

outcomes are recorded as below:

Number of tail 3 2 1 0

Frequency 255 90 125 100

Based on this information, the probability of getting

at most two tails is

(1)23

28(2)

21

38

(3)3

19(4)

15

38

77. If the curved surface area of a cone is 550 cm2 and

its radius is 7 cm, then the volume of the cone is

(1) 1323 cm3 (2) 1332 cm3

(3) 1232 cm3 (4) 1233 cm3

78. In the given figure, AC and BD are two diameters

and O is the centre of the circle. If OP and OR are

the angle bisectors of DOC and AOB

respectively, then BR is always equal to

R

A

P

OC

B

D

(1) DC (2) PC

(3) AO (4) OC

79. If the area of an equilateral triangle is2

4 3 cm ,

then the perimeter of triangle is (in cm)

(1) 16 (2) 12

(3) 14 (4) 10

80. ABCD is a rhombus and OP AD. If AOP = 20°,

then measure of CBO is equal to

20°

D B

A

C

P

O

(1) 70° (2) 90°

(3) 20° (4) 50°

81. ABCD and PQCA are two parallelograms. If

ar(ABCD) = x sq. units, then ar(APQC) is equal to

A

P

B

Q

CD

(1) 2x sq. units (2) x sq. units

(3)2

x

sq. units (4) 3x sq. units

82. In a frequency distribution, the mid value of a class

is 12.5 and the width of the class is 7. The lower

limit and upper limit of the class are respectively

(1) 10, 17 (2) 9, 16

(3) 12, 19 (4) 8, 17

83. The volume of the largest right circular cone that

can be fitted in a cube whose edge is 4r is equal

to

(1) Volume of a hemisphere of radius r

(2) Volume of a sphere of radius 2

r

(3) Volume of a hemisphere of radius 2r

(4) Volume of a sphere of radius 2r


- 9 -


84. If x3001 + 71 is divided by x + 1, then the remainder

is

(1) 72 (2) 0

(3) 1 (4) 70

85. An equation of the type y = mx, where m is any

real number, represents a line

(1) Passing through (0, 1)

(2) Passing through (10, 0)

(3) Parallel to x-axis

(4) Parallel to y-axis

86. The value of 2.9 + 2.19 in the form p

q, where p

and q are integers and q 0 is

(1)21

5(2)

26

5

(3)17

5(4)

14

5

87. Which of the following expressions is a

polynomial?

(1)1

1 5

3 xx (2) 1 3x

(3)( 3)( 5)x x

x

(4)

7/29 2

5

x x

x

88. In the given figure, if PQRS is a parallelogram,

then which of the following alternatives is not true?

O

Q

SM

N

R

P

(1) ar(POM) = ar(QOR)

(2) ar(QRM) = ar(SMN)

(3) ar(PSM) = ar(SMN)

(4) ar(PRS) = ar(PNS)

89. In a parallelogram PQRS, if P = 70°, then the

measure of S is

(1) 120° (2) 60°

(3) 110° (4) 70°

90. The point of the form (b, b) always lies on the line

(1) y = 0 (2) x = 0

(3) x – y = 0 (4) y + x = 0

� � �

Answers

Test Booklet Code: A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

19. (4)

20. (4)

21. (2)

22. (3)

23. (2)

24. (3)

25. (4)

26. (3)

27. (2)

28. (3)

29. (3)

30. (1)

31. (3)

32. (4)

33. (3)

34. (4)

35. (4)

36. (3)

1. (2)

2. (3)

3. (3)

4. (3)

5. (3)

6. (2)

7. (1)

8. (3)

9. (3)

10. (2)

11. (2)

12. (4)

13. (2)

14. (3)

15. (1)

16. (3)

17. (1)

18. (2)

37. (4)

38. (3)

39. (1)

40. (3)

41. (1)

42. (2)

43. (3)

44. (1)

45. (2)

46. (2)

47. (4)

48. (1)

49. (2)

50. (1)

51. (2)

52. (4)

53. (3)

54. (4)

Admission-cum-Scholarship Test(Sample Paper)

(Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2017)

55. (2)

56. (4)

57. (3)

58. (2)

59. (4)

60. (2)

61. (3)

62. (3)

63. (1)

64. (3)

65. (2)

66. (3)

67. (3)

68. (4)

69. (1)

70. (2)

71. (3)

72. (3)

73. (3)

74. (1)

75. (3)

76. (2)

77. (3)

78. (2)

79. (2)

80. (3)

81. (2)

82. (2)

83. (3)

84. (4)

85. (2)

86. (2)

87. (4)

88. (3)

89. (3)

90. (3)

Date post:	21-Nov-2021
Category:	Documents
Upload:	others
View:	3 times
Download:	0 times

Regd. Office Admission-cum-Scholarship Test

Documents