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CIVIL ENGINEERING

Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 160

PAPER-II

Instructions:

i. The question paper contains two parts, Part-A & Part-B, total 120 questions.

ii. Part-A contains 80 questions, Q1 to Q80 of 1 (one) mark each.

iii. Part-B contains 40 questions, Q81 to Q. 120 of 2 (two) marks each.

iv. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be awarded to the

wrong answer.

v. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use non-

programmable scientific calculator.

vi. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or

blue ball point pen.

vii. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.

viii. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion of

examination before leaving the examination hall.

PART-A (80 X 1= 80 Marks)

1. The number of days required for the seasoning of timber in air is about:

a) 30 to 60

b) 60 to 120

c) 120 to 180

d) 180 to 240

2. This disease of dry rot in timber is caused by

a) lack of ventilation

b) alternate wet and dry conditions

c) complete submerge in water

d) none of the above

3. Which one of the following statements is correct as regards tensile strength of wood?

a) Minimum in the direction parallel to the grains

b) Maximum in the direction parallel to the grains

c) Maximum in the direction across the grains

d) Same in all directions

4. As a construction material, plywood is preferred to thin planks of timber because of

a) good strength and dimensional stability in both lateral and longitudinal directions

b) good dimensional stability in both longitudinal and lateral directions

c) good strength in both longitudinal and lateral directions

d) savings in cost and environmental considerations

5. The nominal size of the modular brick is

a) 19cm x 9cm x 8cm

b) 19cm x 19cm x 9cm

c) 20cm x 10cm x 10cm

d) 20cm x 20cm x 10cm

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6. The main function of alumina is brick earth is

a) to impart plasticity

b) to make the brick durable

c) to prevent shrinkage

d) to make the brick impermeable

7. Percentage of silica in a good brick lies between

a) 5 to 10 %

b) 20 to 30 %

c) 50 to 60 %

d) 70 to 80%

8. The frog of the brick in brick masonry is generally kept on

a) bottom face

b) top face

c) shorter side

d) longer side

9. In high tensile steel carbon content should be about

a) 0 %

b) 0.5 %

c) 0.25 %

d) 1.0 %

10. The ultimate strength of cold drawn steel wires

a) Increases with the increase in the diameter of the bar

b) Increases with reduction on the diameter of the bar

c) Does not depend upon the changes in the diameter of the bar

d) None of the above

11. Crudest form of Iron is

a) mild steel

b) pig iron

c) wrought iron

d) cast iron

12. The approximate ratio of the strength of the cement concrete of 7 days to that of 28 days

curing is

a) 0.40

b) 0.50

c) 0.65

d) 0.75

13. Reciprocal ranging is employed when

a) the two ends of a line are not intervisible

b) one end of a line is inaccessible

c) both the ends are inaccessible

d) the ends of the line are not visible even from intermediate points

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14. Modern EDM instruments work on the principle of measuring

a) the reflected energy generated by electromagnetic waves

b) total time taken by electromagnetic wave in travelling the distance

c) the change in frequency of the electromagnetic waves

d) the phase difference between the transmitted and the reflected electromagnetic

15. The correction for sag is

a) always additive

b) always subtractive

c) always zero

d) either additive or subtractive

16. A series of closely spaced contour lines represents a

a) steep slope

b) gentle slope

c) uniform slope

d) plane slope

17. A level line is a

a) horizontal line

b) line parallel to the mean spheroidal surface of earth

c) line passing through the centre of cross hairs and the centre of eye piece

d) line passing through the objective lens and the eye piece of a dumpy level

18. The length of a chain is measured from

a) centre of one handle to centre of other handle

b) outside of one handle to outside of other handle

c) outside of one handle to inside of other handle

d) inside of one handle to inside of other handle

19. Contour interval is

a) inversely proportional to the scale of the map

b) directly proportional to the flatness of the ground

c) larger for accurate works

d) larger if the time available is more

20. Benchmark is established by

a) Hypsometry

b) Barometric levelling

c) Spirit levelling

d) Trigonometrical levelling

21. A metallic tape is made of

a) Steel

b) Invar

c) Linen

d) Cloth and wires

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22. Planimeter is used to find

a) Areas

b) Volumes

c) Lengths

d) Heights

23. The resultant of hydrostatic force acts through;

a) Centre of pressure

b) Centre of Buoyancy

c) Meta-centre

d) Centre of gravity

24. A floating body with its centre of gravity at G, Centre of Buoyancy at B, and

metacentre at M, is stable when;

a) G lies above B;

b) B lies above M;

c) B lies below M;

d) G lies below M

25. The specific energy in an open channel is defined as;

a) Total energy measured in a horizontal datum;

b) Kinetic energy plotted above the free surface;

c) Total energy measured with respect to the channel bottom taken as the datum;

d) Total energy of a specified weight of liquid

26. The laminar sub layer is;

a) Exists only in smooth turbulent flow;

b) Exists only in rough turbulent flow;

c) Exists in smooth as well as rough turbulent flow;

d) Increases in thickness with an increase in Reynolds number

27. The drag and lift forces are due to;

a) Pressure and gravity

b) viscosity and turbulence

c) Pressure and viscosity

d) pressure and turbulence

28. The concept of stream function, ψ, is applicable to;

a) Uniform flow cases only

b) Irotational flows only

c) two dimensional flows only

d) Three dimensional flows only

29. When compared to an orifice having the same diameter, d, and discharging head, H, the

discharge through the mouth piece will be

a) The same as that through the orifice

b) More than the discharge through the orifice

c) Less than that through the orifice

d) some time more and some times less than the orifice

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30. The hydraulic-grade line indicates the variation of

a) The energy of the flow in the direction of flow;

b) Velocity head in the direction of flow

c) Piezometric head in the direction of flow

d) Pressure head in the direction of flow

31. The minor losses in flow through pipes are

a) Due to friction in pipe

b) significant in laminar flow only

c) Substantial in pipes of small length

d) Due to local disturbance in flow

32. A 4m wide rectangular channel carries a uniform discharge of 12m3/s at its normal depth

of 1m. What type of slope is in the channel

a) Mild

b) Critical

c) Steep

d) Adverse

33. Critical depth is defined as the depth of flow at which the;

a) Specific energy is maximum

b) Unit discharge, q, is minimum

c) Specific energy is minimum

d) Froude number is greater than unity.

34. Reynolds number is the ratio of

a) Inertial flow to viscous flow

b) Stable flow to unstable flow

c) Uniform flow to Non uniform flow

d) Rotational flow to Stable flow

35. The order of engineering surveys for road alignment as follows

a) Reconnaissance, Detailed Study and Preliminary study and Map study

b) Reconnaissance, Map study, Detailed Study and Preliminary study

c) Preliminary study Map study, Preliminary study and Map study

d) Map Study, Reconnaissance, Preliminary study and Detailed Study

36. Los Angeles abrasion test on aggregate is conducted to determine

a) Toughness

b) Stiffness

c) Deflection

d) Hardness

37. A change in the original shape of the pavement is known as

a) Rutting

b) Deformation

c) Deflection

d) Depression

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38. In concrete pavement the strength of Subgrade is expressed in terms of

a) Resilient Modulus

b) Effective CBR value

c) Modulus of Subgrade reaction

d) Dynamic Modulus

39. Stopping sight distance is always

a) equal to overtaking sight distance

b) more than overtaking sight distance

c) less than overtaking sight distance


40. The entry radius of rotary for urban roads as per Indian road congress is

a) 10 to 15 m

b) 15 to 20 m

c) 20 to 30 m

d) 20 to 35 m

41. Vehicular live load of highway bridges is expressed in terms

a) Design axles and lane loading

b) Design pressure and lane loading

c) Design lanes and lane loading

d) Design width and lane loading

42. In Construction of wet mix macadam compaction the speed of the roller shall not exceed

a) 5 kmph

b) 8 kmph

c) 10 kmph

d) 12kmph

43. The duration of time that elapses between start of one green period and for a given

approach and the start of the next green periods for the same approach in referred to

as

a) Reaction time

b) Cycle length

c) Lag time

d) Phase length

44. Which type of grading system is followed in India, for grading bitumen

a) Super pave grading

b) Viscosity grading

c) Penetration grading

d) Performance grading

45. Select the correct statement.

a) Psychological extra widening depends on the number of traffic lanes.

b) Mechanical extra widening depends on the speed of vehicle.

c) Psychological extra widening depends on the length of wheel base.

d) Psychological extra widening depends on the speed of vehicle.

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46. The rainfall hyetograph is the graph drawn between;

a) Cumulative rainfall and time

b) Rainfall intensity and time

c) Rainfall depth and Area

d) Rainfall intensity and cumulative rainfall

47. The average pan coefficient for standard Indian Standard Class A pan is

a) 0.85

b) 0.70

c) 0.90

d) 0.20

48. The instrument Lysimeter is used to measure;

a) Infiltration

b) Evaporation

c) Evapotransportation

d) Vapour Pressure

49. The slope-area method is extensively used in ;

a) Development of rating curve

b) Estimation of flood discharge based on high-water marks;

c) Cases where shifting control exists

d) Cases where backwater effect is present

50. The inflection point on the recession side of the hydrograph indicates the end of;

a) The base flow

b) the direct rainfall

c) the overland flow

d) rainfall

51. If in a flow-mass curve, a demand line drawn tangent to the lowest point in a valley of

the curve does not intersect the mass curve at an earlier time period , it represents that;

a) The storage is in adequate

b) The reservoir will not be full at the start of the dry period

c) The reservoir is full at the beginning of the dry period

d) The reservoir is wasting later by spill

52. The hydrologic flood –routing methods use;

a) Equation of continuity only

b) both momentum and continuity equations

c) energy equation only

d) equation of motion only

53. In routing a flood through a reach, the point of intersection of inflow and outflow

hydrographs coincides with the peak of outflow hydrograph;

a) In all cases of flood routing

b) When inflow is into a reservoir with an uncontrolled outlet

c) In channel routing only

d) In all cases of reservoir routing

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54. A unit hydrograph has one unit of;

a) Peak discharge

b) rainfall duration

c) direct runoff

d) the time base of direct runoff

55. The discharge per unit draw down at well is known as;

a) Specific yield

b) specific storage

c) safe yield

d) specific capacity

56. The surface joining the static water levels in several wells penetrating a confined

aquifer represents;

a) water-table surface

b) capillary fringe

c) Piezometricsurface of the aquifer

d) cone of depression

57. Coincident draft in relation to water demand, is based on

a) Peak hourly demand

b) Maximum daily + fire demand

c) Maximum daily demand

d) Greater of (a) and (b)

58. A water sample has a pH of 9.25. The concentration of hydroxyl ions in the water sample

is

a) 10-9.25 mmoles/L

b) 3.020 mg/L

c) 0.302 mg/L

d) 10-4.75 mmoles/L

59. Total Kjeldahl nitrogen is a measure of

a) total organic nitrogen

b) total organic and ammonia nitrogen

c) total inorganic and ammonia nitrogen

d) total ammonia nitrogen

60. The organism, which exhibits very nearly the characteristics of an ideal

pathogenicindicator is

a) Salmonella typhi

b) Entamoebahistolytica

c) Vibrio comma

d) Escherichia coli

61. A sample of domestic sewage is digested with silver sulphate, sulphuric acid, potassium

dichromate and mercuric sulphate in chemical oxygen demand (COD) test. The digested

sample is then titrated with standard ferrous ammonium sulphate (FAS) to determine the

unreacted amount of

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a) mercuric sulphate

b) silver sulphate

c) potassium dichromate

d) sulphuric acid

62. The self cleansing velocity for all the sewers in India is usually

a) Less than 1 m/s

b) 1 m/s to 1.2 m/s

c) 1.5 m/s to 2.0 m/s

d) 3.0 m/s to 3.5 m/s

63. A manhole is generally classified as a deep manhole, if its depth is more than

a) 1.2 m

b) 0.9 m

c) 2.0 m

d) 1.5 m

64. A major photochemical oxidant is

a) Hydrogen peroxide

b) Ozone

c) Nitrogen oxides

d) Sulphur oxides

65. Which of the following on inhalation dissolved in the blood hemoglobin more rapidly

than oxygen?

a) SO2

b) CO

c) O3

d) NO

66. During temperature inversion in the atmosphere, air pollutant tend to

a) Accumulate above inversion layer

b) accumulate below inversion layer

c) disperse laterally

d) disperse vertically

67. A coastal city produces municipal solid waste (MSW) with high moisture content, high

organic materials, low calorific value and low inorganic materials. The most effective

and sustainable option for MSW management in that city is

a) Incineration

b) Dumping in sea

c) Composting

d) Landfill

68. Partial combustion of a carbonaceous fuel to generate a combustible fuel gas, rich in

carbon monoxide and oxygen is called

a) Gasification

b) Incineration

c) Pyrolysis

d) Thermal cracking

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69. The runway length after correcting for elevation and temperature is 2845 m. If the

effective gradient on runway is 0.5 per cent, the revised runway length will be

a) 2845 m

b) 2910 m

c) 3030 m

d) 3130 m

70. On taxi way the speed is in the range of

a) 50 to 100kmph

b) 60 to 100kmph

c) 70 to 100kmph

d) 80 to 100kmph

71. Gauagetolerance for BG on straight track are

a) -6mm to +6mm

b) -6mm to +15mm

c) -3mm to +6mm

d) upto to +20mm

72. The wheel load of the air craft can also be expressed in

a) TONs

b) MCV

c) LCN

d) LNC

73. A welded rail joint is

a) supported on a sleeper

b) supported on a metal plate

c) left suspended

d) support on ballast

74. On Indian railways the number of a crossings is defined as

a) sine of angle of crossing

b) cosine of angel of crossing

c) tangent of angel of crossing

d) cotangent of angel of crossing

75. As per ICAO, for airports serving big aircrafts, the crosswind component

should not exceed

a) 15 kmph

b) 25 kmph

c) 35 kmph

d) 45 kmph

76. Creep is the

a) Difference in two level of rails

b) Lateral movement of rail

c) Vertical movement of rail

d) Longitudinal movement of rail

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77. Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is

a) Equal to empty operating weight

b) Equal to maximum landing weight

c) less than empty operating weight

d) Equal to sum of empty operating weight and the maximum pay load

78. For supersonic transport aircraft, the minimum turning radius of taxiway is

a) 80 m

b) 130 m

c) 180 m

d) 260 m

79. Degree of a curve for a radius of 875 m is

a) 10

b) 20

c) 1.50

d) 30

80. As per the new classification of accidents a level crossing accidents comes under which

category

a) Consequential train accidents

b) Other train accidents

c) Indicative accidents

d) Unusual accidents

PART-B (40 X 2= 80 Marks)

81. Consider the following statements:

Cement concrete is a/an

1. Elastic material

2. Visco-elastic material

3. Visco-plastic material

Which of these statements is /are correct?

a) 1, 2, and 3

b) 2 and 3

c) 2 only

d) 1 only

82. Compared to mild steel, cast iron has

a) high compressive strength

b) high tensile strength

c) low compressive strength

d) low tensile strength

The correct answer is

a) a and b

b) b and c

c) c and d

d) a and d

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83. Normally the rise of the steps would be between

a) 10 cm to 15 cm

b) 20 cm to 25 cm

c) 5 cm to 10 cm

d) 25 cm to 30 cm

84. Dog-legged stair is a

a) half-turn stair

b) quarter-turn stair

c) three-quarter turn stair

d) continuous stair

85. In some brick masonry walls, patches of whitish crystals were found on the exposed

surfaces, also chipping and spalling of bricks took place from the same walls. Which

among the following are the causes of these defects?

1. Settlement of foundation

2. Overloading of the walls

3. Sulphate attack

4. Efflorescence

Select the correct answer from the codes below:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 2 and 4

d) 3 and 4

86. Assertion (A): Knots, one of the common defects of timber, are associated with the

beginning of branches

Reason (R): Knots greatly improve the workability.

Choose the correct statement

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

c) A is true but R is false

d) A is false but R is true

87. The true length of a line is known to be 500 m. The line was again measured with a 20

m tape and found to be 502 m. The correct length of the tape is

a) 20.50 m

b) 19.92 m

c) 22.00 m

d) 20.00 m

88. If two points A and B 125m apart, have difference in elevation of 0.5m, the slope

correction to the measured length is

a) +0.001m

b) +0.01m

c) +0.1m

d) +0.0125m

89. A lighthouse is visible just above the horizon at a certain station at the sea level. The

distance between the station and the lighthouse is 40 km. The height of the light house is

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approximately

a) 187 m

b) 137.7 m

c) 107.7 m

d) 87.3 m

90. The magnetic bearing of a line AB read in 1878 was N26015’E. The declination at the

time and place was 7015’W. In 2017, the declination was 4

030’E. The magnetic bearing

in 2017 is

a) N33030’E

b) N2900’E

c) N14030’E

d) N23030’E

91. The R.L, of the point A which is on the floor is 100 m and back sight reading on A is

2.455 m. If the foresight reading on the point B which is on the ceiling is 2.745 m, the

R.L. of point B will be

a) 94.80m

b) 99.71m

c) 100.29m

d) 105.20m

92. If the fore bearing of line CD is 60030’ and the back bearing of line BC is 160

030’, then

included angle at B is

a) 22000’

b) 240030’

c) 10000’

d) 100030’

93. An oil fluid having µ=0.44N.s/m2 and ρ= 888 kg/m

3, is filled in the space between two

parallel plates which are 18mm apart. The upper plate is moving at a velocity of 4m/s.

What is the shear stress on the plate is

a) 97.8N/m2

b) 48.9N/m2

c) 79.8N/m2

d) 87.9N/m2

94. When a circular plate of 1m diameter is submerged vertically in water with its upper

edge at 8m below the free surface of water, the total hydrostatic pressure force on one

side of the plate is;

a) 6.7kN

b) 77.0kN

c) 45.0kN

d) 65.4kN

95. Two pipes of length 1800m and diameter 500mm each are connected in parallel to make

it a compound pipe. The equivalent length of 400 mm diameter pipe is

a) 1475m

b) 1180m

c) 390m

d) 2360m

96. The value of friction factor, f, for a smooth pipe at Reynolds number of 105 is nearly

equal to;

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a) 0.0178

b) 0.0152

c) 0.0243

d) 0.025

97. An 8m wide rectangular channel carries a discharge of 18m3/s. The Manning’s

coefficient for the channel is 0.018. What could be the critical flow depth in the channel?

a) 8.02m

b) 0.802m

c) 0.082m

d) 2.08m

98. When a head over a 90o Triangular notch is increased from 0.15m to 0.30m, the ratio of

the new discharge to the original discharge is;

a) 5.657

b) 2.000

c) 4.000

d) 1.414

99. If b is the wheel track of a vehicle and h is the height of centre of gravity above road

surface, then to avoid overturning and lateral skidding on a horizontal curve, the

centrifugal ratio should always be

a) less than b/2h and greater than co-efficient of lateral friction

b) less than b/2h and also greater than co-efficient of lateral friction

c) less than b/2h and less than co-efficient of lateral friction

d) less than b/2h and also greater than co-efficient of lateral friction

100. In a rural area where the rain fall is light a water bound macadam road of 3.75 m wide is

to be constructed. Select the appropriate camber recommended by Indian Road Congress

for the above case and what will be height of crown with reference to the edges.

a) 1 in 20 and height of crown is 0.045m

b) 1 in 40 and height of crown is 0.047m

c) 1 in 50 and height of crown is 0.050m

d) 1 in 30 and height of crown is 0.052m

101. Flexible pavement design using IRC 37-2012 in its revision included the following

salient features. Identify which one is n correct statement

a) Computation of effective CBR is not included for Subgrade

b) Incorporation of cement and emulsion treated base were included

c) Design for Drainage layer was addressed

d) Use of rut resistant surface layer was also included in the design

102. The background colour of the informatory sign board is

a) Red

b) Yellow

c) Green

d) White

103. If the average centre to center spacing of vehicles is 20 m, then the basic capacity of a

traffic lane at a speed of 50 kmph is

a) 2400 vehicle per day

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b) 2600 vehicles per hour

c) 2500 vehicles per hour

d) 2900 vehicles per hour

104. For a circular curve of radius 200 m, the coefficient of lateral friction of 0.15 and the

design speed is 40 kmph. The equilibrium super elevation (for equal pressure on inner

and outer wheel) would be

a) 21.3

b) 7

c) 6.3

d) 4.6

105. The Thiessen weights of 4 rainguages A, B, C and D covering a river basin are 0.15,

0.25, 0.30 and 0.30 respectively. If the average depth of rainfall for the basin is 5cm, and

the rainfall recorded at B, C and D are 5cm, 4cm, and 5cm respectively. How much is

the rainfall recorded at rainguage station A?

a) 5cm

b) 6cm

c) 7cm

d) 8cm

106. The rainfall of a five successive days on a catchment was 2,6,9,5 and 3cm. If the φ-index

for the storm can be assumed as 3cm/day, the total direct runoff depth from the

catchment is;

a) 20cm

b) 11cm

c) 10cm

d) 22cm

107. When the stage in the river is 4.8m and the water surface slope is 1 in 1000 and the

discharge is measured to be 600m3/s. What would be the discharge carried by the river

when the stage is same but the water surface slope is 1 in 1440?

a) 300m3/s

b) 400m3/s ;

c) 500m3/s;

d) 600m3/s

108. An S-curve hydrograph is derived for a basin of 540km2 from a 6-hour unit hydrograph.

The equilibrium discharge in the S-curve is

a) 277.8m3/s

b) 250m3/s

c) 540 x 106 m3/s

d) 3240 m3/s

109. The peak ordinate of the Instantaneous Unit Hydrograph (IUH) of a catchment was

obtained from Nash Model as 0.03cm/hour. If the area of the catchment is 550km2, the

value of peak ordinate in m3/s is;

a) 16.5

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b) 45.83

c) 30.78

d) 183.3

110. What would be the volume stored in a saturated column of aquifer with a porosity of

0.35, cross sectional area of 1 m2 and of 3.0m depth?

a) 3.0m3

b) 2.0m3

c) 1.05m3

d) 0.105m3

111. The average increase in the population of a town per decade over a period of 6 decades

was 5500 and the average incremental increase was 667. If the population at the end of

the sixth decade was 47000, estimate the population three decades later by incremental

increase method.

a) 60001

b) 58000

c) 67502

d) 63500

112. A 100 ml sample of water is titrated with 0.01N H2SO4. The initial pH is 9.5 and 6.2 ml

of acid is required to reach the pH 8.3 endpoint. An additional 9.8 ml is required to reach

the pH 4.5 endpoint. Determine the concentration of bicarbonate alkalinity present.

a) 19.6

b) 31.4

c) 18.7

d) 49.5

113. A BOD analysis is begun on Tuesday. 30 ml of waste with dissolved oxygen (DO) of

zero is mixed with 270 mL of dilution water with a DO of 10 mg/L. The sample is then

put in the incubator. Since the 5th day falls on Sunday and the lab personal do not work

on Sunday, the final DO was measured on Monday and is found to be 4.0 mg/L.

However, it is discovered that the incubator was set at 30oC. Assume a k1 value of 0.2 at

20oC. Determine the 5-day, 20

oC BOD of the sample.

a) 50 mg/L

b) 58.8 mg/L

c) 37.17 mg/L

d) 31.61 mg/L

114. Two electrostatic precipitators (ESPs) are in series. The fractional efficiencies of the

upstream and downstream ESPs for size dp are 80% and 65%, respectively. What is the

overall efficiency of the system for the same dpis

a) 93%

b) 73%

c) 80%

d) 100%

115. Solid waste generated from an industry contains only two components, X and Y as

shown in the table below. Determine the composite density of the solid waste.

Component Composition (%)

weight)

Density (kg/m3)

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X 60% 290

Y 40% 480

a) 380.33

b) 29.02

c) 366

d) 344.5

116. If the loaded length of span in meters of a railway steel bridge carrying a singletrack is 6

m, then impact factor is taken as

a) 0

b) Between 0.25 and 0.5

c) Between 0.5 and 1

d) 1.0

117. An airport has 4 gates. If the weighted average gate occupancy time is 30 minutes and

gate utilization factor is 0.5, then the capacity of the gate will be

a) 15 aircrafts per hour

b) 16 aircrafts per hour

c) 4 aircrafts per hour

d) 2 aircraft per hour

118. A horizontal curve of 480 m for 7.5 m two lane road is to be designed for a speed of 80

kmph. The raising of the outer edge of the pavement with respect to centre to cater to the

mixed traffic condition is

a) 0.20 m

b) 0.22 m

c) 0.24 m

d) 0.27 m

119. If the monthly mean of average daily temperature for the hottest month of the year is

25°C and the monthly mean of the maximum daily temperature of the same month of the

year is 46°C, the airport reference temperature is

a) 32oC

b) 35oC

c) 48oC

d) 45oC

120. Using a sleeper density of M+6 for a BG track, determine the number of sleepers

required or construction of 100 panels of 13 m each

a) 1000

b) 1500

c) 1900

d) 2000

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CIVIL AND ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING


PAPER-II

Instructions:





wrong answer.









1. Eutrophication of water bodies is caused by the

a) Presence of toxic substances

b) Presence of nutrients

c) Presence of suspended solids

d) Presence of chlorides

2. Zero hardness of water can be achieved by

a) Using lime soda process

b) Excess lime treatment

c) Ion exchange method

d) Using excess alum dosage

3. Which one of the following organisms is responsible for enteric fever?

a) Salmonella typhi

b) ECHO

c) Entamoeba histolytica

d) Echinococcus

4. After which of the following treatment units, the turbidity is maximum?

a) Chlorination

b) Primary sedimentation

c) Flocculation basin

d) Secondary sedimentation

5. Which one of the following cations impart(s) pseudo-hardness to water?

a) Calcium only

b) Magnesium only

c) Calcium and magnesium

d) Sodium

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6. What is the most common cause of acidity in water?

a) Carbon monoxide

b) Nitrogen

c) Hydrogen

d) Carbon dioxide

7. The maximum safe permissible limit of nitrate in drinking water supply as per IS 10500-

2012 is

a) 25 mg/L

b) 45 mg/L

c) 65 mg/L

d) 85 mg/L

8. The cleaning of slow sand filter is done by

a) Reversing the direction of flow water

b) Passing air through the filter

c) Passing a solution of alum and lime through the filter

d) Scraping off top layers of sand and admitting water

9. Uniformity coefficient of filter sand is given by

a) D50/D5

b) D50/D10

c) D60/D5

d) D60/D10

10. In a water treatment plant, dissolved iron and manganese can be removed from the water

by

a) Aeration and KMnO4 addition

b) Aeration and sedimentation

c) Aeration and flocculation

d) Coagulation and chlorination

11. Which one of the following filters will produce water of higher bacteriological quality?

a) Slow sand filter

b) Rapid sand filter

c) Pressure filter

d) Dual media filter

12. Air binding may occur in

a) Filter

b) Artesian well

c) Aerator

d) Flocculator 13. Which one of the following is not a specific criterion for calculating surface overflow

rate in sedimentation tank design?

a) Total depth of the tank

b) Total quantity of water to be treated

c) Total length of the tank

d) Total surface area available in the tank

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14. Which one of the following chemicals is employed for de-chlorination of water?

a) Sodium sulphite

b) Sodium bicarbonate

c) Calcium carbonate

d) Hydrogen peroxide

15. Chlorides from water are removed by

a) Lime soda process

b) Reverse osmosis

c) Cation exchange process

d) Chemical coagulation

16. Which one of the following can fix atmospheric nitrogen?

a) Green algae

b) Blue green algae

c) Red algae

d) Brown algae

17. Which one of the following tests of water/wastewater employs Erichrome Black T as an

indicator?

a) Hardenss

b) COD

c) Residual chlorine

d) DO

18. In high rate trickling filter problem of ponding can be solved by

a) Raking and chlorination

b) Flooding and raking

c) Chlorination and aeration

d) Flooding and aeration

19. Sludge bulking can be controlled by

a) chlorination

b) coagulation

c) aeration

d) denitrification

20. In transition of sewers from smaller diameter sewers to larger diameter sewers, the

continuity of sewers is maintained at the

a) Inverts of the sewers

b) Bottom of the concrete bed of sewers

c) Crowns of the sewers

d) Hydraulic gradients of the sewers

21. The maximum flow occurs in an egg shaped sewer when the ratio of flow to vertical

diameter is

a) 0.33

b) 0.50

c) 0.95

d) 1.00

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22. A sewer is commonly designed to attain self-cleaning velocity at

a) Peak hourly rate of flow

b) Average hourly rate of flow

c) Minimum hourly rate of flow

d) Sewer running half full

23. If the slope of sewer A is 1/100 and that of sewerB is 1/400, the velocity of flow in the

two sewers will have a ratio of (size and material of the both the sewers being the same).

a) 1/2

b) 1

c) 3/2

d) 2

24. Which one is not a water borne disease?

a) Malaria

b) Tuberculosis

c) Typhoid

d) Dysentery

25. If 1000 bacterial cells were originally present in a medium which lead to a final bacterial

count of 100 million cells, the number of generations, n, is

a) 8.5

b) 10.0

c) 14.2

d) 16.5

26. The typical density in kg/m3 (in situ) of well-compacted municipal solid waste in landfill

is in the range of

a) 100 to 300

b) 310 to 500

c) 550 to 850

d) 900 to 1100

27. Sewage sickness is a term used for

a) Persons who become sick after drinking sewage contaminated water

b) Odor coming from a treatment plant which does not function properly

c) A treatment where flora and fauna die due to sewage inflow

d) The condition of land where sewage is applied continuously for a long period

28. The daily cover of MSW landfills consists of which one of the following

a) Geomembrane

b) Compacted soil

c) Geotextile

d) Geocomposite

29. Which one of the following would help prevent the entry of foul sewer gases into the

building?

a) air gap

b) vent pipe

c) gully gap

d) water seal

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30. Which one of the following solid waste disposal methods is ecologically most

acceptable?

a) Sanitary landfill

b) Incineration

c) Composting

d) Pyrolysis

31. For fish habitat in a river, the minimum dissolved oxygen required is

a) 2 mg/L

b) 4 mg/L

c) 8 mg/L

d) 10 mg/L

32. Which one of the following sets of processes is a part of self-purification of streams?

a) Settling, bio-degradation and desalination

b) Settling, bio-degradation and aeration

c) Floatation, ion exchange and desalination

d) Desalination, ion exchange and reverse osmosis

33. The process of disposal wastewater into a running stream, called stream sanitation, is

modelled using

a) Fick’s diffusion equation

b) Streeter-Phelps equation

c) Navier-Stoke’s equation

d) Gaussian equation 34. The term ‘Refuse’ generally does not include

a) Putrescible solid waste

b) Excreta

c) Non-putrescible solid waste

d) Ashes

35. Shallow ponds in which dissolved oxygen is present at all depths are called

a) Aerobic lagoons

b) Aerobic ponds

c) Facultative lagoons

d) Facultative ponds

36. One litre of sewage, when allowed to settle for 30 minutes gives a sludge volume of 27

cm3. If the dry weight of this sludge is 3.0 grams, then its sludge volume in cm

3 will be

a) 9 cms

b) 24cms

c) 30cms

d) 81cms

37. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

a) BOD : Strength of sewage

b) UASB : Anaerobic Process

c) COD : Biodegradability of wastewater

d) Nitrate : Methaemoglobinemia

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38. Fresh sludge has moisture content of 99% and, after thickening; its moisture content is

reduced to 96%. The reduction in volume of sludge is

a) 3%

b) 5%

c) 75%

d) 97%

39. In the oxidation ditch, the excess sludge is taken to

a) Anaerobic digester

b) Aerobic digester

c) Drying beds

d) Incinerator

40. Which one of the following sewage treatment units has a Parshall flume?

a) Trickling filter

b) Oxidation ditch

c) Grit chamber

d) Aerated lagoon

41. Which one of the following principal types of reactors is related to trickling filter?

a) Plug flow

b) Complete-mix

c) Packed bed

d) Fluidized bed

42. The function of algae in oxidation pond is to

a) Provide a mat over the surface of oxidation pond so as to prevent evaporation of

water

b) Provide oxygen for bacteria to degrade organic matter

c) Provide a greenish appearance to the pond

d) Prevent the odour nuisance

43. Sewage may be disposed off without treatment into a water body if the available dilution

is

a) Less than 150

b) More than 150

c) Less than 500

d) More than 500

44. In an activated sludge process, the sludge volume index can be controlled by

a) Aeration

b) Adding chlorine

c) Reducing recycling ratio

d) Increasing recycling ratio

45. In aerobic conditions, the microbial decomposition of organics results in the formation of

which one of the following?

a) Stable and objectionable end products

b) Unstable and objectionable end products

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c) Unstable and acceptable end products

d) Stable and less objectionable end products

46. Presence of nitrogen in a wastewater sample is due to the decomposition of

a) Carbohydrates

b) Proteins

c) Fats

d) Vitamins

47. Which one of the following methods of solid waste management conserves energy

efficiently in the form of gas or oil?

a) Incineration with heat recovery

b) Combusting

c) Fluidized-bed incineration

d) Pyrolysis

48. In an aerobic attached-culture system, the biomass at the biofilm-medium surface

interface experiences

a) Aerobic and endogenous metabolism

b) Anaerobic and endogenous metabolism

c) Anaerobic and exogenous metabolism

d) Aerobic and exogenous metabolism

49. A sewage sludge has a water content of 99%. What will be the concentration of

suspended solids in the sludge?

a) 10 mg/L

b) 100 mg/L

c) 1000 mg/L

d) 10,000 mg/L

50. A sludge volume index for mixed liquor having suspended solids concentration of 2000

mg/L and showing a settled volume of 200 ml from a one litre sample would be

a) 0.1

b) 1000

c) 100

d) 10

51. Noise level of general conversational speech is:

a) 20 dB

b) 40 dB

c) 60 dB

d) 100 dB

52. Aerosol is

a) Carbon particles of microscopic size

b) Dispersion of small solid or liquid particles in gaseous media

c) Finely divided particles of ash

d) Diffused liquid particles

53. Which one of the following plume behaviors occurs when atmospheric inversion begins

from the ground level and continues?

a) Looping

b) Fumigation

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c) Coning

d) Fanning

54. Which one of the following pairs of pollutants is formed due to photochemical reactions?

a) CO and HC

b) O3 and PAN

c) NOx and NH3

d) NH3 and CO

55. Find the odd one from the following terms in respect of bacterial metabolism:

a) Oxidative phosphorylation

b) Substrate-level phosphorylation

c) Product-level phosphorylation

d) Photophosphorylation

56. In urban air pollution, the most poisonous gas is supposed to be carbon monoxide. It is

hazardous because it

a) affects our sense of smell

b) carcinogenic in nature

c) combines with hemoglobin

d) Causes blindness

57. Which one of the following procedures is used for sampling of the flue gas in a chimney

for SPM?

a) Isothermal sampling

b) Isokinetic sampling

c) Adiabatic condition

d) Variable rate of sampling

58. Which type of light energy is effectively adsorbed by CO2 in the lower boundary of the

troposphere?

a) X-rays

b) UV-rays

c) Visible light

d) Infra-red rays

59. What type of noise can be abated by providing lining on walls and ceiling with sound

adsorbing materials?

a) Source noise

b) Reflection noise

c) Structural noise

d) Direct air-borne noise

60. Which of the following statement related to C/N ratio is not correct?

a) Lower initial C/N ratio leads to loss of nitrogen and slows down the rate of

decomposition

b) Higher initial C/N ratio leads to cell destruction to obtain nutrition

c) Higher initial C/N ratio leads to lower conservation of nitrogen in the finished

compost

d) An initial C/N ratio of 30 to 50 is optimal for composting

61. The term ‘biological magnification’ indicates which one of the following?

a) Likelihood of increasing size of animals during evolution

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b) Magnification of bacteria using microscopy

c) Accumulation of pollutants in soil

d) Accumulation of pollutants in successive consumers

62. Pneumoconiosis is caused due to inhalation of which one of the following?

a) Silica

b) NOx

c) Lead

d) Cadmium

63. Which one of the following conditions of automobile gives unburned hydrocarbons?

a) Idling

b) Cruise

c) Acceleration

d) Deceleration

64. Electrostatic precipitator is most useful for which one of the following industries?

a) Tannery

b) Sulphuric acid industry

c) Cement industry

d) Textile factory

65. Assuming annual average travel for each vehicle to be 20000 km, what is the annual

quantity of NOx produced from 50000 vehicles with emission rate of 2 g/km/vehicle?

a) 1800 tonnes

b) 1900 tonnes

c) 2000 tonnes

d) 2100 tonnes

66. Environmental impact assessment include

a) Environmental statement

b) Environmental management plan

c) Risk and hazard assessment and mitigation

d) All the above

67. The correct relationship between theoreticaloxygen demand (TOD), biochemical oxygen

demand (BOD) and chemical oxygen demand (COD) is given by

a) TOD > BOD > COD

b) TOD > COD > BOD

c) COD > BOD > TOD

d) BOD > COD > TOD

68. Main gas from land fill is

a) Oxygen

b) Nitrogen

c) Carbon monoxide

d) Methane

69. Which of the following is natural source of air pollution?

a) Carbonmonoxide from automobiles

b) Emissions from chemical factories

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c) Ozones from lightening

d) Emissions from biomass burning

70. Swimming pool water requires

a) Pre chlorination

b) Super-chlorination

c) Dual-chlorination

d) De-chlorination

71. Which one of the following methods can be employed for plastic and rubber waste

disposal?

a) Composting

b) Incineration

c) Sanitary landfill

d) Pyrolysis

72. Vaccum filters are used for

a) Slowing down bacterial activity

b) Dewatering of sludge

c) Filtration of sludge

d) Filtration of released water 73. Sodium is usually estimated by which of the following analytical method

a) Colorimetry

b) Flame photometry

c) HPLC

d) UV spectrophotometry

74. Conductivity reflects which type of the solids:

a) TS

b) TSS

c) TDS

d) TVS

75. Main purpose of Jar test is to determine the

a) Chlorine residual

b) Detention time

c) Filration rate

d) Alum dose

76. A sedimentation tank has dimensions 10 m x 10 m x 2 m. If the flow rate is 20 MLD,

what will be the detention time in min

a) 10

b) 24

c) 14

d) 60

77. The primary water quality indicator which is used to monitor filtration process is

a) Turbidity

b) Head loss

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c) Odour

d) pH

78. Which one of the following is not a pollution prevention approach?

a) source reduction

b) recycle and reuse

c) good house keeping


79. The residual pressure head in a water distribution system, where two storied buildings

are common, is

a) 7 m

b) 12 m

c) 17 m

d) 22 m

80. The coefficient of correlation

a) has a value less than 1

b) has a value greater than 1

c) has a value between 0 and 1

d) has a value between -1 and +1


81. Consider the following impurities:

1. CO2 and H2S

2. Finely divided suspended matter

3. Disease causing bacteria

4. Excess alkalinity

The correct sequence of the removal of these impurities in a conventional water

treatment plant is

a) 1, 2, 3, 4

1. b) 1, 4, 3, 2

2. c) 1, 4, 2, 3

3. d) 4, 1, 3, 2 4.

82. A BOD analysis is begun on Tuesday. 30 mL of waste with dissolved oxygen (DO) of

zero is mixed with 270 mL of dilution water with a DO of 10 mg/L. The sample is then

put in the incubator. Since the 5th day falls on Sunday and the lab personal do not work

on Sunday, the final DO was measured on Monday and is found to be 4.0 mg/L.

However, it is discovered that the incubator was set at 30oC. Assume a k1 value of 0.2 at

20oC. Determine the 5-day, 20

oC BOD of the sample (ϴ = 1.05).

a) 50.00 mg/L

b) 58.88 mg/L

c) 37.22 mg/L

d) 60.00 mg/L

83. Noise of 90 db for 8 h represents 100% dose. If the noise of 93 db for 1 h duration, it

represents a dose of

a) 25%

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b) 50%

c) 75%

d) 100%

84. pH of a water sample is 7. pH of another water sample of the same quantity is 8, then pH

of the mixture is

a) 7.26

b) 7.50

c) 7.80

d) 7.65

85. The flocculation basin is 15 m x1 5 m x 2.5 m. The detention time achieved for a flow

of 30 ML/d is

a) 30 s

b) 5 min

c) 20 min

d) 30 min

86. If settling velocity of alum floc is 25 mm/min, how long would it take for the alum floc

to settle through a depth of 3.0 m, when the overflow rate is 20.0 m3/m

2.d?

a) 1.5 h

b) 2.5 h

c) 3.5 h

d) 4.5 h

87. The surface area of a rapid sand filter is 36 m2. What should the backwashing pumping

rate (L/s) be to achieve a backwash rate of 8 L/s.m2?

a) 4.5

b) 450

c) 29

d) 290

88. The COD equivalent of biomass is

a) 1.10 g COD/g biomass

b) 1.21 g COD/g biomass

c) 1.42 g COD/g biomass

d) 1.90 g COD/g biomass

89. In a bag house, fabric filters of 0.3 m dia and 6.0 m long are used. Bag house receives 10

m3/s of flue gas. If the filtering velocity is limited to 2 m/min, the number of bags

a) 50

b) 52

c) 54

d) 56

90. Effective stack height required to limit the pollutant concentration Cmax

a) 2σz

b) σyσz

c) 1.732 σz

d) 1.414 σz

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91. The AAQS for NOx 80 µg/m3 is equivalent to

(N – 14, O - 16)

a) 0.05 ppm

b) 0.08 ppm

c) 0.16 ppm

d) 0.01 ppm

92. Which of the following are removed by rapid sand filter from water?

1. Dissolved solids

2. Suspended solids

3. Bacteria

4. Helminths

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) 2, 3 and 4

93. Which of the following statements regarding industrial water supply is/are correct?

1. Industrial water supplies need not be disinfected

2. Water for industrial use requires chemical treatment

3. Standards of purity and methods of treatment of water or industrial use are often

different from those for domestic water supplies.

4. It is more economical to use water from surface sources than groundwater sources

for industrial water supplies.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1, 2 and 4

b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 3 and 4

d) 3 only

94. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I List-II

A. Anabolism 1. Providing energy for synthesis of new cells and

maintenance of other cell functions

B. Autotrophs 2. Obtaining energy and material for growth from organic

sources

C. Catabolism 3. Providing the material necessary for cell growth

D. Heterotrophs 4. Obtaining energy and material for growth from inorganic

sources

Choose the most appropriate option

a) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

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List-I List-II

5. Colorimetry 1. Benzene-ring containing compounds

6. UV Spectroscopy 2. Heavy Metals

7. Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy 3. Pesticides

8. Gas Chromatography 4. Lambert’s law


a) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Directions for questions16 to 20: The following items consist of two statements: one labeled as Assertion (A)and the other

as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers

to these items using the codes given below:

Codes:

a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b) both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A



96. Assertion (A): A small quantity of ammonia is added to water before carrying out

disinfection using chlorine.

Reason (R): Chloramines are persistent disinfectants, which provide continued protection

against re-growth of microorganisms is a water distribution system.

97. Assertion (A): Large weir overflow rates will result in excessive velocities at the outlet

of a settling basin.

Reason (R): These excessive velocities will extend backward into the settling zone,

causing particles and flocs which would otherwise be removed as sludge to be drawn

into the outlet.

98. Assertion (A): Flocculating particles settle in a curved path in a long rectangular

sedimentation tank designed for a constant flow rate.

Reason (R): The downward settling velocities of particles as well as their horizontal

velocities remain constant during their stay in the tank.

99. Assertion (A): Break point chlorination ensures a residual of free available chlorine.

Reason (R): A super high chlorine dose inactivates the pathogens in a very short time.

100. Assertion (A): In electrostatic precipitator corona discharge is used for removing

particulates from the gas stream.

Reason (R): The corona discharge charges the particles which makes the particles to

move to opposite electrode and deposit

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101. What is the settling velocity of a discrete particle in a wide body of water when the

relevant Reynold’s number is less than 0.5? The diameter and specific gravity of the

particle are 2 x 10-3

cm and 2.65, respectively. Water temperature is 20 0C. (Kinematic

viscosity = 2 x 10-2

cm2/s).

a) 0.018 cm/s

b) 0.025 cm/s

c) 0.180 cm/s

d) 0.250 cm/s

102. If the length dimension of a square filter bed increase to two times (while the rate of

filtration remains unchanged), the amount of water filtered would become

a) 4 times

b) 2 times

c) 1 time

d) 16 times

103. For proper slow mixing in the flocculator of a water treatment plant, the temporal mean

velocity gradient G needs to be of the order of

a) 5 to 10 s-1

b) 20 to 80 s-1

c) 100 to 200 s-1

d) 250 to 350 s-1

104. A rural water supply scheme serves a population of 10,000 at the rate of 50 litres per

capita per day. For the chlorine dose of 2 ppm, the required amount of bleaching powder

with 20% available chlorine will be

a) 0.5 kg

b) 2.5 kg

c) 5 kg

d) 10 kg

105. 10 MLD water is to be chlorinated in a clear water reservoir (CWR) with 0.8 mg/L

chlorine dose with providing contact time of 40 minutes. The required CWR capacity is

nearly

a) 220 m3

b) 280 m3

c) 28 m3

d) 22 m3

106. For a colony of 10,000 persons having sewage flow rate of 200 L/capita/day. BOD of

applied sewage of 300 mg/L and organic loading of 300 kg/day/hectare, the area of an

oxidation pond required for treating the sewage of the colony is

a) 0.2 hectares

b) 1.0 hectares

c) 2.0 hectares

d) 6hectares

107. A certain industrial waste has a BOD of 162 mg/L and its flow is 1000 m3/day. If the

domestic sewage has a BOD of 80 g per capita, the population equivalent of the waste

would be

a) 20.25

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b) 1296

c) 2025

d) 12960

108. Two sources generate noise levels of 90dB and 94 dB respectively. The cumulative

effect of these two noise levels on the human ear is

a) 184 dB

b) 95.5 dB

c) 92 dB

d) 85.5 dB

109. The specific capacity of a well is 0.5 L/s.m. What is the maximum yield of the well, if

the maximum allowable drawdown is 18 m?

a) 36 L/s

b) 25 L/s

c) 18 L/s

d) 9 L/s

110. What is the specific yield of a 0.5 m diameter artesian well, if transmissivity of the

pumped aquifer is 100 m3/d and the radius of influence is 1200 m?

a) 100 m3/m.d

b) 50 m3/m.d

c) 24 m3/m.d

d) 12 m3/m.d

111. For a growing town, if the incremental rate of growth is 33% per decade, how many

years will it take to double the population?

a) 12

b) 18

c) 24

d) 36

112. If the discharge of a pump is 0.16 m3/s, the economical diameter of the rising main is

a) 40 cm

b) 60 cm

c) 80 cm

d) 20 cm

113. If 20 mL of odorous water, when mixed with 180 mL of odour free water results in the

bare detectability of the odour, the TON is

a) 10

b) 20

c) 40

d) 200

114. 20 L of 10% liquid chemical is added to 200 L capacity feeding tank. How many liters of

water should be added to make a 2.5 % solution?

a) 60 L

b) 80 L

c) 120 L

d) 190 L

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115. What is the theoretical oxygen demand of 300 mg/L glucose (C6H12O6) solution?

a) 316mg/L

b) 600 mg/L

c) 640 mg/L

d) 320 mg/L

116. In a provincial park facility, a 2 % solution is fed at the rate of 10 L/d to treat water flow

of 50 kL/d. If the chlorine residual required is 0.6 mg/L, determine the chlorine demand

of the lake water.

a) 0.23 mg/L

b) 2.3 mg/L

c) 3.6 mg/L

d) 3.4 g/L

117. Two reservoirs are connected by a 300 mm diameter and 1200 m long pipe line.

Assuming f = 0.02, what is the flow rate when the water level in the lower reservoir is

32 m below the water level in the upper reservoir?

a) 110 L/s

b) 150 L/s

c) 200 L/s

d) 250 L/s

118. What is the TCE concentration in g/m3 for a contaminated soil having density of 2 g/cm

3

and TCE concentration of 4 ppm

a) 0.002

b) 0.004

c) 0.006

d) 0.008


List-I List-II

A. Movement of water 1. H+ ions

B. Electrochemical process 2. Tuberculation

C. Sulphate reducing bacteria 3.Cathodic protection

D. Bimetallic action 4. Cavitation


a) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

120. If the pH of a water sample is measured as 10, then the OH- alkalinity in mg/L as CaCO3

is

a) 50

b) 5

c) 10-4

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d) 4

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CIVIL AND ARCHITECTURAL ENGINEERING

Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks:160

PAPER-II

Instructions:





wrong answer.









1. In Indus valley cities, roads were laid at

(a) Obtuse angle (b) acute angles (c) right angles (d) radial

2. A typical Buddhist Chaitya had

(a) Circular Plan (b) Apsidal End

(c) Square Plan with offsets (d) None of the Above

3. A typical Dravidian temple Vimana has

(a) Pyramidal form (b) Domical form (c) Lantern roof (d) Cylindrical form

4. Temple group at Khajuraho belongs to

(a) Nagara style (b) Vesara Style (c) Dravida Style (d) Gurjara Style

5. Tughlaqshahi buildings are constructed using

(a) Random rubble masonry (b) Ashlar Masonry

(c) Dry Masonry (d) Coursed stone masonry

6. Lodi tombs were built on

(a) Only square plan (b) Only octagonal plan

(c) both Octagonal and square plans (d) Neither octagonal nor square plans

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7. Which of the mosques does not have a central courtyard

(a) Jama Mosque Gulbarga (b) Moti Mosque Delhi

(c) Jama Mosque Delhi (d) Taj UI Masjid Bhopal

8. FatehpurSikri building complex uses

(a) Red sand stone and white marble (b) Pink marble and white marble

(c) Red sandstone and white sand stone (d) White marble only

9. The central tomb chamber of Taj Mahal, Agra has a

(a) Single dome (b) Double dome

(c) Multilayered dome (d) Not a domed roof

10. The Char Bagh idea is frequently used in

(a) Lodi gardens (b) Hindu gardens (c) Moughul gardens (d) Adilshahi gardens

11. An Ancient Greek Portico, a long colonnaded shelter used as a public space is known as

(a)Pteroma (b) Stoa (c)Antefix (d) Anthemion

12. A twin Temple in Athenian Acropolis that is dedicated to Athena and Poseidon

a) Parthenon b) Anthem ion c) Erechtheion d) Athena Nike

13. A prototypical building that served as an entrance pavilion to Greek Complexes like the

imposing Entrance to Acropolis in Athens?

(a) Hypostyle (b) Erechtheion (c) Propylaea (d) Pylons

14. The great Pyramid at Gizah was built in the 4th

Dynasty by

(a) Djoser (b) Ramesses Il (c) Khafre (d) Mycerinus

15. The capital Order used in the Parthenon

(a) Doric (b) Ionic (c)Tuscan (d) Corinthian

16. Under whose patronage was Pantheon completed in 120 AD?

(a) Vitruvius (b) Apollodorus (c) Hadrian (d) Agrippa

17. Which order is essentially a simplification of Doric Order?

(a) Ionic (b) Corinthian (c) Tuscan (d)Composite

18. The Ten Books named as De Architectura have been written by which Author?

(a) Anthemius of Tralles (b) Isidore of Miletus

(c) MarcusAgrippa (d) Vitruvius

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19. Identify the column order

(a)Tuscan (b)Corinthian (c) Composite (d) Ionic

20. What is the name given to carved, full length female figures used like columns,

inClassical Architecture?

(a) Terms (b) Caryatids (c) Herms (d) Atlantes

21. Church plan of Early Christian Churches was?

(a) Basilica (b) Latin Cross (c) Greek Cross (d) CalvaryCross

22. Under the patronage of which byzantine emperor was Hagia Sophia built?

(a)Justinian (b) Constantine (c) Theodosius (d) Romanos

23. St. Basils, Moscow reflects which architectural style?

(a) Byzantine (b) Gothic (c) EarlyChristian (d) Romanesque

24. Where did the Gothic Style originate?

(a)England (b) Italy (c) Germany (d) France

25. Pisa Cathedral belongs to which architectural style?

(a) Romanesque (b) Gothic (c) Byzantine (d) Renaissance

26. Construction of which dome marks the beginning of Renaissance in Architecture?

(a) Dome of theRock (b) Dome ofFlorenceCathedral

(c) Dome of Sienna Cathedral (d) Dome of St.PetersBasilica

27. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of Gothic style?

(a) HeavyMasonry (b) PointedArches (c) RibbedVaults (d) Flying Buttresses

28. Who is the architect of Palazzo Medici Recardi?

(a) Aandrea Palladio (b) Giuliano daSangallo

(c) RaphaelSanzioda Urbino (d) MichelozzodiBartolomeo

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29. Who is the Architect of San Carlino, Rome Italy?

(a) GianLorenzo Bernini (b) FrancescoBorromini

(c) GuarinoGuarini (d) Pietro da Cortona

30. The latter part of the Renaissance period developed into an oranate architectural style

called ------------

(a) Beaux Arts (b) Baroque (c) Art Nouveau (d) Art Deco

31. The most significant parameter that determines climate of a place is

(a) Distance from sea (b) Latitude

(c) Direction of winds (d) Ocean currents

32. The maximum seasonal contrast is observed in

(a) Low Latitudes (b) High Latitudes

(c) Sub Tropics (d) Mid Latitudes

33. The lines on a weather map joining places of equal sunshine is known as

(a) Isohels (b) Isobars (c) Isotheres (d) Isotherms

34. The atmospheric layer in which most of the weather phenomenon takes place is

(a) Ionosphere (b) Mesosphere (c) Troposphere (d) Stratosphere

35. The fog along the sea coast is caused due to

(a) Conduction (b) Convection (c) Advection (d) Radiation

36. The inequality between duration of day and night become greater or more marked as one

travels from to …………

(a) East to West (b) Tropic of Cancer to Tropic of Capricorn

(c) Equator to Poles (d) West to East

37. Contours are the lines on map showing

(a) Places on Earth of equal rainfall (a) Places on Earth at the same altitude

(c) Places on Earth with similar temperature (d) None of these

38. The temperature at which air becomes saturated is known as

(a) Peak point (b) Frost point (c) Dew point (d) Kelvin point

39. The rate of decrease in temperature with increase in height is known as

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(a) Lapse Rate (b) Decrement Rate (c) Reverse Repo Rate (d) Inverse Rate

40. Mean Radiant Temperature is measured by

(a)Keta Thermometer (b) Globe Thermometer

(c) Pyranometer (d) Maximum-Minimum. Thermometer

41. Aeration of water is done to remove

(a) Colour (b) Odour (c) Turbidity (d) Bacteria

42. By boiling water, hardness can be removed if it is due to

(a) Calcium Bicarbonate (b) Magnesium Sulphate

c) Calcium Nitrate (d) Calcium Sulphate

43. For an area developed in haphazard manner the most appropriate water distribution

system is

(a) Dead End System (b) Grid Iron System

(c) Radial System (d) Ring System

44. Which of the following method of sewage disposal is commonly used in cities?

(a) Conservancy method (b) Dry method

(c) Water carriage method (d) Refuse chutes

45. Pick the false statement, Manholes are provided at

(a) At all changes of direction (b) At all Intersections of sewers

(c) At all changes of gradient (d)At all open drains for storm water

46. For the sewers of diameter less than 600 mm, the type of joint preferred is

(a) Spigot and socket joint (b) Collar joint

(c) Mechanical joint (d) Bandage joint

47. When making a layout of toilet, the distance between centre of water closet and wall is

(a) 300 mm (b) 450 mm (c) 600 mm (d) 750 mm

48. The recommended formula to calculate velocity of free flow of water in conduits under

gravity is

(a) Manning's formula (b) Hazen and William's formula

(c) Terzaghi's formula (d) Bernaullis formula

49. Acceptable limit of total dissolved solids in water supply should be

(a) 500 mg/litre (b) 1000 mg/litre (c) 1500 mg/litre (d) 200 mg/litre

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50. Yield from rapid gravity filter is more than slow sand filters by

(a) 10 times (b)20 times (c) 30 times (d) 40 times

51. In a circuit the effective greatest root-mean-square difference of potential between any

two conductors refers to the

(a) Current (b) Wattage (c) Resistance (d) Voltage

52. Ability of conductor without being overheated is called?

(a) Resistance (b) Capacity (c) Ampacity (d) Resilience

53. The Code of practice for Electrical Wiring Installations is:

(a) IS 456:1968 (b) IS 12032 :1987 (c) IS 732: 1989 (d) IS 464: 2001

54. In power distribution, a group of electric conductors which originate at a main

distribution center and supply electricity to one or more secondary distributions, or to

one or more branch circuit, or to a combination of these are called?

(a) Earthwire (b) Raceway (c) Neutral (d) Feeder

55. Why is it necessary to plan and place the data connection cables and electrical cables

separated by a minimum distance and also perpendicular to each other?

(a) Data cables are expensive (b) To avoid visual chaos

(c) To optimize data transfer speed (d) To avoid fire accidents

56. This equipment uses a stream of compressed air directed downwards to form a shield to

exclude drafts?

(a) Air exhaust (b) Air sweeper (c) Air curtain (d) Air Handling Unit

57. The ratio of lumen actually received on working plane to lumen actually emitted from

light source is called?

(a) Maintenance factor (b) Depreciation factor

(c) Utilization factor (d) All of above

58. The unit of measuring luminous intensity of a light source is.

(a) Lux (b) Candela (c) Steradian (d) Lumen

59. A 100 candela light source radiates out a total flux of

(a) 0.1257 lumen (b) 1.257 lumen (c) 12.57 lumen (d) 1257 lumen

60. Direct lighting scheme for indoor illumination.

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(a) Is ideal for drawing offices (b) Is best suited to room with high ceilings

(c) Produces hard shadows (d) Is often used for composing rooms

61. Which of the following tree has columnar form?

(a) DelonixRegia (b)TamarindusIndica

(c) Polyathialongifolia (d) Callistemon Lanceolatus

62. As per CPWD Guidelines and Space Standard for Barrier free environment, the

minimum turning radius for a wheel chair in mm is:

(a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 1800

63. The Scientific/botanical name of Gulmohar tree is:

(a) Lagerstroemia Speciosa (b) Cassia Fistula

(c) AzardichtaIndica (d) Delonixregia

64. The botanical name of Kachnar tree is:

(a) FicusBenghalensis (b) Bauhinia variegate

(c) Cassia fistula (d) Delonixregia

65. The most appropriate tree for designing a smell sensory pathway is:

(a) DelonixRegia (b) Baugainvillea

(c) CasiaFistulia (d) JasminumAngustifolium

66. Recommended temperature for HVAC systems inoffice buildings in India are:

(a) 21OC with maximum of 30

0C in summer and 25

0C in winter

(b) 29 oc with maximum of 32

0C in summer and 36

0C in winter

(c) 300C with maximum of 36

0C in summer and 32

0C in winter

(d) 21 oc with maximum of 24

0C in summer and 22

0C in winter

67. Ideal width to depth ratio of an air conditioning duct will be

(a) 1:6 (b) 1:3 (c) 3:1 (d) 6:1

68. Which of the following are reasons to use mulch on the top soil of newly planted shrubs?

(a) Aid to water Retention (b) Prevent soil temperature fluctuation

(c) Discourage weed growth (d) All of the above

69. For large and close building, the fire hydrant should be located at a distance of

(a) 50m-80m (b) 90m-120m (c) 120m-150m (d) 150-180 m

70. Plants which can block sunlight/daylight during a particular season and allow it to pass

through other season of the year are known as:

(a) Deciduous (b) Evergreen Confiers

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(c) Broad leaf evergreen (d) None of the above

71. Class A Fire involves:

(a) Electrical Equipment (b) Flammable Gases

(c)Petroleum products (d) Combustible solids

72. Which if the Indian tree is evergreen

(a) Gulmohar (b) Kancnar (c) Amaltas (d) Mango

73. Balance, Symmetry and harmony alongwith water flow manipulated variously were

highlights of

(a) Zen Garden (b) English Garden (c) Mughal Garden (d) Spanish Garden

74. The garden Design based on Spiritual concepts are:

(a)Mughal Gardens (b) French Gardens (c) English Gardens (d) Japanese Gardens

75. The duct size of an Air-conditioning system is dependent on amount of air flow and its:

(a) Velocity (b) Relative Humidity (c) Temperature (d) Latent Heat

76. Symbolic representation of water by sand is frequently found in

(a) French Garden (b) Mughal Garden (c) English Garden (d) None of the above

77. Fire Rating of Doors in buildings shall be in:

(a) Watts/hours (b) Hours (c) Lux (d) Joules

78. Variable Air Volume system of HVAC has:

(a) Constant air temperature and constant air flow

(b) Constant air temperature and variable air flow

(c) Variable air temperature and variable air flow

(d) Variable air temperature and constant air flow

79. The energy Efficiency of central air-conditioning system is measured in terms of:

(a) Energy Efficiency Ratio (b) British Thermal Unit

(c) Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio (d) Payback time

80. The number of elevators required in a building can be calculated by the number of

persons requiring service during a peak of ………. Minutes period

(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) 15


81. The "Torana or Gateway" of Sanchi Stupa is adorned with stone carvings depicting

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(a) Aesop stories (b) Jatak stories

(c) Upnishadik stories (d) Geometrical patterns

82. With reference to Buddhist monuments of Amaravathi, which of the following is/are

true?

(1) Amaravati Stupa was constructed in third century.

(2) Amaravati has Mahachaitya

(3) Similar to sanchi stupa, Amaravathi Stupa has Pradakshinapatha enclosed within a

vedika.

Select the correct answer from the following codes

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 2 (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) 1,2 and 3

83. RekhaDeul and Pidadeul are parts of

(a) Bengal temples (b) Chalukyan temples (c) Orissan temples (d) Braj temples

84. Latina and Bhumija mode of roof construction was popular in

(a) Rock cut temples (b) Nagara Temples (c) Haveli temples (d) None of the above

85. With reference to architecture at FatehpurSikri, which of the following is correct

statements?

(a) One can notice combination of both trabeate (of pillar and beam) and arcuate (using

arches and domes) styles at FatehpurSikri

(b) FatehpurSikri presents only indigenous architecture of India.

(c) FatehpurSikri is laid out on strictly Persian lines of city planning

(d) There are several gardens in FatehpurSikari complex

86. How were the Romans able to create Structures with great spans?

(a) Use of arches vaults (b) Use of Stonepiles together

(c) Stone corbel systems (d) Large column and stone beams

87. Parts of Entablature in sequence from top to bottom (i) Cornice (ii) Architrave (iii) frieze

(a) i, ii, iii (b) ii, i iii (c) iii, i ii (d) i, iii, ii

88. TheNorth South oriented avenue in Roman towns along which mostly the commercial

activities are located

(a) Procenium (b) Aisle (c) Cardo (d) Decumanus

89. Which of the option is in the correct chronological order for the following?

1. Dai el Bahari

2. Saqqara

3. Dahshur

4. Gizeh

(a) 2, 3, 4, 1 (b) 1, 3, 2 4 (c) 1, 2, 4, 3 (d) 4, 2, 3 1

90. The angle of repose for Snefru's red pyramid was

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(a) 31.600 (b) 41.6

0 (c)51.60

0 (d) 45

0

91. Which of the following is in the correct chronological order for the architectural styles?

(a) Byzantine BaroqueRomanesqueGothic Renaissance

(b) Byzantine Gothic RomanesqueRenaissance Baroque

(c) Byzantine RomanesqueGothic Renaissance Baroque

(d) Byzantine Romanesque Gothic Baroque Renaissance

92. Which of the following example of Byzantine Architecture features a quincunx - five

domes arranged in a cross?

(a) Hagia Irene, Constantinople,

(b) HagiaSophia,Constantinople

(c) St. Marks,Vienice

(d) HosiosLoukas,Distomo

93. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of Romanesque style?

(a) Heavy StoneMasonry (b) SmallPunchedWindows

(c) Geometric Blocking (d) PointedArches

94. Which regional variation in Gothic Style evolved in England?

(a) High Gothic (b) PerpendicularGothic

(c) RayonnantGothic (d) FlamboyantGothic

95. Who codified the principles of geometrically accurate linear perspective, making

possible the exact representation of a 3-dimensional object on a 2-dimensional surface?

(a) FilippoBrunelleschi (b) Leonardo daVinci

(c) Michelangelo (d) DonatoBramante

96. Which one of the following statement is not true

(a) Within the Arctic and Antarctic circles there is at least one day in the year without sun

rise

(b) At the North Pole there is darkness during half of the year

(c) At the summer solstice the sun rises vertically over the Tropic of Capricorn

(d) The sun shines vertically over the Equator twice in the year

97. In a cold winter night in hilly areas, it is observed that trees on the hill top are safe

whereas those in the valley are frost bitten. It can be explained by phenomena of

(a) Temperature conversion (b) Temperature inversion

(c) Temperature revulsion (d) None of these

98. Horizontal shadow angle is calculated for shading devices and Vertical

shadow angle is calculated for shading devices

(a) Vertical, Horizontal (b) Horizontal, Vertical

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(c) Inclined, Oblique (d) Oblique, Inclined

99. The Effective Temperature Index does not include

(a) Air Temperature (b) Humidity (c) Air Velocity (d) Vapor Pressure

100. The body temperature always increases by ……… and it always decreases by ………

(a) Conduction, Convection (b) Convection, Radiation

(c) Metabolism, Evaporation (d) Radiation, Conduction

101. Calculate the depth of a septic tank for a guest house with 20 occupants and daily water

consumption of 100 litre/person. The detention period of the septic tank is 3 days, length

and width of the tank is 3m and 1 m respectively, assume the top freeboard clearance as

300mm.

(a) 1m (b) 1.7m (c) 2m (d) 2.3m

102. The recommended gradient in a 300m diameter drainage pipe is to maintain a velocity of

0.75m/sec is

(a) 1:100 (b) 1:150 (c) 1:200 (d) 1: 250

103. The velocity of water in the pipe is 1.8m/Sec. What is the diameter of pipe used?

(a) 10cm (b) 15cm (c) 25cm (d) 40cm

104. Total head at any point in a water supply conduit flowing full is equal to-

(a) Pressure energy+ Potential energy

(b) Pressure energy+ Potential energy+ Kinetic energy

(c) Potential energy+ Kinetic energy

(d) Pressure energy+ Kinetic energy

105. An incandescent lamp having luminous intensity of 60cd in all direction gives an

illumination of 15 lux at the surface of the table vertically below it, then the distance of

the lamp from the table is.

(a) 1.5 metres (b) 1.75 metres (c) 2.0 metres (d) 2.5 metres

106. Assuming that the hall measuring 15m x 21m and 3.0 m upto truss is to be illuminated to

the level of 300 lux. Assume space height ratio, utilization factor, depreciation factor and

lamp efficiency as 1.0, 0.9, 0.8 and 20 lumen/W respectively, find out the wattage of

lamps?

(a) 187.5 (b) 190 (c) 175 (d) 177.5

107. In an auditorium how much increase in total absorption area will result in reduction of

noise level by 6dB without altering other parameters?

(a) 200% (b) 100% (c) 300% (d) 400%

108. The resultant sound level of sources producing sound of 82dB, 100dB, 106dB, 102dB,

90dB, 52db,34dB & 72dB will be

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(a) 106 dB (b)108 dB (c) 109 dB (d) 110 dB

109. Find out the number of lighting fixtures in a hall measuring 10m x 20m x 3m if the space

height ratio is unity? Assume the mounting height of fixture as 2.0m above working

plane.

(a) 45 (b) 50 (c) 55 (d) 60

110. Major Characteristics of French Gardens are:

(a) Symmetrical Layout, water Cascade, entombment

(b) Radial Layout, Symmetrical sculpture, boulevards

(c) Occult symmetry, pontoon Bridges, Stepping Stones

(d) Heriarcy of courts, hierarchy of gates, zoomorphic forms

111. Major Characteristics of Mughal Gardens are:

(a) Symmetrical Layout, water Cascade, entombment

(b) Radial Layout, Symmetrical sculpture, boulevards

(c) Occult symmetry, pontoon Bridges, Stepping Stones

(d) Lake, Rolling Lawns, Classical Temples, bridges and other Picturesque architecture

112. A site has 6 contour lines and the length of the line joining the midpoints of the highest

contour and lowest contour is 300 m. If the slope of line is 1 in 10, then the contour

interval (in meters) is

(a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) 70

113. A site map shows five contour lines. A line drawn across the lowest and highest contour

measures 125m and has slope of 8%. Determine the contour interval

(a) 5m (b) 2.5m (c) 10m (d) 2m

114. Ecological footprint Corresponds to:

(a) The land area required to preserve as forest to ensure sufficient levels of oxygen for a

community

(b) The land area necessary to supply natural resources to community and disposal of its

waste

(c) The land area required to take care of solid wastes and sewage of a community

(d) The land area per person per year from which trees are cut.

115. The harmful components of fire effluent are the following:

i) Asphyxiant gases: carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (C02), hydrogen cyanide

(HCN), oxygen-depleted air;

ii) Irritant gases: halogen acids (HCI, HBr, HF), partially oxidized organic molecules

(e.g. acrolein, formaldehyde), nitrogen oxides, other fuel-specific gases;

iii) Aerosols and soot particles, particularly those of size that are readily reparable and

those that scatter light efficiently;

iv) Heat (radioactive and convective) and elevated temperature.

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(a) i (b) ii& iii (c)i& iv (d) all of the above

116. Which of the following statements are TRUE?

i) Steady state methods are justified in case of heating load calculations as the outside

temperatures during winter are normally very low

ii) Steady state methods are justified in case of heating load calculations as the peak

load normally occurs before sunrise

iii) Steady state methods are justified in case of heating load calculations as the

outside temperature variation is normally low during winter months

iv) Neglecting internal heat sources while calculating heating loads underestimates

the required capacity

(a) i& ii (b) ii only (c) ii& iii (d) iv only

117. Shalbhanjika sculptures in Sanchi Stupa represents

(a) Bodhisattva attendants (b) Lady holding branch of tree

(c) Yaksha’s and Yakshini’s (d) None

118. Which of the following statements are TRUE?

1. An all year air conditioning system has to be switched from winter mode to summer

mode as the outdoor temperature exceeds the outdoor temperature at balance point

2. An all year air conditioning system has to be switched from summer mode to winter

mode as the outdoor temperature exceeds the outdoor temperature at balance point

3. outdoor temperature at balance point increases as the amount of insulation increases

4. outdoor temperature at balance point decreases as the amount of insulation increases

(a) 1 & 2 (b) 2 & 3 (c) 3 & 4 (d) 1&4

119. What shall be dimension of a water storage tank having capacity of 6000 litres

(a) 2x2x1.5 m (b)2x2.5x1 m (c) 2x1.5x1 m (d) 2x1.5x1.5 m

120. The Term “Vista” in Architecture refers to

(a) A line of vision, contained by buildings of landscaping to a building or other features

which terminates the view

(b) A large public space surrounded by imposing buildings

(c) Visual connection from one landmark to other

(d) Variation in the plane of a building wall, often used to provide visual interest

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COMPUTER SCIENCE& ENGINEERING/COMPUTER ENGINEERING/

COMPUTER SCIENCE

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 160

PAPER-II

Instructions:





wrong answer.









1. IPv6 addresses have a size of

(a) 32 bits

(b) 64 bits

(c) 128 bits

(d) 265 bits

2. A circledrawn on the screen appears to be elliptical as-

(a) The screen has a rectangular shape

(b) The CRT is not completely spherical

(c) It is due to aspect ratio of monitor

(d) D.Our eyes are not at the same level as the screen

3. The cross product of two vectors (I-K) and (2I +J) is-

(a) 2I

(b) I-3J -K

(c) 3I + J -K

(d) 3I -J +K

4. The maximum number of control points for drawing B-spline curve is-

(a) 4

(b) 8

(c) 10

(d) Could be anything

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5. The format for storing digital audio in multimedia application is-

(a) JPEG

(b) TIFF

(c) WAV

(d) BMP

6. One of the following does not represent point lying on the y axis at infinity-

(a) [0 1 0 0]

(b) B. [1 0 0 0]

(c) C. [0 5 0 0]

(d) D. [0 10 0 0]

7. 90 degree clockwise rotation about X axis would transfer point-

(a) on X axis to Z axis

(b) on Y axis to Z axis

(c) on Y axis to X axis

(d) on Z axis to Y axis

8. ______is a dynamic mapping protocol in which a physical address is found for a given

logical address.

(a) ARP

(b) RARP

(c) Both a and b

(d) None of the above

9. Which one of the following protocol is not used in internet?

(a) HTTP

(b) DHCP

(c) DNS

(d) None of the mentioned

10. Which device is required for the Internet connection?

(a) Joystick

(b) Modem

(c) CD Drive

(d) NIC Card

11. The result of midpoint subdivision algorithm is to perform-

(a) Breadth First Search

(b) Depth First Search

(c) Logarithmic Search

(d) Best First search for intersection point of the line with the window edge

12. Computer jargon, WWWW stands for

(a) WORLD WIDE WEB WORM

(b) WORLD WIDE WILDLIFE WEB

(c) WORLD WIDE WOMEN'S WEB

(d) WORLD WIDE WOMEN'S WEEK

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13. Hypermedia

(a) is another media like graphics, text etc.

(b) provides links between two media

(c) is a facility to permit two media to be played together

(d) is another name for multimedia

14. What is Artificial intelligence?

(a) Making a Machine intelligent.

(b) Programming with your own intelligence

(c) Putting your intelligence into Computer

(d) Putting more memory into Computer

15. Which of the following term is least related to Artificial Intelligence?

(a) E-commerce

(b) Game playing

(c) Reasoning and Logic

(d) Expert System

16. What are you predicating by the logic: x: y: loyalto(x, y).

(a) Everyone is loyal to some one

(b) Everyone is loyal

(c) Everyone is loyal to all

(d) Everyone is not loyal to someone

17. A* Algorithms is based on:

(a) Breadth-First-Search

(b) Best-First-Search

(c) Depth-First-Search

(d) Hill Climbing

18. Natural language processing is divided into the two sub-fields of:

(a) Algorithmic and heuristic

(b) Time and motion

(c) Symbolic and Numeric

(d) Understanding and generation

19. Different learning methods does not include

(a) Deduction

(b) Analogy

(c) Memorization

(d) Introduction

20. What is the name of the computer program that simulates the thought processes of

human beings?

(a) Decision Support System

(b) Inference

(c) Expert System

(d) Knowledge Base

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21. What is a heuristic function?

(a) A function that maps from problem state descriptions to measures of desirability

(b) A function which takes parameters of type string and returns an integer value

(c) A function to solve mathematical problems

(d) A function which returns an object

22. A perceptron is a

(a) Back-propagation algorithm

(b) Feed Forward-backward algorithm

(c) Feed-forward neural network

(d) Back-tracking algorithm

23. The symbols used in describing the syntax of a programming language are

(a) [ ]

(b) <>

(c)

(d) “ ”

24. In an Unsupervised learning

(a) Specific output values are given

(b) Both inputs and outputs are given

(c) Specific output values are not given

(d) Neither inputs nor outputs are given

25. Which Nobel Laureate is also known one of the Fathers of Artificial Intelligence?

(a) Herbert A. Simon

(b) Howard Aiken

(c) Charles Babbage

(d) Alan Turing

26. In AI the statement “All dogs has tail” is represented as

(a) x: has_tail(x)→ dog(x)

(b) IF dog THEN has tail

(c) Dog→ has_tail

(d) x: dog(x) → has_tail(x)

27. Decision support programs are designed to help managers make:

(a) Budget decisions

(b) Schedule decisions

(c) Profit margin decisions

(d) Business decisions

28. In tuple relational calculus P1 →P2 is equivalent to

(a) ¬P1 P2

(b) P1 P2

(c) P1 P2

(d) P1 ¬P2

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29. Suppose that two relations R(A,B) and S(A,B) have exactly the same schema. Which of

the following equalities hold in relation algebra?

I. R∩S=R-(R-S)

II. R∩S=S-(S-R)

III. R∩S=R EQUIJOIN S

(a) I Only

(b) I and II Only

(c) I, II, and III


30. The command to remove rows from a table 'CUSTOMER' is:

(a) REMOVE FROM CUSTOMER ...

(b) DROP FROM CUSTOMER ...

(c) DELETE FROM CUSTOMER WHERE ...

(d) UPDATE FROM CUSTOMER …

31. Which of the following database object does not physically exist?

(a) Base table

(b) Index

(c) View


32. It is possible to define a schema completely using …

(a) VDL and DDL.

(b) DDL and DML.

(c) SDL and DDL.

(d) VDL and DML.

33. Key to represent relationship between tables is called

(a) Primary key

(b) Secondary Key

(c) Foreign Key

(d) None of these

34. The physical location of a record is determined by a mathematical formula that

transforms a file key into a record location is :

(a) B-Tree File.

(b) Hashed File.

(c) Indexed File.

(d) Sequential file.

35. Consider the join of a relation R with relation S. If R has m tuples and S has n tuples,

then the maximum size of join is:

(a) Mn

(b) m+n

(c) (m+n)/2

(d) 2(m+n)

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36. The techniques used to handle the phantom problems are

(a) Predicate locking

(b) Index Locking

(c) Timestamping

(d) Both A. and B.

37. Which of the following timestamp is not associated with a transaction T?

(a) Start(T)

(b) Validation(T)

(c) Read(T)

(d) Finish(T)

38. UNDO/NO-REDO recovery algorithm uses _______ approach for writing the modified

buffers to the database on the disk

(a) Steal/force

(b) No-Steal/force

(c) No-steal/No-force

(d) Steal/No-force

39. Aries algorithm is not based on the principle of _______

(a) Write-ahead logging

(b) Logging changes during undo

(c) Deferred update

(d) Repeating history during Undo

40. A Trigger is _________________

(a) A statement that enables to start any DBMS.

(b) A statement that is executed by user when debugging an application program.

(c) A condition the system tests for the validity of the database user.

(d) A statement that is executed automatically by the system as a side effect of

modification of the system

41. Constraints that cannot be directly expressed in schema of the data model, and hence

must be expressed and enforced by the application programs is known as

(a) Application Based

(b) Semantics Constraints

(c) Business Rule

(d) All of these

42. The following are functions of a DBMS except ________ .

(a) Creating and processing forms

(b) Creating databases

(c) Processing data

(d) Administrating databases

43. Every time attribute A appears, it is matched with the same value of attribute B, but not

the same value of attribute C. Therefore, it is true that:

(a) A → B

(b) A → C

(c) A → (B,C)

(d) (B,C) → A

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44. A relation is in this form if it is in BCNF and has no multivalued dependencies:

(a) Second normal form

(b) Third normal form

(c) Fourth normal form

(d) Domain/key normal form

45. The primary key is selected from the:

(a) Composite keys

(b) Determinants

(c) Candidate keys

(d) Foreign keys

46. When the values in one or more attributes being used as a foreign key must exist in

another set of one or more attributes in another table, we have created a(n):

(a) Transitive dependency

(b) Insertion anomaly

(c) Referential integrity constraint

(d) Normal form

47. Which type of entity cannot exist in the database unless another type of entity also exists

in the database, but does not require that the identifier of that other entity be included as

part of its own identifier?

(a) Weak entity

(b) Strong entity

(c) ID-dependent entity

(d) ID- independent entity

48. Which of the following is not a restriction for a table to be a relation?

(a) The cells of the table must contain a single value

(b) All of the entries in any column must be of the same kind

(c) The columns must be ordered

(d) No two rows in a table may be identical

49. In which of the following is a single-entity instance of one type related to many entity

instances of another type?

(a) One-to-One Relationship

(b) One-to-Many Relationship

(c) Many-to-Many Relationship

(d) Composite Relationship

50. To sort the results of a query use:

(a) SORT BY.

(b) GROUP BY.

(c) ORDER BY.

(d) None of the above is correct.

51. Protocol which assigns IP address to client connected in internet is

(a) DHCP

(b) IP

(c) RPC

(d) HTML

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52. Which normal form is considered adequate for relational database design?

(a) 2NF

(b) 3NF

(c) 4 NF

(d) BCNF

53. If a relation is in BCNF, then it is also in

(a) 1 NF

(b) 2 NF

(c) 3 NF

(d) All of the above

54. Which of the following contains a complete record of all activity that affected the

contents of a database during a certain period of time?

(a) report writer

(b) query language

(c) data manipulation language

(d) transaction log

55. The natural join is equal to:

(a) Cartesian Product

(b) Combination of Union and Cartesian product

(c) Combination of selection and Cartesian product

(d) Combination of projection and Cartesian product

56. In a compiler, keywords of a language are recognized during

(a) parsing of the program

(b) the code generation

(c) the lexical analysis of the program

(d) dataflow analysis

57. The output of a lexical analyzer is

(a) A parse tree

(b) Intermediate code

(c) Machine code

(d) A stream of tokens

58. Match all items in Group 1 with correct options from those given in Group 2.

Group 1 Group 2

P. Regular expression 1. Syntax analysis

Q. Pushdown automata 2. Code generation

R. Dataflow analysis 3. Lexical analysis

S. Register allocation 4. Code optimization

(a) P-4. Q-1, R-2, S-3

(b) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(c) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(d) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

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59. Which one of the following is a top-down parser?

(a) Recursive descent parser.

(b) Operator precedence parser.

(c) An LR(k) parser.

(d) An LALR(k) parser

60. Which of the following is the most powerful parsing method?

(a) LL(1)

(b) Canonical LR

(c) SLR

(d) LALR

61. Type checking is normally done during

(a) Lexical analysis

(b) Syntax analysis

(c) Syntax directed translation

(d) Code optimization

62. In a resident- OS computer, which of the following system software must reside in the

main memory under all situations?

(a) Assembler

(b) Linker

(c) Loader

(d) Compiler

63. The number of tokens in the following C statement is

printf("i = %d, &i = %x", i, &i);

(a) 3

(b) 26

(c) 10

(d) 21

64. Dynamic web page

(a) is same every time whenever it displays

(b) generates on demand by a program or a request from browser

(c) both A. and B.

(d) none of the mentioned

65. Common gateway interface is used to

(a) generate executable files from web content by web server

(b) generate web pages

(c) stream videos


66. XLL definition is used along with XML to specify

(a) The data types of the contents of XML document

(b) The presentation of XML document

(c) The links with other documents

(d) The structure of XML document

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67. This method ensures that each XML element type and attribute name has a unique

identity.

(a) namespace

(b) fully-qualified domain name

(c) Multiprotocol Label Switching

(d) named pipe

68. What technology is being referred to as Web 3.0?

(a) Open Source Technology

(b) The Semantic Web

(c) Read Write Web

(d) Social Networking

69. An attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users is called

(a) denial-of-service attack

(b) virus attack

(c) worms attack

(d) botnet process

70. Network layer firewall has two sub-categories as

(a) State full firewall and stateless firewall

(b) Bit oriented firewall and byte oriented firewall

(c) Frame firewall and packet firewall


71. What is one advantage of setting up a DMZ with two firewalls?

(a) You can control where traffic goes in three networks

(b) You can do stateful packet filtering

(c) You can do load balancing

(d) Improved network performance

72. Which one of the following is NOT desired in a good Software Requirement

Specifications (SRS) document?

(a) Functional Requirements

(b) Goals of Implementation

(c) Non Functional Requirements

(d) Algorithms for Software Implementation

73. In the context of modular software design, which one of the following combinations is

desirable?

(a) High cohesion and high coupling

(b) Low cohesion and high coupling

(c) High cohesion and low coupling

(d) Low cohesion and low coupling

74. The spiral model was originally proposed by

(a) IBM

(b) Barry Boehm

(c) Pressman

(d) Royce

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75. How is Incremental Model different from Spiral Model?

(a) Progress can be measured for Incremental Model

(b) Users can see the system early in Incremental Model

(c) Changing requirements can be accommodated in Incremental Model

(d) All of the mentioned

76. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

(a) Maintainability

(b) Robustness

(c) Portability


77. What are the types of requirement in Quality Function Deployment (QFD)?

(a) Known, Unknown, Undreamed

(b) Functional, Non-Functional

(c) User, Developer

(d) Normal, Expected, Exciting

78. A chemical plant system may detect excessive pressure and open a relief valve to reduce

these pressures before an explosion occurs. What kind of dependability and security

issue the example states?

(a) Hazard avoidance

(b) Hazard detection

(c) Hazard detection and removal

(d) Damage limitation

79. Management information systems (MIS)

(a) create and share documents that support day-today office activities

(b) process business transactions (e.g., time cards, payments, orders, etc.)

(c) capture and reproduce the knowledge of an expert problem solver

(d) use the transaction data to produce information needed by managers to run the

business

80. A task of developing a technical blueprint and specifications for a solution that fulfils the

business requirements is undertaken in the following phase of the system development

process

(a) system initiation

(b) system implementation

(c) system analysis

(d) system design


81. If

A= −2 1 0

1 2 0

0 0 1

,b = [ 10 6 1 ]

(a) b.Acan not be determined as dimensions do not match

(b) A.b is same as b.A

(c) b.A = [-14 2 1]

(d) b.A= [22 -14 1]

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82. In 2D graphics, the transformation

1 0 0

0 1 0

-1 2 1

will result in :

(a) Scaling

(b) Translation

(c) Rotation

(d) Mirror Reflection

83. If (a,b,c) x (1,3,1) = (2,1,6) where x denotes the vector product, then (a,b,c) is given by

(a) (0,1,1)

(b) (k,0,1-k) for any real k

(c) (-1,2-7)

(d) there exists no solution

84. A line connecting the points (1,1) and (5,3) is to be drawn, using the DDA algorithm.

Find the value of x and y increments.

(a) x-increment=1 ; y-increment=1

(b) x-increment=0.5 ; y-increment=1

(c) x-increment=1 ; y-increment=0.5

(d) none of the above

85. The end points of a given line are (0,0) and (6,18). The slope and y intercept are

computed as

(a) 3,3

(b) 0,3

(c) 3,0

(d) 3, -3

86. A plan that describe how to take actions in levels of increasing refinement and specificity

is

(a) Problem solving

(b) Hierarchical plan

(c) Inheritance

(d) Planning

87. An AI technique that allows computers to understand associations and relationships

between objects and events is called:

(a) Heuristic Processing

(b) Cognitive Science

(c) Pattern Matching

(d) Relative Symbolism

88. Which value is assigned to alpha and beta in the alpha-beta pruning?

(a) Alpha=max and beta=min

(b) Alpha=max and beta=max

(c) Alpha=min and beta=max

(d) Alpha=min and beta=min

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89. Which is not a property of representation of knowledge?

(a) Representational Adequacy

(b) Inferential Adequacy

(c) Representational Verification

(d) Inferential Efficiency

90. Consider the following relational schema

Employees( id, name, dept, salary)

Managers( dept, mgr)

The Employees relation gives the employee ID, their name, department, and salary; the

second relation Managers gives for each department, which is the employee ID of the

person managing the department. We wish to constrain the relations so that in the mgr

attribute of a Managers tuple there must appear the ID of an employee in Employees.

Which of the following changes, by itself enforces the constraint?

(a) In the declaration of Managers, add for attribute mgr the attribute based check

CHECK(EXISTS(SELECT * FROM Employees where id=mgr)).

(b) In the declaration of Employees, add the constraint FOREIGN KEY id

REFERENCES Managers(mgr).

(c) In the declaration of Managers, add the constraint FOREIGN KEY mgr

REFERENCES Employees(id).

(d) More than one of the above

91. We have the relations Time_Table(a, b) and also the following trigger exists.

CREATE TRIGGER T

AFTER INSERT ON Time_Table

REFERENCING NEW ROW AS NNN

FOR EACH ROW

WHEN(NNN.a * NNN.b> 10)

INSERT INTO Time_TableVALUES(NNN.a - 1, NNN.b + 1);

Which one of the tuples below, inserted into an empty Time_table, would NOT result in

Time_Table containing exactly 3 tuples?

(a) (3,5)

(b) (4,3)

(c) (3,4)

(d) (3,8)

92. Let R(x) is the schema of relation R.

Q1: SELECT x FROM R rr WHERE NOT EXISTS (SELECT * FROM R WHERE x

>rr.x);

Q2: SELECT MAX(x) FROM R;

(a) Q1 and Q2 produce the same answer.

(b) The answer to Q1 is always contained in Q2.

(c) The answer to Q2 is always contained in Q1.

(d) Q1 and Q2 produce different answers.

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93. Consider the following two ER diagrams – ER1 and ER2

The statement that the number of entities in entity set P must be greater than or equal to

the number of entities in entity set Q holds for:

(a) ER1 but not ER2

(b) ER2 but not ER1

(c) Both ER1 and ER2

(d) Neither ER1 nor ER2

94. Which of the following statements about E/R models is/are correct?

I. Many-to-many relationships cannot be represented in E/R-diagrams

II. Relationship sets can have attributes of their own.

III. All many-to-one relationships are represented by a relationship between a weak and

a non-weak entity set.

(a) II only.

(b) III only.

(c) II and III only.

(d) I and II only.

95. An LALR(1) parser for a grammar G can have shift-reduce (S-R) conflicts if and only if

(a) The SLR(1) parser for G has S-R conflicts

(b) The LR(1) parser for G has S-R conflicts

(c) The LR(0) parser for G has S-R conflicts

(d) The LALR(1) parser for G has reduce-reduce conflicts

96. Consider the following C code segment.

for (i = 0, i<n; i++)

for (j=0; j<n; j++)

if (i%2)

x += (4*j + 5*i);

y += (7 + 4*j);

Which one of the following is false?

(a) The code contains loop invariant computation

(b) There is scope of common sub-expression elimination in this code

(c) There is scope of strength reduction in this code

(d) There is scope of dead code elimination in this code

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97. Which of the following is essential for converting an infix expression to the postfix from

efficiently?

(a) An operator stack

(b) An operand stack

(c) An operand stack and an operator stack

(d) A parse tree

98. Consider the following script:

<html>

<head><title>JavaScript</title></head>

<body>

<script language="JavaScript">

var a=80

var b=(a==80 ? "pass" :"fail");

document.write(b)

</script>

</body>

</html>

What will be the output of the above script?

(a) Pass

(b) Fail

(c) Null

(d) 80

99. Which of the following statements is false regarding “Cookies”?

(a) Cookies are programs which run in the background of the web-client

(b) Cookies have the potential of being used to violate the privacy of users

(c) Cookies are very helpful in keeping track of users in developing online shopping cart

applications, personalized portals and in advertising on web sites

(d) Cookies cannot contain more than 4Kb of data

100. Consider the following script:

<html>

<head><title>JavaScript</title></head>

<body>

<script language="JavaScript">

document.write((125/5)%12);

</script>

</body>

</html>

What would be the output of the above script?

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 2.083

(d) 3

101. From the following options indicate a correct association of the PROMPT, HEAD and

RCPT commands with protocols where they are used?

(a) HTTP, SMTP, FTP

(b) FTP, HTTP, SMTP

(c) HTTP, FTP, SMTP

(d) SMTP, HTTP, FTP

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102. Which one of the following uses UDP as the transport protocol?

(a) HTTP

(b) Telnet

(c) DNS

(d) SMTP

103. Which one of the following is a version of UDP with congestion control?

(a) datagram congestion control protocol

(b) stream control transmission protocol

(c) structured stream transport


104. In Three-Way Handshaking process, the situation where both the TCP’s issue an active

open is

(a) Mutual open

(b) Mutual Close

(c) Simultaneous open

(d) Simultaneous close

105. Which of the following is not a business risk?

(a) building an excellent product or system that no one really wants

(b) losing the support of senior management due to a change in focus or change in

people

(c) lack of documented requirements or software scope

(d) losing budgetary or personnel commitment

106. Architectural Design Metrics are ___________ in nature.

(a) Black Box

(b) Gray Box

(c) White Box

(d) Green Box

107. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,

falls under which category of software maintenance?

(a) Corrective

(b) Adaptive

(c) Perfective

(d) Preventive

108. From the following which quality deals with maintaining the quality of the software

product?

(a) Quality assurance

(b) Quality efficiency

(c) Quality control


109. Which tool consist of programming environments like IDE, in-built modules library and

simulation tools?

(a) Programming tools

(b) Web development tools

(c) Prototyping tools

(d) Design tools

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110. Which aspect is important when the software is moved from one platform to another?

(a) Maintenance

(b) Operational

(c) Transitional


111. Measure of reliability is given by ______ .

(a) Mean Time between success

(b) MTBF

(c) Mean reliable

(d) MTTR

112. Combination checks:

(a) determine data entry errors on primary keys

(b) ensure that the correct type of data is input

(c) determine whether a known relationship between two fields is valid

(d) determine whether all required fields of the input have actually been entered

113. The process of requirements discovery consists of the following activities, except

(a) sampling of existing documentation, forms and files

(b) requirements management

(c) requirements discovery

(d) problem discovery

114. Cause-and-effect analysis is performed in the following phase of systems analysis

(a) logical design phase

(b) requirements analysis phase

(c) physical design phase

(d) problem analysis phase

115. Which of the following is NOT a feasibility analysis criterion?

(a) technical feasibility

(b) resource feasibility

(c) operational feasibility

(d) economic feasibility

116. All of the following are examples of requirements problems, except

(a) missing requirements

(b) overlapping requirements

(c) costly requirements

(d) conflicting requirements

117. A complete Binary Tree with 15 nodes contains_______edges

(a) 15

(b) 30

(c) 14

(d) 16

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118. Determine the order of |V|of the graph G = (V, E) if G has 10 edges with 2 vertices of

degree 4 and all other of degree 3.

(a) 6

(b) 4

(c) 30

(d) None

119. Client and Web server have a connection of type

(a) Continuous

(b) Dependent

(c) Permanent

(d) Not Continuous

120. Which of the following statements are true?

(a) HTTP runs over TCP

(b) HTTP allows information to be stored in a URL

(c) HTTP can be used to test the validity of a hypertext link


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INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY


PAPER-II

Instructions:





wrong answer.









1. Which of the following is not a binary operation?

a) Union

b) Project

c) Set difference

d) Cartesian product

2. In ER diagram, double rectangle represents

a) Relationship set

b) Weak entity set

c) Derived attributes

d) Multivalued attributes

3. A relation that has no partial dependencies is in____________normal form

a) Second

b) Third

c) Fourth

d) BCNF

4. In RDBMS, the appropriate data structure used for internal storage organization where we

have lot of range queries is

a) B tree

b) Primary indexing structure

c) Inverted tree

d) B+ tree

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5. The following concept relates two tables in a database

a) Super key

b) Primary key

c) Foreign key

d) Candidate key

6. An example for the procedural language is

a) Relational algebra

b) Relational calculus

c) SQL

d) Domain relational calculus

7. A data dictionary doesn‘t provide information about

a) Where data is located

b) The size of the disk storage device

c) Who owns or responsible for the data

d) Security and privacy limitations

8. In RDBMS, fourth normal form deals with

a) Transitive dependencies

b) Partial dependencies

c) Functional dependencies

d) Multivalued dependencies

9. Following database constraint requires the notion of foreign key definition:

a) Domain constraint

b) Entity constraint

c) Referential integrity constraint

d) Both Entity and Key constraints

10. The number of records which can be stored in a disk block is called

a) Blocking factor

b) Sector

c) Critical sector size

d) Block sensitivity

11. Objective of normalization technique in DBMS is to

a) Remove the functional dependencies

b) Reduce the anomalies

c) Remove redundancies

d) Reduce the number of resultant relations

12. The FDs, V→Y, UY→Z infers that UV →Z. The rule used here is

a) Pseudo-transitive rule

b) Augmentation rule

c) Union rule

d) Additive rule

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13. Aspect ratio means

a) Number of pixels

b) Vertical to (horizontal + vertical) points

c) Ratio of horizontal points to vertical points

d) Both b and c

14. The quality of a picture obtained from a device depends on

a) Dot size

b) Number of dots per inch

c) Number of lines per inch

d) All of the mentioned

15. A heavy line on a video monitor could be displayed as

a) Adjacent perpendicular lines

b) Adjacent parallel lines

c) Both a and b

d) Neither a nor b

16. Why a circle drawn on the screen appears to be elliptical?

a) Screen has rectangular shape

b) It is due to the aspect ratio of monitor

c) CRT is completely spherical

d) Our eyes are not at the same level on screen

17. The projection is obtained by projecting points along parallel lines that are not

perpendicular to the projection plane is called______________

a) Cavalier projection

b) Isometric projection

c) Perspective projection

d) Oblique projection

18. Two consecutive rotation transformation R1 and R2 are

a) Additive

b) Multiplicative

c) Subtractive

d) None of above

19. A bitmap has…………bit(s) per pixels.

a) 0

b) 1

c) 2

d) 3

20. Which of the following hidden surface algorithm does not employee image space approach?

a) Depth sort method

b) Scan line method

c) Depth buffer method

d) Back face removal

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21. Which of the following unit reads each successive byte of data from the frame

buffer?

a) Display Controller

b) Digital Controller

c) Data Controller

d) All of above

22. In view plane transformation, what is the name for the distance between view plane and

view reference point?

a) Projection distance

b) Projection ray length

c) View distance


23. In which projection, as the view distance changes, there is change in the display image size?

a) Parallel projection

b) Oblique projection

c) Perfect parallel projection

d) Perspective projection

24. The optimization that is usually applied on loops is:

a) Invariant code motion

b) Peephole optimization

c) Constant folding

d) All of the above

25. Concept that is used to identify loops in compilers is:

a) Reducible Graphs

b) Dominators

c) Depth first ordering

d) All of the above

26. LR stands for

a) Left to Right derivation

b) Left to Right Reduction

c) Right to Left

d) Left to Right and Rightmost derivation in reverse

27. Grammar of the programs is checked in the phase,

a) Semantic analysis

b) Lexical analysis

c) Code motion

d) Parsing

28. Which phase of the compiler is used for grouping of characters into tokens:

a) Lexical analysis

b) Syntax analysis

c) Semantic analysis

d) Code optimization

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29. In a bottom-up evaluation of a syntax directed definition, inherited attributes can

a) always be evaluated

b) be evaluated only if the definition is L—attributed

c) be evaluated only if the definition has synthesized attributes

d) never be evaluated

30. Consider the following grammar:S->CC, C->cC|d. The grammar is

a) LL (1)

b) SLR (1) but not LL(1)

c) LALR (1) but not SLR (1

d) LR (1) but not LALR (1)

31. Which one of the following is True at any valid state in shift-reduce parsing?

a) Viable prefixes appear only at the bottom of the stack and not inside

b) Viable prefixes appear only at the top of the stack and not inside (wrong)

c) The stack contains only a set of viable prefixes

d) The stack never contains viable prefixes

32. The process of assigning load addresses to the various parts of the program and adjusting

the code and date in the program to reflect the assigned addresses is called

a) Assembly

b) Parsing

c) Relocation

d) Symbol Resolution

33. Which of the following statements is false?

a) An Unambiguous grammar has the same leftmost and rightmost derivations

b) LL(1) is a top-down parser

c) LALR is more powerful than SLR

d) An ambiguous grammar can never be LR(k) for any k

34. Which of the following describes a handle (as applicable to LR-parsing) appropriately?

a) It is the position in a sentential form where the next shift or reduce operation will occur

b) It is non-terminal whose production will be used for reduction in the next step

c) It is a production that may be used for reduction in a future step along with a position

in the sentential form where the next shiftor reduce operation will occur.

d) It is the production p that will be used for reduction in the next step along with a

position in the sentential form where the right hand side of the production may be

found

35. An LALR(1) parser for a grammar G can have shift-reduce (S-R) conflicts if and only if

a) the SLR (1) parser for G has S-R conflicts

b) the LR (1) parser for G has S-R conflicts

c) the LR(0) parser for G has S-R conflicts

d) the LALR(1) parser for G has reduce – reduce conflicts.

36. A network uses a star topology if

a) Computers are arranged in a closed loop.

b) All computers attach to a central point

c) All computers attach to a single long cable.

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d) Computers attach to multiple hierarchical cables.

37. A HTTP request is specified in the________________format.

a) Hypertext

b) ASCII

c) MIME

d) All of the above.

38. FDDI (Fiber Distributed Data Interconnect) is an example of

a) token ring

b) token bus

c) star topology

d) multipoint network

39. During data transmission, the CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check) is performed using

a) Shift register

b) XOR unit

c) Both (a) & (b)

d) Instruction register

40. Which elements are mandatory in valid XHTML document?

a) doctype, html and body

b) doctype , html, head, body, and title

c) doctype, html, head, and body

d) doctype, html

41. FTP uses _________parallel TCP connections to transfer a file

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

42. A Scripting language is

a) Assembly Level programming language

b) Machine level programming language

c) High Level Programming language

d) None of the above.

43. Network address prefixed by 1110 is a

a) Class A address

b) Multicast address

c) Class B address

d) Reserve address

44. Which of these operators can be used to get run time information about an Applet object?

a) getInfo

b) Info

c) Instanceof

d) getinfoof

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45. With reference to Internet Payment Systems, the term ―Transferability ―means

_____________

a) whether money can be taken from place to place easily.

b) whether payments can be completed without a third party

c) whether payments are anonymous.

d) Whether payment can be divided into smaller parts amounting to the whole.

46. EDIFACT is a standard

a) for representing business forms used in e-Commerce

b) for e-mail transaction for e-Commerce

c) for ftp in e-Commerce

d) protocol used in e – Commerce

47. A firewall may be implemented in

a) routers which connect intranet to internet

b) bridges used in an intranet

c) expensive modem

d) user‘s application programs

48. In Electronic cash payment

a) a customer withdraws ―coins‖ in various denominations signed by the bank

b) the bank has a database of issued coins

c) the bank has database of spent coins

d) the bank cannot trace a customer

49. Software deteriorates rather than wears out because

a) Software suffers from exposure to hostile environments

b) Defects are more likely to arise after software has been used often

c) Multiple change requests introduce errors in component interactions

d) Software spare parts become harder to order

50. Evolutionary software process models

a) Are iterative in nature

b) Can easily accommodate product requirements changes

c) Do not generally product throwaway systems


51. UML notations are used to model hardware/software elements of a system are

a) Activity diagrams

b) Class diagrams

c) Deployment diagrams

d) a, b, and c

52. UML activity diagrams are useful in representing which analysis model elements?

a) Behavioral elements

b) Class-based elements

c) Flow-based elements

d) Scenario – based elements

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53. To determine the architectural style or combination of styles that best fits the proposed

system, requirements engineering is used to uncover

a) algorithmic complexity

b) characteristics and constraints

c) control and data

d) design patterns

54. Which of the following is not an example of infrastructure components that may need to be

integrated into the software architecture?

a) Communications components

b) Database components

c) Interface components

d) Memory management component

55. Which of these is a graphical notation for depicting procedural details?

a) process diagram

b) decision table

c) ER diagram

d) Flowchart

56. The testing technique that requires devising test cases to exercise the internal logic of a

software module is called

a) behavioural testing

b) black-box testing

c) grey-box testing

d) white-box testing

57. Effective software project management focuses on four P‘s which are

a) people, performance, payoff, product

b) people, product, performance, process

c) people, product, process, project

d) people, process, payoff, product

58. Process indicators enable a software project manager to

a) assess the status of an on-going project

b) track potential risks

c) adjust work flow or tasks

d) all of the above

59. Reusable software components must be

a) Catalogued for easy reference

b) Standardized for easy application

c) Validated for easy integration


60. Which one of the following is not a business driver for an information system?

a) Business process redesign

b) Knowledge asset management

c) Proliferation of networks and the internet

d) Security and privacy

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61. Batch processing is used when-

a) response time should be short

b) data processing is to be carried out at periodic intervals

c) transactions are in batches

d) transactions do not occur periodically.

62. Which of the following is not a technology driver for an information system?

a) Enterprise applications

b) Object technologies

c) Knowledge asset management

d) Collaborative technologies

63. An information system that supports the planning and assessment needs of executive

management is

a) TPS

b) ERP

c) MIS


64. The application of information to scan an organisation‘s environment is:

a) external communication

b) information overload

c) sensing

d) internal communication

65. When a bank uses business performance management software to monitor its performance

in different regions this:

a) reduces costs

b) manages risks

c) adds value

d) creates a new opportunity

66. The general transformation cycle for information is:

a) information to data to knowledge

b) knowledge to data to information

c) data to knowledge to information


67. Which of the following should be represented on an information flow diagram?

a) Entity

b) Source

c) Process

d) Attribute

68. UML depicts information systems as a collection of:

a) Entities

b) Process

c) Information

d) Objects

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69. Which of the following is not a type of navigation system for a web site?

a) Global

b) Contextual

c) Local

d) Regional

70. Which of the following is part of a static view of information?

a) Logical data model

b) Meta data

c) Data flow model

d) Information process model

71. Which of the following is true for neural networks?

(i) The training time depends on the size of the network

(ii) Neural networks can be simulated on a conventional computer

(iii) Artificial neurons are identical in operation to biological ones

a) All of the mentioned

b) (ii) is true

c) (i) and (ii) are true

d) None of the mentioned

72. The traveling salesman problem involves n cities with paths connecting the cities. The time

taken for traversing through all the cities, without knowing in advance the length of a

minimum tour, is

a) O (n)

b) O (n2)

c) O (n!)

d) O (n/2)

73. Consider a good system for the representation of knowledge in a particular domain. What

property should it possess?

a) Representational Adequacy

b) Inferential Adequacy

c) Inferential Efficiency

d) All the above.

74. What is Transposition rule?

a) From P? Q, infer ~Q ? P

b) Form P? Q, infer Q ?~P

c) Form P? Q, infer Q ? P

d) Form P? Q, infer~Q? ~P

75. Which of the following is true in Statistical reasoning?

a) The representation is extended to allow some kind of numeric measure of

certainty to be associated with each statement

b) The representation is extended to allow ‗TRUE or FALSE to be associated with each

statement

c) The representation is extended to allow some kind of numeric measure of certainty to

be associated common to all statements.

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d) The representation is extended to allow ‗TRUE or FALSE ‗to be associated common to

all statements.

76. General algorithm applied on game tree for making decision of win/lose is

______________

a) DFS/BFS Search Algorithms

b) Heuristic Search Algorithms

c) Greedy Search Algorithms

d) MIN/MAX Algorithms

77. In language understanding, the levels of knowledge that does not include

a) Phonological

b) Syntactic

c) Semantic

d) Empirical

78. Mark two main features of Genetic Algorithm

a) Fitness function & Cross-over techniques

b) Cross-over techniques & Random mutation

c) Individuals among the population & Radom mutation

d) Random mutation & Fitness function

79. A search algorithm takes____________as an input and returns_________as an

Output.

a) Input, output

b) Problem, solution

c) Solution, problem

d) Parameters, sequence of actions

80. The major component/components for measuring the performance of problem solving

a) Completeness

b) Optimality

c) Time and Space complexity


PART-B (40X2=80 Marks)

81. Suppose R1 (A, B) and R2 (C,D) are two relation schemas. Let rl and r2 be the

corresponding relation instances. B is a foreign key that refers to C in R2. If data in r1 and

r2 satisfy referential integrity constrains, which of the following is

ALWAYS TRUE?

a) ПB(𝑟𝑙)– IIC(r2) = ∅

b) ПC(r2) – ПB (r1) =∅

c) ПB(r1) = ПC (r2)

d) ПB (r1)-ПC(r2) ≠ ∅

82. The recovery management which is not based on the system log is

a) Immediate update recovery

b) Deferred update recovery

c) Shadow paging

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d) Two phase locking

83. To construct multiple index files on different attributes of a relation, one has to go for

a) Primary indexing

b) Secondary indexing

c) Cluster indexing

d) Non-dense indexing

84. Phase Locking (2PL) protocol ensures that the transactions are executed in

a) Serializable fashion

b) Serial fashion

c) Atomic fashion

d) isolation

85. Designers use which of the following to tune performance of systems to support time-

critical operations?

a) Denormalization

b) Redundant optimization

c) Optimization

d) Realization

86. In relation algebra, the optimized version of ΠA(ΠB(Πc(R))) is

(Assume: A, B, C are attribute list with A⊂B ⊂C)

a) ΠAᴗΠBᴗΠc(R)

b)Πc (R)

c) ΠA (R)

d) ΠB (R)

87. The transformation matrix for the reflection about the line y = x is given by the matrix

a) 0 – 1

-1 0

b) 0 -1

0 1

c) 0 1

1 0

d) -1 0

0 -1

88. The 3D transformation matrix to rotate a point (x, y, z) about Y axis by an angle∅in

anticlockwise direction is given by

a) 1 0 0 0

0 cos∅sin∅ 0

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0 -sin∅ cos∅ 0

0 0 0 1

b) cos∅ 0 -sin∅ 0

0 1 0 0

sin∅ 0 cos∅ 0

0 0 0 1

c) 1 0 0 0

0 cos∅ -sin∅ 0

0 sin∅ cos∅ 0

0 0 0 1

d) cos∅ 0 sin∅ 0

0 1 0 0

-sin∅ 0 cos∅ 0

0 0 0 1

89. To fix the view plane at required position, we have to specify the viewing parameters.

To get the different orientation of the same object of interest, we need to change the

following?

a) View reference point

b) View distance

c) View up vector


90. No. of bit planes and memory size in bytes for 1024 X 1024, 256 color display is

a) 8, 1024 X 1024 X 8

b) 1024, 1024 X 1024

c) 1, 1024 X 1024 X 8


91. In Back face detection algorithm, the polygon is said to be front surface if

a) Direction of resultant vector of cross product of two edges (adjacent to each other) is

away from the viewer

b) Direction of resultant vector of cross product of two edges (adjacent to each other) is

towards the viewer

c) Sign of resultant vector of dot product of two edges (adjacent to each other) is + ive

d) Sign of resultant vector of dot product of two edges (adjacent to each other) is + ive

92. Choose the incorrect statement from the following about the basic ray tracing technique

used in image synthesis?

a) This technique removes hidden surfaces

b) In this technique, viewing transformation are not supplied to the scene prior to

rendering

c) In this technique rays are cast from the eye point through every pixel on the screen

d) In this technique rays are cast from the light source to the object in the scene

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93. The commands, from client to server, and replies, from server to client, are sent across the

control connection in ______bit ASCII format.

a) 8

b) 7

c) 3

d) 5

94. What is the output of the following JavaScript program?

var x = 0xFF;

x++;

document. write (x/4)

a) 0xFF

b) Error

c) Garbage value


95. What output do you expect if the following HTML markup is rendered?

<strong> T e s t o f s p a c e s</strong.

<strong>T e s t o f &nbps; s p a c e s</strong>

a) T e s t o f s p a c e s T e s t o f s p a c e s

b) TestofspacesTestofspaces

c) T e s t o f s p a c e s T e s t o f s p a c es


96. In a Hypertext Transaction, the term CONNECT is used for

a) Connection Generation

b) Reserved Connection

c) Connection termination

d) Active Connection

97. Consider the following code snippet –

<script type =”text/javscript”>

var x = new Array();

x[0]=‖Web‖‘

x[1] = ―Internet‖;

x[2]=‖Technology‖;

document.write (x[0,1,2]);

</script>

What is the output on the webpage?

a) Web

b) Technology

c) Web Internet Technology

d) Web, Internet, Technology

98. Which of the following JavaScript DOM event property holds the key name as a string?

a) Key/Name

b) Key

c) keyName(string)

d) NameOfKey(string)

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99. Process models are described as agile because they

a) Eliminate the need for cumbersome documentation

b) Emphasize maneuvariability and adaptability

c) Do not waste development time on planning activities

d) Make extensive use of prototype creation

100. The best way to conduct a requirements validation review is to

a) examine the system model for errors

b) have the customer look over the requirements

c) send them to the design team and see if they have any concerns

d) use a checklist of questions to examine each requirement

101. Interface consistency implies that

a) input mechanisms remain the same throughout the application

b) navigational methods are context sensitive

c) visual information is organized according to a design standard

d) both a and c

102. Which approach(es) to user task analysis can be useful in user interface design?

a) rely on the judgement of experienced programmers

b) study existing computer-based solutions

c) observe users performing tasks manually

d) both b and c

103. The cyclomatic complexity metric provides the designer with information regarding the

number of

a) Cycles in the program

b) Errors in the program

c) Independent logic paths in the program

d) Statements in the program

104. Software feasibility is based on which of the following

a) business and marketing concerns

b) scope, constraints, market

c) technology, finance, time, resources

d) technical prowess of the developers

105. Open database connectivity (OBDC) tools are an example of:

a) Layerware

b) Tool kit

c) Interfaceware

d) Middleware

106. Which one is NOT a category of problems represented by the PIECES

framework?

a) Efficiency

b) Service

c) Economics

d) Technology

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107. A cross life-cycle activity of system development is

a) Object modeling

b) Prototyping

c) Fact-finding

d) Data modelling

108. Which of the following analysis techniques derive system models from existing system

or discovery prototypes?

a) Rapid architected analysis

b) Object-oriented analysis

c) Data modeling

d) Discovery prototyping

109. A fact-finding technique that involves a large number of observations taken at random

intervals is called:

a) Randomization

b) Stratification

c) People sampling

d) Work sampling

110. A plan that describe how to take actions in levels of increasing refinement and specificity

is

a) Problem solving

b) Planning

c) Non-hierarchical plan

d) Hierarchical plan

111. Which algorithm place two actions into a plan without specifying which should come

first?

a) Full-order planner

b) Total-order planner

c) Semi-order planner

d) Partial-order planner

112. Where does the dependence of experience is reflected in prior probability sentences?

a) Syntactic distinction

b) Semantic distinction

c) Both Syntactic & Semantic distinction


113. The room temperature is hot. Here the hot (use of linguistic variable is used) can be

represented by_________

a) Fuzzy Set

b) Crisp Set

c) Fuzzy & Crisp Set


114. Which is used for utility functions in game playing algorithm?

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a) Linear polynomial

b) Weighted polynomial

c) Polynomial

d) Linear weighted polynomial

115. Computational learning theory analyses the sample complexity and computational

complexity of

a) Unsupervised Learning

b) Inductive learning

c) Forced based learning

d) Weak learning

116. Intermediate code generation phase gets input from

a) Lexical Analyzer

b) Syntax Analyzer

c) Semantic Analyzer

d) Error Handling

117. A grammar is meaningless

a) If terminal set and non terminal set are not disjoint

b) If left hand side of a production is a single terminal

c) If left hand side of a production has no non terminal

d) All the above.

118. An Optimizing Compiler is

a) Optimized to occupy less space

b) Optimized to take less time for execution

c) Optimized the code

d) None of the Above

119. A Complier is a program that

a) Places the program into memory and prepares them for execution

b) Automates the translation of assembly language into machine language

c) Accepts program written in high level language & produces an object program

d) Appears to execute a source program as if it were machine language

120. Generation of intermediate code based on abstract machine model is useful in

compilers because

a) It makes implementation of lexical analysis and syntax analysis easier

b) Syntax directed translation can be written for intermediate code generation.

c) It enhances the portability of the front end of the compiler

d) It is not possible to generate code for real machines directly from high level language

programs

-------------------------

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SOFTWARE ENGINEERING


PAPER-II

Instructions:





wrong answer.









1. Which requirement is the foundation from which quality is measured?

(a) Hardware

(b) Software

(c) Programmers


2. Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?

(a) Build & Fix Model

(b) Prototyping Model

(c) RAD Model

(d) Waterfall Model

3. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________ during the

process so that they do not become defects after release of the software.

(a) Errors

(b) equivalent faults

(c) failure cause


4. The spiral model was originally proposed by

(a) IBM

(b) Barry Boehm

(c) Pressman

(d) Royce

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5. Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on:

(a) E – errors found before software delivery

(b) D – defects found after delivery to user

(c) both E and D

(d) Varies with project

6. Which among the following is effective method for validating successful integration

(a) Test Server Component

(b) Test Client Component

(c) Test Network

(d) All the above

7. In the context of modular software design, which one of the following combinations is

desirable?

(a) High cohesion and high coupling

(b) High cohesion and low coupling

(c) Low cohesion and high coupling

(d) Low cohesion and low coupling

8. Retesting of a single program or component after a change has been made?

(a) Full Regression Testing

(b) Unit Regression

(c) Regional Regression

(d) Retesting

9. Variance from product specifications is called?

(a) Report

(b) Requirement

(c) Defect


10. Executing the same test case by giving the number of inputs on same build called as

(a) Regression Testing

(b) ReTesting

(c) Ad hoc Testing

(d) Sanity Testing

11. White box testing is not called as___________

(a) Glass box testing

(b) Closed box testing

(c) Open box testing

(d) Clear box testing

12. Software testing which is done without planning and Documentation is known as

(a) Adhoc Testing

(b) Unit Testing

(c) Regression testing

(d) Functional testing.

13. If you were to create client/server applications, which model would you go for?

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(a) WINWIN Spiral Model

(b) Spiral Model

(c) Concurrent Model

(d) Incremental Model

14. Which of the following sorting algorithms have minimum number of swaps

(a) Insertion Sort

(b) Quick Sort

(c) Selection Sort

(d) Bubble Sort

15. Which of the following is the recurrence equation for the worst case time complexity of

Quick Sort algorithm for sorting and greater than equal to 2 elements?

(a) T(n) = 2T(n/2) + n

(b) T(n) = 2T(n-1) +cn

(c) T(n) = T(n-1) + T(1) +cn

(d) T(n) =T(n/2) + cn

16. In a following recurrence equation

T(n) = 2T(n-1) +c

Which of the following is solution to above recurrence equation?

(a) θ(logn)

(b) θ (n2)

(c) θ (log n)

(d) θ (2n)

17. Consider the following recursive equation

func(n)

if(n<=2)

return;

else

func(n/2);

func(n/2);

Which of the following represents asymptotic time complexity of above recursive

equation?

(a) θ(n)

(b) θ(n2)

(c) θ(nlogn)

(d) θ(logn)

18. The height of the tree is the length of the longest root-to-leaf path in it. The maximum

and minimum number of nodes in a binary tree of height 5 is

(a) 63 and 6 respectively.

(b) 64 and 5 respectively.

(c) 32 and 6 respectively.

(d) 31 and 5 respectively.

19. Match the following

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P. Prim’s Algorithm for MST (i) Backtracking

Q. Floyd Warshall algorithm for APSP (ii) Greedy method

R. Merge Sort (iii) DynamicProgramming

S. Hamiltonian Circuit (iv) Divide and Conquer

(a) P-(iii), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(i)

(b) P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(iii)

(c) P-(ii), Q -(iii), R- (iv), S- (i)

(d) P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iii), S-(iv)

20. What is the worst case time complexity to sort ‘n’ elements by first constructing a

Binary Search Tree on those ‘n’ elements followed by an in order traversal on

the tree?

(a) Ο(n2)

(b) Ο(n log n)

(c) Ο(n2 log n)

(d) Ο(n)

21. The maximum number of nodes in Binary Search Tree of height ‘h’ which have same

inorder and preorder will be __________ (assume h = 10 and root is at height 0)

(a) 18

(b) 10

(c) 11

(d) 16

22. Let f(n) = Ω(n) and g(n) = Ω(n2). Then f(n) + g(n) is

(a) Ω(n)

(b) θ(n)

(c) Ω(n2)

(d) O(n)

23. Impact Analysis helps to decide:

(a) Different tools to perform regression testing

(b) Exit criteria

(c) How many more test cases need to written

(d) How much regression testing should be done

24. Verification is –

(a) Checking that we are building the right system

(b) Checking that we are building the system right

(c) Performed by an independent test team

(d) Making sure that it is what the user really wants

25. The main focus of acceptance testing is:

(a) Finding faults in the system

(b) Ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users

(c) Testing the system with other system

(d) Testing for a business perspective

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26. Equivalence Partitioning is –

(a) A black box testing technique used only by developers

(b) A black box testing technique that can only be used during system testing

(c) A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing

(d) A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing

27. Beta Testing is –

(a) Performed by customer at their own site

(b) Performed by customer at their software developer’s site

(c) Performed by an independent test team

(d) Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle

28. Which of the following is not a black box technique?

(a) Equivalence partitioning

(b) State transition testing

(c) Linear code sequence and jump

(d) Boundary value analysis

29. Which of the following is a major task of test planning?

(a) Determining the test approach

(b) Preparing test specifications

(c) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

(d) Measuring and analyzing results

30. Statement coverage will not check for the following:

(a) Missing statements

(b) Unused branches

(c) Dead code

(d) Unused statements

31. In which activity of the fundamental test process is the test environment set up?

(a) Test implementation and execution

(b) Test planning and control

(c) Test analysis and design

(d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

32. Which of the following would be a valid measure of test progress?

(a) Number of undetected defects

(b) Number of test cases not yet executed

(c) Total number of defects in the product

(d) Efforts to fix all defects

33. Determine the statement which holds true in case of Exploratory Testing:

(a) It starts the execution only when the design gets finalized

(b) It involves simultaneous design of the test and execution

(c) It starts the execution only when the design gets renewed

(d) It starts the execution only when the design gets amended

34. Unreachable code would best be found using:

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(a) Code reviews

(b) Code inspection

(c) A coverage tool

(d) A static analysis tool

35. Which of the following is NOT a static testing technique?

(a) Error guessing

(b) Walkthrough

(c) Data flow analysis

(d) Inspection

36. The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:

(a) Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects

(b) Re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those

tests

(c) Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier

(d) Re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment

37. A test harness is a:

(a) A high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of

the organization regarding testing

(b) A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project

(c) A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to conduct a test

(d) A set of several test cases for a component or system under test

38. Which of the following is not part of performance testing?

(a) Measuring response time

(b) Measuring transaction rates

(c) Recovery testing

(d) Simulating many users

39. Short-term scheduler

(a) Selects from processes that are ready to execute and loads them into memory for

execution.

(b) Controls the degree of multiprogramming.

(c) Needs to select between I/O bound or CPU bound processes.

(d) Executes more frequently compared to the longterm scheduler.

40. A process spends 25% of its time waiting for I/O to complete. If 3 processes in memory

at a time, then the probability of CPU time utilized (Assume all I/O operations are

overlapped) is ______.

(a) 0.984

(b) 1.023

(c) 0.831

(d) 0.842

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41. Consider a system having 10 resources of same type. Each process may need 4

resources. The maximum processes could be present for the system to be deadlock free is

_____________.

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 5

(d) 2

42. Which of the following are equal things when there is only one CPU in a system.

(a) Multiprogramming and Multitasking

(b) Multiprocessing and Multiprogramming

(c) Multitasking and Multiprocessing

(d) None of these

43. Consider the following characteristics of a disk system.

• 10 GB disk rotates at 10,000 rpm

• Data transfer rate of 107 bytes/sec

• Average seek time is 8 ms

• Block size is 32 KB

What is the average service time to retrieve a single disk block from a random location

on the disk (in ms)? _______.

(a) 13.12

(b) 15.26

(c) 14.57

(d) 14.28

44. Which of the following is not used for deadlock handling?

(a) Deadlock prevention

(b) Deadlock avoidance

(c) Deadlock detection and recovery

(d) None of these

45. Consider a page size of 1 kB and that each page table entry take 4 bytes. The number of

page tables required to map a 34bit address if every page table fits into a single page are

________.

(a) 5

(b) 3

(c) 6

(d) 7

46. When a user program calls a system call

(a) Mode changes to system mode

(b) Interrupts are enabled

(c) System call number is used to find out code in system call interrupt vector area


47. A bottom up parser generates

(a) Right most derivation

(b) Rightmost derivation in reverse

(c) Leftmost derivation

(d) Leftmost derivation in reverse

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48. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called

(a) Ambiguous

(b) Unambiguous

(c) Regular


49. The linker

(a) Is similar to interpreter

(b) Uses source code as its input

(c) Is required to create a load module


50. A latch is constructed using two cross coupled

(a) AND OR gates

(b) AND gates

(c) NAND and NOR gates

(d) NAND gates

51. Pee Hole optimization

(a) Loop Optimization

(b) Local Optimization

(c) Constant folding

(d) Data Flow analysis

52. The optimization which avoids test at every iteration is

(a) Loop unrolling

(b) Loop jamming

(c) Constant folding


53. Shift reduce parsers are

(a) Top down Parser

(b) Bottom Up parser

(c) May be top down or bottom up


54. Inherited attribute is a natural choice in

(a) Tracking declaration of a variable

(b) Correct use of L and R values

(c) All of the mentioned


55. The output of lexical analyzer is

(a) A set of regular expression

(b) Syntax tress

(c) Set of Token

(A) String of Characters

56. The output of lexical analyzer is

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(a) A set of RE

(b) Syntax Tree

(c) Set of Tokens

(d) String Character

57. For operator precedence parsing, which one is true?

(a) For all pair of non-terminal

(b) For all pair of non-terminals

(c) To delimit the handle


58. Which concept of FSA is used in the compiler?

(a) Lexical analysis

(b) Parser

(c) Code generation

(d) Code optimization

59. Which of the following derivations does a top-down parser use while parsing an input

string?

(a) Leftmost derivation

(b) Leftmost derivation in reverse

(c) Rightmost derivation

(d) Rightmost derivation in reverse

60. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

(a) Specification delays

(b) Product competition

(c) Testing

(d) Staff turnover

61. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the

costs of a software development project?

(a) travel and training costs

(b) hardware and software costs

(c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)

(d) all of the mentioned

62. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

(a) Team

(b) Project

(c) Customers

(d) project manager

63. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a

software system?

(a) Internship management

(b) Change management

(c) Version management

(d) System management

64. PM-CMM stands for

(a) people management capability maturity model

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(b) process management capability maturity model

(c) product management capability maturity model

(d) project management capability maturity model

65. Who defines the business issues that often have significant influence on the project?

(a) Practitioners

(b) Project manager

(c) Senior managers


66. Who delivers the technical skills that are necessary to engineer a product or an

application?

(a) Practitioners

(b) Project managers

(c) Senior managers


67. Which of the following is a people-intensive activity?

(a) Problem solving

(b) Organization

(c) Motivation

(d) Project management

68. Which of the following is not an approach to software cost estimation?

(a) Empirical

(b) Heuristic

(c) Analytical

(d) Critical

69. Commitments to unrealistic time and resource estimates may result in

(a) project delay

(b) poor quality work

(c) project failure


70. Repeaters operate at _________ of OSI model.

(a) Physical layer

(b) MAC layer

(c) Network layer

(d) MAC and network layer

71. IEEE 802.11 covers physical layer and

(a) Network layer

(b) Data link layer

(c) Session layer

(d) Transport layer

72. Physical layer provides

(a) Mechanical specifications of electrical connectors and cables

(b) Electrical specification of transmission line signal level

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(c) Specification for IR over optical fiber

(d) All of the above mentioned

73. In asynchronous serial communication the physical layer provides

(a) Start and stop signaling

(b) Flow control

(c) Both a and b


74. With selective repeat protocol, if the number of bits for sequence number is N bits

(a) The maximum window size 1

(b) The maximum window size is 2^N-1

(c) The maximum window size is N

(d) The maximum window size is (2^N)/2

75. The propagation delay can be reduced by using

(a) faster CPUs

(b) faster links

(c) moving content closer to its user


76. The resource needed for communication between end systems are reserved for the

duration of session between end systems in ________

(a) Packetswitching

(b) Circuitswitching

(c) Lineswitching

(d) Frequency switching

77. A local telephone network is an example of a ____________ network

(a) Packet switched

(b) Circuit switched

(c) both of the mentioned

(d) none of these

78. In message switching system, an incoming message gets __________ especially if the

required route is busy.

(a) Lost

(b) stored in a queue & retransmitted

(c) sampled

(d) Recovered

79. MAC address usually stored in

(a) RAM of computer

(b) ROM of BIOS

(c) RAM of network adapter

(d) ROM of network adapter

80. In SMTP mail transaction flow, the sender SMTP established a TCP connection with

the destination SMTP and then waits for the server to send a_________

(a) 220 service ready message

(b) 421 service not available message

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(c) Both of the above



81. The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which two models?

(a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model

(b) Linear Model & RAD Model

(c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model

(d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model

82. It is a set of levels that defines a testing maturity hierarchy

(a) TIM (Testing Improving Model)

(b) TMM (Testing Maturity Model)

(c) TQM(Total Quality Management)

(d) SCM(Software Configuration Management)

83. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the ____________________.

(a) Number of Functions

(b) Number of user inputs

(c) Number of lines of code

(d) Amount of memory usage

84. A company is developing an advance version of their current software available in the

market, what model approach would they prefer ?

(a) RAD

(b) Iterative Enhancement

(c) Both a & b

(d) Spiral

85. What are the Types of Integration Testing?

(a) Big Bang Testing

(b) Bottom Up Testing

(c) Top Down Testing

(d) All the above

86. A Non-Functional Software testing done to check if the user interface is easy to use and

understand

(a) Usability Testing

(b) Security Testing

(c) Unit testing

(d) Block Box Testing

87. This type of testing method attempts to find incorrect or missing functions, errors in data

structures or external database access, interface errors, Performance errors and

initialization and Termination errors. It is called as

(a) White Box Testing

(b) Grey Box Testing

(c) Black Box Testing

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(d) Integration Testing

88. If swap operation is very costly to implement, which of the following sorting algorithms

should be used in order to minimize the number of swap operations?

(a) Heap Sort.

(b) Selection Sort.

(c) Insertion Sort.

(d) Merge Sort.

89. Suppose the partition algorithm of quick sort always produce a 9 to1 proportional split.

Then the running time of algorithm over an unsorted array of n elements is

(a) θ(n2)

(b) O(nlog n)

(c) Ω(n2 log n)

(d) O(n)

90. Suppose there are 4 sorted lists of 8 elements each. If we merge these lists into a single

sorted list of 32 elements. The key comparisons that are needed in the worst case using

an efficient algorithm are ____.

(a) 70

(b) 78

(c) 61

(d) 75

91. Consider the following graph G.

What is the number of minimum cost spanning trees using kruskal’s algorithm or prim’s

algorithm.

(a) 3

(b) 5

(c) 7

(d) 4

92. Consider the hashing table with ‘m’ slots and ‘n’ keys. If the expected numberof probes

in unsuccessful search is 3. The expected number of probes in a successful search is?

(a) 3.0

(b) 2.56

(c) 1.647

(d) 4

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93. A graph G is such that every vertex is connected to every other vertex viadirect link. We

need to find shortest path between two vertices using Bellmanford algorithm. How much

time does it take?

(a) O(V2 log V)

(b) O(V2)

(c) O(V3)

(d) (V + E) log V

94. Choose the true statement.

(a) Preorder traversal of tree resembles the depth first search of the graph.

(b) Inorder traversal of tree resembles the breadth first search of the graph.

(c) Post order traversal of the tree resembles breadth first search of the graph.

(d) Level order traversal of the tree resembles the breadth first search of thegraph.

95. Which of the following statements is/are true?

S1: Heap sort is based on the selection method.

S2: Insertion sort is best when the best cases of input are considered (forcomparison

based algorithms)

(a) Only S2

(b) Only S1

(c) Both S1 and S2

(d) Neither S1 nor S2

96. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then ___________.

(a) We cannot run the test.

(b) It may be difficult to repeat the test.

(c) It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.

(d) We cannot automate the user inputs.

97. A test technique that involves testing with various ranges of valid and invalid inputs of a

particular module or component functionality extensively is ___________.

(a) Gorilla Testing

(b) Monkey Testing

(c) Agile Testing

(d) Baseline Testing

98. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

(a) Priority of that bug may low.

(b) Lack of time for the release.

(c) The bug may not be the major effect in the software.

(d) Data may be unavailable.

99. Which Testing is performed first?

(a) Black box testing

(b) White box testing

(c) Dynamic testing

(d) Static testing

100. Verification and Validation uses _________.

(a) Internal and External resources respectively.

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(b) Internal resources only.

(c) External resources only.

(d) External and Internal resources respectively.

101. Testing beyond normal operational capacity is __________.

(a) Load testing

(b) Performance testing

(c) Stress testing

(d) All of these.

102. The expected result of the software is _______________.

(a) Only important in system testing

(b) Only used in component testing

(c) Most useful when specified in advance

(d) Derived from the code.

103. A tester is executing a test to evaluate and it complies with the user requirement for a

certain field is populated by using a dropdown box containing a list of values, at that

time tester is performing _________.

(a) White-box Testing

(b) Black-box Testing

(c) Load Testing

(d) Regression Testing

104. Which testing focuses on heavily testing of one particular module?

(a) Gorilla Testing

(b) Fuzz Testing

(c) Inter-Systems Testing

(d) Breadth Testing

105. Which testing cannot be performed on first build of the software?

(a) Regression testing

(b) Retesting.

(c) Sanity testing

(d) All of these

106. Assume that there are 2 independent processes which are in memory and each process

spends a fraction1/2 of its time waiting for I/O to complete. Each process requires 4

minutes of CPU time. The utilization of CPU in percentage is _______.

(a) 60

(b) 65

(c) 70

(d) 75

107. A system has 7 identical resources and n process competing for them. Each process can

request atmost 3 resources. The minimum possible value of N which lead to dead lock is

_________.

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

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108. Consider a disk head with 500 tracks numbered 0499 is currently on 60. The following

sequence of requests arrive: 170, 37, 98, 122, 53, 14, 39, 28 Total head movements

needed to satisfy these requests with SSTF scheduling algorithm is ______.

(a) 216

(b) 232

(c) 264

(d) 256

109. What will be the space required to store the bit map of 2 GB disk with 128 byte block

size? (Assume main memory is byte addressable)

(a) 2MB

(b) 6MB

(c) 4 MB

(d) 16 MB

110. A Computer system implements 8 kilobyte pages and a 36bit physical address space.

Each page table entry contains a valid bit, and the translation. If the maximum size of the

page table of a process is 96 megabytes, then what will the length of the virtual address

supported by the system (in bits)?

(a) 35

(b) 38

(c) 37

(d) 39

111. Which of the following statement is false in the context of the allocation methods?

(a) Contiguous file allocation leads to external fragmentation.

(b) Linked allocation supports random access to disk block.

(c) Linked allocation does not exhibit external fragmentation.

(d) In indexed file allocation, for each file one block is used as an index to store block

pointers.

112. Which of the following actions an operator precedence parser may take to recover from

an error?

(a) Insert symbols onto the stack

(b) Delete symbols from the stack

(c) Inserting or deleting symbols from the input


113. Compute E.value for the root of the parse tree for the expression:2 # 3 & 5 # 6 &4.

(a) 200

(b) 180

(c) 160

(d) 40

114. What is the maximum number of reduce moves that can be taken by a bottom-up parser

for a grammar with no epsilon- and unit-production to parse a string with n tokens?

(a) n/2

(b) n-1

(c) 2n-1

(d) 2^n

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115. YACC builds up

(a) SLR parsing table

(b) Canonical LR parsing table

(c) LALR parsing table


116. The construction of the canonical collection of the sets of LR (1) items are similar to the

construction of the canonical collection of the sets of LR (0) items. Which is an

exception?

(a) Closure and goto operations work a little bit different

(b) Closure and goto operations work similarly

(c) Closure and additive operations work a little bit different

(d) Closure and associatively operations work a little bit different

117. The amount of time required to read a block of data from a disk into memory is

composed of seek time, rotational latency, and transfer time. Rotational latency refers to

______

(a) The time it takes for the platter to make a full rotation

(b) The time it takes for the read-write head to move into position over the appropriate

track

(c) The time it takes for the platter to rotate the correct sector under the head


118. Function of the storage assignment is

(a) Assign storage to all variables referenced in the source program

(b) Assign storage to all temporary locations that are necessary for intermediate results

(c) Assign storage to literals, and to ensure that the storage is allocated and appropriate

locations are initialized


119. A non relocatable program is the one which

(a) Cannot execute in any area of storage other than the one designated

(b) Consists of a program and information for its relocation

(c) None of the mentioned


120. A relocatable program form is one which

(a) Cannot execute in any area of storage other than the one designated

(b) Consists of a program and information for its relocation

(c) None of the mentioned


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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING


PAPER-II

Instructions:





wrong answer.









1. For a measuring instrument, a set of repeated measurements had a low spread of values,

the instrument is of

(a) High accuracy

(b) Low accuracy

(c) High precision

(d) Low precision

2. A 0-160 V voltmeter has an accuracy of 1% of full scale reading. The voltage is 80 V. the

limiting error is

(a) 1%

(b) 2%

(c) 2.5%

(d) 3%

3. A 0-50 A moving coil ammeter has a voltage drop of 0.1 V across its terminals at full

scale deflection. The shunt resistance needed to extend its range to 0-500 A is

(a) 0.20 mΩ

(b) 0.22 mΩ

(c) 0.1 Ω

(d) 0.11 mΩ

4. Energy meter is

(a) An indicating instrument

(b) A recording instrument

(c) An integrating instrument

(d) None of these

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5. The Q-meter works on the principle of

(a) Series resonance

(b) Parallel resonance

(c) Mutual inductance

(d) Self-inductance

6. Megger is an instrument used for measurement of

(a) Leakage current

(b) Medium resistance

(c) Low resistance

(d) High resistance and insulation resistance

7. A sinusoidal voltage of 230 V rms, 50 Hz is connected to a half wave rectifier type

ammeter and offers a resistance of 30 Ω to the flow of current. The current recorded by

the ammeter is

(a) 2.95 A

(b) 3.45 A

(c) 7.67 A

(d) 10.35 A

8. A thermistor with increase in temperature exhibits

(a) Only negative change of resistance

(b) Only positive change of resistance

(c) Based on material used, can exhibit either positive or negative change of resistance


9. A piezo-electric crystal used to measure force has its dimensions as 10 mm x 10 mm x 3

mm and a voltage sensitivity of 0.11 Vm/N. if the voltage developed is 200 V, the force

across the crystal would be

(a) 60 µN

(b) 60 N

(c) 60 kN

(d) 60MN

10. In a semiconductor strain gauge, the change in resistance on application of strain is

mainly due to change in

(a) Length

(b) Diameter

(c) Length and diameter

(d) Resistivity

11. In an oscilloscope screen, the linear sweep is applied at the

(a) Both horizontal and vertical axis

(b) Vertical axis

(c) Horizontal axis

(d) Origin

12. The power consumed by a balanced 3-phase 3-wire load is measured by the two-

wattmeter method. The first wattmeter reads twice that of the second. Then the load

impedance angle in radians is

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(a) π/12

(b) π/8

(c) π/6

(d) π/3

13. Total instantaneous power supplied by a three-phase AC supply to a balanced R-L load is

(a) Zero

(b) Constant

(c) Pulsating with zero average

(d) Pulsating with non-zero average

14. When two voltages having the same frequency and equal magnitude but with a phase

difference of 90° is applied to a CRO, the trace on the screen is a

(a) Circle

(b) Ellipse

(c) Oval

(d) Straight line

15. The range of measuring temperature for which radiation pyrometers are used would be

(a) 0 to 500°C

(b) 1200 to 2500°C

(c) 500 to 1000°C

(d) -250°C to 500°C

16. In eddy current damping system, the disc employed should be of

(a) Conducting and magnetic material

(b) Conducting but non-magnetic material

(c) Magnetic but non-conducting material

(d) Non-conducting and non-magnetic material

17. The octal equivalent of AB.CD hex is

(a) 253.314

(b) 526.632

(c) 526.314

(d) 253.632

18. The universal gates are

(a) NAND and NOR

(b) AND, OR, NOT

(c) X-OR and X-NOR

(d) All of these

19. The totem pole in standard TTL refers to

(a) Output buffer

(b) Input emitter voltage

(c) Open collector output stage

(d) Phase splitter

20. The minimum number of two-input NAND gates required to implement A X-NOR B, if

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only A and B are available, are

(a) 6

(b) 3

(c) 5

(d) 4

21. The highest noise margin is offered by

(a) TTL

(b) ECL

(c) I2L

(d) CMOS

22. A JK flip flop can be converted to T flip flop by connecting

(a) Both J and K inputs to T

(b) 𝑄 to 0

(c) 0 to 𝑄

(d) 0 to Q

23. A divide by 50 counter can be realized by using

(a) 5 number of MOD-10 counter

(b) 10 number of MOD-5 counter

(c) One MOD-5 counter followed by one MOD-10 counter

(d) 10 number of MOD-10 counter

24. A digital to analog converter with a full-scale output voltage of 3.5 V has a resolution

close to 20 mV. The bit size is

(a) 4

(b) 8

(c) 16

(d) 32

25. Mason’s rule is applied to

(a) Signal flow graph

(b) Block diagram reduction technique

(c) Hydraulic system

(d) Rotational system

26. A DeMUX may be changed to a decoder by

(a) Input be left unconnected and select lines used as input to decoder

(b) Input should always be 0 and select lines behave as input to decoder

(c) Both are same

(d) Input should become enable and select lines behave as inputs to the decoder

27. The binary number 110011 is to be converted to gray code. The number of gates and type

required are

(a) 6, AND

(b) 6, XNOR

(c) 6, XOR

(d) 5, XOR

28. The type number of the control system given by G(s)H(s)=K(s+2)/s(s2+2s+3) is

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(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

(d) Four

29. The ratio of damped frequency to natural frequency of the given system having damping

factor ξ is

(a) 1/ξ

(b) ξ

(c) ξ2

(d) (1- ξ2 )

1/2

30. The output of first order hold between two consecutive sampling instances is a

(a) Constant

(b) Quadratic equation

(c) Ramp function

(d) Exponential function

31. The transfer function of a system is given as 100/(s2+20s+100). The system is

(a) An overdamped system

(b) An underdamped system

(c) A critically damped system

(d) An unstable system

32. What is the value of k for a unity feedback system with G(s)=k/s(s+1) to have a peak

overshoot of 50%

(a) 0.53

(b) 5.3

(c) 0.6

(d) 0.047

33. What is the nature of the system in terms of stability for which the unit step response is

given by [1-e-t(1+t)] u(t).

(a) Unstable

(b) Stable

(c) Critically stable

(d) Oscillatory

34. The transfer function of a linear control system is given by G(s)= 100

(s+15)/s(s+4)(s+10). In its Bode diagram, the value of gain for ω = 0.1 rad/sec is

(a) 20 db

(b) 40 db

(c) 60 db

(d) 80 db

35. Using Routh’s criterion, the number of roots in the right half of the s-plane for the

characteristic equation s4+2s

3+2s

2+3s+6=0

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

(d) Four

36. Root locus of s(s+2)+k(s+4)=0 is a circle. What are the coordinates of the centre of this

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circle?

(a) -2, 0

(b) -3, 0

(c) -4, 0

(d) -5, 0

37. How can the steady state error in a system be reduced?

(a) By decreasing the type of system

(b) By increasing system gain

(c) By decreasing the static error constant

(d) By increasing the input

38. For type-2 system, the steady state error due to ramp input is equal to

(a) Zero

(b) Finite constant

(c) Infinite

(d) Indeterminate

39. What is the gain margin of a system when the magnitude of the polar plot at phase

crossover is ‘a’?

(a) 1/a

(b) -a

(c) Zero

(d) A

40. If the Nyquist plot cuts the negative real axis at a distance of 0.4, then the gain margin of

the system is

(a) 0.4

(b) -0.4

(c) 4%

(d) 2.5

41. Addition of zeros in a transfer function causes

(a) Lead compensation

(b) Lag compensation

(c) Lead-lag compensation

(d) None of these

42. Backlash in a stable control system may cause

(a) Underdamping

(b) Overdamping

(c) High level oscillations

(d) Low level oscillations

43. The number of address pins of 8085 required to interface it with 16kB of memory

following absolute decoding is

(a) 16

(b) 14

(c) 8

(d) 4

44. The number of clock cycles required to execute PUSH H instruction is

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(a) 4

(b) 7

(c) 9

(d) 10

45. The addressing mode used by LXI H, 1234H is

(a) Register direct, immediate

(b) Register indirect, register direct

(c) Only immediate

(d) Only register direct

46. Serial input data of 8085 can be loaded in to accumulator by

(a) Executing a RIM instruction

(b) Executing a SIM instruction

(c) Executing RST1

(d) None of these

47. State which of the following statements are false for instruction queue

(a) It stores instructions

(b) It is maintained in FIFO structure

(c) It only stores instructions when more than one registers of queue is empty

(d) It is a part of execution unit

48. The value of AX after following codes are executed becomes

MOV CL, 04H

MOV AL, 32H

MOV AH, AL

SHR AH, CL

ANI AL, 0FH

AAD

(a) 0020H

(b) 0023H

(c) 0302H

(d) 3020H

49. In 8086 microprocessor which one of the following instructions is not executed after an

arithmetic operation

(a) AAS

(b) AAM

(c) DAS

(d) AAD

50. The maximum baud rate achievable in mode 2 of 8051 operated with a 6MHz clock is

(a) 6 Mbps

(b) 93.75 kbps

(c) 187.5 kbps

(d) 1 Mbps

51. TF1 flag has to be manually reset when

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(a) Timer 1 interrupt is disabled

(b) Timer 1 interrupt is enabled

(c) Timer overflow occurs

(d) In polling mode and timer 0 overflow occurs

52. Power transmission lines are transposed to reduce

(a) Skin effect

(b) Ferranti effect

(c) Transmission loss

(d) Interference with neighbouring communication lines.

53. A three-phase balanced load with 0.707 power factor is connected to a balanced supply.

The power consumed by the load is 5 kW. The power measured by the two-wattmeter

method. The readings of the two-wattmeter are

(a) 3.94 kW and 1.06 kW

(b) 2.50 kW and 2.50 kW

(c) 5.00 kW and 0.00 kW

(d) 2.96 kW and 2.04 kW

54. A power system has 100 buses including 10 generator buses. For the load flow analysis

using Newton-Raphson method in polar coordinates, the size of the Jacobian is

(a) 189 x 189

(b) 100 x 100

(c) 90 x 90

(d) 180 x 180

55. The inductance and capacitance of a 400 kV, 3-phase, 50 Hz lossless transmission line are

1.6 mH/km/phase and 10 nF/km/phase respectively. The sending end voltage is

maintained at 400 kV. To maintain a voltage of 400 kV at the receiving end, when the line

is delivering 300MW load, the shunt compensation required is

(a) Capacitive

(b) Inductive

(c) Resistive

(d) Zero

56. A single-phase 100 kVA, 1000 V/100 V, 50 Hz transformer has a voltage drop of 5%

across its series impedance at full load. Of this, 3% is due to resistance. The percentage

regulation of the transformer at full load with 0.8 lagging power factor is

(a) 4.8

(b) 6.8

(c) 8.8

(d) 10.8

57. Two wattmeter method is used for measurement of power in a balanced three-phase load

supplied from a balanced three-phase system. If one of the wattmeter reads half of the

other (both positive), then the power factor of the load is

(a) 0.532

(b) 0.632

(c) 0.707

(d) 0.866

58. A 1000 x 1000 bus admittance matrix for an electric power system has 8000 non-zero

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elements. The minimum number of branches (transmission lines and transformers) in this

system are

(a) 3500

(b) 7000

(c) 1000

(d) 4000

59. A single-phase load is supplied by a single-phase voltage source. If the current flowing

from the load to the source is 10∟-150° A and if the voltage at the load terminals is

100∟60° V, then the

(a) Load absorbs real power and delivers reactive power

(b) Load absorbs real and reactive powers

(c) Load delivers real and reactive powers

(d) Load delivers real power and absorbs reactive power

60. The angle δ in the swing equation of a synchronous generator is the

(a) Angle between stator voltage and current

(b) Angular displacement of the rotor with respect to stator

(c) Angular displacement of the stator mmf with respect to a synchronously rotating

axis

(d) Angular displacement of an axis fixed to the rotor with respect to a synchronously

rotating axis

61. With the help of a reactive compensator, it is possible to have

(a) Constant voltage operation only

(b) Unity p.f. operation only

(c) Both constant voltage and unity p.f.

(d) Either constant voltage or unity p.f.

62. Bus admittance matrix is a

(a) Full matrix

(b) Sparse matrix

(c) Diagonal matrix

(d) Rectangular matrix

63. Equal area criterion is useful for the determination of

(a) Steady state stability

(b) Transient stability of two-machine power system

(c) Transient stability of multi-machine power system

(d) Both steady state and transient stability of multi-machine power system

64. A lossless transmission line having surge impedance loading (SIL) of 2280 MW. A series

capacitive compensation of 30% is placed. Then SIL, of the compensated transmission

line will be

(a) 1835 MW

(b) 2280 MW

(c) 2725 MW

(d) 3257 MW

65. The Gauss Seidel load flow method has following disadvantages. Identify the incorrect

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statement.

(a) Unreliable convergence

(b) Slow convergence

(c) Choice of slack bus affects convergence

(d) A good initial guess for voltage is essential for convergence

66. A balanced delta connected load of (8+j6) Ω per phase is connected to a 400 V, 50 Hz, 3-

phase supply lines. If the input power factor is to be improved to 0.9 by connecting a bank

of star connected capacitors, the required kVAR of the bank is

(a) 42.7

(b) 10.2

(c) 28.8

(d) 39.4

67. A 800 kV transmission line is having per phase line inductance of 1.1 mH/km and per

phase line capacitance of 11.78 nF/km. Ignoring the length of the line, its ideal power

transfer capability in MW is

(a) 1204 MW

(b) 1504 MW

(c) 2085 MW

(d) 2606 MW

68. A 50 Hz, 4-pole, 500 MVA, 22 kV turbo-generator is delivering rated MVA at 0.8 p.f.

Suddenly a fault occurs, reducing its power output by 40%. Neglect losses and assume

constant power input to the shaft. The accelerating torque in the generator in MNm at the

fault will be

(a) 1.528

(b) 1.018

(c) 0.840

(d) 0.509

69. Consider a long 2-wire line composed of solid round conductors. The radius of both

conductors is 0.25 cm and the distance between their centres is 1 m. If this distance is

doubled, then the inductance per unit length

(a) Doubles

(b) Halves

(c) Increases but does not double

(d) Decreases but does not become half

70. Bundled conductors are mainly used in high voltage overhead transmission lines to

(a) Reduce transmission line losses

(b) Increase mechanical strength of the line

(c) Reduce corona

(d) Reduce sag

71. The insulation strength of an EHV transmission line is mainly governed by

(a) Load power factor

(b) Switching over-voltage

(c) Harmonics

(d) Corona

72. For a fully transposed transmission line

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(a) Positive, negative and zero sequence impedances are equal

(b) Positive and negative sequence impedances are equal

(c) Positive and zero sequence impedances are equal

(d) Negative and zero sequence impedances are equal

73. Let X(z) = 1/ (1-z-3

) be the z transform of a causal signal x[n]. then the values of x[2] and

x[3] are

(a) 0 and 0

(b) 0 and 1

(c) 1 and 0

(d) 1 and 1

74. The initial and final values of z-domain signal given by 2z-1

/(1-1.8z-1

+0.8z-2

) are

(a) 10, 1

(b) 1, 10

(c) 0, 10

(d) 0, infinity

75. The minimum number of samples required to correctly describe x(t)=10 cos 4πt + 4 sin

8πt

(a) 4 samples per second

(b) 2 samples per second

(c) 8 samples per second

(d) 16 samples per second

76. Interpolation is the process of

(a) Inserting N-1 unity sequence values to x[n]

(b) Inserting N-1 zero sequence values to x[n]

(c) Deleting N-1 unity sequence values from x[n]

(d) Deleting N-1 zero sequence values from x[n]

77. A signal is processed by a causal filter with transfer function G(s). for distortion free

output signal waveform, G(s) must

(a) Provide zero phase shift for all frequencies

(b) Provide constant phase shift for all frequencies

(c) Provide linear phase shift that is proportional to frequency

(d) Provide a phase shift that is inversely proportional to frequency

78. z-transform of u[n+1] is

(a) z/(z-1)

(b) z2/(z-1)

(c) z-1

/(1-z-1

)

(d) 1/(z-1

+z-2

)

79. Two discrete time system with impulse response h1(n)=δ[n-1], h2(n)= δ[n-2] are

connected in cascade, the overall impulse response of the cascaded system is

(a) δ[n-1]

(b) δ[n-2]

(c) δ[n-3]

(d) δ[n-4]

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80. The transfer function of a system is H(z)=1-3z-1

, the system response for input x[n] is

(a) x[n]-0.3x[n-1]

(b) x[n]+0.3x[n-1]

(c) x[n]-3x[n+1]

(d) x[n]-3x[n-1]


81. A 3½ digit voltmeter having a resolution of 100 mV can be used to measure maximum

voltage of

(a) 100V

(b) 200V

(c) 1000V

(d) 5000V

82. Two resistors R1=36 Ω and R2=75 Ω, each having tolerances of ±5% are connected in

series. The value of the resultant resistance will be

(a) 111 ± 0 Ω

(b) 111 ± 2.778 Ω

(c) 111 ± 5.55 Ω

(d) 111 ± 7.23 Ω

83. What is the effect of inductance in the pressure coil on performance of a dynamometer

type wattmeter?

(a) It reads low on lagging power factor and high on leading power factor

(b) It reads high on lagging power factor and low on leading power factor

(c) Its reading is not affected at all

(d) It always reads low

84. Consider the signal Vm sin 100t + 2Vm sin 200t to be sampled and stored in a data

acquisition system. The same is to be extracted off-line later on. In order to extract the

signal effectively, the original sampling frequency has to be

(a) 100 rad/s

(b) 200 rad/s

(c) 210 rad/s

(d) 300 rad/s

85. Which one of the following methods decreases the error due to connections in a

dynamometer type Wattmeter?

(a) Using bifilar compensating winding in place of current coil

(b) Using non-inductive pressure coil circuit

(c) Using a capacitor across a part of high resistance of pressure coil circuit

(d) Using a swamping resistance

86. A Wien-bridge is used to measure the frequency of the input signal. However, the input

signal has 10% third harmonic distortion. Specifically, the signal is 2 sin 400 wt + 0.2 sin

1200 wt. With this input the balance will

(a) Lead to a null indication and setting will correspond to a frequency of 200Hz

(b) Lead to a null indication and setting will correspond to 260Hz

(c) Lead to a null indication and setting will correspond to 400Hz

(d) Not lead to a null indication

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87. A resistance wire strain gauge with gauge factor of 2 is bounded to a steel structural

member subjected to a tensile stress of 100 mega N/m2. The modulus of elasticity of steel

is 200 Giga N/m2. The percentage change in gauge resistance due to the applied stress is

(a) 0.1

(b) 0.2

(c) 0.4

(d) 0.5

88. The surge impedance of a 3-phase, 400 kV transmission line is 400 Ω. The surge

impedance loading (SIL) is

(a) 400 MW

(b) 100 MW

(c) 1600 MW

(d) 200 MW

89. An alternator of 300 kW is driven by a prime mover of speed 4% and another alternator of

220 kW driven by a prime mover of speed regulation 3%. The total load they can take is

(a) 500 kW

(b) 567 kW

(c) 425 kw

(d) 257 kW

90. The severity of line to ground and three phase faults at the terminals of an unloaded

synchronous generator is to be same. If the terminal voltage is 1.0 pu, Z1=Z2=j0.1 pu and

Z0=j0.05 pu for the alternator, then the required inductive reactance for neutral grounding

is

(a) 0.0166 pu

(b) 0.05 pu

(c) 0.1 pu

(d) 0.15 pu

91. The zero sequence current of a generator for line to ground is j2.4 p.u. then the current

through the neutral during the fault is

(a) j2.4 p.u.

(b) j0.8 p.u.

(c) j7.2 p.u.

(d) j0.24 p.u.

92. In a 100 bus power system, there are 10 generators. In a particular iteration of Newton-

Raphson load flow technique (in polar coordinates), two of the PV buses are converted to

PQ type. In this iteration

(a) The number of unknown voltage angles increases by two and the number of

unknown voltage magnitudes increases by two.

(b) The number of unknown voltage angles remains unchanged and the number of

unknown voltage magnitudes increases by two.

(c) The number of unknown voltage angles increases by two and the number of

unknown voltage magnitudes decreases by two.

(d) The number of unknown voltage angles remains unchanged and the number of

unknown voltage magnitudes decreases by two.

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93. The complex power consumed by a constant voltage load given by (P1+jQ1), where

1kW≤P1≤1.5kW and 0.5kVAR≤Q1≤1kVAR. A compensating shunt capacitor is

connected such that |Q|≤0.25kVAR, where Q is the net reactive power consumed by the

capacitor load combination. The reactive power (in kVAR) supplied by the capacitor is

(a) 0.75 kVAR (lagging)

(b) 0.75 kVAR (leading)

(c) 1.25 kVAR (lagging)

(d) 1.25 kVAR (leading)

94. 2’s compliment of 10101011 is

(a) 01010101

(b) 00111100

(c) 10101011

(d) 10101100

95. Decimal 18.293 when converted in to 10’s complement will become

(a) 81.707

(b) 81.700

(c) 81.777

(d) 81.077

96. 10 in BCD is represented as

(a) 10100

(b) 1100

(c) 010111

(d) None of these

97. A memory system has a total of 8 memory chips, each with 12 address lines and 4 data

lines. The total size of the memory system is

(a) 16 kbytes

(b) 32 kbytes

(c) 48 kbytes

(d) 64 kbytes

98. Following Boolean expression

𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 + 𝑑 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 simplifies as

(a) 1

(b) 𝑎. 𝑏 (c) a.b

(d) 0

99. In an 8085 microprocessor, after execution of following instructions, XRA A; MVIB

F0H; SUB B; the contents of the accumulator will become

(a) 01 H

(b) 0F H

(c) F0 H

(d) 10 H

100. When the program is being executed in an 8085 microprocessor, its program counter

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contains

(a) The memory address of the instruction that is being currently executed

(b) The memory address of the instruction that is to be executed next

(c) The number of instructions in the current program that have already been executed

(d) The total number of instructions in the program being executed

101. The open loop DC gain of a unity negative feedback system with closed loop transfer

function (s+4)/(s2+7s +13) is

(a) 4/13

(b) 4/9

(c) 4

(d) 13

102. The unit step response of a system starting from rest is given by x(t)=1-e-2t

for t ≥ 0. The

transfer function of the system is

(a) 1/(1+2s)

(b) 2/(2+s)

(c) 1/(2+s)

(d) 2s/(1+2s)

103. The unit impulse response of a system is h(t)=e-t

, t ≥ 0. For this system, the steady state

value of the output for unit step input is equal to

(a) -1

(b) 0

(c) 1

(d) Infinite

104. A critically damped, continuous- time, second order system, when sampled, will have (in

Z domain)

(a) A simple pole

(b) Double pole on real axis

(c) Double pole on imaginary axis

(d) A pair of complex conjugate poles

105. The gain margin of the system G(s)H(s)=100/s(s+10)2 under closed loop unity negative

feedback is

(a) 0 dB

(b) 20 dB

(c) 26 dB

(d) 46 dB

106. For a second order system, damping ratio (ξ) is 0<ξ<1 , then the roots of the characteristic

polynomial are

(a) Real but not equal

(b) Real and equal

(c) Complex conjugates

(d) Imaginary

107. The final value theorem is used to find the

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(a) Steady state value of the system output

(b) Initial value of the system output

(c) Transient behavior of the system output

(d) None of these

108. Consider a feedback control system with loop transfer function

G(s)H(s) = K(1+0.5s) /s(1+s)(1+2s). the type of the closed loop system is

(a) Zero

(b) One

(c) Two

(d) Three

109. Consider a system with transfer function F(s)=(s+6)/Ks2+s+6). Its damping ratio will be

0.5 when the value of K is

(a) 2/6

(b) 3

(c) 1/6

(d) 6

110. A negative-feedback closed-loop system is supplied to an input of 5 V. The system has a

forward gain of 1 and a feedback gain of 1. What is the output voltage?

(a) 1.0 V

(b) 1.5 V

(c) 2.0 V

(d) 2.5 V

111. The unit impulse response of a system is f(t)=e-t, t ≥ 0. For this system, the steady state


(a) -1

(b) 0

(c) 1

(d) ∞

112. Assertion (A): Feedback control system offer more accurate control over open-loop

systems.

Reason (R): The feedback path establishes a link for input and output comparison and

subsequent error correction

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

113. A lead compensator network includes a parallel combination of R and C in the feed

forward path. If the transfer function of the compensator is Gc(s)=(s+2)/(s+4), the value of

RC is

(a) Zero

(b) 0.1

(c) 0.5

(d) 1

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114. In a Bode magnitude plot, which one of the following slopes would be exhibited at high

frequencies by a 4th

order all pole system?

(a) -80 dB/decade

(b) -40 dB/decade

(c) +40 dB/decade

(d) +80 dB/decade

115. A PD controller is used to compensate a system. Compared to the uncompensated system,

the compensated system has

(a) A higher type number

(b) Reduced damping

(c) Higher noise amplification

(d) Largertransientovershoot

116. Let x(t)↔X(jω) be Fourier Transform pair. The Fourier Transform of the signal x(5t-3) in

terms of X(jω) is given as

(a) 15e-j3ω/5

X(jω/5)

(b) 15ej3ω/5

X(jω/5)

(c) 15e-j3ω

X(jω/5)

(d) 15ej3ω

X(jω/5)

117. Let g(t)=exp(-πt2) and h(t) is filter matched to g(t). if g(t) is applied as input to h(t), then

the Fourier transform of the output is

(a) exp(-πt2)

(b) exp(-πf2/2)

(c) exp(-π|f|)

(d) exp(-2πf2)

118. Let x(n)=(1/2)n u(n), y(n)=x

2(n) and Y(e

jω) be the Fourier Transform of y(n). then y(e

j0) is

(a) ¼

(b) 2

(c) 4/3

(d) 4

119. Two of the angular frequencies at which its Fourier transform becomes zero are

(a) π, 2π

(b) 0.5 π, 1.5π

(c) 0, π

(d) 2π, 2.5π

120. Which of the following signal is non periodic

(a) S(t)= cos2t + cos3t + cos5t

(b) S(t)=exp(j8πt)

(c) S(t)=exp(-7t) sin10πt

(d) S(t)= cos2t cos4t

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ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING


PAPER-II

Instructions:





wrong answer.









1. How many time base circuits does a dual trace CRO has

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

2. The principle of operation of an LVDT is based on variation of

(a) Self-inductance

(b) Mutual inductance

(c) Reluctance

(d) Permeance

3. The input impedance of CRO is nearly

(a) Zero

(b) Around 10 ohms

(c) Around 100 ohms

(d) Around 1 Mega ohms

4. Which one of the following has the highest accuracy ?

(a) Standard resistance

(b) Standard inductance

(c) Standard capacitance

(d) Standard mutual inductance

5. Which meter has the highest accuracy

(a) PMMC

(b) Moving iron

(c) Electro-dynamo meter

(d) Rectifier

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6. In microwave telemetry, repeater stations are required at every

(a) 2km

(b) 5km

(c) 40km

(d) 100km

7. Schering bridge can be used to measure

(a) Capacitance and its power factor

(b) ‘Q’ of a coil

(c) Inductance and its ‘Q’ value

(d) Very small resistance

8. Pair of active transducer is

(a) Thermistor, solar cell

(b) Thermocouple, thermistor

(c) Thermocouple, solar cell

(d) Solar cell, LVDT

9. When testing a coil having a resistance of 10 ohm, resonance occurred when the oscillator

frequency was 10MHz and the rotating capacitor was set at 500/2πpF. The effective value

of the Q of the coil is

(a) 20

(b) 254

(c) 314

(d) 542

10. A first order instrument is characterized by

(a) Time constant only

(b) Static sensitivity and time constant

(c) Static sensitivity and damping coefficient

(d) Static sensitivity, damping coefficient and natural frequency of oscillations

11. The minimum number of wattmeter (s) required to measure 3-phase, 3-wire balanced and

unbalanced power is

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

12. The sensitivity of voltmeter using 0 to 5 mA meter movement is

(a) 50 ohm/V

(b) 100 ohm/V

(c) 200 ohm/V

(d) 500 ohm/V

13. As the transmission line voltage increases, the volume of conductor

(a) Increases

(b) Decreases

(c) Will not change

(d) Will increase proportionately

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14. Which of the following power plant has the maximum efficiency

(a) Thermal power plant

(b) Hydroelectric power plant

(c) Atomic reactor

(d) MHD

15. The power intended to be available even under emergency condition is called

(a) Firm power

(b) Hot reserve

(c) Cold reserve

(d) Spinning reserve

16. If the height of the transmission tower is decreased, the inductance of the line will

(a) Increase

(b) Decrease

(c) Remain same

(d) Increase exponentially

17. The voltage regulation is an important factor for the design of

(a) Generator

(b) Motor

(c) Feeder

(d) Transmission line

18. Which of the parameters can be neglected while calculating the transmission line faults?

(a) Reactance

(b) Resistance

(c) Capacitance

(d) Inductance

19. The frequency of the power system controls the

(a) Active power

(b) Reactive power

(c) (a) and (b) both

(d) None of them

20. The difference between sending end voltage and receiving end voltage of transmission

line controls

(a) Active power

(b) Frequency

(c) Reactive power

(d) None of these

21. Which of the following insulators will be selected for high voltage application?

(a) Strain type

(b) Disk type

(c) Suspension type

(d) Pintype

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22. To generate electric power from sea water, the more advantageous method is

(a) Tidal wave

(b) Wave power

(c) Ocean currents

(d) Wind power

23. Turbo-alternators usually have

(a) 2 poles

(b) 6 poles

(c) 10 poles

(d) 16 poles

24. Bundled conductors are used for EHV transmission lines primarily for reducing the

(a) Coronal loss

(b) Surge impedance of the line

(c) voltage drop across the line

(d) I2 R losses

25. A synchronous generator is connected to an infinite bus bar and is initially operating at a

lag p.f. If the steam input to the alternator is increased

(a) The p.f. of the alternator improves

(b) Reactive power decreases

(c) The frequency increases

(d) Both a and b

26. The coefficient of reflection for current of an open-ended line is

(a) -1

(b) 1

(c) 0.5

(d) Zero

27. In the case of a HVDC system, there is

(a) Charging current but no skin effect

(b) No charging current but skin effect

(c) Neither charging current nor skin effect

(d) Both charging current and skin effect

28. The critical value of surge impedance of long transmission line is

(a) 50 ohm

(b) 500 ohm

(c) 75 ohm

(d) 1000 ohm

29. Admittance relay is

(a) The directional relay

(b) The none directional relay

(c) The impedance relay


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30. The effect of series capacitor on a transmission line is to improve

(a) The steady stability

(b) The transient stability

(c) Both a and b

(d) None

31. The capacitor voltage transformer is used

(a) Upto 11kV

(b) Upto 33kV

(c) Above 220kV

(d) Above 132kV

32. Which of the following relay is preferred for phase fault on short transmission line

(a) Impedance relay

(b) Reactance relay

(c) MHO relay

(d) Induction type relay

33. The protection from negative sequence currents is provided for

(a) Transformers

(b) Generators

(c) Transmission lines

(d) Motors

34. The lightening arrester acts as

(a) Surge diverter

(b) Surge coil

(c) Surge absorber

(d) Surge reflector

35. The power loss is very important factor for designing the

(a) Feeder

(b) Transmission line

(c) Motor

(d) Generator

36. The convergence characteristics of the Newton-Rophson method for solving a load flow

problem is

(a) Quadratic

(b) Linear

(c) Geometric

(d) Cubic

37. In Merz Price percentage differential protection of a Δ/Y transformer, the CT secondary’s

connection in the primary and secondary windings of the transformer would be in the

form of

(a) Δ/Y

(b) Y/Δ

(c) Δ/Δ

(d) Y/Y

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38. Which one of the following matrices reveals the topology of the power system networks?

(a) Bus incidence matrix

(b) Primitive impedance matrix

(c) Primitive admittance matrix

(d) Bus impedance matrix

39. The flip- flop circuit is

(a) Unstable

(b) Multistable

(c) monostable

(d) Bistable

40. Which of the following memories uses 1 transistor and 1 capacitor as basic memory unit

(a) SRAM

(b) DRAM

(c) Both SRAM and DRAM

(d) None

41. Dynamic memory cells are constructed using

(a) FETs

(b) MOSFETs

(c) Flip-flops

(d) Transistors

42. Which one of the following is not a vectored interrupt

(a) TRAP

(b) RST 7.5

(c) RST 6.5

(d) INTR.

43. Queue is also known as

(a) FIFO memory

(b) LIFO memory

(c) Flash memory

(d) LILO memory

44. Semiconductor memories are

(a) Non volatile, small size

(b) Volatile, small size

(c) Volatile

(d) Non volatile

45. How many outputs would two 8-line to 3-line encoders , expanded to a 16-line to 4-line

encoder, have

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 5

(d) 6

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46. What is another name for a one shot

(a) Mono stable

(b) Multivibrator

(c) Bistable

(d) Astable

47. One example of the use of an S-R flip-flop is as a(n)

(a) Racer

(b) Astable oscillator

(c) Binary storage register

(d) Transistor pulse generator

48. According to Boolean algebra 1+A+B+C=

(a) A+B+C

(b) ABC

(c) 1+ABC

(d) 1

49. Gray code for 1101 is given by

(a) 1111

(b) 1011

(c) 1001

(d) 0101

50. How many different values (signed decimal) can be represented in a byte?

(a) 7

(b) 8

(c) 255

(d) 256

51. Subtract (3A5)16 from (592)16

(a) AED

(b) EAD

(c) 1DE

(d) 1ED

52. Which one of the following will give the sum of full- adder as output

(a) 3 input majority circuit

(b) 3 bit parity checker

(c) 3 bit comparator

(d) 3 bit counter

53. The transfer function of a linear system is the

(a) Ratio of the output Vo(t) and Vi(t)

(b) Ratio of the derivatives of the output and the input

(c) Ratio of the Laplace transform of the output and that of the input with all initial

conditions zeros

(d) None of these

54. A system has 14 poles and 2 zeros. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot

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having a slope of

(a) -40dB/decade

(b) -240dB/decade

(c) -280dB/decade

(d) -320dB/decade

55. The open loop transfer function of a feedback control system is G(s).H(s)=1/(s+1)3

. The

gain margin of the system is

(a) 2

(b) 4

(c) 8

(d) 16

56. Non minimum phase transfer function is defined as the transfer function

(a) Which has zero in the right- half s-plane

(b) Which has zero only in the left-half s-plane

(c) Which has poles in the right-half s- plane

(d) Which has poles in the left-half s-plane

57. The Nyqist plot of a loop transfer function G(jω)H(jω) of a system encloses the (-1,j0)

point. The gain margin of the system is

(a) Less than zero

(b) zero

(c) Greater than zero

(d) Infinity

58. A system has poles at 0.01 Hz ,1Hz and 80 Hz :zero at 5Hz , 100 Hz and 200 Hz. The

approximate phase of the system response at 20Hz is

(a) -90º

(b) 0º

(c) 90º

(d) -180º

59. The phase margin (in degrees) of a system having the loop transfer function G(s)H(s)=(2

√3)/(s(s+1)) is

(a) 45º

(b) -30º

(c) 60º

(d) 30º

60. The phase margin of a system with open-loop transfer function G(s)H(s)=(1-

s)/((1+s)(2+s))

(a) 0º

(b) 63.4 º

(c) 90º

(d) Infinite

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61. The gain margin for the system with open-loop transfer function G(s)H(s)=2(1+s)/s2 is

(a) Infinite

(b) 0

(c) 1

(d) -infinite

62. Consider a characteristic equation given by s4

+ 3s3 +5s

2 + 6s + K + 10=0. The condition

for stability is

(a) K>5

(b) -10<K

(c) K>-4

(d) -10<K<-4

63. A casual system having the transfer function G(s)=1/(s+2) is excited with 10u(t). The

time at which the output reaches 99% of its steady value is

(a) 2.7 sec

(b) 2.5 sec

(c) 2.3 sec

(d) 2.1 sec

64. The transfer function of a plant is G(s)=5/(s+5)(s2+s+1). The second order approximation

of T(s) using dominant pole concept is

(a) 1/(s+5)(s+1)

(b) 5/(s+5)(s+1)

(c) 5/(s2+s+1)

(d) 1/(s2+s+1)

65. If the characteristic equation of a closed-loop system is s2+2s+2=0, then the system is

(a) Overdamped

(b) Critically damped

(c) Under damped

(d) Undamped

66. Signal flow graph is used to obtain

(a) Stability of a system

(b) Transfer function of a system

(c) Controllability of a system

(d) Observability of a system

67. The phase lead compensation used to

(a) Increase rise time and decrease overshoot

(b) Decrease both rise time and overshoot

(c) Increase both rise time and overshoot

(d) Decrease rise time and increase overshoot

68. Compression in PCM refers to relative compression of

(a) Higher signal amplitudes

(b) Lower signal amplitudes

(c) Lower signal frequencies

(d) Higher signal frequencies

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69. The Fourier transform of a conjugate symmetric function is always

(a) Imaginary

(b) Conjugate anti-symmetric

(c) Real

(d) Conjugate symmetric

70. The amplitude spectrum of a Gaussian pulse is

(a) Uniform

(b) A sine function

(c) Gaussian

(d) An impulse function

71. The Fourier transform of a voltage signal x(t) is X(f). The unit of X(f)is

(a) Volt

(b) Volt-sec

(c) Volt/sec

(d) Volt2

72. If a signal f(t) has energy E, the energy of the signal f(2t) is equal to

(a) E

(b) E/2

(c) 2E

(d) 4E

73. Two systems with impulse responses h1(t) and h2(t) are connected in cascade. Then the

overall impulse response of the cascaded system is given by

(a) Product of h1(t) and h2(t)

(b) Sum of h1(t) and h2(t)

(c) Convulsion of h1(t) and h2(t)

(d) Subtraction of h2(t) from h1(t)

74. A band limited signal is sampled at the Nyquist rate. The signal can be recovered by

passing the samples through

(a) An RC filter

(b) An envelope detector

(c) A PLL

(d) An ideal low pass filter with the appropriate bandwidth

75. Flattop sampling of low pass signals

(a) Gives rise to aperture effect

(b) Implies over sampling

(c) Leads to aliasing

(d) Introducing delay distortion

76. Increased pulse width in the flattop sampling leads to

(a) Attenuation of high frequencies in reproduction

(b) Attenuation of low frequencies in reproduction

(c) Greater aliasing errors in reproduction

(d) No harmful effects in reproduction

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77. The region of convergence of the z transform of a unit step function is

(a) |z|>1

(b) |z|<1

(c) (real part of z)>0

(d) (real part of z)<0

78. A linear discrete time system has the characteristic equation, z3-0.81z=0. The system

(a) is stable

(b) is marginally stable

(c) is unstable

(d) stability cannot be assessed from the given information

79. Choose the function f(t), -∞<t<∞, for which a Fourier series cannot be defined

(a) 3sin(25t)

(b) 4cos(20t+3) + 2 sin(710t)

(c) exp(-|t|) sin(25t)

(d) 1

80. If Eb, the energy per bit of a binary digital signal is 10-5

Watt-sec and the one-sided power

spectral density of the white noise, N0=10-6

W/Hz, then the output SNR of the matched

filter is

(a) 26 DB

(b) 10 DB

(c) 20 DB

(d) 13 DB


81. An average response rectifier type electronic AC voltmeter has a DC voltage of 10V

applied to it. The meter reading will be

(a) 7.1V

(b) 10.0V

(c) 11.1V

(d) 22.2V

82. An energy meter having a meter constant of 1200 revolutions per kWh is found to make 5

revolutions in 75s. The load power is

(a) 500W

(b) 100W

(c) 200W

(d) 1000W

83. The energy capacity of a storage battery is rated in

(a) kWh

(b) kW

(c) Ampere hours

(d) Joules

84. A rectifier instrument is used to measure an alternating square wave of amplitude 100V.

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what is the meter reading?

(a) 100V

(b) 70.7V

(c) 111V

(d) None of these

85. What is the range for a 3 ½ digital meter

(a) 0 to 1999

(b) 0 to 1500

(c) 0 to 999

(d) 0 to 19999

86. The meter constant of a single phase 240V induction watt hour meter is 400 revolutions

per kWh. The speed of the meter disc for the current of 10A at 0.8 p.f. lagging will be

(a) 12.8 rpm

(b) 16.02 rpm

(c) 18.2 rpm

(d) 21.1 rpm

87. A high frequency AC signal is applied to a PMMC instrument. If the rms value of the AC

signal is 2V, then the reading of the instrument will be

(a) Zero

(b) 2V

(c) 2 √2 V

(d) 4 √2 V

88. If the reading of the two watt meters are equal and positive in two-wattmeter method, the

load pf in a balanced 3-phase-3-wire circuit will be

(a) Zero

(b) 0.5

(c) 0.866

(d) Unity

89. An AC voltmeter using full wave rectification and having a sinusoidal input has an AC

sensitivity equal to

(a) 1.414 times DC sensitivity

(b) DC sensitivity

(c) 0.90 times DC sensitivity

(d) 0.707 times DC sensitivity

90. A wattmeter has a range of 100W with an error of ± 1% of full scale deflection. If the true

power passed through it is 100W then the relative error would be

(a) ± 10 %

(b) ± 5%

(c) ± 1%

(d) ± 0.5%

91. The resistance of a thermistor is 5000Ω at 20 ºC and its resistance temperature coefficient

is 0.04/ºC. A measurement with a lead resistance of 10 Ω will cause an error of

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(a) 0.05 ºC

(b) 0.1 ºC

(c) 0.4 ºC

(d) 0.8 ºC

92. A 150mA meter has accuracy of ±2 %. Its accuracy while reading 75 mA will be

(a) ± 1%

(b) ± 2%

(c) ± 4%

(d) ± 20%

93. A generating station has a maximum demand of 30 MW, a load factor of 60% and plant

capacity factor of 50%. The reserve capacity of the plant is

(a) 5 MW

(b) 4 MW

(c) 6 MW

(d) 10 MW

94. The impedance value of a generator is 0.2 pu on a base value of 11 kV, 50 MVA. The

impedance value for a base value of 22 kV, 150 MVA is

(a) 0.15 pu

(b) 0.2 pu

(c) 0.3 pu

(d) 2.4 pu

95. A 100 km transmission line is designed for a nominal voltage of 132 kV and consists of 1

conductor per phase. The line reactance is 0.726 Ω/km. The static transmission capacity

of the line, in MW would be

(a) 132

(b) 240

(c) 416

(d) 720

96. A string insulator has 5 units. The voltage across the bottom most unit is 25% of the total

voltage. The string efficiency is

(a) 25%

(b) 50%

(c) 80%

(d) 75%

97. The surge impedance of a 3-phase, 400 kV transmission line is 400 Ω. The surge

impedance loading (SIL) is

(a) 400 MW

(b) 100 MW

(c) 1600 MW

(d) 200 MW

98. The insulation resistance of a single core cable is 200 MΩ/km. The insulation resistance

for 5 km length is

(a) 40 M Ω

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(b) 1000 M Ω

(c) 200 M Ω

(d) 8 M Ω

99. The velocity of travelling wave through a cable of relative permittivity 9 is

(a) 9 x 108 m/s

(b) 3 x 108

m/s

(c) 108

m/s

(d) 2 x 108 m/s

100. A 3-phase transmission line of negligible resistance and capacitance has an inductive

reactance of 100 Ω per phase. When the sending end and receiving end voltages are

maintained at 110 kV, the maximum power that can be transmitted will be

(a) 121 MW

(b) 121√3 MW

(c) 263 MW

(d) 363 kW

101. For a given base voltage and base volt amperes, the per unit impedance value of an

element is x. The per unit impedance value of this element when the voltage and volt

amperes bases are both doubled will be

(a) 0.5x

(b) x

(c) 2x

(d) 4x

102. In a 400 kV network, 360 kV is recorded at 400 kV bus. The reactive power absorbed by

a shunt reactor rated for 50 MVAR, 40kV connected at the bus is

(a) 61.73 MVAR

(b) 55.56 MVAR

(c) 45 MVAR

(d) 40.5 MVAR

103. An alternator of 300 kW is driven by a prime mover of speed 4% and another alternator

of 220 kW driven by a prime mover of speed regulation 3%. The total load they can take

is

(a) 500 kW

(b) 567 kW

(c) 425 kw

(d) 257 kW

104. Four identical alternators each rated for 20MVA, 11 kV having a subtransient reactance

of 16% are working in parallel. The short circuit level at the bus-bars is

(a) 500MVA

(b) 400 MVA

(c) 125 MVA

(d) 80 MVA

105. If the fault current is 300 A, for an I.D.M.T. relay with a plug setting of 50% and C.T.

ratio of 400/5, the plug setting multiplier would be

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(a) 7.5

(b) 15.0

(c) 18.75

(d) 37.5

106. The zero sequence current of a generator for line to ground is j2.4 p.u. Then the current

through the neutral during the fault is

(a) j2.4 p.u.

(b) j0.8 p.u.

(c) j7.2 p.u.

(d) j0.24 p.u.

107. In a 220 kV system, the inductance and capacitance up to the circuit breaker location are

25 mH and 0.025 µF respectively. The value of resistor required to be connected across

the breaker contacts which will give no transient oscillations, is

(a) 25 Ω

(b) 250 Ω

(c) 500 Ω

(d) 1000 Ω

108. An overhead line with a surge impedance of 400 Ω is connected to a transformer by short

length of cable of surge impedance 100 Ω. If a rectangular surge wave of 40 kV travels

along the line towards the cable, then the voltage of the wave travelling from the junction

of the overhead line through the cable towards the transformer would be

(a) 16 kV

(b) 32 kV

(c) 30 kV

(d) 36 kV

109. 2’s compliment of 10101011 is

(a) 01010101

(b) 00111100

(c) 10101011

(d) 10101100

110. Which of the following represents the decimal form of binary 0.0111

(a) 0.1600

(b) 0.2728

(c) 0.4375

(d) 0.7964

111. (1001-10) is equal to

(a) (8)10

(b) (7)4

(c) (7)10

(d) (8)4

112. In octal system the value of 25

is

(a) 20

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(b) 40

(c) 200

(d) 400



(a) 4/13

(b) 4/9

(c) 4

(d) 13

114. The unit step response of a system starting from rest is given by x(t)=1-e-2t

for t ≥ 0. The

transfer function of the system is

(a) 1/(1+2s)

(b) 2/(2+s)

(c) 1/(2+s)

(d) 2s/(1+2s)

115. The unit impulse response of a system is h(t)=e-t

, t ≥ 0. For this system, the steady state


(a) -1

(b) 0

(c) 1

(d) Infinite

116. A critically damped, continuous- time, second order system, when sampled, will have (in

Z domain)

(a) A simple pole

(b) Double pole on real axis

(c) Double pole on imaginary axis

(d) A pair of complex conjugate poles

117. For a second order system, damping ratio (ξ) is 0<ξ<1 , then the roots of the characteristic

polynomial are

(a) Real but not equal

(b) Real and equal

(c) Complex conjugates

(d) Imaginary

118. The final value theorem is used to find the

(a) Steady state value of the system output

(b) Initial value of the system output

(c) Transient behavior of the system output

(d) None of these

119. Two of the angular frequencies at which its Fourier transform becomes zero are

(a) π, 2π

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(b) 0.5 π, 1.5π

(c) 0, π

(d) 2π, 2.5π


(a) S(t)= cos2t + cos3t + cos5t

(b) S(t)=exp(j8πt)

(c) S(t)=exp(-7t) sin10πt

(d) S(t)= cos2t cos4t

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ELECTRICAL AND POWER ENGINEERING


PAPER-II

Instructions:





wrong answer.









1. If a self-excited dc generator is failed to run, this refers to

(a) Zero residual voltage

(b) Field MMF, that is not cumulative

(c) Resistance is greater than critical resistance

(d) Speed is equal to rated speed

2. Consider a dc generator running at the rated speed of 2000 rpm, suddenly there is an

insulator falls on the field circuit and breaks it. Then

(a) The motor stops in a few rounds

(b) It continues to run, but as dc motor

(c) It continues to run as a motor


3. Which excitation system employs amplidyne (metadyne)

(a) Brushless excitation system

(b) Static excitation system

(c) DC excitation system

(d) Rotating thyristor excitation system

4. Which sequence is followed first while closing a circuit breaker?

(a) Close the isolator

(b) Open earthing switch

(c) Close circuit breaker

(d) Any of these

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5. Which material is used for indoor bus bar?

(a) Copper

(b) Aluminium

(c) Silver

(d) Galvanized steel

6. What is the range of MHV substations?

(a) All voltages above 1000 V AC

(b) Voltages between 1 kV and 33 kV

(c) Between 33 kV and 110 kV

(d) Between 220 kV and 400 kV

7. Phase advancers are used for which among the following machines?

(a) Transformers

(b) Synchronous machines

(c) Induction motors

(d) DC machines

8. The load sharing between two steam driven alternators operating in parallel may be

adjusted by varying the

(a) Power factor

(b) Speed of the alternator

(c) Steam supply to the prime mover

(d) None of these

9. Which part of DC motor can sustain maximum temperature rise?

(a) Armature winding

(b) Field winding

(c) Slip ring

(d) Commutator

10. In DC machine the fractional pitch winding is used

(a) To reduce the harmonics in generated EMF

(b) To improve cooling

(c) To increase EMF

(d) To reduce copper loss

11. What will happen when the field of a DC shunt motor get opened while the motor is

running

(a) Continue to run at same speed

(b) Speed of motor will be reduced

(c) Armature current will be reduced

(d) Motor will attain dangerous high speed

12. Which dc motor is used for conveyor?

(a) Series motor

(b) Cumulative compound motor

(c) Differentially compound motor

(d) Shunt motor

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13. Overspeed protection of generator is done by

(a) Differential relay

(b) Over current relay

(c) Alarm

(d) Governor

14. An alternator is said to be over excited when it is operating at

(a) Leading power factor

(b) Lagging power factor

(c) Unity power factor

(d) None of these

15. The shaft of an induction motor must be of

(a) Solid

(b) Hollow

(c) Flexible

(d) Laminated

16. In a transformer hysteresis and eddy current losses depend upon

(a) Load current

(b) Supply frequency

(c) Maximum flux density

(d) Supply frequency and maximum flux density

17. Role of power system stabilizer in excitation system is to

(a) Provide dc power to the synchronous machine field winding

(b) Processes and amplifies input current signal

(c) Provide an additional input signal to regulator to damp power system oscillation

(d) Provide an additional input signal to regulator to boost system frequency

18. Which of the following distance relay is having inherent directional property

(a) Impedance relay

(b) Mho relay

(c) Reactance relay

(d) None

19. Resistance switching is normally employed in

(a) Bulk oil breakers

(b) Minimum oil breakers

(c) SF6 circuit breakers

(d) Air blast circuit breakers

20. The arc voltage in a circuit breaker is

(a) In the phase with arc current

(b) Lagging the arc current by 90°

(c) Leading the arc current by 90°

(d) Lagging the arc current by 45°

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21. Which of the following distance relay is preferred for grounding fault?

(a) Differential relay

(b) Impedance relay

(c) IDMT relay

(d) Reactance relay

22. The relay used for feeder protection is

(a) Translay relay

(b) Under voltage relay

(c) Thermal relay

(d) Buchholz relay

23. The most efficient torque producing actuating structure for the induction type relay is

(a) Shaded pole structure

(b) Watt hour meter structure

(c) Induction cup structure

(d) Single induction loop structure

24. For which among the following the current ratings are not required?

(a) Circuit breakers

(b) Relays

(c) Isolators

(d) Load break switch

25. A negative sequence relay is commonly used to protect

(a) Transformers

(b) Transmission lines

(c) Alternators

(d) Bus bar

26. Thermal relays are employed for the protection of motors against over currents due to

(a) Earth faults

(b) Short circuits

(c) Heavy loading

(d) All of above

27. The ratio of reset to pick up current for an induction cup relay is approx:

(a) 0.99

(b) 1.01

(c) 0.75


28. The magnetising-inrush-current in a transformer is rich in:

(a) 7th

harmonics

(b) 2nd

harmonics

(c) 5th

harmonics

(d) 3rd

harmonics

29. In a system of 132kV, the line to ground capacitance is 0.01µF and the inductance is

5H. If a magnetising current of 5 amps (instantaneous value) is interrupted, the voltage

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that appears across the pole of a C.B is nearly?

(a) 132kV

(b) 112kV

(c) 140 kV

(d) 200kV

30. The rotation of disc of an induction disc relay under the poles is:

(a) It depends upon the magnitude of current

(b) It depends upon the C.T. secondary connection

(c) From shaded pole to unshaded pole

(d) From unshaded pole to shaded pole

31. If the fault current is 3000 amps, the relay setting 50% and the C.T. ratio is 400/5, then

the plug setting multiplier will be:

(a) 25 amps

(b) 15 amps

(c) 50 amps

(d) 30 amps

32. The frequency of the carrier in the case of carrier current-pilot scheme is in the range of

(a) 1 kHz to 10 kHz

(b) 15 kHz to 25 kHz

(c) 25 kHz to 50 kHz

(d) 50 kHz to 500 kHz

33. In a HRC fuse the time between the cut off and the final current zero is called?

(a) Pre- arcing time

(b) Arcing time

(c) Total operating time

(d) Dead time

34. Bimetallic thermometer measure temperature in the range of ……C.

(a) 0 to 400

(b) -40 to 1000

(c) 700 to 1500

(d) 45 to 500

35. Thermistor is a transducer. Its temperature coefficient is

(a) Negative

(b) Positive

(c) Zero

(d) Infinite

36. Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of an instrument?

(a) High drift

(b) High measuring lag

(c) High fidelity

(d) Poor reproducibility

37. Zirconia probe is used for the continuous measurement of ……flue gases going out of

the furnace.

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(a) Oxygen in

(b) Carbon dioxide in

(c) Carbon monoxide in

(d) Temperature of

38. Working principle of mercury in glass thermometer is ……

(a) Volumetric expansion

(b) Pressure rise with temperature

(c) Linear expansion

(d) Temperature rise with pressure

39. Gamma rays is used for the measurement of

(a) Pressure

(b) Temperature

(c) Liquid level

(d) Flow

40. Which of the following is not a differential pressure flow meter?

(a) Rota meter

(b) Flow nuzzle

(c) Venturi meter

(d) Orifice meter

41. Which of the following is not a variable area flow meter?

(a) Rota meter

(b) Piston type meter

(c) Magnetic flow meter

(d) Venturi meter

42. Configuration of bourdon spring tube is never made of …… shape?

(a) Circular

(b) Semi- circular

(c) Helical

(d) Spiral

43. Pilot tube is used ……….

(a) For highly accurate flow measurement

(b) When the fluid contains lot of suspended materials

(c) When the line is large and the velocity is high

(d) When the line is small and velocity is low

44. Pneumatic control valves are generally designed for pressure up to ……….kgf/cm2

(a) 10

(b) 100

(c) 160

(d) 400

45. Continuous measurement of specific gravity of a liquid is done by ……

(a) Hydrometer

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(b) Contact-type electric indicators

(c) Displacement reactions

(d) Hydrometer and displacement reaction

46. Which of the following is not a mechanical pressure sensing element?

(a) Bellows

(b) Diaphragm

(c) Bourdon tube

(d) U-tube

47. The principle of hall effect is made use of in the construction of which one of the

following?

(a) Ammeter

(b) Voltmeter

(c) Gauss meter

(d) Galvanometer

48. How is the voltage and frequency controlled in automatic generation control?

(a) By controlling the excitation

(b) By controlling the turbine action

(c) Excitation control for voltage and turbine speed control for frequency

(d) Turbine speed control for voltage and excitation control for frequency

49. Unit up- time in unit commitment problem is

(a) A unit minimum operating time

(b) A unit minimum repair time

(c) A unit total life time

(d) A unit minimum designing time

50. In India, under which tariff regime the electricity sector is operating?

(a) Cost Plus

(b) Market Determined

(c) Fixed Regime

(d) Variable Regime

51. Renewable energy target in India for 2022.

(a) 170 GW

(b) 175 GW

(c) 150 GW

(d) 125 GW

52. Power frequency control is slow due to

(a) Turbine and generator moment of inertia

(b) Turbine and generator torque

(c) Turbine and generator force

(d) Turbine and generator speed

53. Head office of ERLDC is located at

(a) Mumbai

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(b) Kolkata

(c) Bangalore

(d) Shillong

54. Elements (atom) of SCADA systems

(a) Graphical displays

(b) Tags

(c) Alarm

(d) Trends

55. Optimal system operation involved

(a) Economy of operation

(b) System security

(c) Emissions at certain fossil- fuels


56. In India, which organisation performs the role of Independent System Operator (ISO)

(a) CEA

(b) PGCIL

(c) POSOCO

(d) CERC

57. In restricted power system which entity is still operating in regulated mode

(a) GENCO

(b) TRANSCO

(c) RETAILCO

(d) Consumer

58. The conduction loss versus device current characteristic of a power MOSFET is best

approximated by

(a) Parabola

(b) Straight line

(c) Rectangular Hyperbola

(d) Exponentially decaying function

59. A single- phase full bridge inverter can operate in load commutation mode in the case

load consists of

(a) RL

(b) RLC under damped

(c) RLC over damped

(d) RLC critically damped

60. In single pulse- width modulation of PWM inverters, fifth harmonic can be eliminated

if pulse width is equal to

(a) 30°

(b) 72°

(c) 36°

(d) 108°

61. The cycloconverters (CC’s) require natural or forced commutation as under

(a) Natural commutation in both step- up and step- down CC’s

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(b) Forced commutation in both step- up and step- down CC’s

(c) Forced commutation in step- up CC’s

(d) Forced commutation in step- down CC’s

62. McMurray commutation is superior to parallel capacitor commutation in respect of

(a) Number of components

(b) Overvoltage’s spike at the output

(c) Instantaneous reduction in SCR current

(d) Trigger current

63. Regarding Ward- Leonard system of speed control, which statement is false?

(a) It is usually used where wide and very sensitive speed control is required

(b) It is used for motors having ratings from 750kW to 4000kW

(c) Capital outlay involved in the system is right since it uses two extra machines

(d) It gives a speed range of 10:1 but in one direction only

64. The six- stepped load phase voltage of a 3- phase square wave inverter, with a dc link

voltage of 100 volts, will have the following rms magnitudes of 1st , 3

rd and 5

th

harmonic voltages

(a) 10 V, 30 V and 50 V respectively

(b) 100 V, 33.3 V and 20 V respectively

(c) 90 V, 30 V and 0 V respectively

(d) 45 V, 0 V and 9 V respectively

65. A fly-back converter has primary to secondary turns ratio of 15:1. The input voltage is

constant at 200 volts and the output voltage is maintained at 18 volts. What should be

the snubber capacitor voltage under steady state?

(a) More than 270 volts

(b) More than 200 volts but less than 270 volts

(c) Less than 18 volts

(d) Not related to input or output voltage

66. Circuit turn off time of an SCR is defined as the time

(a) Taken by the SCR turn off

(b) For which the SCR is reverse biased by the commutation circuit

(c) For which the SCR is reverse biased to reduce its current below the holding

current

(d) Required for the SCR current to become zero.

67. The typical ratio of latching current to holding current in a 20 A Thyristor is

(a) 5

(b) 2

(c) 1

(d) 0.5

68. The output voltage waveform of a three-phase square wave inverter contains

(a) Only even harmonics

(b) Both even and odd harmonics

(c) Only odd harmonics

(d) Only triple harmonics

69. A fully controlled converter bridge feeds a highly inductive load with ripple free load

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current. The input supply to the bridge is a sinusoidal source. Triggering angle of the

bridge converter is α=30°. The input power factor of the bridge is

(a) 0.86

(b) 0.78

(c) 0.92

(d) 0.90

70. A three-phase fully controlled thyristor bridge converter is used as line commutated

inverter to feed 50 kW power 420 V dc to a three-phase 415 V (line), 50 Hz ac mains.

Consider dc link current to be constant. The rms current of the thyristor is

(a) 119.05 A

(b) 79.37 A

(c) 68.73 A

(d) 39.68 A

71. SCR is considered to be a semi-controlled device because

(a) It can be turned OFF but not ON with a gate pulse

(b) It conducts only during one half cycle of an alternating current wave

(c) It can be turned ON but not OFF with a gate pulse

(d) It can be turned ON only during one half cycle of an alternating voltage wave

72. A half controlled single-phase bridge rectifier is supplying an RL load. It is operated at

a firing angle α and the load current is continuous. The fraction of cycle that the free-

wheeling diode conduct is

(a) ½

(b) 1-(α/π)

(c) α/2π

(d) α/π

73. Snubber circuit is used to limit the

(a) Rise of current

(b) Conduction period

(c) Rise of voltage across device

(d) Commutation period

74. The dimension of outer conductor are b and c and that of inner conductor is a, the ratio

of inner and outer current densities is

(a) (c2-b

2)/a

2

(b) a2/(c

2-b

2)

(c) (c-b)/a

(d) (cb)/a2

75. The following statement is correct for uniform plane waves:

(a) The wavelength λ is longer and velocity v is higher in all real media than they are

in free space

(b) The wavelength λ is longer and velocity v is lower in all real media than they are

in free space

(c) The wavelength λ is shorter and velocity v is higher in all real media than they

are in free space

(d) The wavelength λ is shorter and velocity v is lower in all real media than they are

in free space

76. A lossless dielectric slab has εR=9. Its intrinsic impedance is

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(a) 360πΩ

(b) 120πΩ

(c) 40πΩ

(d) 30πΩ

77. The electric flux density, D=5r3arC/m

2, with in sphere of radius r ≤ 4 m. the volume

charge density at r = 2 m is

(a) 200 C/m3

(b) 100 C/m3

(c) 50 C/m3

(d) 25 C/m3

78. If D=10 y2

ax + 10 x2 y ay + 15 az, the total charge enclosed within the region 0<x,y,z<1

m is

(a) 40/3 C

(b) 20/3 C

(c) 10/3 C

(d) 5/3 C

79. A perfect dielectric medium has a uniform plane wave. Which of the following

statements for the wave are correct?

(a) The electric and magnetic fields are in the same direction

(b) The electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to each other

(c) The electric and magnetic fields are opposite to each other

(d) The electric and magnetic fields do not occur in the medium

80. The magnetic flux density in the air gap between two iron surfaces is Bg. The force

between the iron surfaces at this flux density is F. if the flux density is reduced to (3/4)

Bg, the decrease in the force would be

(a) (3/4) F

(b) (7/16) F

(c) (1/4) F

(d) (9/16) F


81. Supply to one terminal of star-delta connected three phase core type transformer which

is no load, fails. Assuming magnetic circuit symmetry, voltage on secondary side will

be

(a) 230, 230, 115

(b) 230, 115, 115

(c) 345, 115, 115

(d) 345, 0, 345

82. The winding of a Q kVA, V1/V2 volts and three phase delta connected core type

transformer are connected to work as single-phase transformer. The maximum voltage

of power rating of new configuration are

(a) V1/V2, 3Q

(b) V1/V2, Q/3

(c) √3 V1/V2 , 2Q

(d) 2 V1/V2, 2Q/3

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83. A 50 Hz 220/400, 50 kVA, single-phase transformer operates on 220 V, 40 Hz supply

with secondary winding. Then

(a) The eddy current loss and hysteresis loss of the transformer decreases

(b) The eddy current loss and hysteresis loss of the transformer increases

(c) Hysteresis loss of the transformer increases while eddy current loss remains

same.

(d) The eddy current loss decreases while hysteresis loss remains same.

84. A 50 MVA turbo-alternator has a total loss of 1500 kW. Calculate the volume of air

required per second if the temperature rise in the machine is to be limited at 30°C.

Assume inlet temperature of air = 25°C and barometric height = 760 mm of mercury.

(a) 4.25 m3/s

(b) 5.46 m3/s

(c) 42.6 m3/s

(d) 54.6 m3/s

85. A 120 MW turbo-alternator is supplying power to 80 MW load at lagging p.f. Suddenly

the steam supply to the turbine is cut off and the alternator remains connected to the

supply network if field supply also remains on, what will happen to the alternator?

(a) The stator winding of the alternator will get burnt

(b) The rotor winding of the alternator will get burnt

(c) The alternator will continue to run as a synchronous motor rotating in the same

direction

(d) The alternator will continue to run as a synchronous motor rotating in the

opposite direction

86. A system is said to be effectively grounded if its

(a) 0 ≤ R0/X1 ≤ 1, X0/X1> 3

(b) 0 ≤ X0/X1 ≤ 3, R0/X1> 1

(c) 0 ≤ X0/X1 ≤ 3, 0 ≤ R0/X1 ≤ 1

(d) 0 ≤ X0/X1 ≤ 1, 0 ≤ R0/X1 ≤ 3

87. In a short circuit test on a 132 kV, 3-phase system, the breaker gave the following

results: p.f. of the fault 0.4, recovery voltage 0.95 of full line value; the breaking

current is symmetrical and the restriking transient had a natural frequency of 16 kHz.

Its active recovery voltage is?

(a) 89.55 kV

(b) 93.85 kV

(c) 68.73 kV

(d) 115.64 kV

88. A 3-phase 11/66 kV, delta/star transformer, protected by Merz-price scheme has CT

ratio of 400/5 on L.T. side. Ratio of CT on H.T. side will be equal to

(a) 1:23

(b) 23:1

(c) 23:√3

(d) 3:√23

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89. According to Indian Standard specifications, for a relay in radial system to operate, its

operating value should be

(a) ≤ 1.2 Isetting

(b) ≥ 1.3 Isetting

(c) ≥ 1.5 Isetting

(d) ≥ 1.73 Isetting

90. A fuse wire of circular cross-section has a radius of 0.8 mm. The wire blows off at a

current of 8 A. What is the radius of the wire that will blow off at a current of 1 A.

(a) 1.6 mm

(b) 0.4 mm

(c) 0.2 mm

(d) 0.1 mm

91. In a biased differential relay the bias is defined as the ratio of

(a) Operating coil current and restraining coil current

(b) Fault current and operating current

(c) Number of turns of restraining and operating coil

(d)

Fault current and restraining coil current

92. A generator connected through a 3-cycle circuit breaker to a transformer is rated 10

MVA, 13.8kV with reactance of Xd”=10%, Xd’=15% and Xd=100%. It is operating at

no load and rated voltage when a 3-phase scort circuit occurs between the breaker and

the transformer. The maximum possible d.c. component of the short circuit current in

the breaker is?

(a) 4180 A

(b) 6280 A

(c) 3500 A

(d) 5910 A

93. A 50 Hz overhead line has line to earth capacitance of 10µF. It is decided to use an

earth fault neutralizer. What is the reactance to neutralise the capacitance of 80% of the

length of the line.

(a) 132.6 Ω

(b) 152.6 Ω

(c) 172.8 Ω

(d) 220 Ω

94. A liquid is undergone a change of pressure from 6.87 MPa to 13.73 MPa to make the

volumetric change of 0.0113 m3 to 0.0111 m

3. What is the bulk modulus of elasticity of

the liquid?

(a) 287.59 MPa

(b) 387.59 MPa

(c) 380.73 MPa

(d) 280.73 MPa

95. A thermocouple has a linear sensitivity of 30µV/°C, calibrated at a cold junction

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temperature of 0°C. It is used to measure an unknown temperature with the cold

junction temperature of 30°C. Find the actual hot junction temperature if the emf

generated is 3 mV.

(a) 120°C

(b) 150°C

(c) 130°C

(d) 160°C

96. A bimetallic thermometer is made up of strips of a nickel-chromium alloy and Invar

bounded together at 25°C. each strip has the thickness of 1 mm and length of 50 mm.

Calculate the radius of the curvature produced when the strips are unstrained and are

subjected to a temperature of 200°C. For nickel-chrome alloy and Invar, the moduli of

elasticity and co-efficient of expansion are 216 GN/m2, 147 GN/m

2, 12.5x10

-6 /°C,

1.7x10-6

/°C

(a) 711 mm

(b) 721 mm

(c) 821 mm

(d) 811 mm

97. The successive approximation A/D output for a 4 bit converter to a 8.217 Volt input (if

the reference is 5 V) will be:

(a) 1101

(b) 0110

(c) 1010

(d) 1001

98. A digital displacement indicator based on a linear voltage differential transformer

(LVDT) transducer and A/D conversion used a LVDT with a sensitivity of 1 mV/mm.

If the smallest displacement to be measured is 0.1 mm and the maximum displacement

of the LVDT core is 10 cm, then the digital display required for the instrument has to

be

(a) 2 digit type

(b) 2½ digit type

(c) 3 digit type

(d) 3½ digit type

99. A resistance wire strain gauge with gauge factor of 2 is bounded to a steel structural

member subjected to a tensile stress of 100 mega N/m2. The modulus of elasticity of

steel is 200 Giga N/m2. The percentage change in gauge resistance due to the applied

stress is

(a) 0.1

(b) 0.2

(c) 0.4

(d) 0.5

100. The strain gauge with a resistance of 250 Ω undergoes a change of 0.150 Ω during a

test. The strain is 1.5x10-4

. Then the gauge factor is

(a) 2.0

(b) 3.0

(c) 4.0

(d) 100

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101. The fuel cost of two power plants:

Plant P1: C1=0.05Pg12+A Pg1 +B

Plant P2: C2=0.10Pg22+3A Pg2 +2B

Where Pg1 and Pg2 are the generated power of two plants, and A and B are constants. If

the two plants optimally share 1000 MW load at an international fuel cost of 100

Rs/MWh, the ratio of load shared by plant P1 and P2 is

(a) 1:4

(b) 2:3

(c) 3:2

(d) 4:1

102. A shunt reactor at 100 MVAr is operated at 98% of its rated voltage and at 96% of its

rated frequency. The reactive power absorbed by the reactor is

(a) 98 MVAr

(b) 104.02 MVAr

(c) 96.04 MVAr

(d) 100.04 MVAr

103. Three generators rated at 300 MW, 500 MW and 600 MW have speed droop

characteristics of 5%, 4% and 3% respectively. The generators are operating in parallel

at 60 Hz frequency. Now, the system frequency increases by 0.3Hz due to change in

load. What is the change in the system load in MW?

(a) -192.5 MW

(b) +192.5 MW

(c) -200.5 MW

(d) +200.5 MW

104. By increasing the transmission voltage to double of its original value, the same power

can be dispatched keeping the line loss

(a) Equal to original value

(b) Half the original value

(c) Double the original value

(d) One-fourth of original value

105. For the synchronous generator connected to an infinite bus through a transmission line,

how are the change of voltage (∆V) and change of frequency (∆f) related to the active

power (P) and the reactive power (Q)?

(a) ∆V is proportional to P and ∆f to Q

(b) ∆V is proportional to Q and ∆f to P

(c) Both ∆V and ∆f are proportional to P

(d) Both ∆V and ∆f are proportional to Q

106. A 50 Hz, 4 pole turbo-alternator rated at 100 MVA, 11 kV has an inertia constant of 8.0

MJ/MVA. Neglect mechanical and electrical losses. If the mechanical input is suddenly

raised to 80 MW for an electrical load of 50 MW. What is the value of rotor

acceleration in elect-deg/sec2?

(a) 112.5

(b) 1350

(c) 337.5

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(d) 2.66

107. A 500 kW plant costs $1000 per kW installed. Fixed charges are estimated at 14% and

operating cost is 13 cents per kWh. The plant averages 200 kW for 5000 hrs of the

year, 450 kW for 1200 hrs and 80 kW for the remaining period. The average cost of

production of electricity per kWh will be close to

(a) 5 cent

(b) 12 cent

(c) 17 cent

(d) 37 cent

108. The separately excited dc motor in the figure below has a rated armature current of 20

A and a rated armature voltage of 150 V. An ideal chopper switching at 5 kHz is used

to control the armature voltage. If La = 0.1 mH, Ra = 1 Ω, neglecting armature reaction,

the duty ratio of the chopper to obtain 50% of the rated torque at the rated speed and the

rated field current is

(a) 0.7

(b) 0.6

(c) 0.5

(d) 0.4

109. A three-phase, 440 V, 50 Hz ac mains fed thyristor bridge is feeding a 40 V DC, 15

kW, 1500 rpm separately excited dc motor with a ripple free continuous current in the

DC link under all operating conditions. Neglecting the losses the power factor of the ac

mains at half the rated speed is

(a) 0.354

(b) 0.372

(c) 0.955

(d) 0.905

110. A 3-phase fully controlled bridge converter with freewheeling diode is fed from 400 V,

50 Hz AC source and is operating at a firing angle of 60°. The load current is assumed

constant at 10 A due to high load inductance. The input displacement factor (IDF) and

the input power factor (IPF) of the converter will be

(a) 0.5 & 0.318

(b) 0.5 & 0.478

(c) 0.867 & 0.552

(d) 0.867 & 0.828

111. A six-pulse thyristor rectifier bridge is connected to a balanced 50 Hz 3-phase AC

source. Assuming that the DC output current of the rectifier is constant, the lowest

frequency harmonic component in the ac source line current is

(a) 100 Hz

(b) 150 Hz

(c) 250 Hz

La,Ra

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(d) 300 Hz

112. A 3-phase fully controlled bridge converter is feeding a load drawing a constant and

ripple free load current of 10 A at a firing angle of 30°. The approximate total harmonic

distortion (%THD) and the rms value of fundamental component of input current will

respectively be

(a) 66% and 7.8 A

(b) 66% and 6.8 A

(c) 31% and 7.8 A

(d) 31% and 6.8 A

113. PV panel of 350 V is feeding power to an ac supply of 440 V, 50 Hz through a 3-phase

fully controlled bridge converter. A large inductance is connected in the dc circuit to

maintain the dc current at 20 A. If the PV panel resistance is 0.5Ω, then each thyristor

will be reverse biased for a period of

(a) 55°

(b) 60°

(c) 120°

(d) 125°

114. When the diode connects the ac source to a pure inductance L, the diode conducts for

(a) 90°

(b) 180°

(c) 270°

(d) 360°

115. A constant v/f speed control of inverter fed induction motor name plate details are 415

V, 50 Hz, 2850 rpm, 2 poles and 20 A. The motor runs with the inverter output

frequency set at 40 Hz and with half the rated slip. The running speed of the motor is

(a) 2230 rpm

(b) 2280 rpm

(c) 2340 rpm

(d) 2790 rpm

116. A lossless coaxial transmission line has a length of 10 cm. find the lowest resonant

frequency if the line is air filled

(a) 374.5 MHz

(b) 474 MHz

(c) 581 MHz

(d) 749 MHz

117. The transmission line operating at 500 Mrad/s has L=0.5µH/m, C=32pF/m,

G=100µmho/m and R=25 Ω/m, the propagation constant is

(a) γ = (2.002 + j0.1061) Ω/m

(b) γ = (0.1061 + j0.2002) Ω/m

(c) γ = (0.2122 + j4.004) Ω/m

(d) γ = (0.6366 + j6.006) Ω/m

118. Two capacitors with capacitances C and 2C are connected in series. The terminal

voltage and energy stored of the series combination are V and Wse respectively. Next

the capacitors are connected in parallel. The terminal voltage and energy stored of the

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parallel combination are V/2 and Wpa respectively. The ratio of Wse / Wpa is

(a) 16/9

(b) 8/9

(c) 4/9

(d) 2/9

119. Two regions 1 and 2 in a magnetic field have a common boundary surface. The

permeability of region 2 is twice that of region 1. The magnetic field intensity at the

boundary in region 2 is 30° with the normal to the boundary. The angle of the field

intensity at the boundary in region 2 is

(a) 15°

(b) 60°

(c) Nearly 49°

(d) Nearly 16°

120. The complex electric and magnetic field intensities in an electromagnetic field in terms

of real and imaginary parts are E=(Ea+jEi)axand H=(Ha+jHi)ay where the quantities

are amplitudes. Which of the following expressions gives the real part of the complex

pointing vector

(a) (Ex(t)Hy(t) – Ey(t)Hx(t))az

(b) (Ex(t)Hy(t) + Ey(t)Hx(t))az

(c) (Ex(t)Hx(t) – Ey(t)Hy(t))az

(d) (Ex(t)Hx(t) + Ey(t)Hy(t))az

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ELECTRONICS & COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING/ELECTRONICS AND

TELECOMMUNICATION ENGINEERING


PAPER-II

Instructions:



iii. Part-B contains 40 questions, Q81 to Q120 of 2 (two) marks each.


wrong answer.









1. The symbol error performance for coherently detected M-ary PSK signaling is given by

(a) 02 ( 2 )sQ E N Sin M

(b) 0( 2 )sQ E N Sin M

(c) 0( 2 2 )sQ E N Sin M

(d) 02 ( )sQ E N Sin M

2. Rayleigh PDF is given by,

(a) 2 2 22 exp( / )x x ,

(b) 2 2 2exp( / )x x ,

(c) 2 2 22 exp( 2 / )x x ,

(d) 2 2 2exp( / 2 )x x

3. The modulation scheme used by GSM (Global system for mobile) system is

(a) BPSK

(b) QAM

(c) GMSK

(d) QPSK

4. The range of frequency used by the UHF (ultrahigh frequency) waves is

(a) 30 MHz-300MHz

(b) 300 MHz-3GHz

(c) 3GHz-30GHz

(d) None of them

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5. If the baud rate for a 8-QAM signal is 3000, what is the bit rate?

(a) 300

(b) 3000

(c) 1000

(d) 9000

6. For an n-stage maximum length pseudo random sequence generator, the sequence length

is

(a) n

(b) n–1

(c) 2n– 1


7. Which logic family is preferable in systems requiring low power consumption?

(a) ECL

(b) MOS

(c) TTL

(d) CMOS

8. The ripple factor for a half-wave rectifier is

(a) 0.48

(b) 1.21

(c) 0.40

(d) 0.81

9. The Fourier Transform of a Gaussian function is a

(a) Rayleigh function

(b) Gaussian function

(c) Exponential function

(d) Bessel function

10. A necessary and sufficient condition for a DSP system to be stable is,

(a) ( )n

n

h n

(b) ( )n

n

h n

(c) ( )n

n

h n

(d) ( )n

n

h n

11. Which is not true about matched filter?

(a) Can be used for correlation detection

(b) Optimum detector for known signal in AWGN

(c) Maximizes the input signal-to-noise ratio

(d) Used for binary detection

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12. If x(n) is a finite duration causal signal, then the ROC (Region of convergence)

(a) Includes the entire z-plane except z = 0

(b) Includes the entire z-plane except z =

(c) Includes the entire z-plane except z = 0 and z =


13. V number for the fundamental mode HE11 is

(a) 2.405

(b) 2.706

(c) 3.14

(d) 4.14

14. In Pulse Code Modulation (PCM) efficient exchange of increased channel bandwidth for

improved SNR obeys

(a) Linear law

(b) Square law

(c) Exponential law


15. Time-bandwidth product (WTb) of a GMSK is standardized at

(a) 0.4

(b) 0.3

(c) 0.6

(d) 0.9

16. Which devices are used for Wavelength Division Demultiplexing?

(a) Thin Film Filters,

(b) Fiber Bragg Gratings,

(c) Littrow Gratings,

(d) Any one

17. Symbol duration of M-ary PAM is related to the bit rate Tb of equivalent binary PAM as

(a) T = 22 logbT M

(b) T= 22 log 2bT M

(c) T= 2logbT M

(d) None of them

18. The electronic charge is

(a) 1 C

(b) 1.6 µC

(c) 1.6×10-19

C

(d) 1.6×10-19

µC

19. The Fermi level in a pure semiconductor lies

(a) near the middle of the forbidden gap

(b) in the valence band,

(c) in the conduction band

(d) None of them

20. The intrinsic concentration of a semiconductor at 0 K is

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(a) zero

(b) infinity

(c) 1019

m-3

(d) None of them

21. If α = 0.95, then the value of β of the transistor is

(a) 190

(b) 19

(c) 0.05

(d) None of them

22. Repeaters inside communications satellites are known as:

(a) Transceivers

(b) Transponders

(c) Transducers

(d) TWT

23. What is the most appropriate multipath model for micro-cellular transmission, where a

dominant line-of-sight plus many weak reflections are present?

(a) Rayleigh Fading,

(b) Rician Fading,

(c) Nakagami Fading,

(d) Shadow fading

24. A PIN diode is:

(a) a metal semiconductor point-contact diode

(b) a microwave mixer diode

(c) often used as a microwave detector

(d) suitable for use as a microwave switch

25. In order to reduce cross-sectional dimensions, the waveguide to use is:

(a) circular

(b) ridged

(c) rectangular

(d) flexible

26. Which of the following material is suitable for making LED?

(a) GaAs

(b) Silicon,

(c) InGaAsP

(d) GaAlAs

27. Which of the following is not a useful quantity for comparing the noise performance of

receivers?

(a) Noise figure,

(b) Equivalent noise resistance

(c) Input noise voltage

(d) Noise temperature

28. The autocorrelation function is

(a) an odd function in to

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(b) an even function in to

(c) an exponential function in to

(d) a linear function in to

29. By which of the following processes, one can reject an undesired signal from the

channel?

(a) Cross correlation

(b) Convolution,

(c) Autocorrelation

(d) Windowing

30. By channel coding, the information transmission efficiency

(a) Increases

(b) Decreases

(c) Remains same

(d) Sometimes increases, sometimes decreases

31. On the constellation diagram, the allowable phase margin in 8PSK scheme is in degrees

(a) 45

(b) 90

(c) 22.5

(d) 180

32. The EDGE is a

(a) 2 G technology

(b) 3 G technology

(c) 2.5 G technology

(d) 4 G technology

33. To reduce side lobes, in which region of the filter the frequency specifications has to be

optimized?

(a) Stop band

(b) Pass band

(c) Transition band


34. Which of the following is introduced in the frequency sampling realization of the FIR

filter?

a) Poles are more in number on unit circle

b) Zeros are more in number on the unit circle

c) Poles and zeros at equally spaced points on the unit circle


35. Which of the following filter design is used in the formulation of design of optimum equi

ripple linear phase FIR filter?

a) Butterworth approximation

b) Chebyshev approximation

c) Hamming approximation


36. The Nyquist theorem for sampling

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1) Relates the conditions in time domain and frequency domain

2) Helps in quantization

3) Limits the bandwidth requirement

4) Gives the spectrum of the signal

a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b) 1 and 2 are correct

c) 1 and 3 are correct

d) All the four are correct

37. The transforming relations performed by DTFT are

1) Linearity

2) Modulation

3) Shifting

4) Convolution

a) 1,2 and 3 are correct




38. FFT may be used to calculate

1) DFT

2) IDFT

3) Direct Z transform

4) Indirect Z transform





39. The similarity between the Fourier transform and the z transform is that

a) Both convert frequency spectrum domain to discrete time domain

b) Both convert discrete time domain to frequency spectrum domain

c) Both convert analog signal to digital signal

d) Both convert digital signal to analog signal

40. Which among the following represent/s the characteristic/s of an ideal filter?

a) Constant gain in passband

b) Zero gain in stop band

c) Linear Phase Response

d) All of the above

41. FIR filters_____________

A. are non – recursive

B. do not adopt any feedback

C. are recursive

D. use feedback

a) A & B

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b) C & D

c) A & D

d) B & C

42. A discrete time signal may be

1) Samples of a continuous signal

2) A time series which is a domain of integers

3) Time series of sequence of quantities

4) Amplitude modulated wave





43. The probability of error for digital carrier modulation system is minimum for

a) Coherent ASK

b) Coherent PSK

c) Coherent FSK

d) Non-coherent FSK

44. The Bandwidth efficiency of QPSK modulation is double compared to BPSK

modulation. The probability of error for QPSK is

a) Double of BPSK

b) Half of BPSK

c) Same as BPSK

d) One-fourth of BPSK

45. Channel coding is used for

a) Increasing compactness

b) Control Errors

c) Decrease Bandwidth

d) Multiplexing

46. ISI may be removed by using

a) Partial response signalling

b) Manchester coding

c) Viterbi coding

d) Shannon-Fano coding

47. PCM system requires regenerative repeaters over long distances. The correct sequences

of the operations in which such a repeater performs is

a) Timing, equalization & thresholding

b) Equalization, timing & thresholding

c) Timing, thresholding & equalization

d) Timing, equalization & thresholding

48. With Golay code (23, 12) is a codeword of length 23 which may correct

a) 2 errors

b) 3 errors

c) 5 errors

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d) 8 errors

49. With eye pattern, the time interval over which the received signal may be sampled

without error may be explained by

a) Width of eye opening

b) Rate of closure of eye

c) Height of the eye opening

d) All of the above

50. A geostationary satellite

a) is motionless in space except for its spin

b) appears stationary over earth’s magnetic poles

c) orbits the Earth with a 24 hr period

d) is located at a height of 25800 km from earth’s surface

51. Quadrature amplitude modulation is a combination of

a) FSK and DPSK

b) ASK and FSK

c) DPSK and ASK

d) ASK and PSK

52. The forbidden gap for germanium is

a) 1.12 eV

b) 0.72 eV

c) 0.30 eV

d) None of these

53. The mobility of electrons in a material is expressed in unit of:

a) V/s

b) m2/V-s

c) m2/s

d) J/K

54. In the diode equation, the voltage equivalent of temperature is

a) 11600/T

b) T/11600

c) T x 11600

d) 11600/T2

55. Which of these has highly doped p and n region?

a) PIN diode

b) Tunnel diode

c) Schottky diode

d) Photo diode

56. The transit time of the current carries through the channel of a JEET decides its

__________________ characteristic

a) Source

b) Drain

c) GATE

d) Source and drain

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57. In IC technology, dry oxidation (using dry oxygen) as compared to wet oxidation

(using steam or water vapour) produces

a) Superior quality oxide with a higher growth rate

b) Inferior quality oxide with a higher growth rate

c) Inferior quality oxide with a lower growth rate

d) Superior quality oxide with a lower growth rate

58. The rules for exchanging data between computers are called

a) Interconnections

b) synchronous packages

c) protocols

d) data transmission synchronization

59. A dual-gate MOSFET is

a) a depletion MOSFET

b) an enhancement MOSFET

c) a VMOSFET

d) either a depletion or an enhancement MOSFET

60. Which of the following devices has the highest input resistance?

a) Diode

b) JFET

c) MOSFET

d) Bipolar junction transistor

61. Which of the following is a type of error associated with digital-to-analog converters

(DACs)?

a) nonmonotonic error

b) incorrect output codes

c) offset error

d) nonmonotonic and offset error

62. A comparator is an example of a(n)

a) Linear circuit

b) Current source

c) Nonlinear circuit

d) Active filter

63. PLAs, CPLDs, and FPGAs are all which type of device?

a) SRAM

b) SLD

c) PLD

d) EPROM

64. In a flash analog-to-digital converter, the output of each comparator is connected to an

input of a:

a) decoder

b) priority encoder

c) multiplexer

d) demultiplexer

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65. The main advantage of C-MOS is its

a) High power rating

b) Small signal operation

c) Switching capability

d) Low power consumption

66. The most popular form of IC package is

a) DIL

b) Flat pack

c) TO-5


67. Which ICs are the most commonly used

a) Thin Film

b) Monolithic

c) Hybrid


68. Frequency selectivity characteristics of DFT refers to:

(a) Ability to resolve different frequency components from input signal

(b) Ability to translate into frequency domain

(c) Ability to convert into discrete signal


69. Decimation is aprocess in which the sampling rate is _____________

(a) Enhanced

(b) Stable

(c) Reduced

(d) Unpredictable

70. A system with gain margin close to unity and phase margin close to zero is

(a) Highly stable

(b) Oscillatory

(c) Relatively stable

(d) Unstable

71. In control system how the steady state error can be reduced?

(a) By increasing system gain

(b) By decreasing the type of the system

(c) By decreasing the static error constant

(d) By increasing the input

72. Which of the following statement is correct for Routh Hurwitz criterion?

a) It gives absolute stability

b) It gives gain and phase margin

c) It gives the number of roots lying in RHS of the s-plane

d) It gives gain, phase margin and number of roots lying in RHS of the s-plane

73. Which of the following material used to construct Tunnel diodes?

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a) Germanium and silicon materials

b) AIGaAs

c) AIGaInP

d) ZnTe

74. Determine the time period of monostable 555 multivibrator.

(a) T=0.33RC

(b) T=3RC

(c) T=1.1RC

(d) T=RC

75. The fabrication of JFET is similar to that of:

a) Diode fabrication

b) BJT fabrication

c) FET fabrication


76. How many complex multiplications are performed in computing the N-point DFT of a

sequence using divide and conquer method if N=LM?

a) N(L+M+2)

b) N(L+M-2)

c) N(L+M-1)

d) N(L+M+1)

77. The phase margin of a system with open-loop transfer function

G(s)H(s)=(1-s)/((1+s)(2+s))

(a) 0º

(b) 63.4 º

(c) 90º

(d) Infinite

78. Compression in PCM refers to relative compression of

(a) Higher signal amplitudes

(b) Lower signal amplitudes

(c) Lower signal frequencies

(d) Higher signal frequencies

79. Thermistor is a transducer. Its temperature coefficient is

(a) Negative

(b)Positive

(c)Zero

(d)Infinite

80. The early effect in a bipolar junction transistor is caused by:

(a) Fast turn ON

(b) Fast turn OFF

(c) Large collector base reverse bias

(d) Large emitter base forward bias

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81. Which of the following codes are single error correcting Hamming codes?

(a) (15, 11),

(b) (7, 4),

(c) (10, 4),

(d) both A and B

82. Lempel-Ziv coding is used as:

(a) Source coding,

(b) Channel coding,

(c) Can be used as both source coding and channel coding,

(d) None of them

83. In input characteristics of CB configuration of BJT, the magnitude of emitter current for

open circuited collector-base junction is

(a) Less than that of short circuited collector base junction.

(b) Greater than that of short circuited collector base junction.

(c) Equal to that of short circuited collector base junction.

(d) None of the above.

84. A silicon PN junction is forward biased with a constant current at room temperature.

When the temperature is increased by 10, the forward bias voltage across the PN

junction

(a) increases by 60 mV

(b) decreases by 60 mV

(c) increases by 25 mV

(d) decreases by 25 mV

85. Drift current in semiconductors depends upon

(a) Only the electric field

(b) Only the carrier concentration gradient

(c) Both the electric field and the carrier concentration

(d) Both the electric field and the carrier concentration gradient

86. In a forward biased PN junction diode, the sequence of events that best describes the

mechanism of current flow is

(a) injection, and subsequent diffusion and recombination of minority carriers

(b) injection, and subsequent drift and generation of minority carriers

(c) extraction, and subsequent diffusion and generation of minority carriers

(d) extraction, and subsequent drift and recombination of minority carriers

87. In IC technology, dry oxidation (using dry oxygen) as compared to wet oxidation (using

steam or water vapor) produces

(a) superior quality oxide with a higher growth rate

(b) inferior quality oxide with a higher growth rate

(c) inferior quality oxide with a lower growth rate

(d) superior quality oxide with a lower growth rate

88. The CBOI is the current that flows when some dc voltage is applied

(a) in the forward direction to the emitter junction with collector open

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(b) in the reverse direction to the emitter junction with collector open

(c) in the reverse direction to the collector junction with emitter open

(d) in the forward direction to the collector junction with emitter open

89. In a MOSFET operating in the saturation region, the channel length modulation effect

causes

(a) an increase in the gate-source capacitance

(b) a decrease in the transconductance

(c) a decrease in the unity-gain cutoff frequency

(d) a decrease in the output resistance

90. A semiconductor is doped with ND (ND>>ni) and has a resistance R1. The same

semiconductor is then doped with an unknown amount of acceptors NA (NA>>ND),

yielding a resistance of 0.5R1. Find NA in terms of ND if Dn/Dp=50.

(a) NA=50ND

(b) NA=ND

(c) NA=2ND

(d) 20NA=ND

91. The diffusion capacitance of a forward biased P N junction diode with a steady current I

depends on

(a) Width of the depleted region

(b) Mean life-time of the electrons

(c) Junction area

(d) Mean life-time of the holes

92. 𝑥 𝑛 = 1

3 𝑛

− 1

2 𝑛

𝑢 𝑛 the region of convergence in Z plane is

(a) 1

3< 𝑍 < 3

(b) 1

2< 𝑍 < 3

(c) 1

3< 𝑍 <

1

2

(d) 1

3< 𝑍

93. The root locus plot for a system is given below. The open loop transfer function

corresponding to this plot is given by

(a) G(s)H(s) = k𝑠(𝑠+1)

𝑠+2 (𝑠+3)

(b) G(s)H(s) = k(𝑠+1)

𝑠 𝑠+2 𝑠+3 ^2

(c) G(s)H(s) = k1

𝑠(𝑠−1)(𝑠+2)(𝑠+3)

(d) G(s)H(s) = k(𝑠+1)

𝑠 𝑠+2 (𝑠+3)

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94. If the unit step response of a network is (1-e-αt

), then its unit impulse response is

(a) αe-αt

(b) α-1e

-αt

(c) (1-α-1

)e-αt

(d) (1-α)e-αt

95. An input x(t)= exp(-2t)u(t) + δ(t-6)is applied to an LTI system with impulse response h(t)=

u(t). The output is:

(a) [1- exp(-2t)] u(t) + u(t+6)]

(b) [1- exp(-2t)] u(t) + u(t-6)]

(c) 0.5[1- exp(-2t)] u(t) + u(t+6)

(d) 0.5[1- exp(-2t)] u(t) + u(t-6)

96. The gain margin (in dB) of a system having loop transfer function 2

( ) ( )( 1)

G s H ss s

is

(a) 0

(b) 3

(c) 6

(d) Infinity

97. If the characteristics equation of a closed-loop system is 2 2 2 0s s , then the system

is

(a) overdamped

(b) critically damped

(c) underdamped

(d) undamped

98. Indicate which one of the following will not exist in a rectangular resonant cavity.

(a) TE110

(b) TE011

(c) TM110

(d) TM111

99. What is meant by the rise time of a waveform?

(a) The time taken for the waveform to increase from 10% to 90% of the height of a

step.

(b) The time taken for the waveform to increase from 0% to 90% of the height of a step.

(c) The time delay from when the input step changes by 50% to when the output step

changes by 50%.

(d) The time taken for the waveform to decrease from 90% to 10% of the height of a

step.

100. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) ECL is widely used in high-speed applications.

(b) ECL suffers from low noise immunity.

(c) ECL is one of the fastest forms of electronic logic.

(d) ECL has high power consumption.


(a) Some PLDs are programmed using electrically operated switches.

(b) Some PLDs are programmed using anti-fuses that are selectively joined.

(c) Some PLDs are programmed using mechanical switches.

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(d) Some PLDs are programmed using fuses that are selectively blown.


(a) Dynamic RAM stores information by charging or discharging capacitors.

(b) RAM is volatile.

(c) Static RAM stores information by energizing or de-energising inductors.

(d) RAM is memory that can be written and read quickly.

103. The filter that may not be realized by approximation of derivatives techniques are

1) Band pass filters

2) High pass filters

3) Low pass filters

4) Band reject filters





104. In direct form for realization of IIR filters

1. Denominator coefficients are the multipliers in the feed forward paths

2. Multipliers in the feedback paths are the positives of the denominator coefficients

3. Numerator coefficients are the multipliers in the feed forward paths

4. Multipliers in the feedback paths are the negatives of the denominator coefficients

Which statements are correct?

(a) 1,2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1,2,3 and 4

105. A certain source has 8 symbols and emits data in blocks of 3 symbols at the rate of 1000

blocks per second. The first symbol in each block is always the same, for

synchronization purposes; the remaining 2 places are filled by any of the 8 symbols with

equal probability. The source information rate is

a) 3 Kbps

b) 8 Kbps

c) 9 Kbps

d) 6 Kbps

106. If the signal (as mentioned in the previous question) has to be transmitted as M-ary PAM

over a 60 kHz channel, what value of M is needed?

a) 8

b) 16

c) 4

d) 32

107. The minimum number of bits required for PCM with a dynamic range of 40Db is

a) 4

b) 5

c) 6

d) 7

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The following statement is given for question with serial nos. 108 and 109:

An air-filled circular cylindrical cavity resonator with dimensions; radius of 3.4 cm

and length of 12 cm resonates in TE111 mode. The 3 dBbandwidth is 2.4 GHz, given

that P11 =1.841.

108. The resonant frequency is

a) 1.871 GHz

b) 3.871 GHz

c) 4.871 GHz

d) 2.871 GHz

109. The Q (quality factor) of the cavity is

a) 1296.80

b) 1096.80

c) 1196.80

d) 1398.80

110. For a BJT, the common – base current gain α= 0.98 and the collector base junction

reverse bias saturation current I CO = 0.6 𝜇A. This BJT is connected in the common

emitter mode and operated in the active region with a base drive current IB =20𝜇A. The

collector current IC for this mode of operation is

a) 0.98 mA

b) 0.99 mA

c) 1.0 mA

d) 1.01 mA

111. Group I lists four different semiconductor device. Match each device in Group I with its

characteristics property in Group II

Group – I Group – II

P. BJT 1. Population inversion

Q.MOS Capacitor 2. Pinch – off Voltage

R. LASER diode 3. Early Effect

S. JFET 4.Flat – band Voltage

P Q R S

(a) 3 1 4 2

(b) 2 4 3 2

(c) 3 4 1 2

(d) 3 2 1 4

112. A three stage amplifier has individual stage gains of 5 dB, 20dB and 4dB. What is the

cascade gain?

a) 400 dB

b) 200 dB

c) 29 dB

d) 11 dB

113. Most look-up tables in field – programmable gate arrays (FGPAs) use_______ inputs,

resulting in ________possible outputs.

a) 4, 16

b) 8, 16

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c) 4, 12

d) 6, 12

114. The resolution of a 0-5 V 6-bit digital-to-analog converter (DAC) is:

a) 63%

b) 64%

c) 1.56%

d) 15.6%



(a) 4/13

(b) 4/9

(c) 4

(d) 13

116. In a Bode magnitude plot, which one of the following slopes would be exhibited at high

frequencies by a 4th order all pole system?

(a) -80 dB/decade

(b) -40 dB/decade

(c) +40 dB/decade

(d) +80 dB/decade

117. Let x(t)↔X(jω) be Fourier Transform pair. The Fourier Transform of the signal x(5t-3)

in terms of X(jω) is given as

(a) 15e-j3ω/5 X(jω/5)

(b) 15ej3ω/5 X(jω/5)

(c) 15e-j3ω X(jω/5)

(d) 15ej3ω X(jω/5)

118. The initial and final values of z-domain signal given by 2z-1/(1-1.8z-1+0.8z-2) are

(a) 10, 1

(b) 1, 10

(c) 0, 10

(d) 0, infinity


(a) x(t)= cos2t + cos3t + cos5t

(b) x(t)=exp(j8πt)

(c)x(t)=exp(-7t) sin10πt

(d)x(t)= cos2t cos4t

120. The capacity of a communication channel with 4KHz bandwidth and 15dB SNR is

approximately

(a) 20Kbps

(b) 16 Kbps

(c) 10 Kbps

(d) 32 Kbps

------------

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INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING/INSTRUMENTATION &

CONTROL ENGINEERING


PAPER-II

Instructions:





wrong answer.



vi. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or blue

ball point pen.





1. Which of the following parameters plays an important role in improving the

performance of MOSFET device?

a) Dielectric constant

b) Threshold voltage

c) Gate to drain voltage

d) Power supply voltage

2. The range of tunnel diode voltage VD, for which slope of its V-I characteristics is

negative would be? (The VP is the peak voltage and VV is the valley voltage).

a) VD>0

b) 0<VD<VP

c) VD>VV

d) VV>VD>VP

3 Which of the following material used to construct Tunnel diodes?

a) Germanium and silicon materials

b) AIGaAs

c) AIGaInP

d) ZnTe

4 Which of the following is true about the temperature coefficient or TC of the zener

diode?

a) For zener voltage less than 5V, TC is negative

b) For zener voltage around 5V, TC can be made zero

c) For higher values of Zener voltage, TC is positive


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5 Which of the following can be used in series with a Zener diode so that combination has

almost zero temperature coefficient?

a) Transistor

b) Resistor

c) Diode

d) MOSFET

6 Zener diodes can be effectively used in voltage regulator. However, they are these days

being replaced by

a) Operational amplifier

b) MOSFET

c) Integrated circuits


7 For a BJT Vt is 5V, Rc = 1000 ohm and bias current Ic is 12mA. The value of the

voltage gain is _________

a) -1.2 V/V

b) -2.4 V/V

c) -3.6 V/V

d) -4.6 V/V

8 Find out the input resistance is a common emitter transistor amplifier has a collector

current of 10mA, when its base current is 25μA at the room temperature.

a) 2kΩ

b) 1kΩ

c) 8kΩ

d) 7 kΩ

9 A depletion type N channel MOSFET with kn W/L = 2mA/V2 and Vt = 3V has its

source and gate grounded. For Vd = 0.1V and neglecting channel length modulating

effect. Find drain current

a) 1.28 mA

b) 0.89 mA

c) 0.69 mA

d) 0.34 mA

10 Which of the following is the correct relationship between IB and IE?

IE = (β + 1) IB

IB = IE

IB = (β + 1) IE

IB = β IE

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11 Find out the configuration of the following MOSFET circuit

a) Common source (CS)

b) Common Drain (CD)

c) Common Gate (CG)


12 Find out which of the following device can be operated as a fastest switching device.

a) MOSFET

b) Triode

c) JEFT

d) BJT

13 Which of the following technique is used to reduce the magnitude of threshold voltage

of MOSFET?

a) Use of silicon nitride

b) Use of complementary MOSFET

c) Using thin film technology


14 During the construction of ICs why MOSFET is preferred over BJT?

a) MOSFET has low packing density

b) MOSFET has medium packing density

c) MOSFET has high packing density

d) MOSFET has no packing density

15 Which type of power transistor is chosen for a discrete power booster?

a) Emitter follower stage

b) collector follower stage

c) Base follower stage


16 Output current in the case of general purpose op-amp can be increased by using

a) Power booster

b) Power amplifier

c) Power resistor

d) Power comparator

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17 Which of the following device is a non-linear device?

a) Diode

b) Resistance

c) Op-amp

d) Capacitor

18 Which of the following represents LC tuned circuit?

a) Wien bridge oscillator

b) T oscillator

c) Hartley oscillator


19 Which of the following oscillators have higher stability at higher frequency?

a) Wien bridge oscillator

b) Crystal oscillator

c) RC phase shift oscillator


20 In a multiplexer the output depends on its:

a) Data inputs

b) Select inputs

c) Select outputs


21 Determine the time period of monostable 555 multivibrator:

a) T=0.33RC

b) T=3RC

c) T=1.1RC

d) T=RC

22 In the Astable multivibrator Free running frequency is given as:

a) f=1.45/(RA+2RB)C

b) f=1.45 (RA+2RB)C

c) f=1.45C/(RA+2RB)

d) f=1.45 RA/(RA+RB)

23 The fabrication of JFET is similar to that of:

a) Diode fabrication

b) BJT fabrication

c) FET fabrication


24 The result obtained after (100101-011110) is:

a) 000111

b) 111000

c) 010101

d) 101010

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25 Carry out BCD subtraction for (68) – (61) using 10’s complement method:

a) 00000111

b) 01110000

c) 10000011

d) 01111000

26 How many bits would be required to encode decimal numbers 0 to 9999 in straight

binary codes:

a) 12

b) 14

c) 18

d) 16

27 In Boolean algebra, the OR operation is performed by which properties?

a) Associative properties

b) Commutative properties

c) Distributive properties


28 Simplify Y = AB’ + (A’ + B)C

a) AB’ + C

b) AB + AC

c) A’B + AC’

d) AB + A

29 Which expression is shown by the Y = AB+BC+AC

a) EX-OR

b) POS

c) SOP

d) NOR

30 The canonical sum of product form of the function y(A,B) = A+B is

a) AB + BB + A’A

b) AB + AB’ + A’B

c) BA + BA’ + A’B’


31 The K-map based Boolean reduction is based on the following Unifying Theorem:

A + A’ = 1

a) Impact

b) Non-Impact

c) Force


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32 Using the transformation method, you can realize any POS realization of OR – AND

with only

a) XOR

b) NAND

c) AND

d) NOR

33 Which of the following logic families has the shortest propagation delay?

a) S-TTL

b) AS-TTL

c) HS-TTL

d) HCMOS

34 What causes low power Schottky TTL to use less power than the 74XX series in TTL?

a) A larger value resistor

b) The Schottky clamped transistor

c) Using NAND gates


35 Which two broad categories can be classified according to the IC fabrication process of

logic families:

a) HTL and MOS

b) RTL and TTL

c) ECL and DTL

d) Bipolar and MOS

36 The limitations of the one transistor RTL NOR gate are overcome by

a) Multi transistor RTL implementation

b) Three transistor RTL implementation

c) Two transistor RTL implementation


37 TTL circuits with “totem-pole” output stage minimize

a) The power dissipation in RTL

b) The time consumption in RTL

c) The speed of transferring rate in RTL

d) Nothing

38 The ECL circuits are generally operated with the

a) Negative voltage

b) Positive voltage

c) Grounded voltage


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39 The input of a controller is

a) Sensed signal

b) Error signal

c) Desired variable value

d) Signal of fixed amplitude not dependent on desired variable value

40 In control system excessive bandwidth is not employed because

a) Noise is proportional to bandwidth

b) It leads to low relative stability

c) It leads to slower time response

d) Noise is proportional to the square of the bandwidth

41 Assertion (A): Electric actuators are used control system for high torque application.

Reason (R): Due to linear Speed-Torque characteristics.

a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A

b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A



42 The rotational speed of a given stepper motor is determined solely by the

a) Input current

b) Step pulse frequency

c) Polarity of stator current

d) Magnitude of stator current

43 In a stepper motor having 8 stator poles and 4 rotor poles, what will be the step angle of

a permanent magnet.

a) 80O

b) 45O

c) 30O

d) 25O

44 On the basis of internal bus architecture, the micro controllers, can be classified as

a) 8,16,32,64 bits

b) 4,8,16,32 bits

c) 8,16 bits

d) 4,16,32 bits

45 Micro controllers are not considered as general purpose devices because

a) They are based on VLSI technology

b) They are not meant to do a single work at a time

c) They are cheap

d) They consume low power

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46 Which of the following supports CISC as well as Harvard architecture?

a) ARM7

b) SHARC

c) ARM9


47 Which instruction in microprocessor is used to check the status of a single bit?

a) MOV A, P0

b) ADD A,#05H

c) JNB PO.0, label

d) CLR P0.05H

48 AT89C2051 Has RAM of

a) 128 bytes

b) 256 bytes

c) 64 bytes

d) 512 bytes

49 In the microprocessor/ microcontroller the advantages of assembly level programming is

a) Flexibility of programming is more

b) Chances of error are less

c) Debugging is easy


50 The stack follows the sequence as

a) First-in-first out

b) First-in-last out

c) Last -in-first out

d) last-in-last out

51 The INTR interrupt may be

a) Nonmaskable

b) Maskable

c) Maskable and nonmaskable


52 At the end of ISR, the instruction should be

a) END

b) ENDS

c) IRET

d) INTR

53 The cascaded mode, the number of vectored interrupts provided by 8259A is

a) 32

b) 8

c) 16

d) 64

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54 In 8255A BSR mode, only port C can be used to

a) Set individual ports

b) Reset individual ports

c) Set and reset individual ports

d) Programmable I/O ports

55 The feature of mode 2 of 8255 is

a) Single 8 bit port is available

b) Both input and outputs are latched

c) Port C is used for generating handshake signals


56 Which of the following have four transfer modes?

a) Intel 8237

b) Intel 8254

c) Intel 8259

d) Intel 8253

57 Which of the following requires its own local memory and program?

a) DMA controller

b) DMA address

c) DMA CPU

d) DMA peripheral

58 How many types of exceptions are associated with the asynchronous imprecise?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

59 The most basic nonvolatile memory is

a) ROM

b) PROM

c) EPROM

d) Flash Memory

60 How many memory locations can be accessed by 8086?

a) 1M

b) 2M

c) 3M

d) 4M

61 What does SIMM stand for?

a) Single in line memory module

b) Single interrupt memory module

c) Single information memory module

d) Same in line memory module

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62 Which of the following signals is monotonic?

a) x(t) = t3 -2t

b) x(t) = sin(t)

c) x(t) = sin22(t) + cos

22(t)-2t

d) x(t) = log(cos(t))

63 An example of a discrete set of information/system is

a) The trajectory of the Sun

b) Data on a CD

c) Universe time scale

d) Movement of water through a pipe

64 In the discrete time system comment on the causality of: y[n] = x[n+3].

a) Anti-Causal

b) Non Casual

c) Casual


65 If n tends to infinity, Is the accumulator function an unstable one?

a) The function is marginally stable

b) The function is unstable

c) The function is stable


66 Is the system h(t) = exp(-jwt) stable?

a) Yes

b) No

c) Cannot say


67 The consequences of marginally stable system are:

a) The system will turn out to be critically damped

b) The system will be an overdamped system

c) It will be damped system

d) Purely oscillatory system

68 IF h1, h2 and h3 are cascaded, and h1 = u(t), h2 = exp(t) and h3 = sin(t), find the overall

impulse response:

a) sin(t)*exp(t)*u(t)

b) sin(t)+exp(t)+u(t)

c) u(t)*sin(t)

d) all of the mentioned

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69 The emitter current IE in a transistor is 3mA. If the leakage current ICBO is 5µA and

α=0.98, calculate the collector and base current

a) 3.64mA and 35µA

b) 2.945mA and 55µA

c) 3.64mA and 33µA

d) 5.89mA and 65µA

70 How many complex multiplications are performed in computing the N-point DFT of a

sequence using divide and conquer method if N=LM?

a) N(L+M+2)

b) N(L+M-2)

c) N(L+M-1)

d) N(L+M+1)

71 What is the z transformation of the finite duration signal?

𝑥(n)= 2,4,5,7,0,1

↑

a) 2+4z +5z2+7z

3 +z

4

b) 2+4z +5z2+7z

3 +z

5

c) 2+4z-1

+5z-2

+7z-3

+z-5

d) 2z2+4z +5 +7z

-1 +z

-3

72 In biomedical the signals generated by body sign al is known as

a) Ionic voltage

b) Monitory single

c) Magnetic signal


73 Resting potential is shown by the which of the following cell

a) Depolarized cell

b) Polarized cell

c) Ionic cell

d) Resting cell

74 What are the tolerance value that are obtained by using ECG process?

a) ±0.01 mm

b) ±0.03 mm

c) ±0.05 mm

d) ±0.07 mm

75 The tolerance values in ECG depend on which of the following factors?

a) Electrolyte flow

b) Feed rate

c) Metallurgy of material


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76 What are the values of radii of corners obtained in ECG?

a) 0.13 to 0.227 mm

b) 0.25 to 0.375 mm

c) 0.46 to 0.525 mm

d) 0.55 to 0.675 mm

77 The vectored address corresponding to the software interrupt command RST7 in 8085

microprocessors is

a) 0017H

b) 0027H

c) 0038H

d) 0700H

78 Watervapour absorbs electromagnetic radiation primarily in the range of

a) X-ray

b) IR

c) UV

d) Gamma-ray

79 Which one of the following cannot be connected directly to the output module of PLC?

a) Lamp

b) Push button

c) LED

d) Motor

80 Signal averaging is a technique used to

a) Fuse the sensory information

b) Remove errors in repetitive signal

c) Add multi sensor information

d) None of above

PART-B (40X2 = 80 Marks)

81 A 9.1-V zener diode exhibits its nominal voltage at a test current of 28 mA. At this

current the incremental resistance is specified as 5Ω. Find Vz0 of the zener model.

a) 8.96V

b) 9.03V

c) 9.17V

d) 9.24V

82 A designer requires a shunt regulator of approximately 20V. Two kinds of Zener diodes

are available: 6.8V devices with rz of 10Ω and 5.1V devices with rz of 30Ω. For the two

major choices possible, find the load regulation. Inthis calculation neglect the effect of

the regulator resistance R.

a) -30mV/mA and 120 mV/mA respectively

b) 30mV/mA and 60 mV/mA respectively

c) -60mV/mA and +60 mV/mA respectively

d) -30mV/mA and -120 mV/mA respectively

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83 Efficiency of a centre tapped full wave rectifier is __________.

a) 52%

b) 46%

c) 70%

d) 81.2%

84 A full wave rectifier delivers 50W to a load of 200Ω. If the ripple factor is 2%, calculate

the AC ripple across the load

a) 2V

b) 5V

c) 4V

d) 1V

85 Ripple factor of a half wave rectifier is ________ (Im is the peak current and RL is load

resistance).

a) 1.414

b) 1.21

c) 1.4

d) 0.48

86 Find the output waveform for when Vin< Vref as the circuit given below:

87 The transistor in the circuit below is biased at a dc collector current of 0.5 mA. What is

the voltage gain?

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a) -100 V/V

b) -10 V/V

c) -1 V/V

d) -1000 V/V

88 For the amplifier circuit of fig. The transistor has β of 800. The mid band voltage gain

VO/VIN of the circuit will be ______________

a) 0

b) <1

c) =1

d) 800

89 In the NMOS transistor of the circuit shown below is biased to have gm =1mA/V and

ro=100kΩ.

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Find fH if Cgs = 1 pF and Cgd =0.2pF

a) 875 kHz

b) 875 kHz

c) 875 Khz

d) 875 kHz

90 An inverting amplifier with nominal gain of -20V/V employs an op amp having a dc

gain of 104 and unity gain frequency of 106 Hz. What is the 3-db frequency f3dB of

closed loop amplifier?

a) 2π 23.8 kHz

b) 2π 47.6 kHz

c) 2π 71.4 kHz

d) 2π 95.2 kHz

91 A stepper motor having a resolution of 300 steps/rev and running at 2400 rpm has a

pulse rate of –pps

a) 4000

b) 8000

c) 6000

d) 10000

92 If a hybrid stepper motor has a rotor pitch of 36O and a step angle of 9

O, the number of

its phases must be

a) 4

b) 6

c) 3

d) 8

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93 What is the DFT of the four point sequence x(n)=0,1,2,3?

a) 6, -2+2j-2,-2-2j

b) 6,-2-2j,2,-2+2j

c) 6,-2+2j,-2,-2-2j

d) 6,-2-2j,-2,-2+2j

94 Which of the following operation is performed by the blocks given in the figure below?

a) Sampling rate conversion by factor I

b) Sampling rate conversion by factor D

c) Sampling rate conversion by factor D/I

d) Sampling rate conversion by factor I/D

95 The impulses response of an LTI system is given as:sin wcn

𝜔𝑐

𝜋 n = 0

=sin wcn n ≠ 0

𝜋𝑛 It represents an ideal

a) Non causal, low pass filter

b) Causal, low pass filter

c) Non causal, high pass filter

d) Causal, high pass filter

96 Discrete time signal x[n] is obtained by sampling an analog signal at 10 kHz. The signal

x[n] is filtered by a system with impulse response h[n]=0.5 δ[n]+ δ[n-1]. The 3db

cutoff frequency of the filter is

a) 1.25 kHz

b) 2.50 kHz

c) 4.00 kHz

d) 5.00 kHz

97 A plant has an open loop transfer function,

Gp(s)= 20

(𝑠+0.1)(𝑠+2)(𝑠+100)

The approximate model obtained by retaining only one of the above poles, which is

close to the frequency response of the original transfer function at low frequency is

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(a) 0.1

𝑠+0.1

(b) 2

𝑠+2

(c) 100

𝑠+100

(d) 20

𝑠+0.1

98 In order to remove respiration related motion artifacts from an ECG signal, the

following filter should be used:

a) Low pass filter with fc=0.5 Hz

b) High pass filter with fc=0.5 Hz

c) High pass filter with fc=49.5 Hz

d) Band pass filter with pass band between 0.1 Hz and 0.5 Hz

99 Consider the control system shown in figure with feed forward action for rejection of a

measurable disturbance d(t). the value of K, for which the disturbance response at the

output y(t) is zero mean, is:

a) 1

b) -1

c) 2

d) -2

100 Given the discrete time sequence x[n] = [2,0, -1, -3,4,1, -1], X(ejΠ

) is

a) 8

b) 6Π

c) 8Π

d) 6

101 For N-bit successive approximation ADCs other parameters such as clock frequency

remaining constant, the conversion time is proportional to

a) N2

b) c) logN

d) N

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102 In the circuit shown in the figure, assuming ideal diode characteristics with zero forward

resistance and 0.7V forward drop, the average value of Vo when the input waveform is

as shown as:

a) -0.7 V

b) -1.0 V

c) -2.0 V

d) -2.7 V

103 In an 8085 microprocessor the value of the stack pointer (SP) is 2010 and that of DE

register pair is 1234H before the following code is executed. The value of the DE

register pair after the following code is executed is

LXI H, 0000H

PUSH H

PUSH H

POP B

DAID SP

XCHG

a) 200EH

b) 200CH

c) 2010H

d) 1232H

104 Notwithstanding overflow, the addition and subtraction of K-bit signed binary number

can be realized using One K-bit full adde3r and

a) K 2-Input AND Gates

b) K 2-Input NOR Gates

c) K 2-Input OR Gates

d) K 2-Input XOR Gates

105 Identify the logic gate given in the figure

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a) NOR

b) NAND

c) AND

d) OR

106 A quartz clock employs a ceramic crystal with a nominal resonance frequency of 32.768

kHz. The clock loose 30.32 s every 23 days. The actual resonance frequency of the

crystal is

a) 32.7685 kHz

b) 32.768 kHz

c) 32.7675 kHz

d) 32.7670 kHz

107 The parameters of the JEET in Fig. are: gm= 1 mA/V, rd = 15kΩ. Neglecting the effect

of capacitor for A.C., analysis, the small signal A.C. voltage gain for the circuit is

a) -30

b) -10

c) +4

d) +60

108 The sink current of the TTL NAND gate shown in Fig is 16mA and the input

capacitance of the CMOS NAND gate is 10pF. The minimum pull up time constant in

ns for the CMOS gate with these specifications is

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a) 10.2

b) 7.5

c) 8.5

d) 6.5

109 In Fig., initially Q=A=B=0. After three clock triggers, the states of Q,A and B will be

respectively

a) 110

b) 011

c) 001

d) 101

110 7EH and 5FH and XORed. The output is multiplied by 10H. The result is

a) 0210H

b) 7E5FH

c) 5F7EH

d) 2100H

111 The following 8085 instructions are executed sequentially

PROG: XRA A

MOV L,A

MOV H, L

INX H

DAD H

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After execution, the content of HL register pair is

a) 0000H

b) 0101H

c) 0001H

d) 0002H

112 Consider the linear circuit with and ideal op-amp shown in the figure:

The Z-parameters of the two port feedback network are Z11 = Z22 = 11kΩ and Z12 =

Z21 = 1kΩ. The gain of the amplifier is

a) +110

b) +11

c) -1

d) -120

113 A FET source follower is shown in the figure below

The nature of feedback in this circuit is

a) Positive current

b) Negative current

c) Positive voltage

d) Negative voltage

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114 The ECG of a patient is being recorded using the three standard frontal plane leads. If,

the cardiac vector is oriented at an angle of 45 degrees to Lead I and has amagnitude of

3mV, the voltages seen on leads, I, II and III are:

a) 1.50, 2.27 and 0.77 mV

b) 2.12, 0.77, and 2.89 mV

c) 2.12, 3.15 and 1.03 mV

d) 2.12, 2.89, and 0.77 Mv

115 The H-D curves of two X-ray films, F1 and F2, are shown below:

a) The curves show that, for the save change in exposure, F1 has

b) Higher contrast than F2 but the same fog level

c) Lower contrast than F2 but the same fog level

d) Higher contrast and higher fog level than F2

e) Lower contract than F2 but higher fog level

116 Match the following biomedical instrumentation techniques with their application

P. Otoscopy U. Respiratory volume measurement

Q. Ultrasound Technique V. Ear Diagnostics

R. Spirometry W. Echo cardiography

S. Thermodilution technique X. Heart volume measurement

a) P-U;Q-V;R-X;S-W

a) P-V;Q-U;R-X;S-W

b) P-V;Q-W;R-U;S-X

c) P-V;Q-W,R-X,S-U

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117 Find the op-amp common mode configuration:

118 Calculate the common mode voltage gain for the circuit:

a) 30*10

-3

b) 17*10-3

c) 51*10-3

d) 2.4*10-3

119 Determine the common mode output voltage. Given CMRR=65db

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a) 2.81mV

b) 281.17mV

c) 28.11mV

d) 0.281Mv

120 In CB configuration, the value of α = 0.98A. A voltage drop of 4.9V is obtained across

the resistor of 5KΩ when connected in collector circuit. Find the base current.

a) 0.01mA

b) 0.07 mA

c) 0.02 mA

d) 0.05 mA

SUBJECT : MECHANICAL ENGG

PAPER CODE : UG2MEE22 PAPER : 2

NOTE : Options a,b,c and d are represented as 1,2,3 and 4 respectively

in OMR sheet (a=1,b=2,c=3 and d=4)

===============================================================

1 - c 31 - b 61 - d 91 - d

2 - b 32 - b 62 - a 92 - a

3 - a 33 - d 63 - a 93 - a

4 - d 34 - a 64 - b 94 - a

5 - c 35 - b 65 - c 95 - c

6 - c 36 - d 66 - a 96 - d

7 - b 37 - b 67 - c 97 - b

8 - c 38 - a 68 - a 98 - d

9 - c 39 - c 69 - a 99 - b

10 - d 40 - c 70 - c 100 - d

11 - d 41 - c 71 - b 101 - c

12 - b 42 - b 72 - b 102 - d

13 - c 43 - d 73 - a 103 - a

14 - d 44 - b 74 - a 104 - a

15 - b 45 - c 75 - d 105 - b

16 - a 46 - d 76 - a 106 - c

17 - a 47 - d 77 - d 107 - a

18 - d 48 - d 78 - b 108 - c

19 - d 49 - c 79 - d 109 - d

20 - a 50 - b 80 - a 110 - a

21 - b 51 - a 81 - c 111 - b

22 - b 52 - a 82 - a 112 - b

23 - a 53 - b 83 - b 113 - c

24 - c 54 - c 84 - c 114 - a

25 - a 55 - d 85 - d 115 - d

26 - a 56 - b 86 - d 116 - a

27 - c 57 - b 87 - a 117 - b

28 - b 58 - c 88 - b 118 - d

29 - c 59 - c 89 - a 119 - a

30 - d 60 - d 90 - c 120 - c

===============================================================

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MECHATRONICS ENGINEERING


PAPER-II

Instructions:





wrong answer.








PART-A (80x1= 80 Marks)

1. The following main dynamic characteristic(s) is usually considered in Mechatronics

application of sensors.

a) Response time

b) Rise time

c) Time constant

d) All of the above

2. The ability of the sensor to give same output reading when same input value is applied

repeatedly is known as

a) Stability

b) Repeatability

c) Accuracy

d) Sensitivity

3. It is the time required to come to an output value within the specified error level.

a) Response time

b) Rise time

c) Settling time


4. Following is not an example of transducer.

a) Voltmeter

b) Thermocouple

c) Photo electric cell

d) Pneumatic cylinder

5. Following is (are) true for Hall Effect sensors.

a) They can operate as switches of high frequency

b) They cost less than electromechanical switches

c) They are free from contact bounce problem

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d) All of the above

6. Any radiation of appropriate wavelength fall on the depletion layer of p-n junction develops

a potential difference between the junction is working principle of

a) Hall Effect sensor

b) Proximity sensor

c) Light sensor

d) All of the above

7. MEMS components range in size from

a) 1μm to 1mm

b) 1nm to 1 μm

c) 1mm to 1cm

d) 1nm to 1mm

8. Pressure sensor works on the principle of

a) Deflection of a thin diaphragm

b) Heating of a thin diaphragm

c) Magnetization of a thin diaphragm

d) All of the above

9. Microfluidics is extensively used in_____ application of MEMS

a) Thermo mechanical

b) Biomedical

c) Electromechanical

d) All of the above

10. Sensors are classified on the basis of

a) Functions

b) Performance

c) Output

d) All of the above

11. Following acts as detector in Optical sensor

a) Light emitting diode

b) Photo diode

c) Transistor

d) All of the above

12. If a circuit has to switch between two power sources, then which type of switch is required?

a) SPST

b) SPDT

c) DPDT

d) DPST

13. A check valve is a/an:

a) Directional control valve.

b) Counterbalance valve.

c) Reducing valve.

d) Pressure valve.

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14. Why is the pilot operated check valve used in clamping operation?

a) To reduce leakage in spool valve.

b) To avoid decrease in pressure during clamping.

c) Both a) and b)

d) To avoid increase in pressure during clamping.

15. When PLC connections are used instead of electrical connections, the order of operations to

be performed can be interchanged by

a) Changing hardwired connections.

b) Changing sequence of program.

c) Both a) and b)


16. Which of the following operates only on physical contact with the actuating system?

a) Inductive switch

b) Capacitive switch

c) Reed switch

d) Limit switch

17. In an old car without power steering, the driver steers heavily to turn wheels and axles, but in

a modern car, steering fluid does most of the work. Power steering is an example of

a) Pneumatic power at work.

b) Hydraulic power at work.

c) Electrical power at work.

d) Mechanical power at work.

18. How is tilting action possible in trucks for unloading the gravel material using hydraulic

power?

1. Tilting action is possible if, oil flows at high pressure into the cylinder

2. Tilting action is possible if, air flows at low pressure into the cylinder.

3. The truck body tilts when piston rod in the actuator is pushed out.

4. Tilting action is possible if air is compressed at high pressure

a) 1 and 3

b) 2 and 4

c) 3 and 4


19. A cylinder with an actual 2:1 rod in a regeneration circuit will:

a) Extend twice as fast as retract.

b) Extends and retract at the same speed.

c) Cannot regenerate a 2:1 rod cylinder.

d) Extend twice fast and retract at half speed.

20. The symbol is for a

a) Hydraulic motor

b) Pneumatic motor

c) Hydraulic pump

d) Compressor

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21. When the axis of the first and last wheels are coaxial, then the train is known as

a) Simple train of wheels

b) Reverted gear train

c) Compound train of wheels

d) Epicyclic gear train

22. An aluminum member is designed on the basis of

a) Yield stress

b) Elastic limit stress

c) Proof stress

d) Ultimate stress

23. Which of the following welded joint is designed for shear strength?

a) Transverse fillet welded joint

b) Parallel fillet welded joint

c) Butt welded joint

d) All of these

24. The cross-section of the arm of a bell crank lever is

a) Rectangular

b) Elliptical

c) I-section

d) Any one of these

25. The property of a bearing material which has the ability to accommodate small particles of

dust, grit etc. without scoring the material of the journal, is called

a) Bondability

b) Embedability

c) Conformability

d) Fatigue strength

26. When two non-intersecting and non-coplanar shafts are connected by gears, the arrangement

is known as

a) Spur gearing

b) Helical gearing

c) Spiral gearing

d) Bevel gearing

27. Light impurities in the molten metal are prevented from reaching the mould cavity by

providing

a) Skim bob

b) Button well

c) Strainer

d) All of the above

28. Among the list which is not network systems and method of communication in PLC?

a) MelsecNET

b) GENET

c) TIWAY

d) CSMA.

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29. If an input device receives current from the input module of the PLC, input module is

referred to as ___________.

a) Sinking

b) Sourcing.

c) Isolation.

d) Coupling.

30. The processing inputs in PLC using mass input /output copying is _____________.

a) Scan all the inputs and copy their states into RAM

b) Slower process than continuous updating

c) By examining each input as it occurs in the program


31. A circuit that being energized maintains the state until another input is received is called

_____

a) Looping circuit

b) b) Dominant circuit

c) Latch circuit

d) Safety circuit

32. ____________ are programs to perform specific tasks that can be called for use in larger

programs.

a) Jumps

b) Internal relays

c) Subroutines


33. A proximity sensor is connected to a PLC input programmed with a down counter, every

time when the sensor output goes high then:

a) The output is switched on

b) Resets to the value of 100

c) starts counting from 0

d) Count accumulated by the counter decreases by 1

34. When the input to PLC is a thumbwheel form of instructions required will be

a) Binary to binary conversion

b) Digital to binary conversion

c) Integer to BCD conversion

d) Integer to BCD conversion.

35. A fuel-injection system that does not use a sensor to measure the amount (or mass) of air

entering the engine is usually called _____________ type of system.

a) Air vane-controlled

b) Speed density

c) Mass airflow

d) Hot wire

36. The sensor that most determines fuel delivery when a fuel injected engine is first started is

the ___ _____________ .

a) O2S

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b) Engine MAP sensor

c) ECT sensor

d) IAT sensor

37. What type of transduction is used in a throttle angle sensor?

a) Rheostat

b) Voltage generating

c) Potentiometer

d) Piezoelectric

38. A waste-spark-type ignition system fires _____________ .

a) Two spark plugs at the same time

b) One spark plug with reverse polarity

c) One spark plug with straight polarity

d) All of the above

39. What type of device is used in a typical idle air control?

a) DC motor

b) Stepper motor

c) Pulsator-type actuator

d) Solenoid

40. Exhaust gas recirculation (EGR) is generally not needed under all the following conditions

except _____________ .

a) Idle speed

b) Cold engine

c) Cruise speed

d) Wide-open throttle (WOT)

41. When does the power train control module perform a self-test of the electronic throttle

control system?

a) During cruise speed when the throttle is steady

b) During deceleration

c) During acceleration

d) When the ignition switch is first rotated to the on position before the engine starts.

42. The operations of addressed memory devices or port devices are enabled through:

a) Data bus

b) Control bus

c) Address bus

d) Central bus

43. In 8086 microprocessors, trap flag is used for:

a) Prohibiting the interruption of a program

b) String instructions

c) Stepping through the program


44. In assembly language programing, assigning of the specific address of where the object code

are to be loaded into memory is done by:

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a) Assembler

b) Locator

c) Debugger

d) Sequencer

45. The instruction that copies a word from the stack location pointed to by the stack pointer to a

destination specified in the instruction is:

a) POP

b) PUSH

c) PUSHF

d) POPF

46. SBB stands for:

a) Subtract Bit by Bit

b) Subtract with Borrow

c) Shift bit by bit

d) Shift Byte by Byte

47. Which of the following statements is true for 8086 system?

a) A machine cycle is made up of instruction cycles.

b) A state is made up of machine cycles.

c) A machine cycle is made up of states, which in turn are made up of instruction

cycles.

d) An instruction cycle is made up of machine cycles and a machine cycle is made up

of states.

48. An interrupt vector is the:

a) starting address of an interrupt service procedure

b) ending address of an interrupt service procedure

c) low segment register

d) code segment register

49. If the result of DIV operation is too large to fit in the destination register, then the type of

interrupt done by 8086 system will be:

a) TYPE 0

b) TYPE 1

c) TYPE 2

d)TYPE 3

50. The abbreviation USART stands for:

a)Unicode System Architecture

b)Universal Signal Auto Retriever Terminal

c) Universal Synchronous/Asynchronous Receiver Transmitter

d) Unified System Architecture for Real Time operations

51. An external device to “funnel” the interrupt signals into a single interrupt input on the

processor is called:

a) multiplexer

b) Code segmenter

c) Interrupt junction

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d) Priority interrupt controller

52. The circuitry which produces digital information regarding position and speed of rotation of

various motor shafts is:

a) Shaft regulator

b) Shaft encoder

c) Shaft decoder

d) Shaft analyser

53. For generating Coons patch we require

a) A set of grid points on surface

b) A set of control points

c) Four bounding curves defining surface

d) Two bounding curves and a set of grid control points

54. During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the type

of tool motion will be

a) Circular Interpolation - clockwise

b) Circular Interpolation - counterclockwise

c) Linear Interpolation

d) Rapid feed

55. In a 2-D CAD package, clockwise circular arc of radius, 5, specified from P1 (15,10) to P2

(10,15) will have its center at

a) (10, 10)

b) (15, 10)

c) (15, 15)

d) (10, 15)

56. In computer aided drafting practice, an arc is defined by

a) Two end points only

b) Center and radius

c) Radius and one end point

d) Two end points and center

57. The following is not a graphics standard:

a) GKS

b) IGBS

c) UNIX

d) PHIGS

58. In the following three-dimensional modelling techniques. Which do not require much

computer time and memory?

a) Surface modelling

b) Solid modelling

c) Wireframe modelling

d) All of the above

59. The number of lines required to represent a cub: in a wireframe model is:

a) 8

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b) 6

c) l2

d) 16

60. Which of the following is not a synthetic entity?

a) Hyperbola

b) Bezier curve

c) B-spline curve

d) Cubic spline curve

61. The curve that follows a convex hull property is:

a) Cubic spline

b) B-spline

c) Bezier curve

d) Both (b) and (c)

62. Negative feedback in an amplifier.

a) Reduce gain.

b) Increase frequency and phase distortions.

c) Reduces bandwidth.

d) Increases noise.

63. It is seen that a digital alarm clock generates an alarm on reaching the present time. What

will be circuit of the alarm?

a) Digital circuit

b) Combinational circuit

c) Sequential circuit

d) rectifier circuit

64. What will be arithmetic result of B+B?

a) Will be 1

b) Will be 0

c) Will be B

d) Will be complement of B

65. In a 30: 1 MUX, how many select lines are needed?

a) 7

b) 6

c) 5

d) 4

66. What will be the total number of flip-flops required to count 16 clock pulses?

a) 4

b) 2

c) 8

d) 16

67. In a Fourier transform, if L < N, then it results in

a) Sampling

b) Zero-padding

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c) Noise measurement

d) None of these

68. The most efficient method of increasing the speed of a DC shunt motor is

a) Armature control

b) Flux control

c) Ward Leonard

d) Tapped field

69. A counter that starts from a specified number and increments down to zero is known as the

a) Cascading counter

b) up counter

c) down counter

d) reset counter

70. Robot is

a) Reprogrammable machine

b) Automatically controlled machine

c) Multipurpose machine

d) All of the above

71. A revolute joint allows

a) Linear motion

b) Rotational motion

c) Both linear and rotational motions

d) Does not allow any motion

72. Actuators typically used in a robot:

a) Stepper motor

b) DC motor

c) Both stepper and DC motors

d) AC induction motor

73. Sensor used to measure the position of the motor

a) Encoder

b) Resolver

c) Both encoder and resolver

d) Tachometer

74. A rotation matrix has

a) Unity as one of the Eigen values

b) Unity as its determinant

c) Transpose as its inverse

d) All the above

75. At the workspace boundary the determinant of the Jacobean is

a) -1

b) 0

c) 1

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d) Not predictable

76. Following is/are a language used in robot programming

a) VAL

b) Robot-Basic

c) AL

d) All the above

77. Number of DH parameters used in serial link manipulators is

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

78. Homogeneous transformation matrix has the size

a) 3X4

b) 4X3

c) 4X4

d) 6X6

79. Inverse of the homogeneous transformation matrix is

a) Does not exist

b) Its transpose

c) Identity matrix


80. Inverse of the rotation matrix is

a) Does not exist

b) Its transpose

c) Identity matrix


PART-B (40X2= 80 Marks)

81. The thumb rule to classify a rarefied gas is

a) Kn<0.1, Ma<0.3 b) Kn<0.1, Ma>0.3

c) Kn>0.1, Ma<0.3 d) Kn>0.1, Ma>0.3

82. The 300 mm wafers offer _________ times more area for substrates than that by 200 mm

wafers.

a) 2 b) 2.25

c) 2.5 d) 2.75

83. Determine the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor. The two plates have identical

dimensions of L=W=1000μm with a gap d=2μm. Air is the dielectric medium between the

two plates. (€r=1, €o=8.85pF/m).

a) 1.13pF b) 3.33pF

c) 4.43pF d) 8.83pF

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84. Determine the frequency of vibration of a 10mg mass suspended from a spring with a spring

constant k=6x10-5

N/m.

a) 0.93 cycles/s b) 0.39 cycles/s

c) 0.43 cycles/s c) 0.34 cycles/s

85. Determine the equivalent spring constant k and natural frequency ωn of a cantilever beam

element in a micro accelerometer as illustrated in the figure 2. The beam is made of silicon

with a Young's modulus 1,90,000 MPa.

Fig.2

a) 59.39 & 2437 rad/s b) 57.39 & 2347 rad/s

c) 55.39 & 2473 rad/s d) 59.39& 4237 rad/s

86. Determine the pressure drop in a minute stream of alcohol flowing through a section of a

tapered tube 10cm in length. The inlet velocity is 600m/s. The mass density of alcohol is

789.6kg/m. The tube is inclined 30 from the horizontal plane as illustrated in the figure 3.

Fig.3

a) 387.3N/m2 b) 378.3N/m

2

c) 383.3N/m2

d) 787.3N/m2

87. Which of the following is a type of low-torque high-speed motor?

a) Radial piston motors.

b) Axial piston motors.

c) Bent axis motor.

d) Gear motor.

88. Low-torque high-speed motors are used in

a) Cranes b) Winches.

c) Fans. d) Conveyors.

89. Which formula is used to calculate head loss in valves?

a) K2 (v / 2 g) b) K (v / 2 g)

c) K (v2 / 2 g) d) K v

2 g

90. What is the function of sequence valve used in hydraulic circuits?

a) Sequence valves are used to perform number of operations one after the other after the set

pressure is reached.

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b) Sequence valves are used to perform number of operations continuously before the set

pressure is reached.

c) Sequence valves after reaching set pressure oil is flown to the tank.


91. Calculate the power absorbed by the pump if, it has a flow rate of 20 cc/rev and develops a

maximum pressure of 70 bar, when electric motor runs at a speed of 1200 rpm.

a) 1.9 kW b) 2.8 kW

c) 2.3 kW d) 2.6

92. In an arc welding process, the voltage and current are 25 V and 300 A respectively. The arc

heat transfer efficiency is 0.85 and welding speed is 8mm/sec. the net heat input (in J/mm)

is.

a) 64 b) 797

c) 1103 d) 79700

93. Two identical ball bearings P and Q are operating at 30 kN and 45 kN respectively. The ratio

of the life of bearing P to the life of bearing Q is.

a) 81/16 b)9/4

c) 27/8 d) 3/2

94. A ductile material having an endurance limit of 196 N/mm2 and the yield point at 294

N/mm2 is stressed under variable load. The maximum and minimum stresses are 147 N/mm

2

and 49 N/mm2. The fatigue stress concentration factor is 1.32. The available factor of safety

for this loading is

a) 3.0 b) 1.5

c) 1.33 d) 4.0

95. A solid circular shaft of diameter 100 mm is subjected to an axial stress of 50 MPa. It is

further subjected to a torque of 10 kN-m. The maximum principle stress experienced on the

shaft is closest to

a) 41 MPa b) 82 MPa

c) 164 MPa d) 204 MPa

96. A single point cutting tool with a nose radius of 0.4 mm was used to turn a component in a

lathe employing feed rate 0.3 mm/rev. If the feed rate is double, the ideal surface roughness

(peak-to-valley height) produced on the components will increase by a factor of

a) 2 b) 4

c) 8 d) 16

97. In a PLC an ADC is used to sample the output voltage from a pressure sensor. If the output

from the sensor is 0 V when the pressure is 0 kPa and 10 V when it is 10 kPa, the minimum

number of ADC bits needed to resolve the sensor output if the sensor error is not to exceed

0.01 kPa is.

a) 4 b) 8 c) 12 d) 10

98. For the ladder diagram shown in figure 34, there is an output from Output 1 when:

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Figure 4

a) There is just an input to In 1.

b) There is just an input to In 2.

c) There is just an input to In 2 and a momentary input to In 1.

d) There is an input to In 1 or an input to In 2.

99. Which compound gear set uses a planetary gear set in front of a Ravigneaux gear set?

a) Simple gear set b) Simpson gear set

c) Ravigneaux gear set d) Lapelletier gear set

100. When checking the operation of a rear window defogger with a voltmeter,

_____________.

a) The voltmeter should be set to read AC volts.

b) The voltmeter should read close to battery voltage anywhere along the grid.

c) Voltage should be available anytime at the power side ofthe grid because the control

circuit just completes the ground side of the heater grid circuit.

d) The voltmeter should indicate decreasing voltage when thegrid is tested across the width of

the glass.

101. How much power it takes to produce 100 amperes from an alternator?

a) 2.4 hp b) 1.4 hp c) 3.0 hp d) 3.8 hp

102. Which battery rating is expressed in minutes?

a) Cold-cranking amperes (CCA)

b) Cranking amperes (CA)

c) Reserve capacity

d) Battery voltage test

103. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) A static RAM is essentially a matrix of flip-flops while a dynamic RAM is a matrix of

transistors.

b) A static RAM is essentially a matrix of transistors while a dynamic RAM is a matrix of

flip-flops.

c) A static RAM is essentially a matrix of flip-flops while a dynamic RAM is a matrix of

charges on a tiny capacitor.

d) A static RAM is essentially a matrix of charges on a tiny capacitor while a dynamic RAM

is a matrix of flip-flops.

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104. The bus interface unit of 8086 system carries out the following activities:

a) Send out addresses, fetch instructions from memory and execute instructions

b) Fetch instructions from memory, decode and execute instructions

c) Send out addresses, fetch instructions from memory, read data from ports & memory

d) Send out addresses, fetch instructions from memory, read data from ports & memory and

write data to ports & memory.

105. Some of the flags indicating the condition produced by an 8086 instruction are:

a) Carry flag, parity flag and error flag.

b) Auxiliary carry flag overflow flag and interrupt flag.

c) Zero flag, sign flag and control flag.

d) Carry flag, parity flag and auxiliary carry flag.

106. Which of the following 8086 STRING instructions is used to move byte or word from one

string to another?

a)MOVS/MOVSB/MOVSW b) MOVSB

c) MOVSW d) MOVS

107. The drawback of using Liquid Crystal Displays(LCD) is there:

a) High power requirement b) Bulky volume

c) Do not emit their own light d) All of the above

108. While driving a stepper motor in an electronic device, micro stepping is achieved by:

a) ON/OFF switch stepper motor controller

b) Each winding being driven by the output of D/A converter

c) Shaft encoder

d) Either option (a) or (b)

109. In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D point P (5, 10) is to be obtained about a line

which passes through the origin and makes an angle of 45° counterclockwise with the X-

axis. The coordinates of the transformed point will be.

a) (7.5, 5) b) (10, 5) c) (7.5, -5) d) (10, -5)

110. The degrees of freedom of a two-node bar element are:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

111. The degree of the Bezier curve with n control points is:

a) n + 1 b) n - I c) n d) 2n

112. What will be the binary equivalent of gray coded number 10011011?

a) 11101001 b) 11101101 c) 10101101 d) 11100101

113. Select which option is best for F = A' B' + C' + D' + E’?

a) F' = A + B + C + D + E

b) F' =ABCDE

c) F' = AB (C + D + E)

d) F' = (A + B) CDE

114. In a high pass filter, calculate the cut-off frequency when a 82 x 10-12

F capacitor is

connected in series with a 240,000 Ω resistor.

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a) 8 kHz b) 6 kHz c) 3 kHz d) 10 kHz

115. What will be the z-Transform of unit step sequence u(n)? x(nT) = |1, 0| n >0

a) 1 / 1 – z-1

b) 1 / 1 – z-2

c) 1 / 1 + z-1

d) 1 + z-1

116. What is the sampling rate for antialiasing filter if it is required to acquire a signal having

frequency range of 0-200 Hz.

a) 250 cycles/s b) 351 cycles/s c) 432 cycles/s d) 512 cycles/s

117. Manipulator dynamics is

a) Nonlinear

b) Time invariant

c) Coupled

d) All the above

118. Forward kinematics of a serial link manipulator has

a) No solutions

b) Multiple solutions

c) Exactly one solution

d) Unpredictable.

119. Inverse kinematics of a serial link manipulator has

a) No solutions

b) Multiple solutions

c) Exactly one solution

d) Any of the above

120. Relationship between joint velocities and end effector velocities is

a) Linear

b) Nonlinear

c) Does not have any relationship

d) Polynomial

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AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING/MECHANICAL & AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING

Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks:160

PAPER-II

Instructions:





wrong answer.









1. Large speed reduction (greater than 20) in one stage of a gear train are possible through

(a) Spur gearing (b) Worm gearing (c) Bevel gearing (d) Helical gearing

2. Which one of the following is used to convert a rotational motion into a translational

motion?

(a) Bevel gears (b) Double helical gears

(c) Worm gears (d) Rack and pinion gears

3. Which one of the following is criterion in the design of hydrodynamic Journal bearing?

(a) Sommerfeld number (b) Rating life

(c) specific dynamic capacity (d) rotation factor

4. Following type of cam is used for high speed engine

(a) involute (b) cycloidal (c) harmonic (d) flat

5. Anti-friction bearings are

(a) sleeve bearing (b) gas lubricated bearings

(c) ball and roller bearings (d) plastic bearing

6. The standard angle between the sides of V-belt is

(a) 25o

(b) 30o

(c) 40o

(d) 60o

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7. The sleeve or muff coupling is designed as a

(a) thin vessel (b) thick vessel (c) solid shaft (d) hollow shaft

8. Air craft body is usually fabricated by

(a) Welding (b) Precasting (d) Rivetting (d) Casting

9. Stress concentration in static loading is more serious in

(a) ductile material (b) brittle material

(c) equally serious in both cases (d) unpredictable

10. If compression ratio of an engine working on Otto cycle is increased from 5 to 6, its air

standard efficiency will increase by

(a) 1% (b) 20% (c) 16.67% (d) 08%

11. The air-fuel ratio of the petrol engine is controlled by

(a) fuel pump (b) governor (c) injector (d) carburettor

12. Scavenging is usually done to increase

(a) thermal efficiency (b) power output

(c) speed (d) fuel consumption

13. Hunting occurs due to

(a) over control by the governor (b) poor control by the governor

(c) faulty governor (d) bad engine design

14. A two stoke engine is usually identified by

(a) size of fly wheel (b) weight of engine

(c) type of lubrication system (d) absence of valves

15. Fins are provided over engine cylinder in scooter for

(a) higher strength of cylinder (b) better cooling

(c) good appearance (d) higher efficiency

16. The system of lubrication used for motor cycle and scooters is by

(a) forced lubrication system (b) Splash lubrication

(c) wet sump method (d) mixing about 5% lub oil with petrol

17. The firing order in a six cylinder I.C engine is

(a) 1-3-6-5-2-4 (b) 1-4-2-5-6-3 (c) 1-6-2-5-4-3 (d) 1-5-3-4-2-6

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18. The top piston ring nearer to the piston crown is known as

(a) compression ring (b)oil ring (c) scrapper ring (d) groove ring

19. In a cycle the spark lasts roughly for

(a) 1 sec (b) 0.1 sec (c) 0.01 sec (d) 0.001 sec

20. A 75 cc engine has following parameter as 75 cc

(a) fuel tank capacity (b) lub oil capacity (d) swept volume (d) cylinder volume

21. Rocker arms are used in following types of IC engines

(a) side valve engines (b) radial engines

(c) stationary engines (d) overhead valve engines

22. The clutch is installed between the transmission and the

(a) engine (b) rear axle (c) propeller shaft (d) differential

23. If the tractive effort is the highest for a given velocity, then vehicle must be in

(a) top gear (b) third gear (c) second gear (d) first gear

24. The main disadvantage of sliding mesh transmission is

(a) high noise level (b) low mechanical efficiency

(c) high skilled required by the driver (d) all of the above.

25. The type of rear axle on trucks is

(a) Semi floating (b) fully floating

(c) three quarter floating (d) none of the above

26. The component of the wheel cylinder which seals the brake fluid is

(a) piston (b) spring (c) dust cover (d) cup

27. The parking brake usually operates on

(a) front wheels (b) rear wheels (c) left wheels (d) all the wheels

28. Which of the classifications indicates a multigrade oil?

(a) SAE 30 (b) API SF (c) SAE 20W-50 (d) API 50

29. The distance between the centres of the front wheels is called as

(a) wheel track (b) wheel base (c) axle width (d) turning circle

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30. Which of the following type of spring is most commonly used for suspension in heavy

vehicles?

(a) Coil spring (b) Semi elliptic leaf spring

(c) Quarter elliptic leaf spring (d) Plastic spring

31. If the engines run at high speed, producing high temperature and load, the linings in the

bearings are made of

(a) babbit metal (b) cadmium silver alloys

(c) carbon graphite (d) steel

32. The type of bearing most commonly used for main bearing and connecting rod bearing is

(a) ball bearing (b) plain bearing

(c) needle roller bearing (d) taper roller bearing

33. In order to transfer torque, the torque converter uses

(a) air (b) ATF (c) gears (d) a steel belt

34. Vapour lock is most apt to occur in the

(a) fuel lines or pump (b) fuel pump or tank

(c) carburettor or tank (d) tank or gauge line

35. Marketing means

(a) selling products

(b) searching for consumer

(c) conversion of place and possession characteristics of a product


36. Most suitable layout for Job production is

(a) Line layout (b) Matrix labour (c) process layout (d) product layout

37. At break-even point the organisation will have

(a) maximum profit (b) No loss and no gain

(c) Maximum loss (d) Moderate profit

38. The act of assessing the future and make provisions for it is known as

(a) Planning (b) Forecasting (c) Assessment (d) Scheduling

39. Wave like fluctuations in data is known as

(a) cyclic component (b) wave trend (c) wave fluctuations (d) seasonal trend

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40. One of the advantage of method of least square is

(a) it is very easy method

(b) it does not use mathematics

(c) Trend values of all years of the series may be obtained


41. In VED analysis, the letter V stands for

(a) Very important material (b) Viscous material

(c) Weighty material (d) Vital material

42. The lead-time is the time

(a) to place orders for materials

(b) time of receiving materials

(c) time between receipt of materials and using materials

(d) time between placing the order and receiving the materials

43. The first stage in production planning is

(a) Process Planning (b) Factory Planning

(c) Operation Planning (d) Layout planning

44. Assessment problem is solved by

(a) Jhonson and Bellman method (b) Simulation

(c) Transportation algorithm (d) Flood’s techniques

45. Z-chart is a chart used in

(a) Programme control (b) Job control

(c) Cost control (d) Quality Control

46. Dispatching is toughest in

(a) Job production (b) Mass Production (c) Batch production (d) Flow production

47. Computers are used in production control in this area

(a) Follow up activity (b) to control labour

(c) to disseminate information (d) loading, scheduling and assignment work

48. T-code in CNC programming defines

(a) tool and tool offset (b) spindle rotation speed

(c) machine operation (d) alter offset

49. M23 in M code stands for

(a) low gear (b) thread chamfer on

(c) thread chamfer off (d) Program end and rewind

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50. Degree of freedom for robot are

(a) 10 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 5

51. CNC Machines are also called

(a) Soft wired (b) Hard wired

(c) Hard as well as soft wired (d) None of the above

52. The advantage of DNC are

(a) elimination of punched tape

(b) greater flexibility

(c) convenient storage of NC part program in computer files

(d) all of the above

53. Scaling is used to

(a) make the image small (b) enlarge the image

(C) enlarge the image as well as make it small (d) None of the above

54. Purpose of air cleaner is

(a) increase air velocity (b) increase mass flow

(c) increase air pressure (d) segregate foreign particles

55. Flameless combustion can be

(a) isothermal (b) inert gas (c) catalytic (d) none of the above

56. Number of gear boxes used in four wheel drive are

(a) two (b) one (c) six (d) four

57. If diesel is fed into petrol engine, the engine will

(a) not run (b) knock (c) detonate (d) give lot of smoke

58. In an alternator, the magnetic field is produced in the

(a) rotor (b) stator (c) frame (d) regulator

59. A solenoid uses two coils. These are called

(a) push-in and pull-out (b) pull-in and push out

(c) push-in and hold-out (d) pull-in and hold-in

60. The colour of tail light in a vehicle is

(a) red (b) white (c) green (d) yellow

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61. The type of reflector used for automobile head lights is

(a) spherical (b) parabolic (c) hyperbolic (d) circular

62. The combustion chambers are formed between the cylinder head and the

(a) cylinder block (b) intake manifold (c) valve stem (d) pistons

63. Connecting rod is connected to crank shaft by

(a) big end (b) crank pin (c) crank web (d) small end

64. The ignition quality of petrol fuel is determined by

(a) detonation (b) octane number (c) pre-ignition (d) cetane number

65. The knocking tendency in CI engines increase with

(a) decrease of compression ratio (b) increaseof compression ratio

(c) increase in temperature of inlet air (d) increase in cooling water temperature

66. The thermodynamic cycle on which the petrol engine works is

(a) Otto cycle (b) Joule cycle (c) Rankine cycle (d) Stirling cycle

67. The thermal efficiency of petrol engine is about

(a) 15% (b) 30% (c) 50% (d) 70%

68. The commonly used material in the thermostat to control the movement of the valve,

according to the coolant temperature is

(a) wax (b) rubber (c) bimetal (d) thermistor

69. The amount of voltage that can be obtained from a single cell of a storage battery is

about

(a) 2 V (b) 4 V (c) 6 V (d) 8V

70. The ignition condenser

(a) reduces arcing at the contacts (b) reduces secondary spark

(c) protects plugs form load (d) increases contact arcing

71. The type of starter motor employed in automobile vehicle is the

(a) shunt wound motor (b) series wound motor

(c) induction motor (d) none of the above

72. The earthing of the fuel tank is coloured

(a) green (b) blue (c) black (d) red

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73. Chassis grease is used for lubricating the

(a) generator (b) gear box (c) propeller shaft (d) all of the above

74. The term of a patent in India is

(a) 10 years (b) 15 years

(c) till the lifetime of the invertor (d) 20 years

75. The patent specification is both a technical as well as a legal document

(a) No, it is only a technical document as it describes an invention

(b) Yes, it is both

(c) It is neither a technical nor a legal document

(d) It is only a legal document

76. The Budapest Treaty is concerned with

(a) Patent Cooperation Treaty (b) International Patent Cooperation

(b) Deposit of Microorganism (d) None of the above

77. Trademark can be

(a) name only (b) symbol only

(c) slogan only (d) a combination of or any one of the above

78. International protection for trademark is through

(a) Madrid System (b) Hague Agreement

(c) Lisbon Agreement (d) None of the above

79. The term of a trademark registration in India is

(a) 10 years (b) 20 years (c) 15 years (d) 30 years

80. The International classification system used for industrial designs is

(a) Dewey Decimal Classification (b) Universal Decimal Classification

(c) International Patent Classification (d) Locarno Classification

PART-B(40 X 2=80 Marks)

81. A football was inflated to a gauge pressure of 1 bar when the ambient temperature was

15oC. When the game started next day, the air temperature at the stadium was 5

oC.

Assume that the volume of football remains constant at 2500cm3. Gauge pressure of air

to which the ball must have been originally inflated so that it would equal 1 bar gauge at

the stadium is

(a) 2.23 bar (b) 1.94 bar (c) 1.07 bar (d) 1.00 bar

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82. What is the speed of sound in Neon gas at a temperature of 500 K? Gas constant of

Neon is 0.4210 kJ/kg K.

(a) 492 m/s (b) 460 m/s (c) 592 m/s (d) 543 m/s

83. A reversible heat engine receives 2 kJ of heat from a reservoir at 1000 K and a certain

amount of heat from a reservoir at 800 K. It rejects 1 kJ of heat to a reservoir at 400 K.

The net work output (in kJ)of the cycle is

(a) 0.8 (b) 1.0 (c) 1.4 (d) 2.0

84. In a Rankine cycle, the enthalpies at turbine entry and outlet are 3159 kJ/kg and 2187

kJ/kg, the specific steam consumption (in kg/kW-h) of the cycle based on net output is

(a) 3.71 (b) 4.71 (c) 5.71 (d) 2.71

85. The unit of energy in SI Units is

(a) Watt (b) Joule (c) Joule/s (d) Joule/m

86. Cochran boiler is a

(a) horizontal fire tube boiler (b) horizontal water tube boiler

(c) vertical water tube boiler (d) vertical fire tube boiler

87. In a four-bar linkages, S denotes the shortest link length, L is the longest link length, P

and Q are the lengths of other two links. At least one of the three moving links will

rotate by 360oC if

(a) S+L<P+Q (b) S+L>P+Q (c) S+P<L+Q (d) S+P>L+Q

88. In a certain slider crank mechanism, lengths of crank rotates with a uniform angular

speed of 14 rad/s and the crank length is 300 mm, the maximum acceleration of the slider

(in m2/s) is

(a) 58.8 (b) 117.6 (c) 176.4 (d) 235.2

89. For an involute gear, the ratio pitch circle radius to base circle radius is (ϕ is the pressure

angle)

(a) Sin ϕ (b) Cos ϕ (c) Sec ϕ (d) Cosec ϕ

90. A flywheel connected to a punching machine has to supply energy of 400 Nm while

running at a mean angular speed of 20 rad/s. If the total fluctuation of speed is not to

exceed + 2%, the mass moment of inertia of the flywheel in kg-m2 is

(a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 100 (d) 125

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91. In a spring-mass system, the mass is 0.1 kg and the stiffness of the spring is 1 kN/m. By

introducing a damper, the frequency of oscillation is found to be 90% of the original

value. What is the damping coefficient of the damper?

(a) 1.2 N.s/m (b) 3.4 N.s/m (c) 8.7 N.s/m (d) 12.0 N.s/m

92. A 200x100x50 mm steel block is subjected to a hydrostatic pressure of 15 MPa. The

Young’s modulus and ratio of the material are 200 GPa and 0.3 respectively. The

change in the volume of the block in mm3 is

(a) 85 (b) 90 (c) 100 (d) 110

93. A simply supported beam of span length 6 m and 75 mm diameter carries a uniform

distributed load of 1.5 kN/m. What is the maximum value of bending stress?

(a) 162.98 MPa (b) 325.95 MPa (c) 625.95 MPa (d) 651.90 MPa

94. A solid circular shaft of 60 mm diameter transmits a torque of 1600 Nm. The value of

maximum shear developed is

(a) 37.72 MPa (b) 47.72 MPa (c) 57.72 MPa (d) 67.72 MPa

95. A cantilever beam of length L is subjected to a moment M at the free end. The moment

of inertia of the beam cross section about the neutral axis is I and the Young”s modulus

is E. The magnitude of the maximum deflection is

(a) ML2/2EI (b) ML

3/EI (c) 2ML

2/EI (d) 4ML

2/EI

96. A column has a rectangular cross section of 10 mm x 20 mm and a length of 1 m. The

slenderness ratio of the column is

(a) 200 (b) 346 (c) 477 (d) 1000

97. Which of the following is an amorphous material?

(a) mica (b) lead (c) rubber (d) glass

98. Crystallographic structure of austenite is

(a) BCC (b) FCC (c) CPH (d) Simple Cubic

99. The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly at

(a) 103 cycle (b) 10

4 cycle (c) 10

6 cycle (d) 10

9 cycle

100. Hot Chamber die casting is NOT suited for

(a) Lead and its alloys (b) Zinc and its alloys

(c) Tin and its alloys (d) Aluminium and its alloys

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101. The rake angle of a cutting tools is 15o, shear angle 45

o and cutting velocity 35 m/min.

What is the velocity of chip along the tool face?

(a) 28.5 m/min (b) 27.3 m/min (d) 25.3 m/min (d) 23.5 m/min

102. In a shaping process, the number of double strokes per minute is 30 and the quick return

ratio is 0.6. If the length of the stroke is 250 mm, the average cutting velocity in

mm/min is

(a) 3.0 (b) 4.5 (c) 7.5 (d) 12.0

103. A brass billet is to be extruded from its initial diameter of 100 mm to a final diameter of

50 mm. The working temperature is 700oC and the extrusion constant is 250 MPa. The

force required for extrusion is

(a) 5.44 MN (b) 2.72 MN (c) 1.36 MN (d) 0.36 MN

104. A metal disc of 200 mm diameter is to be punched from a sheet of 2mm thickness. The

punch and the die clearance is 3%. The required punch diameter is

(a) 19.88 mm (b) 19.94 mm (c) 20.06 mm (d) 20.12 mm

105. A resistance-capacitance relaxation circuit is used in an electrical discharge machining

process. The discharge voltage is 100 V. At a spark cycle time of μS, the average power

input required is 1 kW. The capacitance (in μF) in the circuit is

(a) 2.5 (b) 5.0 (c) 7.5 (d) 10.0

106. Turret lathes equipped with spindles which can be fitted with a universal 2-Jaw chuck

are referred to as

(a) drum type machines (b) saddle type machines

(c) chucking machines (d) universal lathes

107. Sintered and tungsten carbides can be machined by

(a) brazing (b) grinding

(c) hot machining (d) electro-machining process

108. Gear shaper can be used to cut following type of gear

(a) Internal (b) External (c) Accurate (d) All of the above

109. Oil in hydraulic cylinder is compressed from an initial volume 2 m3to 1.96 m

3. If the

pressure of oil in the cylinder changes from 40 MPa to 80 MPa during compression, the

bulk modulus of elasticity of oil is

(a) 1000 MPa (b) 2000 MPa (c) 4000 MPa (d) 8000 MPa

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110. The total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluice gate 2m x 1 m with its top 2 m

surface being 0.5 m below the water level will be

(a) 500 kg (b) 1000 kg (c) 1500kg (d) 2000 kg

111. The velocity field of an incompressible flow is given by

V=(a1x +a2 y+a3 z)i + (b1x +b2 y+b3 z)j+ (c1x +c2 y+c3 z) k

Where a1 = 2 and c3 = -4. The value of b2 is

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 0

112. Two pipes of uniform section but different diameters carry water at the same volumetric

flow rate. Water properties are the same in the two pipes. The Reynolds number based

on the pipe diameter

(a) is the same in the both pipes (b) is large in the narrow pipe

(c) is small in the narrow pipe (d) depends on the pipe material

113. An incompressible fluid flows over a flat plate with zero pressure gradient. The

boundary layer thickness is 1 mm at a location where the Reynolds number is 1000. If

the velocity of a the fluid alone is increased by a factor of 4, then the boundary layer

thickness at the same location, in mm will be

(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0.25

114. At a hydro electric power plant site, available head and flow rate are 24.5 and 10.1 m3/s

respectively. If the turbine to be installed is required to run at 4.0 revolution per second

with an overall efficiency of 90%, then suitable type of turbine for this site is

(a) Francis (b) Kaplan (c) Pelton (d) Propeller

115. A long glass cylinder of inner diameter =0.03 m and outer diameter =0.05 m carries hot

fluid inside. If the thermal conductivity of glass =1.05W/mK, the thermal resistance

(K/W) per unit length of the cylinder is

(a) 0.031 (b) 0.077 (c) 0.17 (d) 0.34

116. Water (Prandtl number=6) flows over a flat plate which is heated over the entire length.

Which one of the following relationship between the hydrodynamic boundary layer

thickness (δ) and thermal boundary layer thickness (δt) is true?

(a) δt=δ (b) δt<δ (c) (a) δt> δ (d) can not be predicted

117. What is the value of view factor for which inclined flat plates having common edge of

equal width and with an angle of 20o?

(a) 0.83 (b) 1.17 (c) 0.66 (d) 1.34

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118. The dimensionless mass transfer number corresponding to the Nusselt number is

(a) Sherwood Number (b) Lewis Number

(c) Schmidt Number (d) Grashoff Number

119. Heat transfer takes place as per

(a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics (b) First law of thermodynamics

(c) Second law of thermodynamics (d) Kirchoff’s Law

120. Emissivity of a white polished body in comparison to a black body is

(a) higher (b) lower

(c) same (d) Depends on shape of body

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BIOTECHNOLOGY


PAPER-II

Instructions:





wrong answer.









1. A recombinant vaccine is available for which one of the following cancers

(a) Audit T cell leukaemia (b) Colon carcinoma

(c) Glioblastoma (d) Cervical carcinoma

2. Okazaki segments are’

(a) RNA primers for DNA synthesis

(b) Short DNA fragments after nuclease digestion

(c) Newly synthesized DNA fragments

(d) Short stretches of DNA attached to RNA primers on lagging strand

3. 45 cycle of PCR yields X times as much DNA as 36 cycle of PCR. X is approximately

equal to

(a) 1.25 (b) 9 (c) 500 (d) 109

4. The RNA primer synthesized during the replication process in bacteria is removed by

(a) DNA gyrase (b) Primase

(c) DNA polymerase I (d) DNA polymerase II

5. The immunoglobulin that can be transported across the placenta to confer immunity to

the foetus in mammals is

(a) IgG (b) IgM (c) IgE (d) IgD

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6. CD 19 is a marker for

(a) B-cells (b) T-cells (c) Macrophage (d) Natural Killer cels

7. Myeloma cells fused with spleen cells in hybridoma technology area

(a) immortal and antibody producing cells

(b) mortal and antibody producing cell

(c) hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase lacking cells

(d) Thymidine kinase lacking cells

8. Antigenic determinants generated by the conformation of amino acids present in the

variable regions of immuoglobins are

(a) Allotypic (b) Idiotype (c) Anti-idiotype (d) Heterotypic

9. Which of the following hormone helps in ripening of fruits?

(a) Cytokinins (b) Gibberellins (c) Ethylene (d) Abscisic acid

10. Which of the following is best suited method for production of virus free plants?

(a) Embryo culture (b) Meristem culture (c) Ovule culture (d) Anther culture

11. Which is not a plant derived alkaloids?

(a) Menthol (b) Nicotine (c) Quinine (d) Codeine

12. What Elicitors molecules do?

(a) Induce cell division

(b) Stimulate production secondary metabolites

(c) Stimulate hairy root formations that accumulate secondary metabolites

(d) None of these

13. Haploid plants are produced in large number by ____

(a) Anther culture (b) Ovary culture (c) Both a and b (d) Embryo culture

14. The most widely used chemical for protoplast fusion, as fusogens, is

(a) Manitol (b) Sorbitol (c) Mannol (d) Poly ethylene glycol (PEG)\

15. Cybridsare produced by _____________

(a) Fusion of two different nuclei from two different species

(b) Fusion of two same nuclei from same species

(c) Nucleus of one species but cytoplasm from both the parent species


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16. Which is used for surface sterilization of explants?

(a) Hydrogen peroxide (b) Mercuric chloride

(b) Sodium hypochlorite (d) All of the above

17. The method of producing thousands of plants through tissue culture is called ------.

(a) Micropropagation (b) Somatic hybridization

(c) Biofortification (d) Bio magnification

18. Gibberellic acid (GA) controls seed germination by directing breakdown of the stored

starch. In which one of the following tissues of the barley seed, α-amylase gene is

induced in response to GA?

(a) Endosperm (b) Coleoptile (c) Aleurone layer (d) Embryo

19. Phynelalanine, a precursor of most of the phenolics in higher plants is a product of which

one of the following pathways?

(a) Shikimic acid pathway (b) Malonic acid pathway

(c) Mevalonic acid pathway (d) Methylerythritol pathway

20. Somaclonal variations are the ones -------

(a) Caused by mutagens (b) Produce during tissue culture

(c) Caused by gamma rays (d) Induced during sexual embryogeny

21. Which vector is mostly used in crop improvement?

(a) Plasmid (b) Cosmid (c) Phasmid (d) Agrobacterium

22. Where BLOSUM matrices are used?

(a) Multiple sequence alignment (b) Pair wise sequence alignment

(c) Phylo-genetic analysis (d) All of the above

23. Deposition of cDNA into inert structure is known as?

(a) DNA finger printing (b) DNA polymerase

(c) DNA probes (d) DNA microarrays

24. Which of the following deals with analysing or comparing entire genome of species?

(a) Bioinformatics (b) Genomics

(c) Proteomics (d) Pharmacogenomics

25. What would be a likely explanation for the existence of pseudogenes?

(a) Evolutionary pressure (b) gene duplication and mutation events

(c) unequal crossing over (d) none of the above

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26. Which of the following is a nucleotide sequence database?

(a) EMBL (b) SWISS PROT (c) PROSITE (d) TREMBL

27. Phylogenetic relationship can be shown by __________

(a) Dendrogram (b) Data retrieving tool

(c) Gene Bank (d) Data search tool

28. Which of the following doesn’t describe PAM matrices?

(a) This family of matrices lists the likelihood of change from one amino acid to another

in homologous protein sequences during evolution

(b) There is presently no other type of scoring matrix that is based on such sound

evolutionary principles as are these matrices.

(c) Even though they were originally based on a relatively small data set, the PAM

matrices remain a useful tool for sequence alignment

(d) It stands for Percent Altered Mutation

29. Which of the following is NOT true regarding BLAST and FASTA?

(a) FASTA is faster than BLAST

(b) FASTA is the most accurate

(c) BLAST has limited choices of database

(d) FASTA is more sensitive for DNA-DNA comparisons

30. While analysing motif sequences, what is the major disadvantageous feature of

PROSITE?

(a) The database constructs profiles to complement some of the sequence patterns

(b) The functional information of these patterns is primarily based on published literature

(c) Some of the sequence patterns are too short to be specific

(d) Lack of specificity about probability and variation and relation between them

31. Which of the following is incorrect about a microarray?

(a) It is a slide attached with a high-density array of immobilized DNA oligomers

representing the entire genome of the species under study

(b) Array of mobilized DNA oligomers cannot be cDNAs

(c) Each oligomer is spotted on the slide and serves as a probe for binding to a unique

complementary cDNA

(d) It is the most commonly used global gene expression profiling method

32. An alpha helical region of 20 residues in a protein contains predominantly non-polar

residues. Such a helix is likely to be

(a) On the surface of the protein

(b) Embedded in a lipid bilayer

(c) Located in the cytosol

(d) Exposed to the extracellular environment

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33. A 310 helix is formed when a series of hydrogen bonds occur between

(a) The C=O of residue i and the NH of residue i+10

(b) The C=O of residue i and the NH of residue i+3

(c) The C=O of residue i and the NH of residue i+4

(d) The C=O of residue i and the NH of residue i+5

34. The DNA binding domain of a transcription factor that is specifically required for the

regulation of gene A is exchanged with the DNA binding domain of another transcription

factor that is required specifically for the regulation of gene B. This chimeric

transcription factor will regulate:

(a) Gene A only (b) Gene B only

(c) Both Gene A and Gene B (d) Neither Gene A and Gene B

35. Protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells terminates at the stop codon because

(a) mRNA synthesis stops at the stop codon

(b) The tRNA corresponding to the stop codon cannot bind to an amino acid

(c) There is no naturally occurring tRNA with an anticodon corresponding to the stop

codon

(d) The conformation around stop codons prevents binding of aminoacyl tRNA.

36. The cell free extract prepared from E.coli cell over expressing enzyme β glucosidase

showed the activity of 1.5 units per mL (protein concentration 2 mg/mL). The NI-NTA

purified preparation showed the activity of 75 units per mL (protein concentration of 100

μg/mL). Calculate the fold purification of the enzyme

(a) 0.001 (b) 0.02 (c) 50 (d) 1000

37. The reaction velocity (V) vs substrate concentration (S) profile was performed for

enzyme A using 1μg enzyme per assay. Similar experiment was carried out under

identical conditions except that the concentration of enzyme used was 2μg per assay.

Under these conditions, the kinetic constants

(a) Km and Vmax will remain unchanged

(b) Km will change while and Vmax will remain same

(c) Km will remain same but Vmax will increase

(d) Km and Vmax will increase

38. Succinate dehydrogenase converts succinate to fumarate. Which one of the following is

TRUE when the competitive inhibitor malonate is added in the reaction mixture:

(a) both Km and Vmax will increase

(b) both Km and Vmax will decrease

(c) Km increasesand Vmax remains same

(d) Kmincreasesand Vmax decreases

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39. An optical measurement of a protein is taken both before and after digestion of the

protein by a protease. In which of the following spectroscopic measurements the signal

change i.e. before vs after protease treatment, could be the maximum?

(a) absorbance at 280 nm (b) Circular dichrosim

(c) Absorbance at 340 nm (d) Fluorescence value

40. From the following statements

(1) For a reaction to occur spontaneously the free energy change must be negative

(2) The interaction between two nitrogen molecules in the gaseous state is predominately

electrostatic

(3) by knowing bond energies, it is possible to deduce whether the bond is covalent bond

or hydrogen bond

(4) Hydrophobic interactions are not important in a folded globular protein

Pick the combination with all wrong statements

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4

41. Fluorescently tagged protein was used to study protein secretion in yeast. Fluorescence

was observed in (1) The Golgi (2) The secretory vesicles, (3) The rough ER. Which of

the following describes best sequence in which these events occur?

(a) 1»2»3 (b) 2»3»1 (c) 3»1»2 (d) 3»2»1

42. A plot of V/[S] vs V is generated for an enzyme catalysed reaction, and a straight line is

obtained. Indicate the information that can be obtained from the plot

(a) Vmaxand turnover number Kmcan be obtained only from a plot of 1/V vs 1 [S]

(b) Km/Vmax from the slope

(c) Vmax.Km and turnover number

(d) Only Km and turnover number

43. Which of the following is present in both gram-positive and gram-negative cell walls?

(a) An outer membrane (b) Peptidoglycan

(c) teichoic acid (d) lipopolysaccharides

44. The counter stain used in the Gram-staining

(a) Iodine (b) Crystal violet (c) Safranin (d) Mythelene blue

45. Peptidoglycan is a structural component of cell walls of

(a) Gram +ve bacteria (b) Gram –ve bacteria

(c) Eubacteria (d) All of the above

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46. Two important functions of bacterial cell walls

(a) Flagella attachment and nutrient transport

(b) Shape and mechanical strength

(c) Nutrient transport and extracellular enzyme location

(d) Nutrient transport and respiration

47. The acidic polysaccharides attached to gram positive cell wall

(a) Lipopolysaccharides (b) Tiechoic acids

(c) Meso diaminopimelic acid (d) All the above

48. One of the functions of the cell membrane in prokaryotes is to serve as the site of

(a) Histone (b) Hormones (c) Enzymes (d) None of the above

49. 2-amino, 6 oxy purine is ---------

(a) Uracil (b) Thiamine (c) Cytosine (d) Guanine

50. Termination factor of m RNA synthesis is called ________ factor

(a) Gamma (b) Beta (c) Rho (d) Delta

51. In DNA, a base is joined to deoxy ribose sugar by

(a) β-glycosidic linkage (b) Diester linkage

(c) Hydrogen bonds (d) Carbon bonds

52. Backbone of the nucleic acid is known as

(a) Ribose sugar (b) Nitrogen base

(c) Glycosidic bond (d) Phospho diester linkages

53. Diameter of the helix of DNA is

(a) 30 Angstrom (b) 20 Angstrom

(c) 32 Angstrom (d) 35 Angstrom

54. The majority of DNA in the cells is in the form

(a) A DNA (b) Z DNA (c) B DNA (d) All

55. Uracil has same single ringed structure as thiamine except that it lacks

(a) Carboxyl group (b) Hydroxyl group

(c) 5 methyl group (d) Phosphate group

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56. Alteration in single base pair is known as which type of mutations?

(a) Missense (b) Frameshift (c) Point (d) Spontaneous

57. Repetitive DNA sequences in Eukaryotes is known as

(a) Histone proteins (b) Nucleosomes (c) Satellite DNAs (d) Telomers

58. Expressed gene sequences in eukaryotic m RNA are

(a) Introns (b) Codons (c) Exons (d) All

59. The work benches needed to make a polypeptide

(a) mRNA (b) DNA (c) Ribosomes (d) tRNA

60. Which of the following DNA hybridization assay formats is most useful when one

wishes to detect the presence and localization of a pathogen’s DNA within a cell?

(a) Southern blot (b) Insitu hybridization

(c) In-solution hybridization (d) Dot blot

61. The amino acid that accounts for disulfide bonds in the tertiary structure in protein is

(a) Tyrosine (b) Glycine (c) Cystine (d) Serine

62. Which is the smallest unit of heredity?

(a) Chromosome (b)_ Gene (c) Codon (d) nucleotide

63. Why must lagging strand DNA be replicated in short pieces?

(a) Due to limited space

(b) otherwise, the helix become distorted

(c) The DNA polymerase can synthesize in only one direction

(d) To make proofreading easier

64. Transfer RNA is the molecule that

(a) contributes to structure of ribosome

(b) Adapts the genetic code to protein structure

(c) Transfer the DNA code to mRNA

(d) Provides the master code for amino acids

65. Which of the following characteristic is not true of a plasmid?

(a) it is a circular piece of DNA

(b) It is required for normal cell function

(d) It is found in bacteria

(d) it can be transferred from cell to cell

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66. Replacement of purine for purine is known as

(a) Transversion (b) Translocation (c) Transition (d) Transcription

67. A DNA strand is directly involved in the synthesis of the following except

(a) rRNA (b) tRNA (c) mRNA (d) Protein

68. The transfer of bacterial genes through bacteriophages is known as

(a) Conjugation (b) Transduction (c) Translation (d) Transformation

69. In mitosis, the phase in which migration of daughter chromosomes to the opposite poles

of spindle starts is called

(a) Anaphase (b) Telophase (c) Metaphase (d) Prometaphase

70. The sequence of nucleotides which is transcribed but not translated is called

(a) Cistran (b) Intron (c) Exon (d) Transposon

71. A mutation that cause early termination of translations to protein synthesis is called

(a) Silent mutation (b) Nonsense mutation

(c) Missense mutation (d) Wild type mutation

72. Amino acids are activated for protein synthesis through a reaction catalysed by

(a) Amino acyl t RNA synthetases (b) Peptidyl transferases

(c) Transpeptidases (d) Phosphokinases

73. The energy to institute initiation and elongation is provided by

(a) GTP (b) NADH (c) ATP (d) NADPH

74. An example of pentose

(a) Arabinose (b) Mannose (c) Galactose (d) Sucrose

75. The genetic material present in the polio virus

(a) Double stranded DNA (b) Double stranded RNA

(c) Single stranded DNA (d) Single stranded RNA

76. Nucleosome is part of

(a) Ribosome (b) Mesosome

(c) Nuclear membrane (d) Chromatin

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77. Anticodons are found in

(a) m RNA (b) t RNA (c) DNA (d) r RNA

78. Unzipping of the DNA helix is done by

(a) Primase (b) Gyrase (c) Ligase (d) Helicase

79. What is B-DNA?

(a) Left handed DNA with 10 residues per turn

(b) Left handed DNA with 12 residues per turn

(c) Right handed DNA with 11 residues per turn

(d) Right handed DNA with 10 residues per turn

80. The largest subunit of RNA polymerase

(a) α (b) β (c) β’ (d) ϭ


81. What would effect on the PCR reaction if any of the following circumstances arose:

(1) there are no primers in the reaction (2) there are no dNTPs in the reaction

(3) there is no Taq polymerase in the reaction

(a) PCR would proceed formally

(b) Non-specific PCR of random templates will occur

(c) The reaction will case after a few cycles

(d) The PCR reaction will not commence

82. What would the expected effect be on a PCR reaction if the primers used were slightly

shorter and more variable than the intended oligonucleotide sequences?

(a) The PCR reaction would not commerce

(b) The PCR reaction would end after one cycle

(c) The reaction would generate a single short PCR product

(d) The reaction would yield a mixture of non-specific products

83. The following are statements about molecular makers in the context of plant breeding

(1) Molecular markers can be used for elimination of undesirable traits

(2)Molecular markers cannot be used for elimination of genetic contribution of each

individual parent in a segregating population

(3) Molecular markers ae used for mapping of QTLs, which is also possible by

conventional techniques

(4) Molecular markers can be used for selection of individuals from a population that are

homozygous for the recurrent parent genotype at loci flanking the target locus

Which of the above statements are true?


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84. Which of the following features is not found in heterogenous nuclear RNAs (hnRNAs)?

(a) intron (b) polycistronic coding

(c) polyadenylation at 31 end (d) 5

1 cap structure

85. In the creation of a knockout mouse using homologous recombination, a viral thymidine

kinase gene is often included in the vector outside of the region of homology between the

vector and targeted chromosome. What is the purpose of this?

(a) To allow negative selection of cells in which integration of the targeting sequence has

occurred by homologous recombination

(b) To allow negative selection of cells in which integration of the targeting sequence has

occurred by random insertion into the genome

(c) To allow positive selection of cells in which integration of the targeting sequence has

occurred by homologous recombination

(d) To allow positive selection of cells in which integration of the targeting sequence has

occurred by random insertion into the genome

86. An eukaryotic cell undergoing mRNA synthesis and processing was incubated with 32

p

labelled ATP, with the label at the β-position. Where do you think the radioactive isotope

will appear in the mature mRNA?

(a) 32

p will not appear in the mature mRNA under any circumstances because β and γ

phosphates are released during transcription

(b) Phosphate group of the phosphodiester backbone of the mRNA will be uniformly

labeled as only α phosphate are released during transcription

(c) 32

p will appear at the 51 end of the mRNA if only it has ‘A’ as the first nucleotide

(d) No 32

p will appear in the mature of the mRNA because the 51 terminal phosphate of

an ‘A’ residue will be further removed during the capping process

87. The secondary antibodies routinely used for the detection of primary antibodies in

western blotting experiment are

(a) Anti-allotypic (b) Anti-idiotypic (c) Anti-isotypic (d) Anti-paratypic

88. Following are some of the characteristics of MHC class I and class II molecules except

one which is applicable only for MHC class I. Identify the appropriate statement

(a) They are expressed constitutively in all nucleated cells

(b) They are glycosylated polypeptides with domain structure

(c) They are involved in presentation of antigen fragment of cells

(d) They are expressed on surface membrane of B cells.

89. Immunoglobulins have therapeutic applications in cancer treatment, infection clearance

and targeted drug delivery. For this reason, immunoglobulins are briefly cleaved by the

enzyme pepsin. Following are some of the statements regarding the brief digestion of

immunoglobulin by pepsin

(a) F(ab)2fragment is generated which retains the antigen binding activity

(b) F(ab) fragment having antigen binding activity and the crystallisable Fc fragment are

generated

(c) The fragment generated on incubation with a proper antigen forms a visible

precipitate

(d) The fragment generated is incapable of forming a visible precipitate on incubation

with a proper antigen

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90. Radioimmunoassay (RIA) can be employed for the detection of insulin in blood plasma.

For this 1251-labelled insulin is mixed and allowed to bind with a known concentration

of anti-insulin antibody. A known volume of patients’ blood plasma is then added to the

conjugate and allowed to compete with the antigen binding sites of antibody. The bound

antigen is then separated from unbound ones and the radioactivity of free antigen is then

measured by gamma counter. Following are some of the statements made about this

assay:

(1) The ratio of radioactive count for unbound antigen to the bound one is more at the

end of reaction

(2) The ratio of radioactive count for unbound antigen to the bound one is less at the end

of reaction

(3) For a diabetic patient, the radioactive count for free antigen is less than that for a

normal individual.

(4) For a diabetic patient, the radioactive count for free antigen is more than that for a

normal individual

Which of the above statements are true?


91. Developing T cells that react strongly with self peptides bound to self MHC molecules

are

(a) Eliminated in the thymus

(b) Eliminated in the bone marrow

(c) Suppressed in peripheral blood circulation

(d) Allowed to function normally

92. A typical flowering plant has a combination of sporophytic (diploid) and gametophytic

(haploid) tissues. Which of the following types of plant tissues do NOT contribute to the

formation of a mature fruit?

(a) Sporophytic tissue from the previous generation

(b) Gametophytic tissue from the previous generation

(c) Sporophytic tissue from the next generation

(d) Gametophytic tissue from the next generation

93. Which one of the following statements related to the development of insect-resistant

transgenic plant is correct?

(a) The targeted insects cannot develop resistance against transgenic plants generated

using a single candidate gene

(b) The transgenic plant developed using multiple genes might be more effective in

inducing and maintaining resistance

(c) The level of transgene expression does not influence the efficacy of the transgenic

plant

(d) It is easier to propagate and maintain multi-copy integration events than single copy

events of insect resistant plants

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94. Which one of the following statements regarding naturally occurring Agrobacterium

strains is true?

(a) The T-DNA region of Agrobacterium does not contain functional genes

(b) All the virulence genes of Agrobacterium are constitutively expressed

(c) Agrobacterium-induced galls require exogenous application of phytohormones for

their growth.’

(d) Agrobacterium-induced galls in a nature do not require bacterial persistence for their

growth

95. For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are

made up of_____.

(a) Silicon or Platinum (b) Gold or Tungsten

(c) Silver or Platinum (d) Platinum or Zinc

96. The problem of necrosis and gradual senescence while performing tissue culture can be

overcome by -------

(a) Spraying auxins (b) Spraying Cytokinins

(c) Suspension culture (d) Subculture

97. The controversy regarding the use of Bt corn is that -------

(a) is potentially harmful to monarch butterflies

(b) is a potential allergen to humans

(c) both (a) and (b)

(d) can contaminate groundwater

98. Harmone pair required for a callus to differentiate is---------

(a) Auxin and Cytokinin (b) Auxin and Ethylene

(c) Auxin and Abscisic acid (d) Cytokinins and Gibberellin

99. Hairy root cultures for secondary metabolite production are induced by transforming

plant cells with --------

(a) Virus (b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(c) Bacillus thuringiensis (d) Agrobacterium rhizogenes

100. Shotgun cloning differs from the clone-by-clone method in which of the following ways

(a) No genetic or physical maps of the genome are needed to begin shotgun cloning

(b) Genetic markers are used to identify clones in shotgun cloning

(c) Computer software assembles the clones in the clone-by-clone method

(d) The entire genome is sequenced in the clone-by-cone method, but not in shotgun

sequencing

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101. Which of the following is true regarding the assumptions in the method of constructing

the Dayhoff scoring matrix?

(a) it is assumed that each amino acid position is equally mutable

(b) it is assumed that each amino acid position is not equally mutable

(c) it is assumed that each amino acid position is not mutable at all

(d) sites do not vary in their degree of mutability

102. A gap-opening penalty for any gap (g) and gap extension penalty for each element in the

gap (r) are most often used, to give a total gap score wx, according to the equation -----

(a) wx – rx = - g (b) wx = g – rx

(c) wx = g + rx (d) wx + g + rx = 0

103. Which one of the following is not a structure or structurally derived database?

(a) PDB (b) PROSITE (c) SCOP (d) CATH

104. The enzymes that break down H2O2 into H2O and O2 in animal cells is usually found in

which one of the following intracellular organelles?

(a) Endoplasmic reticulum (b) Nucleous

(c) Peroxisome (d) Lysosome

105. An enzymatic reaction exhibits Michaelis – Menten kinetics. For the reaction, on

doubling the concentration of enzyme while maintaining [S]>[Eo]

(a) Both Km and Vmax will remain the same

(b) Km will remain the same but Vmax will increase

(c) Km will increase but Vmax will remain the same

(d) Both Km and Vmax will increase

106. Following are the statements related to the organisation of the four major protein

complexes of thylakoid membrane

(1) PSI is located predominantly in the stacked region of the thylakoid membrane

(2) PSII is found in the unstacked regions protruding into stroma

(3) Cytochrome B6f complex is confined to strome only

(4) ATP synthase is located in the unstacked regions protruding into stroma

Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1,2 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3, 4 and 1

107. Which of the following groups of enzymes is not used for kinetic resolution of

recemates?

(a) Lipases (b) Nitrases (c) Oxidoreductases (d) Epoxide hydrolases

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108. Mesosomes are internal extensions of the

(a) Cell wall (b) Chromatin body (c) Cell membrane (d) Capsule

109. Bacterial capsule is chemically composed of

(a) Polypeptides (b) Polynucleotides

(c) Polysaccharides (d) Polypeptides or polysaccharides

110. Non acid fast bacteria, lacks this substance in their cell walls

(a) Acids (b) Waxy substances (c) Peptiglycan (d) Lipids

111. Cell membrane of eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells conform to a model known as

(a) Unit membrane model (b) Fluid mosaic model

(c) Phospholipid model (d) Glycoprotein model

112. Arrangement of chromosomes according to shape and size -------

(a) Genotyping (b) Karyotping

(c) Chromotyping (d) DNA finger printing

113. Lampbrush chromosomes are observed in oocytes of

(a) Pisces (b) Amphibians (c) Reptiles (d) Aves

114. DNA is stable in hydrolytic attacks due to

(a) Nitrogen bases (b) sugar units

(c) Phosphate linkage having negative charge (d) Hydrogen bonds

115. Number of base pairs per turn of helix in Z DNA is

(a) 3 (b) 12 (c) 11 (d) 10

116. Satellite DNA

(a) contains important metabolic genes

(b) It is composed of highly repetitive sequences

(c) Is useless junk

(d) Causes cancer

117. Oxalosuccinic decarboxylase enzyme can remove carbon dioxide from the substrate

oxalo succinate during the TCA cycle. Oxalo succinic decarboxylase is under which

category enzyme?

(a) Oxidoreductase (b) Transferase (c) Lyases (d) Isomerases

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118. Okazaki fragments are

(a) DNA fragments synthesized by Reiji Okazaki

(b) DNA synthesized in the 3’to 5’direction on any parent strand of DNA

(c) DNA synthesized on chain of parental DNA which is then hydrolysed to small

fragments

(d) DNA synthesized as small fragments on a parental strand, which are then linked

together

119. Function of DHU loop of t RNA is

(a) binding to the enzyme involved in forming the peptide during translation

(b) Attachment of amino acids

(c) Binding of the ribosome

(d) Helping the translocation

120. Chloramphenicol inhibits the following

(a) Premature chain termination (b) 30S particle binding to t RNAfmet

(c) Peptidyl transferase activity (d) Binds to 50S and prevents formation of 70S

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BIO-INFORMATICS ENGINEERING


PAPER-II

Instructions:





wrong answer.









1. In a good BLAST hit

(a) The e-value should be low and bit score should be low

(b) The e-value should be high and bit score should be high

(c) The e-value should be high and bit score should be low

(d) The e-value should be low and bit score should be high

2. This is an algorithm for global sequence alignment

(a) Smith Waterman algorithm

(b) Consecutive ones algorithm

(c) Needleman and Wunsch algorithm

(d) Maximum likelihood approach

3. A function that calls itself within its body is called a

(a) Recursive function

(b) Logical function

(c) Linear function

(d) Global function

4. An algorithm that examines every possible alternative to find a solution is called

(a) Branch and Bound algorithm

(b) Exhaustive or brute force algorithm

(c) Iterative algorithm

(d) Selective algorithm

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5. A problem is broken down into sub problems and the solution to the main problem is

derived from solutions to the sub problems. This is called

(a) Brute force method

(b) Selection sort method

(c) Dynamic programming

(d) Pruned method

6. A sequence motif is a

(a) A subsequence which is present in one or two members of the family

(b) A subsequence found only in enzymes

(c) A subsequence found only in membrane proteins

(d) A subsequence which is conserved in the protein / DNA family

7. Given the edit operations Insertion, Deletion and Substitution, edit distance between two

sequences is

(a) Minimum number of edit operations required to convert a string to another string

(b) Number of identities between the two sequences

(c) Maximum number of edit operations required to convert a string to another string

(d) Number of dis-similarities between the two sequences

8. Which of these are protein structure related databases

(a) PDB

(b) SCOP

(c) CATH


9. The default scoring matrix in BLASTp tool is

(a) PAM 1

(b) BLOSUM 62

(c) BLOSUM 80

(d) PAM 250

10. PAM is a scoring matrix for protein sequence alignments and is based on

(a) Evolutionary distances

(b) Manhattan distances

(c) Edit distances

(d) Grid distances

11. Conserved sequence motifs of a protein family can be discovered using

(a) Multiple sequence alignment

(b) Pairwise sequence alignment

(c) Threading

(d) Homology modeling

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12. This is a tool for multiple sequence alignment

(a) BLASTp

(b) PSI-BLAST

(c) ClustalW or ClustalOmega

(d) Modeller

13. A lead compound in drug discovery

(a) Is the first compound discovered in the study

(b) Is a compound which has activity and requires further modifications before it

actually becomes a drug

(c) Has a metallic component

(d) Is a widely used drug

14. In gene expression analysis, genes are clustered based on

(a) Similarity in expression values

(b) Sequence similarity

(c) Functional similarity

(d) Gene Ontology

15. This is a clustering technique in which the clusters are arranged as a tree

(a) k-means clustering

(b) Hierarchical clustering

(c) Self organizing maps

(d) Grouping

16. Which one of these is NOT a protein structure related database?

(a) Prosite

(b) PDB

(c) SCOP

(d) CATH

17. In a sequence alignment, insertions and deletions should

(a) be given a penalty of 1

(b) be ignored

(c) be given a gap penalty

(d) not be allowed

18. Which of these are nucleotide databases

(a) GenBank

(b) EMBL

(c) DDBJ


19. In a PDB co-ordinate file, HETATM records / lines refer to details of

(a) any atom other than a protein atom

(b) only an atom from the protein

(c) only a hydrogen atom

(d) only an oxygen atom

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20. The branching order of a phylogenetic tree is called its

(a) Degree

(b) Topology

(c) Incidence

(d) Internal nodes

21. Bootstrap method is used for

(a) finding the edge lengths in a phylogenetic tree

(b) testing the statistical significance of a phylogenetic tree

(c) finding the depth of a phylogenetic tree

(d) finding the number of leaves in a phylogenetic tree

22. In this phylogenetic tree, the distance from the root to any leaf is identical

(a) Unweighted Pair Group Method of Arithmetic Averages (UPGMA)

(b) Ultrametric tree

(c) Min-ultrametric tree

(d) Parsimonious tree

23. The edges in a phylogenetic tree represent

(a) Divergence point

(b) Characters

(c) Time elapsed

(d) Degree

24. This tree looks for a tree topology with minimum number of substitutions

(a) UPGMA tree

(b) Additive tree

(c) Maximum Parsimony Tree

(d) Neighbour Join (NJ) tree

25. Which of these trees are based on distance based methods in phylogenetics

(a) UPGMA

(b) NJ tree

(c) Fitch Margoliash method


26. The multiuser operating system Linux is able to support multiple users because of

(a) Timesharing

(b) Larger disk space

(c) Faster access

(d) Better communication

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27. In PERL programming language, this facilitates early exit from a loop

(a) last

(b) split

(c) join

(d) end

28. In Molecular dynamics, force field is used to

(a) Describe the energy of the protein as a function of its atomic co-ordinates

(b) Use force to split atoms in a protein

(c) Use split water from the system

(d) Use force to remove ions from the system

29. This is NOT a secondary database

(a) SCOP

(b) Uniprot

(c) CATH

(d) Interpro

30. The trajectories of atoms and molecules in a Molecular dynamics simulation are

determined

(a) By numerically solving Newton's equation of motion for a system of interacting

particles

(b) By using scoring matrices

(c) By using transposition of atomic co-ordinates

(d) By using Root Mean Square Deviation of coordinates

31. The stereochemical quality and validity of a homology model can be checked using

(a) Ramachandran plot

(b) Alignment

(c) sequencing

(d) Threading

32. The region of a protein that can elicit an immune response is called

(a) immuner

(b) an epitope

(c) antibody

(d) immunoglobulin

33. PSI-BLAST is able to detect remote homologs due to the usage of

(a) BLOSUM 62

(b) Position Specific Scoring Matrix (PSSM)

(c) PAM 1

(d) BLOSUM 50 and PAM 100

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34. This substitution matrix is also called Dayhoff matrix

(a) PAM 1

(b) BLOSUM 45

(c) BLOSUM 80

(d) BLOSUM 50

35. In Linux, this command is used to find patterns from a file

(a) grep

(b) ptn

(c) find

(d) ptrn

36. The similarity between two protein structures can be estimated through

(a) Resolution

(b) RMSD

(c) Phylogeny

(d) Hamming distance

37. According to SCOP database classification a SCOP Superfamily has

(a) Proteins with low sequence identity whose structural and functional features suggest

common evolutionary origin.

(b) Proteins with high sequence identity and similar functions

(c) Proteins with high sequence identity and different functions

(d) Proteins with high sequence identity and a common evolutionary origin

38. Clustering techniques are used in

(a) Homology modeling

(b) Protein secondary structure prediction

(c) Threading

(d) Microarray data analysis

39. Lennard Jones Potential is used in

(a) Molecular Dynamics Simulation

(b) Phylogenetics

(c) Ramachandran plot

(d) Potential drug target identification

40. The file format which is used to store both sequence information and 3-dimensional

structure information is called as

(a) EMBL file format

(b) PDB file format

(c) Genbank file format

(d) Sequence File format

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41. Which one of the following statement(s) are TRUE? Biological Databases are

(a) Classified into sequence, structure and functional databases

(b) Libraries of life sciences information, collected from scientific experiments, published

literature and computational analysis

(c) Developed using Relational database concepts of computer science


42. Which one of the following statement is TRUE? BioPerl is

(a) A toolkit of Perl modules

(b) Useful in building bioinformatics solutions in Perl

(c) Built in an object-oriented method


43. HTML stands for

(a) Hyper Text Machine Language

(b) Higher Text Markup Language

(c) Higher Text Machine Language

(d) Hyper Text Markup Language

44. Which one of the following statement is TRUE? The result of Multiple Sequence

Alignment helps to

(a) Infer sequence homology

(b) Illustrate mutation events

(c) Assess evolutionary origin


45. Process of aligning three or more biological sequences is known as

(a) Pairwise Alignment

(b) Multiple Sequence Alignment

(c) Multiple Sequence Arrangement

(d) Pairwise Arrangement

46. Linux command „grep‟ is used to

(a) find lines matching a pattern in a file

(b) Concatenate two files

(c) Find a file name in a directory

(d) Merge contents of two files

47. The process of designing new molecules using three dimensional structure of the receptor

or 3D pharmacophore is known as

(a) Docking ligand

(b) Modeling a new molecule

(c) De novo ligand Design

(d) Screening

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48. The process of predicting the structure of the inter molecular complex formed between

two or more molecules is known as Molecular

(a) Modeling

(b) Aligning

(c) Docking


49. Which one of the following algorithm is used to perform molecular docking?

(a) Smith Waterman algorithm

(b) Bubble sort algorithm

(c) Heuristic algorithm

(d) Genetic algorithm

50. In docking, a function used to calculate the binding affinity for a particular pose of a

protein-ligand complex is known as

(a) Binding function

(b) Scoring function

(c) Searching function

(d) Statistical function

51. Which one of the following is NOT a docking software?

(a) DOCK

(b) AutoDOCK

(c) GOLD

(d) GROMACS

52. Which one of the following is NOT a bonded interaction?

(a) Van der Waals

(b) Covalent

(c) Ionic


53. ALead is a

(a) Compound that shows biological activity

(b) Novel compound

(c) Compound that has the potential of being structurally modified for improved

bioactivity


54. Which one of the following is NOT TRUE? Docking is used to

a) Do protein interaction studies

b) Generate trajectory movement of bio molecules

c) Determine thelowest free energy structures for the receptor-ligandcomplex

d) Do de novo drug design

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55. A standard measure of structural difference in superimposed coordinates is

(a) Structural Deviation

(b) Compactness Deviation

(c) Root Mean Square Deviation


56. Sequence alignment stretched over the entire sequence length to include as many

matching amino acids as possible up to is known as

(a) Local Alignment

(b) Maximal Alignment

(c) Minimal Alignment

(d) Global Alignment

57. Sequence alignment stops at the ends of regions of identity or strong similarity is known

as

(a) Global Alignment

(b) Local Alignment

(c) Maximal Alignment

(d) Minimal Alignment

58. Needleman-Wunsch algorithm is used for

(a) Local alignment of sequences

(b) Searching of sequences

(c) Minimal alignment of sequences

(d) Global alignment of sequences

59. Smith-Waterman algorithm is used for

(a) Local alignment of sequences

(b) Global alignment of sequences

(c) Searching of sequences

(d) Minimal alignment of sequences

60. Percent Accepted Mutation Matrices are used for

(a) Docking

(b) Sequence Alignment

(c) Creation of databases

(d) Molecular Dynamics

61. BLOSUM62 substitution matrix is used for scoring

(a) Docking of protein-ligand complex

(b) Simulation of proteins

(c) Protein sequence alignments

(d) Searching of proteins

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62. Which one of the following statement is NOT TRUE? Hidden Markov Model is

(a) Used to generate trajectories of a biomolecule

(b) Statistical model that considers all possible combinations of matches, mismatches and

gaps to generate an alignment of a set of sequences

(c) Used to analyze sequence composition and patterns

(d) Used to produce protein structure predictions

63. Which one of the following statement is NOT TRUE? An evolutionary tree is

(a) Composed of outer branches representing taxa

(b) Always a binary tree

(c) Composed of nodes and branches representing relationships among taxa

(d) Which has more than one branch emanating from a node if the event separating taxa

are so close

64. Which one of the following is NOT a Phylogenetic tree software?

(a) PHYLIP

(b) NAMD

(c) PAUP

(d) MEGA

65. A connecting point in a phylogenetic tree where two adjacent branches join is called as

(a) Point

(b) Joint

(c) Node

(d) Branch

66. Which one of the following is NOT a molecular structure visualization form?

(a) Wireframe

(b) Balls and sticks

(c) Ribbons

(d) Lines and Dots

67. Which one of the following is NOT a visualization software?

(a) RasMOL

(b) PyMOL

(c) GROMACS

(d) VMD

68. Prediction of protein structures based on sequence homology with known structures is

known as

(a) Hidden Markov Model

(b) Homology modeling

(c) Molecular Modeling


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69. A method which generate configurations by making random changes to the positions of

the species present is known as

(a) Monte Carlo Simulation method

(b) Molecular Dynamics Simulation method

(c) Quantum Mechanics method


70. A mathematical description of the classical forces or energies between atoms is known as

(a) Parameters

(b) Force field

(c) Atomic energy

(d) Functional field

71. The energy defined between every four bonded atoms and depends on the torsion angle

made by the two planes incorporating the four atoms is knowns as

(a) Bond stretching energy

(b) Electrostatic energy

(c) Rotational energy

(d) Torsional energy

72. The energy which is calculated as a sumof interactions between partial atomic charges

using Coulombs lawis known as

(a) Electrostatic energy

(b) Torsional energy

(c) Bond stretching energy

(d) Rotational energy

73. A method in which the successive configurations of the system are connected in time is

known as

(a) Monte Carlo Simulation

(b) Molecular Dynamics Simulation

(c) Microscopic Simulation


74. A method in which each configuration depends only upon its predecessor and not upon

any other of the configurations previously visited is known as

(a) Molecular Dynamics Simulation

(b) Microscopic Simulation

(c) Monte Carlo Simulation


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75. In molecular mechanics, the Van der Waals interactions are represented by

(a) Lennard-Jones potential

(b) Coulomb‟s law

(c) Hooke‟s Law


76. Which one of the following is NOT a numerical algorithm developed for integrating

equations of motion in MD Simulation?

(a) Verlet algorithm

(b) Genetic algorithm

(c) Leap-frog algorithm

(d) Beeman‟s algorithm

77. A tree showing all descendants of a single original ancestral species is known as

(a) Isolated tree

(b) Unrooted tree

(c) Rooted tree


78. Which one of the following is NOT a Molecular Dynamics Simulation Ensemble?

(a) Microscopical ensemble

(b) Microcanonical ensemble

(c) Canonical ensemble

(d) Isothermal–isobaric ensemble

79. In Molecular Dynamics Simulation, the boundary conditions in which one side of the

simulation loops back to the opposite side, mimicking a bulk phase is known as

(a) Box Boundary Conditions

(b) Unit Cell Boundary Conditions

(c) Periodic Boundary Conditions


80. Linux command used to print the current working directory is

(a) pwd

(b) dir

(c) cd

(d) ps


81. In the longest common subsequence problem, a subsequence in a sequence is an ordered

set of characters from the sequence that are not necessarily consecutive. Given this

information, which of these is a NOT a common subsequence of the two strings

"AGCCAT" and "ACTAGG"

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(a) GA

(b) AG

(c) CA

(d) AT

82. When one string is edited or converted to another string, edit operations insertion, deletion

and substitution are used. Replacement of a residue by another is counted as one

operation. But replacement of one residue by another could have also been achieved

through other operations. Which of the following in the given order, would have had the

same effect as replacement of one residue by another.

(a) One insertion

(b) One deletion and One insertion

(c) Two insertions

(d) Two deletions

83. For drug-likeness of a compound, lipinski rule of 5 is used. Given the following

statements which set of the following statements form lipinski rule of 5

S. logP not greater than 5

T. Molecular mass greater than 500 daltons

U. Not more than 10 hydrogen bond acceptors

V. Molecular mass less than 500 daltons

W. Not more than 5 hydrogen bond donors

(a) S,T,V,W

(b) S,T,U,W

(c) T,U,V,W

(d) S,U,V,W

84. These are steps in homology modeling. Give the correct sequence of these steps

S. Validating the model with a Ramachandran Plot

T. Finding template/s for your target sequence

U. Side chain modeling and loop refinement

V. Backbone modeling

W. Energy minimization of the model

(a) S,T,U,V,W

(b) T,V,U,W,S

(c) T,U,V,S,W

(d) W,S,T,U,V

85. You are given the following alignment.

K S A _ _ D

R S A T I E

Calculate the score of this alignment according to this gap penalty method where score =

sum of score of alignment of the residues - gap penalty. The penalty for initiating a gap

Wg is 2 and penalty for each gap extension is 1. The scores for residues which are given

in the alignment are as follows

K vs R is 2, S vs S is 4, A vs A is 4 and D vs E is 2.

(a) 10

(b) 12

(c) 8

(d) 9

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86. Match the phrases in Group I with phrases in Group II

Group I Group II

S. alpha helix 1. Hydrogen bond between residue i and residue i+3

T. 310 helix 2. Forms beta sheets

U. pi helix 3. Hydrogen bond between residue i and residue i+4

V. Beta strand 4. Hydrogen bond between residue i and residue i+5

(a) S-3;T-1;U-4;V-2

(b) S-4;T-3;U-1;V-2

(c) S-1;T-4;U-2;V-3

(d) S-2;T-1;U-4;V-3

87. A drug is unable to cross the cell membrane. Which molecular property of the compound

is most likely to have caused this effect?

(a) Number of hydrogen bonds

(b) Number of covalent bonds

(c) Aromatic interactions

(d) High logP

88. In a ligand based drug design experiment, the structure of the target protein which is

inhibited by a set of compounds was not known. However, all these active compounds

were cationic. Given this information, one can infer that this target protein's active site is

most probably

(a) cationic

(b) aromatic

(c) anionic

(d) hydrophobic

89. An enzyme from a pathogen is selected as a potential drug target. How do you ensure that

this potential drug target does not have any similarity with human proteins?

(a) Perform a phylogenetic analysis

(b) Perform molecular dynamics simulation

(c) Check the length of the protein

(d) Perform a BLASTp search against Homo sapiens and make sure that there are no hits

90. Which one of these is an INCORRECT combination

(a) 3D Theoretical Model - Homology modeling

(b) SOPMA - Tool for protein secondary structure prediction

(c) Hidden Markov Models - Can be used for generating a 3D structure

(d) PDB structures - Obtained through XRayD or NMR

91. Ten compounds were tested for antibacterial activity. All of them show good activity.

Analysis of their structures show that they have three common functional groups. These

functional groups can be used for deriving

(a) Pharmacodynamics

(b) Pharmocokinetics

(c) Pharmacophore

(d) Pharmacogenomics

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92. Which of these statement(s) are/is TRUE about a Hidden Markov Model

(a) A Hidden Markov Model has Emission Probabilities

(b) A Hidden Markov Model has Transition Probabilities

(c) A Hidden Markov Model has insert, delete and match states


93. The output of multiple sequence alignment of protein sequences can be used to

(a) Generate sequence motifs

(b) Guide phylogenetic tree construction

(c) In homology modeling to find regions of similarity between the target and template

sequences


94. Which one of these statements about Neural Networks is INCORRECT

(a) Errors can be corrected using Back propagation algorithm

(b) A Simple Neural Network has an input layer, hidden layer and an output layer

(c) Processing takes place in the hidden layer

(d) Errors cannot be corrected in a Neural Network

95. In a docking experiment different ligands are being docked to a receptor. The docking

algorithm includes

(a) A search technique to find the optimal placement of the ligand in the receptor

(b) A scoring function to rate each placement

(c) A method of ranking candidate ligands against each other


96. A protein simulation has to be performed using a relatively small number of particles in

such a way that the particles experience forces as though they were in bulk solution. This

is enabled in a Molecular Dynamics Simulation

(a) Through Periodic Boundary Conditions

(b) Adding positive ions

(c) Adding negative ions

(d) Adding water

97. Which of these statements is INCORRECT

(a) 2D Fingerprint of a compound is a set of bits where each bit indicates the presence or

absence of a molecular feature

(b) 2D Fingerprints can be used in 2D- searching for finding similar compounds in a

database

(c) 2D Fingerprints contain three dimensional coordinate information of compounds

(d) Tanimoto co-efficient can be used to see how similar two 2D fingerprints are.

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98. Docking procedures can use which of these scoring functions

(a) Empirical Scoring Function

(b) Explicit Force Field Scoring Function

(c) Knowledge based Scoring function


99. One would like to study domain movements of a protein. Which of these methods can be

used?

(a) Threading

(b) Docking

(c) Molecular dynamics simulations

(d) Homology modeling

100. In order to generate a good 3D homology model for a protein, BLASTp search against

PDB yielded a few hits. Which one of these can be chosen as the template?

(a) The hit with less than 10% identity

(b) The hit with less than 20% identity

(c) The hit with greater than 40% identity

(d) The hit with less than 15% identity

101. Statement I: In Simulated Annealing, the position and the internal rotational state of the

ligand is adjusted and the energy calculated.

Statement II: If the energy decreases, the move is accepted. Search goes on and the final

state of the ligand is returned as the docked conformation.

Which of these statements is/are TRUE / FALSE?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are True

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are False

(c) Statement I is True and Statement II is False

(d) Statement I is False and Statement II is True

102. The Linux command „grep "^Biology" one.txt‟ would find

(a) All lines beginning with the word Biology in the file named one.txt

(b) All lines NOT beginning with the word Biology in the file named one.txt

(c) All lines ending with the word Biology in the file named one.txt

(d) All lines containing the word Biology in the file named one.txt

103. In microarray analysis of gene expression values which clustering technique can be used

(a) Single Linkage Analysis

(b) Complete Linkage Analysis

(c) Average Linkage Analysis


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104. Statement I: In structure based drug discovery process where the structure of the target

and the drug is known, it is important to find if the drug binds well with the target

Statement II: For a drug to be safe and bioavailable, Absorption, Distribution,

Metabolism and Excretion of the drug should also be addressed

Which of these statements is / are TRUE / FALSE?

(a) Statement I is TRUE and Statement II is FALSE

(b) Both Statement I and II are TRUE

(c) Statement I is FALSE and Statement II is TRUE

(d) Both Statement I and II are FALSE

105. Considering n = 5, What will be the output of the following Pseudo code for Fibonacci

series?

RECURFIB(n)

if n = 1 or n = 2

return 1

else

a = RECURFIB(n − 1)

b = RECURFIB(n − 2)

return a + b

(a) 1 2 3 4 5 (b) 1 1 2 3 5 (c) 1 1 1 1 1 (d) 1 3 5 7 9

106. What will be the output of the following PERL program statements?

@protein ("Ala", "Gly", "Val");

pop(@protein);

print "@protein"

(a) Ala Gly Val

(b) Val Gly Ala

(c) Ala Gly

(d) Val

107. What will be the output of the following PERL program statements?

%protcount = (“Ala”=>50, “Gly”=>60, “Val”=>70); @protein keys % protcount;

print "@protein";

(a) 50 60 70 (b) Ala 50 Gly 60 Val 70 (c) Ala Gly Val (d) 70 60 50

108. Linux command „cat‟ is used to I) display the given file contents II) concatenate

two given files. Which one of the following is CORRECT with respect to the above two

statements?

(a) Statement I) is correct and II) is not correct

(b) Statement I) is not correct and II) is correct

(c) Both statements I) and II) are not correct

(d) Both statements I) and II) are correct

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109. To perform Molecular Dynamics Simulation on any protein of interest one has to carry

out the following steps and here the steps are mentioned in random order: I) Energy

Minimization II) Prepare the Protein III) Solvate IV) Production MD V) Position

Restrained MD. Which one of the following is giving the CORRECT ORDER of steps?

(a) Steps I, II, III, IV, V

(b) Steps II, III, I, V, IV

(c) Steps II, III, I, IV, V

(d) Steps I, II, III, V, IV

110. In sequence similarity search, if PSI-BLAST reports E value <=0.02, then sequences are

(a) Homologous

(b) Good match but not homologous

(c) Not homologous

(d) Mismatch

111. The Linux command „grep 'ATOM' Protein.txt > newprot.txt‟ will

(a) Write all the lines in Protein.txt and ATOM files to the newprot.txt file

(b) Write all the lines in Protein.txt that contain the string ATOM to the newprot.txt file

(c) Write all the lines in Protein.txt that NOT contain the string ATOM to the

newprot.txt file

(d) Concatenate the string ATOM to all the lines in Protein.txt and newprot.txt files

112. Which one of the following statement is TRUE? In Molecular Dynamics Simulation, the

minimization algorithm

(a) Steepest-Descent is a representative of the first derivative method

(b) Newton-Raphson is a representative of the first derivative method

(c) Steepest-Descent is a representative of the second derivative method

(d) Newton-Raphson is a representative of the third derivative method

113. In protein-ligand docking, I) Search algorithm generates a large number of poses of a

molecule in the binding site II) Scoring function calculates the binding affinity for a

particular pose. Which one of the following is CORRECT with respect to the above two

statements I and II?

(a) Both statements I) and II) are true

(b) Statement I) is true and II) is false

(c) Statement I) is false and II) is true

(d) Both statements I) and II) are false

114. To perform Docking of a given protein with a ligand one has to carry out the following

steps and here the steps are mentioned in random order: I) Mapping of the binding site

II) Adding hydrogens and preparing protein and ligand III) Analyze obtained

conformations and their energy IV) Docking. Which one of the following is giving the

CORRECT ORDER of steps?

(a) Steps I, II, III, IV

(b) Steps II, I, IV, III

(c) Steps II, I, III, IV

(d) Steps IV,III, II, I

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115. The BLAST programs which I) compare amino acid sequence query to a protein

sequence data base and II) compares nucleotide sequence query to a nucleotide sequence

data base are

(a) BLASTX and TBLASTX

(b) BLASTP and BLASTN

(c) BLASTP and BLASTX

(d) BLASTN and BLASTX

Answer: b

116. Which one of the following statement is FALSE? Two methods for constructing a

phylogenetic tree are

(a) distance-based and maximum parsimony

(b) maximum parsimony and maximum likelihood

(c) distance-based and maximum likelihood

(d) steepest-descent and minimum likelihood

117. The Linux commands for copying the files and renaming the files are

(a) copy and move

(b) copy and rename

(c) cp and mv

(d) cp and rn

118. The steps in Receptor based virtual screening are given below in a random order. Which

one of the following is giving the CORRECT order of steps? I) Target structure

selection II) Small-molecule database preparation III) Docking to predict ligand

conformation at binding site IV) Testing of Virtual hits

(a) Steps II, I, III, IV

(b) Steps I, II, III, IV

(c) Steps IV, III, II, I

(d) Steps III, IV, I, II

119. In biological databases I) SwissProt is a nucleotide sequence database II) PDB is a

structural database of proteins. Which one of the following is CORRECT with respect

to the above two statements I and II?

(a) Both statements I) and II) are true

(b) Statement I) is true and II) is false

(c) Statement I) is false and II) is true

(d) Both statements I) and II) are false

120. The major factors contributing to the stability of protein-ligand complexes are

(a) Shape complementarity of the ligand to the ligand-binding site

(b) Formation of key hydrogen bonds

(c) Good hydrophobic and electrostatic interactions with the active site residues


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AERONAUTICAL ENGINEERING


PAPER-II

Instructions:





wrong answer.








PART-A (80x1= 80 Marks)

1. Choose the appropriate option of the static indeterminacy of the truss shown in the

figure.

(a) Statically determinate

(b) Statically indeterminate to degree 1

(c) Statically indeterminate to degree 2

(d) Statically indeterminate to degree 3

2. For the frame shown in figure, the total static indeterminacy will be ________.

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

3. For the statically indeterminate beam shown in the figure, the unknown reaction force at

the left hand support is given by ___________

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(a) 𝑤𝐿

8

(b) 𝑤 𝐿2

8

(c) 3𝑤𝐿2

8

(d) 3𝑤𝐿

8

4. Bending moment M and torque T is applied on a solid circular shaft. If the maximum

bending stress equals to maximum shear stress developed, then M is equal to ______

(a) T/2

(b) T

(c) 2T

(d) 4T

5. The distribution factor of moment at joint B for the span BA for the frame shown in

figure is __________. Assume that EI is same for all the members.

(a) 0

(b) 0.3

(c) 0.4

(d) 1.0

6. A bar made of linear elastic isotropic material is fixed at one end and subjected to an

axial force of10 kN at the other end. The cross-sectional area of the bar is 100 mm2,

length is 100 mm and theYoung’s Modulus is 20105 N/mm

2. The strain energy stored in

the bar is _____________

(a) 10 N-mm

(b) 15 N-mm

(c) 20 N-mm

(d) 25 N-mm

7. The strain energy stored in a body of volume 'V' subjected to uniform stress(σ) is given

by _________

(a) 𝜎2

2𝐸 × 𝑉

(b) 𝜎2

𝐸 × 𝑉

(c) 𝜎2

𝑉 × 𝐸

(d) 𝜎2

2𝑉 × 𝐸

8. Which of the following statement defines the term ‘critical buckling load’?

(a) The stress on the cross-section due to the critical load equals the strength of the

material.

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(b) The maximum compressive axial force that can be applied to a column before

any lateral deflection occurs.

(c) The minimum compressive axial force that can be applied to a column before any

lateral deflection occurs.

(d) The axial compressive force that causes material failure of a column.

9. With one end fixed and other end is free, a column of length 'L' buckles at load 'P1'.

Another column of same length and same cross-section fixed at both ends buckles at load

'P2'. Then P2/P1 is __________

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 4

(d) 16

10. For most brittle materials, the ultimate strength in compression is much larger than the

ultimate strength in tension. This is mainly due to ____________

(a) presence of flaws and microscopic cracks or cavities

(b) necking in tension

(c) severity of tensile stress as compared to compressive stress

(d) non-linearity of stress-strain diagram

11. Design of shafts made of brittle materials is based on ___________

(a) Guest's theory

(b) Rankine's theory

(c) St. Venant's theory

(d) Von Mises theory

12. The principal stresses at a point in an elastic material are 200 N/mm2 (tensile), 100

N/mm2 (tensile) and 50 N/mm

2 ( compressive), the maximum principal strain will

be__________ if the poisson's ratio is 0.3.

(a) 185

𝐸

(b) 155

𝐸

(c) 245

𝐸

(d) 215

𝐸

13. Total strain range in a creep test is ___________

(a) <1%

(b) around 10%

(c) around 50%

(d) >>50%

14. Time dependent yield is known as ____________

(a) Fracture

(b) Fatigue

(c) Buckling

(d) Creep

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15. Shear stress distribution over the rectangular cross-section is______________

(a) constant

(b) linear

(c) parabolic

(d) elliptic

16. When an aircraft is flying straight, the top spar/flanges of a wing is most likely to fail in

_____________

(a) creep

(b) crushing

(c) yielding

(d) buckling

17. A closed-section box beam configuration is used in aircraft wings because it is capable

of resisting ________________

(a) bending loads

(b) fatigue loads

(c) buckling loads

(d) torsional loads

18. The highest limit load factor experienced by a civil transport aircraft is in the range

of________

(a) 0.0 to 2.0

(b) 2.0 to 5.0

(c) 5.0 to 8.0

(d) 8.0 to 10.0

19. Consider four thin-walled beams of different open cross-sections, as shown in the cases

(i-iv). A shear force of magnitude ‘F’ acts vertically downward at the location ‘P’ in all

the beams. In which of the following case, does the shear force induce bending and

twisting?

(a) Case(i)

(b) Case(ii)

(c) Case(iii)

(d) Case(iv)

20. The second moment of area, Izz, of the thin-walled channel section shown in the figure is

given by ________

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(a) 𝐼𝑧𝑧 = 𝑏𝑡ℎ2 + 𝑡 2ℎ 2

12

(b) 𝐼𝑧𝑧 = 𝑏𝑡ℎ2 + 𝑡 2ℎ 3

12

(c) 𝐼𝑧𝑧 = 4𝑏ℎ𝑡2 + 𝑡 2ℎ 3

12

(d) 𝐼𝑧𝑧 = 2𝑏𝑡ℎ2 + 𝑡 2ℎ 3

12

21. During steady level flight condition, an aircraft will be subjected to __________

(a) Symmetric bending

(b) Symmetric bending and torsion

(c) bending and shear

(d) bending, torsion and shear

22. Which of the following is /are maximum when the airplane flies at corner speed?

(a) Turn radius

(b) Turn rate

(c) Both turn radius and turn rate

(d) Climb rate and turn rate

23. The load factor acting on an airplane during 30˚ level turn is __________

(a) 2

3

(b) 3

2

(c) 3

(d) 2

24. A cantilever beam with thin-walled channel cross-section is subjected to a lateral force at

its shear centre____________.

(a) twisting without bending

(b) bending without twisting

(c) bending and twisting

(d) neither bending nor twisting

25. One of the following statements pertaining to multi-spool engines is NOT TRUE.

(a) they are lighter

(b) they are shorter

(c) they are heavy

(d) they are more rigid

26.The core nozzle of a typical three-spool turbofan engine generates the following percentage

of total thrust

(a) 50%

(b) 15%

(c) 25%

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(d) 75%

27. Higher the specific thrust of an aircraft engine

(a) lesser the engine cross-sectional area

(b) more the engine cross-sectional area

(c) more the engine weight

(d) lesser the airflow rate

28. In the subcritical operation mode of a supersonic inlet

(a) shock stands at some distance away from the inlet

(b) shock stands at the lip of inlet

(c) shock stands inside the inlet

(d) shock stands at the entry of combustion chamber

29. The following type of thrust reverser is widely used in turbojet engines

(a) V-gutter type

(b) Clam shell type

(c) flap type

(d) Door on shroud type

30. The main disadvantage of piston engine with respect to the aircraft application is

(a) increase in weight in greater proportion when power requirement increases

(b) engine vibration

(c) both a) and b)

(d) engine vibration and less engine life

31. Typical peak temperature at turbine inlet in a modern gas turbine is

(a) 1000K

(b) 1200K

(c) 1800K

(d) 800K

32. The startup problem of an axial flow compressor is due to

(a) choking of later stages of compressor

(b) choking due to front stages of compressor

(c) choking due to middle stages of compressor

(d) flow separation in the front stages of compressor

33. Choose the wrong statement from the following.

(a) A gas turbine engine is faster in its acceleration response at low RPM

(b) A gas turbine engine is very sensitive to its component efficiencies

(c) The part load efficiency of a gas turbine engine is poor

(d) A gas turbine engine is slow in its acceleration response

34. Number of stages in turbine is less than the number of stages in compressor because

(a) turbine has more blade loading coefficient

(b) turbine has less blade loading coefficient

(c) compressor exhibits surging

(d) compressor does not need cooling

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35. Choose the correct statement for an axial flow compressor

(a) cross-sectional area of blade passage is constant in compressor

(b) cross-sectional area of blade passage decreases in turbine

(c) cross-sectional area of blade passage decreases in compressor

(d) cross-sectional area of blade passage increases in turbine

36. Pressure gradient in the flow direction

(a) is adverse in axial flow compressor

(b) is negative in axial flow compressor

(c) is positive in axial flow turbine

(d) is adverse in the front stages of compressor and later becomes zero

37. The change in static enthalpy to overall change in stagnation enthalpy of a rotor of a

turbo-machine is called

(a) isentropic efficiency

(b) static-to-total efficiency

(c) degree of reaction

(d) degree of merit

38. The flow angle and blade angle in an axial flow compressor are measured with respect to

(a) axial direction

(b) radial direction

(c) local tangent of blade profile

(d) local normal of blade profile

39. If 'W' is the rate of work, 'm' is the mass flow rate and 'U' is the blade speed, then blade

loading coefficient of a turbo-machine is defined as

(a) W/2mU2

(b) W/mU2

(c) mU2/2W

(d) mU2/4W

40. If there is no change in static enthalpy and static pressure across a rotor, then the turbo-

machine is called

(a) reaction machine

(b) impulse machine

(c) 50% reaction machine

(d) free vortex machine

41.The following oxidiser is widely used in solid propellant compositions

(a) potassium perchlorate

(b) potassium nitrate

(c) ammonium nitrate

(d) ammonium perchlorate

42. For an ablative pulsed plasma thruster the following material is used as propellant

(a) Teflon

(b) Hydroxyl Terminated Polybutadiene

(c) Carboxyl Terminated Polybutadiene

(d) Aluminium

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43. Star shaped port cross section of a solid propellant grain results in

(a) regressive burning

(b) progressive burning

(c) neutral burning

(d) dual burning

44. Use of aluminium in propellant composition.

(a) improves combustion stability characteristics

(b) degrades combustion stability characteristics

(c) improves propellant processing characteristics

(d) degrades mechanical strength characteristics

45. The burning rate index of a solid propellant composition should be

(a) more than 1

(b) less than 1

(c) equal to 1

(d) always negative

46. In summer season or hot environment, a solid propellant rocket during static test firing

produces

(a) more thrust and will have more burning time

(b) less thrust and will have more burning time

(c) more thrust and will have less burning time

(d) less thrust and will have less burning time

47. In a cryogenic rocket engine where liquid oxygen and liquid hydrogen are used as

propellants, the following gas is used in pressure feed system

(a) nitrogen

(b) helium

(c) xenon

(d) neon

48. In liquid rocket engines, the following combination represents hypergolic ignition

(a) unsymmetrical dimethylhydrazine + nitrogen tetroxide

(b) liquid oxygen + liquid hydrogen

(c) liquid hydrogen + liquid fluorine

(d) liquid ammonia + hydrogen peroxide

49. In a rocket nozzle, the wall heat flux is maximum near

(a) nozzle inlet

(b) nozzle throat

(c) nozzle exit

(d) at 2/3rd of divergent section length from throat

50. The relationship between thrust coefficient (CF), specific impulse (Is) and characteristic

velocity (C*) is given by (where 'g' is acceleration due to gravity)

(a) gIs = CF C*

(b) gIs = (CF C*)/2

(c) gIs = 2CF C*

(d) gIs = CF2 C

*

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51. Specific impulse of a rocket

(a) is proportional to combustion chamber temperature

(b) is inversely proportional to square root of molecular weight of combustion

products

(c) is proportional to molecular weight of combustion products

(d) is proportional to square root of molecular weight of combustion products

52. A mass of 10 kg when suspended from a spring, causes a static deflection of 1 cm and

the natural frequency of the system will be

(a) 2.98 Hz

(b) 3.98 Hz

(c) 4.98 Hz

(d) 5.98Hz

53. A spring-mass –damper system of 2 kg is found to have a damping ratio of 0.4 and a

natural frequency of 10 rad/sec. The damping of the system will be

(a) 8 N/s

(b) 8 kg/s

(c) 16 N/s

(d) 18 kg/s

54. Which of the following method is always over estimates natural frequency of the system?

(a) Holzer method

(b) Dunkerlay’s method

(c) Stodola method

(d) Raleigh’s method

55. A linear spring-mass-dashpot system is under critically damped. In free vibration, the

system undergoes

(a) Oscillatory and periodic motion

(b) Non-oscillatory motion

(c) Random motion

(d) Oscillatory and non-periodic motion

56.The number natural frequencies of an elastic beam with cantilever boundary conditions is

(a) 1

(b) 3

(c) 6

(d) Infinite

57. Consider a single degree of freedom spring-mass system of spring stiffness k1and mass m

which has a natural frequency of 10 rad/s. Consider another single degree of freedom

spring-mass system of spring stiffness k2and mass m which has a natural frequency of 20

rad/s. The spring stiffness k2is equal to

(a) 2k1

(b) k1/2

(c) 4k1

(d) Qk1/4

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58. The factor which affects the critical speed of a shaft is

(a) diameter of the disc

(b) span of the shaft

(c) eccentricity

(d) all of these

59.In under damped vibrating system, if x1 and x2 are the successive values of the amplitude on

the same side of the mean position, then the logarithmic decrement is equal to

(a) x1/x2

(b) loge (x1/x2)

(c) log x1/x2

(d) loge (x1.x2)

60. The ratio between force transmitted to force applied is

(a) Force ratio

(b) Force factor

(c) Isolation factor

(d) magnification factor

61.Which of the following is steady state aero elastic instability

(a) Divergence

(b) Buffeting

(c) Flutter

(d) Dynamic response

62. A ternary flutter mode consist of following elements

(a) torsion and control surface rotation

(b) flexure and control surface rotation

(c) flexure, torsion and control surface rotation

(d) flexure, torsion and control surface translation

63. Pressure regulators in the hydraulic system is meant for

(a) Maintaining pressure below the upper limit

(b) Reducing pressure

(c) Increasing pressure

(d) both reducing and increasing the pressure

64. A device which is used to detect the sudden increase of flow and shut of the fluid flow is

(a) Shut –off valve

(b) Check Valve

(c) Hydraulic fuse

(d) Poppet valve

65. Cavitation occurs in a flow when there is sudden change in the

(a) Pressure

(b) Temperature

(c) Density

(d) Viscosity

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66. The one of the following is the secondary control

(a) Pitch control

(b) Yaw Control

(c) Roll control

(d) Elevator trim

67. A control system in which the movement of the controls are converted to electric signal

is

(a) Fly-by-optic

(b) Fly-by-wire

(c) Hydro mechanical

(d) Hydraulics

68. Oleo strut used in aircraft landing is used as

(a) Support

(b) Shock absorber

(c) Retraction of landing gear

(d) Extension of landing gear

69. Purging the system means

(a) Filling refrigerant

(b) refilling refrigerant

(c) Emptying refrigerant

(d) to prevent overfilling refrigerant

70. Aircraft cabin pressuring system is used

(a) Increase the pressure

(b) Reduce the pressure

(c) Increase the oxygen content

(d) Reduce the oxygen content

71. TIT in the fuel system refers to

(a) Total Inlet Temperature

(b) Total inlet of turbine

(c) Turbine inlet temperature

(d) Turbine inlet total

72. Gyroscope is driven by

(a) High pressure pump

(b) Medium pressure pump

(c) Low pressure pump

(d) Vacuum pump

73. One of the main factors not influencing the rigidity of a Gyro is

(a) Weight

(b) Angular velocity

(c) Position

(d) Bearing friction

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74. ILS is

(a) Air based

(b) Ground based

(c) Both air based and flight based

(d) neither air based nor ground based

75. Which one of the following is not a navigational instrument?

(a) VHF

(b) ADF

(c) GPS

(d) Mach meter

76. MIL-F-9490 military specifications is for

(a) Navigation system

(b) Flight control system

(c) Display system

(d) Communication system

77. What are the components needed for dead reckoning navigation

(a) Airspeed indicator and gyroscope

(b) Doppler radar and magnetometer

(c) Altimeter and rate gyro


78. The frequency band used by DME is

(a) High frequency

(b) Very high frequency

(c) Ultra high frequency

(d) L-Band

79. What type of feedbacks is needed to stabilize longitudinal unstable fighter aircraft?

(a) Angle of attack

(b) Pitch rate feedback

(c) Pitch angle feedback

(d) all the above

80. A pitch rate feedback will affect………………damping.

(a) Phugoid

(b) Short period

(c) Both short period and phugoid

(d) not affect any damping

PART-B (40x2=80 Marks)

81. Calculate the absolute maximum values of bending moment and shear force for the

beamgiven in the figure

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(a) 5 kN-m and 12.5 kN

(b) 10 kN-m and 5.0 kN

(c) 10 kN-m and 7.5 kN

(d) 10 kN and 12.5 Kn

82. If the members of the truss can withstand maximum 10 kN in tension and 8 kN in

compression, determine the maximum force 'P' that can be applied on the truss.

(a) 2√3 kN

(b) 4√3 kN

(c) 6 √3kN

(d) 8√3 Kn

83. Determine the vertical displacement of joint C of the truss shown in the figure. Cross-

sectional area of each member is A=500 mm2 and young's modulus is E=200 GPa.

(a) 0.8 mm (downward)

(b) 0.8 mm (upward)

(c) 3.06 mm (downward)

(d) 3.06 mm (upward)

84. Determine the tangential rotation at point C of the frame shown in the figure. Young's

modulus (E)=200 GPa, Moment of inertia (I)=15 x 106 mm

4 for both the members.

(a) 5.25 x 10

-3 rad

(b) 8.75 x 10-3

rad

(c) 6.15 x 10-3

rad

(d) 7.5 x 10-3

rad

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85. The reactions at the support A,B and C for a continuous beam shown in the figure is

given by ______________

(a) 41.25 kN, 157.5 kN and 41.25 kN respectively

(b) 41.25 kN, 157.5 kN and 56.25 kN respectively

(c) 56.25 kN, 41.25 kN and 56.25 kN respectively

(d) 56.25 kN, 157.5 kN and 41.25 kN respectively

86. A uniform cantilever beam consisting of two stringers and a thin web is loaded as shown

in figure, the shear flow (qz) is given by __________

(a) 𝑞𝑧 =𝑉𝑧

8ℎ

(b) 𝑞𝑧 =𝑉𝑧

6ℎ

(c) 𝑞𝑧 =𝑉𝑧

4ℎ

(d) 𝑞𝑧 =𝑉𝑧

2ℎ

87. Consider the circular section subjected to shear load (Vz) as shown in the figure, the

shear flow (q) is given by __________

(a) 𝑞 𝛽 =𝑉𝑧

𝜋𝑅sin𝛽

(b) 𝑞 𝛽 =𝑉𝑧

𝜋𝑅cos𝛽

(c) 𝑞 𝛽 =𝑉𝑧

2𝜋𝑅sin𝛽

(d) 𝑞 𝛽 =𝑉𝑧

2𝜋𝑅cos𝛽

88. The channel section of uniform thickness 2mm shown in the figure is subjected to a

torque of 10 N-m. If it is made of a material with shear modulus of 25 GPa, the twist per

unit length is _________

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(a) 0.11 radians/m

(b) 0.13 radians/m

(c) 0.15 radians/m

(d) 0.17 radians/m

89. The idealized cross-section of a thin walled wing box structure shown in the figure is

subjected to an anticlockwise torque of 10 kN-m. The corresponding shear-flow

distribution under this loading condition is shown in the figure. The area of each cell is

A1= 300 x 103 mm

2, A2= 250 x 10

3 mm

2. The ratio of x/y is __________

(a) 0.64

(b) 0.55

(c) 0.46

(d) 0.37

90. An aircraft wing is idealized as a cantilever beam of constant width and length (l) with a

tip mass of weight (W) in Newton and has a UDL of qo in Newton/m as shown in the

figure. Flexural rigidity is EI and qol=10W. The upward deflection (δ) of the tip of

aircraft wing under the given loading can be expressed as

𝛿 = 𝑘𝑊𝑙3

𝐸𝐼

The value of k is given by ____________

(a) 0.56

(b) 0.75

(c) 0.83

(d) 0.92

91Choose the aviation fuel having highest thermal stability among the following.

(a) JP2

(b) JP3

(c) JP4

(d) JP5

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92. The following approximate amount of air is used from compressor for turbine blade

cooling in case of a turbojet engine

(a) 5-8%

(b) 1-2%

(c) 20-30%

(d) 0.1 to 0.2%

93. If Ø is semi divergence angle of a straight converging-diverging nozzle, then the

divergence loss factor is

(a) (1+cosØ)/2

(b) (1+cos2Ø)/2

(c) (1+2cosØ)/2

(d) (2+cosØ)/2

94. Flow distortion in a supersonic intake at a given cross-sectional plane is defined as (p0max

is maximum total pressure, p0min is minimum total pressure and p0mean is mean total

pressure).

(a) 2(p0max - p0min)/p0mean

(b) (2p0max - p0min)/p0mean

(c) (p0max - p0min)/ p0mean

(d) (p0max - p0min)/2p0mean

95. At high subsonic Mach number like 0.85

(a) efficiency of turbofan > efficiency of turboprop

(b) efficiency of turbojet > efficiency of turboprop

(c) efficiency of turbojet > efficiency of turbofan

(d) efficiency of turboprop > efficiency of turbofan

96. Characteristic velocity of a rocket engine is equal to

(a) twice the discharge coefficient

(b) square root of discharge coefficient

(c) inverse of discharge coefficient

(d) thrust of the rocket divided by initial mass of rocket.

97. The characteristic chamber length (L*) of combustion chamber of a liquid rocket engine

is defined as (where Vc is the chamber volume and At is nozzle throat area)

(a) L* = Vc/2At

(b) L* = Vc/At

(c) L* = 2Vc/At

(d) L* = 3Vc/2At

98. If Ap is initial port cross section area and At is nozzle throat area of a solid propellant

rocket, then the following criterion is to be satisfied

(a) Ap/At> 2

(b) Ap/At< 1/2

(c) Ap/At = 1

(d) 1 <Ap/At< 2

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99. In case of Ion Thruster, the exhaust speed of the jet 've' is related to applied voltage 'V'

and ion charge to mass ratio 'q/m' as follows

(a) ve = (2qV/m)1/2

(b) ve = (qV/m)1/2

(c) ve = (qV/2m)1/2

(d) ve = (qV/4m)1/2

100. One of the following is more challenging for scramjet system over rocket system

(a) thrust modulation

(b) fuel injection

(c) powered range

(d) engine integration with airframe

101. Analytical addition of motions x1 = 2 cos (ωt + 0.5) and x2 = 5 sin (ωt + 1.0) will be

equal to

(a) 6.17 cos (ωt + 1.28)

(b) 6.17 sin (ωt + 1.28)

(c) 1.28 cos (ωt + 6.17)

(d) 1.28 sin (ωt + 6.17)

102. The damped natural frequency of a system as obtained from a free vibration test, is

9.8Hz.During the forced vibration test with constant exciting force on the same system,

themaximum amplitude of vibration is found to be at 9.6 Hz. Its natural frequency is

(a) 10 Hz

(b) 11 Hz

(c) 12 Hz

(d) 13 Hz

103. For critically damped single degree of freedom spring mass damper system with

damping constant of 8 Ns/m and a spring constant of 32 N/m, the system mass is

(a) 2 kg

(b) 1 kg

(c) 0.5 kg

(d) 0.125 kg

104. For the spring mass system shown below, has the following natural frequencies

(a) 0 and 𝑘

𝑚1+𝑚2

(b) 0 and 𝑘 𝑚1+𝑚2

2𝑚1𝑚2

(c) 0 and 𝑘 𝑚1+𝑚2

𝑚1𝑚2

(d) 0 and 𝑘

𝑚1𝑚2

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105.Two shaft A and B shown in Fig.below. The length of an equivalent shaft B is

(a) 𝑙 = 𝑙1 + 𝑙2 𝑑1

𝑑2

0.5

+ 𝑙3 𝑑1

𝑑3

0.5

(b) 𝑙 = 𝑙1 + 𝑙2 𝑑1

𝑑2

2

+ 𝑙3 𝑑1

𝑑3

2

(c) 𝑙 = 𝑙1 + 𝑙2 𝑑1

𝑑2

3

+ 𝑙3 𝑑1

𝑑3

3

(d) 𝑙 = 𝑙1 + 𝑙2 𝑑1

𝑑2

4

+ 𝑙3 𝑑1

𝑑3

4

106. An airplane designer has only limited control over an __________________ and

_______________but __________________is more controllable.

(a) aerodynamic coupling, inertia coupling, elastic coupling

(b) inertia coupling, aerodynamiccoupling, elastic coupling

(c) elastic coupling, aerodynamic coupling, inertia coupling

(d) Mass coupling, aerodynamic coupling, elastic coupling

107. Which is the following is NOT correct for symmetrical tail flutter?

(a) Elevator rotation about hinge line

(b) Vertical bending of fuselage

(c) Pitching of airplane as whole

(d) Torsion of fuselage

108. Choose the correct statement from the following.

(a) For swept back wings, the aileron reversal speed is lower than the divergence

speed

(b) For swept back wings, the divergence speed is lower than the aileron reversal

speed

(c) For sweep forward wings, the divergence speed is higher than flutter speed

(d) For sweep forward wings, the divergence speed is higher than reversal speed

109. A double lever in an aircraft control system is used to

(a) Change the direction of motion

(b) Control of Torque

(c) Control of pressure

(d) Control of fluid

110. Gust locks are used in aircraft during

(a) Landing

(b) Take off

(c) Parking

(d) Manoeuvring

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111. The fuel filter used in aircrafts are rated in

(a) Centimetre

(b) Millimetre

(c) Nano-meter

(d) Micrometre

112. A reservoir pressurization module is installed close to the

(a) Compressor

(b) Turbine

(c) Reservoir

(d) Pump

113.To make a spark inside the engines cylinders which is strong enough to ignite the air/fuel

mixture, the voltage required at normal atmospheric conditions is

(a) 1500 volts

(b) 1000 volts

(c) 600 volts

(d) 2000 volts

114. Variometer is used to measure displays that information to the pilot

(a) Airspeed

(b) Mach number

(c) Rate of climb

(d) rated of descent and climb

115.Course deviation indicator (CDI) is used in

(a) Altimeter

(b) Mach meter

(c) VOR

(d) Slip indicator

116.General cabin pressure differentials allowed in lighter aircraft is

(a) 3-5 psi

(b) 10-15 psi

(c) 6-9psi

(d) 16-20psi

117.Two principle guiding documents in laying out the cockpit are

(a) MIL-STD-200 & FAR 25.1000

(b) MIL-STD-203 & FAR 25.1303

(c) MIL-STD-1553 & FAR 25.1773

(d) MIL-STD-8481 & FAR 25.8481

118. An aircraft servo transfer function is modeled as 1/s+500. Find out the time constantof

the system.

(a) 0.002

(b) 0.02

(c) 0.1

(d) 1

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119. After alignment of the stable platform of the Inertial Navigation System, the output data

from the INS computer to the platform is:

(a) Rate corrections to the gyros

(b) accelerations from the accelerometers

(c) attitude

(d) latitude and longitude

120. In an Inertial Navigation System, what is the output of the first stage North/South

integrator?

(a) Groundspeed

(b) Latitude

(c) Velocity along the local meridian

(d) Change of latitude

---------------

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CHEMICAL ENGINEERING


PAPER-II

Instructions:





wrong answer.









1. Structured packings are preferred in packed towers for mass transfer compared to

conventional dumped packings because they provide

(a) less pressure drop though the contact between phases is poor.

(b) better mass transfer with high pressure drop.

(c) better mass transfer with low pressure drop

(d) none of the reasons given in a, b, c.

2. In the design of gas absorption equipment like packed and tray towers, the ratio of actual

liquid rate to minimum liquid rate should preferably in the range of

(a) 1 – 2

(b) 1.5 – 2.5

(c) 0.5 – 1.5

(d) (d) 1.1 – 1.5

3. One of the following set of conditions may be used to enhance the rate of a gas

absorption process

(a) low T & P

(b) high T & P

(c) low T & high P

(d) high T & Low P

Where T is temperature and P is pressure.

4. A coalescer in a mixer-settler liquid-liquid extraction coloumn

(a) comprises of thin bed of substances of extended surface having high porosity.

(b) helps in increasing the bubble size entering the settler.

(c) helps in increasing the settling rate of the bubbles.

(d) all 'a', 'b', & 'c'.

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5. Pick out the correct statement.

(a) Ponchan-Savarit method is more accurate than McCabe-Thiele method to determine

the number of theoretical stages required for the separation of non-ideal binary

system by distillation

(b) A sharp decrease in pressure drop is an indication of flooding in a distillation column

(c) Solvent used in extractive distillation should be of high volatility

(d) Flash distillation is suitable for separating components which have very close boiling

temperature.

6. In the constant rate period of the rate of drying curve for batch drying,

(a) cracks develop on the surface of the solid.

(b) rate of drying decreases abruptly.

(c) surface evaporation of unbound moisture occurs.

(d) none of these.

7. Weeping in a distillation column

(a) increases tray efficiency

(b) provides large interfacial surface for mass transfer

(c) results due to very high gas velocity

(d) results due to very low gas velocity

8. Wetted wall tower experiment determines the

(a) molal diffusivity

(b) volumetric co-efficient

(c) mass transfer co-efficient

(d) none of these

9. Corresponding to Nusselt number in heat transfer, the dimensionless group in mass

transfer is the __________ number.

(a) Sherwood

(b) Schmidt

(c) Peclet

(d) Stanton

10. The solvent used in liquid extraction should not have high latent heat of vaporisation,

because

(a) the pressure drop and hence the pumping cost will be very high

(b) it cannot be recovered by distillation

(c) its recovery cost by distillation may be prohibitively high

(d) it will decompose while recovering by distillation

11. The partial pressure distribution of an ideal gas diffusing through another stagnant ideal

gas at steady state follows a/an __________ law.

(a) exponential

(b) parabolic

(c) linear

(d) cubic

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12. The binary diffusivity in gases and liquids vary respectively as

(a) T3/2

and T

(b) T and T3/2

(c) T1/2

and T3/2

(d) T3/2 and T

1/2

13. Very tall packed towers are divided into series of beds to

(a) reduce the overall pressure drop

(b) avoid channelling

(c) reduce liquid hold-up

(d) avoid flooding

14. Moisture contained by a substance in excess of the equilibrium moisture is called the

__________ moisture.

(a) unbound

(b) free

(c) critical

(d) bound

15. Unsaturated air (with dry and wet bulb temperatures being 35 and 25°C respectively) is

passed through water spray chamber maintained at 35°C. The air will be

(a) cooled

(b) humidified

(c) both (a) & (b)

(d) dehumidified

16. Penetration theory relates the average mass transfer co-efficient (K) with diffusivity (D)

as

(a) K ∝D

(b) K ∝ D0.5

(c) K ∝D1.5

(d) K ∝D2

17. Flash distillation is suitable for the separation of components

(a) having very close boiling points

(b) which form maximum boiling azeotrope

(c) having very wide boiling points

(d) which form minimum boiling azeotrope

18. Leaching rate is independent of the

(a) Agitation

(b) temperature

(c) particle size

(d) none of these

19. The minimum liquid rate to be used in an absorber corresponds to an operating line

(a) of slope = 1

(b) ofslope = 0.1

(c) tangential to the equilibrium curve

(d) none of these

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20. The value of Lewis number for air-water vapour system is around

(a) 1

(b) 0.24

(c) 3.97

(d) 600

21. Adiabatic flame temperature of a fuel is dependent on the initial temperature of

(a) the fuel

(b) the air

(c) both fuel and air

(d) neither fuel nor the air

22. Which of the following constituents of a fuel does not contribute to its calorific value on

combustion?

(a) Hydrogen

(b) Sulphur

(c) Carbon

(d) none of these

23. When 92 gm ethanol is completely burnt, ______ gm of carbon dioxide will be formed

(a) 176

(b) 132

(c) 88

(d) 144

24. Calorific value as determined by bomb calorimeter is

(a) higher calorific value at constant volume

(b) gross calorific value at constant pressure

(c) lower calorific value at constant pressure

(d) net calorific value at constant volume

25. Caking index of a coal is a measure of its

(a) Abradability

(b) Reactivity

(c) Agglutinating (binding) properties

(d) Porosity

26. Main component of sewage gas produced during anaerobic decomposition of organic

waste (by suitable bacteria) during sewage disposal is

(a) Hydrogen

(b) Methane

(c) Carbon-dioxide

(d) Nitrogen

27. The shift conversion reaction taking place during water gas manufacture is given by

(a) C + H2O ↔ CO + H2

(b) C + 2H2O ↔ CO2 + 2H2

(c) CO + H2O ↔ CO2 + H2

(d) None of these

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28. Higher efficiency in the combustion of solid fuel cannot be achieved by

(a) proper fuel preparation

(b) supplying correct quantity of combustion air

(c) keeping the flue gas exhaust temperature very high

(d) adopting efficient-fuel firing technique & equipment

29. Washing of coal is done to decreases its

(a) Caking index

(b) Mineral matter content

(c) Carbon content

(d) both (b) and (c)

30. Ratio of primary air to secondary air increases with increase in the rank of coal, because

the

(a) high rank coals have higher amount of volatile matter

(b) oxygen content progressively decreases

(c) ratio of fixed carbon to volatile matter increases

(d) calorific value of the coal increases

31. Experimental batch reactor is usually operated

(a) Isothermally

(b) Constant volume

(c) Isothermally and at constant volume

(d) None

32. How half-life (t1/2) and initial concentration are related for a nth order irreversible

reaction

(a) 1

1/2

n

Aot C

(b) 1

1/2

n

Aot C

(c) 1/2

n

Aot C

(d) None

33. If ‘A’ decomposing by two competing paths as follow A K1 R , A

K2 S, the rate –rA is

(a) K1 CA

(b) K2 CA

(c) (K1+ K2) CA

(d) None

34. The rate -rA for an auto catalytic reaction, A+R→R+R is maximum where

(a) CA=CR

(b) CA= 1/2 CR

(c) CA=2CR

(d) None

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35. For the consecutive uni-molecular type 1st order reaction such as .

21

SRAKK

Then the

maximum concentration of R is

(a) CA0 K1

K2

K 2K 2−K 1

(b) CA0 K2

K1

K 2K 2−K 1

(c) K1

K2

K 2K 2−K 1

(d) K2

K1

K 2K 2−K 1

36. Consider a isothermal gas phase reaction A→4R, by starting with 25 % inert. What is

fractional volume change (εA)

(a) 1.75

(b) 2.25

(c) 1

(d) 1.5

37. For liquid phase reaction, the fraction volume change (εA)

(a) one

(b) zero

(c) both

(d) None

38. For which type of reactions reactor size is independent of flow

(a) n=0

(b) n>1

(c) n<1

(d) none

39. If recycle ratio, R in recycle reactor becomes zero. Then the behavior of recycle reactor

is

(a) Like PFR

(b) Like CSTR

(c) both a & b

(d) none

for rR = 3CA ; rS = 6𝐶𝐴2 40. The fractional yield of R, φ (R/A)

(a) 1

1+2CA

(b) 2CA

1+2CA

(c) 3CA

(d) 6CA2

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41. For the consecutive uni-molecular type 1st order reaction such as A

K1 B

K2 S taking

place in backmix flow reactor the maximum possible outlet concentration of B is

(a) CA0 K1K2 + 1

(b) CA0 1

K1K2+1

2

(c) CA0 K1K2 + 1 2

(d) None

42. The reciprocal of D/UL is

(a) Peclet number

(b) Reynolds number

(c) Sherwood number

(d) None

43. Pore diffusion offers negligible resistance to reaction when

(a) Thiele modules > 5

(b) Thiele modules >0.5

(c) Theie modules <0.5

(d) None

44. For the non-catalytic reaction of particles with surrounding fluid, the time need to

achieve the same fractional conversion for particles of different but unchanging sizes is

proportional to the diameter of the particles when

(a) chemical reaction is the controlling resistance

(b) diffusion through ash layer is the controlling resistance

(c) film diffusion is the controlling resistance

(d) all of the above

45. A 1st order reaction A→B occurs in an isothermal porous catalyst pellet of spherical

shape. If the concentration of A at the centre of pellet is much less than that at the

external surface, the process is limited by

(a) diffusion within the pellet

(b) reaction

(c) external mass transfer


46. In solid catalyzed reactions , the diffusional effects are more likely affect the overall rate

of reaction for

(a) fast reactions in catalysts of small pore diameter

(b) fast reactions in catalysts of large pore diameter

(c) slow reactions in catalysts of small pore diameter

(d) slow reactions in catalysts of large pore diameter

47. Stimulus response techniques are commonly used to characterize the extend of non-ideal

flow in vessels. Tracer input signal is used as stimulus. Any material can be used

(a) as tracer if it can disturb the flow pattern in the vessel

(b) as tracer if it does not disturb the flow pattern in the vessel and it can be detected

(c) as tracer if it follows ideal flow patterns

(d) as tracer

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48. For large value of Thiele modulus 𝐿 𝑘 𝐷 of a solid catalyzed 1st order reaction, the

effectiveness factor (ε) is given by

(a) 𝜖 = 1

(b) 𝜖 = 𝐿 𝑘 𝐷

(c) 𝜖 = 1 + 𝐿 𝑘 𝐷

(d) 𝜖 =1

𝐿 𝑘 𝐷

49. Which of the following is a correct statement

(a) Kappa number should be maintained uniform during entire pulping process

(b) Kappa number should increase as pulping process proceeds towards completion

(c) Kappa number should decrease as pulping process proceeds towards completion

(d) Kappa number should be increased during initial pulping and then decreased.

50. Which of the following catalysts uses carbon dioxide for methanol manufacturing

process?

(a) Ni-Ga

(b) Zn-Mn-Cr-Mn

(c) CuO-ZnO

(d) Feo

51. Commercial production of nitric acid is by

(a) Oxidation of nitrogen

(b) Oxidation of ammonia

(c) Catalytic reaction of ammonia and water

(d) Acidification of nitrate ore

52. The molten urea is kept just above melting temperature of urea to

(a) Avoid carbamate formation

(b) Avoid biurate formation

(c) Avoid urea decomposition into ammonia and carbon dioxide

(d) Avoid explosion in prilling tower

53. Which of the following compounds is used as a builder in detergent manufacturing?

(a) Sodium sulphate

(b) Sodium tripolyphosphate

(c) Di potassium phosphate

(d) stearic acid

54. The most energy intensive process in pulp and paper production industry is

(a) Pulping

(b) pulp processing

(c) recovery process

(d) raw material handling

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55. Ethanol production by direct hydration of ethene uses

(a) Alumina catalyst

(b) Silica catalyst

(c) Phosphoric acid catalyst

(d) ZnO-Ni catalyst

56. Which of the following is the most adverse factor challenging the choice of mercury

electrolytic cell process for the production of caustic soda?

(a) High cost of mercury.

(b) High specific gravity of mercury.

(c) Non-availability of high purity mercury.

(d) Pollution of water stream by mercury

57. The electrical energy used in electrolysis cell is directly proportional to

(a) Cell volume

(b) cell potential

(c) conductivity of electrolyte

(d) cathode product

58. Purpose of steam impregnation in wood chips is to

(a) break lignin cellulose bond

(b) digest woodchips

(c) remove air pockets from wood chips

(d) pulping of wood chips

59. Gypsum is chemically

(a) calcium chloride

(b) potassium sulphate

(c) calcium phosphate

(d) calcium sulphate

60. Servo problem is encountered when there is a change in __________________.

(a) load variable

(b) set point

(c) manipulated variable

(d) measured value of the controlled variable

61. When ζ =0,the nature of step response is__________________________.

(a) underdamped

(b) critically damped

(c) overdamped

(d) undamped

62. Consider a system with 1

1)(

2

sssG

. The percentage overshoot for this system for

a step change is _________________.

(a) 63.5%

(b) 16.6%

(c) 32 %

(d) 83%

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63. Which one of the following second order systems show overdamped behavior for step

input?

(a) 5

1)(

2

ssG

(b)

7.09.1

1)(

2

sssG

(c) 23

1)(

2

sssG

(d) 2

1)(

2

sssG

64. The Bode plot of a stable system gives amplitude ratio corresponding to the phase cross

over frequency

(a) less than 1

(b) more than one

(c) equal to one


65. Consider a first order system with a transfer function 5/(2s+1) and a P-controller with

Kc=3 in a closed loop .If there is a unit step change in set point for the system , the offset

is

(a) 0.9375

(b) 0.0627

(c) 1

(d) 0

66. As ζ decreases for a second order underdamped system , overshoot _________________

(a) Increases

(b) decreases

(c) remains same

(d) cannot say

67. Integral control action makes a process

(a) more oscillatory

(b) less oscillatory

(c) with larger steady state deviations from set point

(d) stable

68. In --------------- controller action, the output of controller is zero at constant error

condition.

(a) Proportional

(b) derivative

(c) integral

(d) none of these

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69. The second order system with the transfer function 42

4)(

2

sssG has a damping

ratio of

(a) 2.0

(b) 0.5

(c) 1.0

(d) 4.0

70. A tank operating at 10ft head, 5 lpm outflow through a valve offering linear resistance to

flow and has a cross section area of 10 sq ft. Calculate the time constant.

(a) 20min/lpm

(b) 20 min/sq.ft

(c) 568 min/sq.ft

(d) 56.8 min/sq.ft

71. In a single tank system (cross sectional area A and time constant τ) with an inlet to the

top and a pump at the bottom , the transfer function of level to inlet flow rate is

(a) 1/As

(b) 1/1

𝜏𝑠+ 1

(c) 1/(τs+1)

(d) τs+1

72. The corner frequency for a system with transfer function 1/(4s+2) is

(a) 0.5

(b) 4

(c) 0.25

(d) 2

73. A proportional controller with a gain of Kc is used to control a first order process. The

offset

(a) Increases with increase in Kc

(b) Decreases with increase in Kc

(c) Does not vary with Kc

(d) Cannot predict

74. A special case of proportional control is on-off control , when its gain Kc is

(a) zero

(b) infinity

(c) 1


75. If the dead time in the process increases, then the process is

(a) Relatively more stable

(b) Relatively less stable

(c) Unaffected

(d) Cannot say

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76. Response of a system to a sinusoidal input is called -----------------response

(a) Impulse

(b) Unit step

(c) Frequency

(d) None of these

77. In process control it is desirable to anticipate the effect of large load changes and reduce

the maximum error; a possible control action to achieve this is

(a) proportional

(b) integral

(c) derivative

(d) PI control

78. Air to open type control valve

(a) Opens when air pressure fails

(b) closes when air pressure fails

(c) None of the above

(d) Both of the above

79. A gain margin of less than one means

(a) unstable system

(b) Stable system

(c) Critically stable system

(d) underdamped system

80. U tube manometer filled with mercury is an example of --------

(a) Under damped second order system

(b) Over damped second order system

(c) Critically damped second order system

(d) Non-oscillatory second order system

PART-B (30X2=60 Marks)

81. Species A is diffusing at steady state from the surface of a sphere (radius = 1 cm ) into a

stagnant fluid. If the diffusive flux at a distance r = 3 cm from the centre of the sphere is

27 mol/cm2s

-1, the diffusive flux (in mol/cm

2s

-1) at a distance r = 9 cm is

(a) 1

(b) 3

(c) 9

(d) 27

82. The feed to a binary distillation column has 40 mol% vapour and 60 mol% liquid. Then,

the slope of the q -line in the McCabe-Thiele plot is

(a) –1.5

(b) –0.6

(c) 0.6

(d) 1.5

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83. A flash distillation drum is used to separate a methanol-water mixture. The mole fraction

of methanol in the feed is 0.5, and the feed flow rate is 1000 kmol/h. The feed is

preheated in a heater with heat duty Qh and is subsequently flashed in the drum. The

flash drum can be assumed to be an equilibrium stage, operating adiabatically. The

equilibrium relation between the mole fractions of methanol in the vapour and liquid

phases is y* =4x. The ratio of distillate to feed flow rate is 0.5. The mole fraction of

methanol in the distillate is

(a) 0.2

(b) 0.7

(c) 0.8

(d) 0.9

84. A packed tower containing Berl saddles is operated with a gas-liquid system in the

countercurrent mode. Keeping the gas flow rate constant, if the liquid flow rate is

continuously increased.

(a) the void fraction available for the gas to flow will decrease beyond the loading point

(b) the gas pressure drop will decrease

(c) liquid will continue to flow freely down the tower beyond the loading point

(d) the entrainment of liquid in the gas will considerably decrease near the flooding point

85. A thin liquid film flows at steady state along a vertical surface. The average velocity of

the liquid film is 0.05 m/s. The viscosity of the liquid is 1 CP and its density is 1000

kg/m3. The initially pure liquid absorbs a sparingly soluble gas from air as it flows

down. The length of the wall is 2 m and its width is 0.5 m. The solubility of the gas in

the liquid is 3.4x 10-2

kmol/ m3 and isothermal conditions may be assumed. If the exit

average concentration in the liquid is measured to be 1.4 x 10-2

kmol/ m3, the total mass

transfer rate (in kmol/s) of the sparingly soluble gas into the liquid is

(a). 0.133 x 10-4

(b). 0.434 x 10-7

(c). 3.4 x 10-2

(d). 17 x 10-2

86. A 50 cm x 50 cm x 1 cm flat wet sheet weighing 2 kg, initially was dried from both the

sides under constant drying rate period. It took 1000 s for the weight of the sheet to

reduce to 1.75 kg. Another 1mx1mx1 cm flat sheet is to be dried from one side only.

Under the same drying rate and other conditions, time required for drying (in sec) from

initial weight of 4 kg to 3 kg is

(a). 1000

(b). 1500

(c). 2000

(d). 2500

87. It is desired to reduce the concentration of pyridine in 500 kg of aqueous solution from

20 wt% to 5 wt% in a single batch extraction using chlorobenzene as solvent.

Equilibrium compositions (end points of the tie line) in terms of weight per cent of

pyridine-water-chlorobenzene are (5, 95, 0) and (11, 0, 89). The amount of pure solvent

required in kg for the operation is

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(a) 607

(b) 639

(c) 931

(d) 1501

88. In a laboratory test run, the rate of drying was found to be 0 .5x 10-3

kg/ m2s, when the

moisture content reduced from 0.4 to 0.1 on a dry basis. The critical moisture content of

the material is 0.08 on a dry basis. A tray dryer is used to dry 100 kg (dry basis) of the

same material under identical conditions. The surface area of the material is 0.04 m2/kg

of dry solid. The time required (in second) to reduce the moisture content of the solids

from 0.3 to 0.2 (dry basis) is

(a) 2000

(b) 4000

(c) 5000

(d) 6000

89. The interfacial area per unit volume of dispersion, in a gas-liquid contractor, for

fractional hold-up of gas = 0.1 and gas bubble diameter = 0.5 mm is given by (in m2/ m

3)

(a) 500

(b) 1200

(c) 900

(d) 800

90. The individual mass transfer coefficients (mol/ m2s) for absorption of a solute from a gas

mixture into a liquid solvent are kL = 4.5 and kG = 1.5. The slope of the equilibrium line

is 3. Which of the following resistance(s) is/are controlling?

(a) liquid side

(b) gas side

(c) interfacial

(d) both liquid and gas sides

91. According to the Fenske equation, what will be the minimum number of plates required

in a distillation column to separate an equimolar binary mixture of components A and B

into an overhead fraction containing 99 mol % A and a bottoms fraction containing 98

mol % B? [Assume that the relative volatility (αAB = 2) does not change appreciably in

the column]

(a) 5

(b) 9

(c) 12

(d) 28

92. A pure drug is administered as a sphere and as a cube. The amount of drug is the same

in the two tablets. Assuming that the shape and size do not influence the mass transfer,

the ratio of rate of dissolution in water at t = 0 for the cubic to spherical tablet is

(a) 0.54

(b) 1.04

(c) 1.24

(d) 1.94

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93. An air-water vapour mixture has a dry bulb temperature of 60oC and a dew point

temperature of 40oC. The total pressure is 101.3 kPa and the vapour pressures of water at

40oC and 60

oC are 7.30 kPa and 19.91 kPa, respectively. The humidity of air sample

expressed as kg of water vapour/kg of dry air is

(a) 0.048

(b) 0.079

(c) 0.122

(d) 0.152

94. __________ of the coal is the basis for Seyler's coal classification

(a) Proximate analysis

(b) Ultimate analysis

(c) caking index

(d) Calorific value

95. In flue gas analysis by Orsat's apparatus, carbon monoxide is absorbed by

(a) Cuprous chloride

(b) Potassium hydroxide

(c) Alkaline pyrogallol solution

(d) None of these

96. Low temperature carbonisation

(a) produces higher quantity of gas than high temperature carbonisation

(b) is mainly for producing the smokeless domestic coke

(c) produces less quantity of tar than high temperature carbonisation

(d) is meant for the production of 'metallurgical coke'

97. Improper storage condition results in the weathering of coal and spontaneous

combustion, which increases its

(a) caking index

(b) calorific value

(c) friability and Oxygen content

(d) Yield of carbonised product

98. The main useful constituent of natural gas and producer gas respectively is

(a) CO2+H2 and C2H6

(b) CH4 and CO+H2

(c) C2H6 and CO2+H2

(d)C2H6 and CO2

99. The air to natural gas (stoichiometric) ratio by volume for complete combustion vary

between -------------- to ---------------

(a) 14.5:1 to 22:1

(b) 18.5:1 to 22:1

(c) 9.5:1 to 10:1

(d) 19.5:1 to 20:1

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100. For the consecutive reaction .21

CBAKK

numerical values are K1 = 0.35 hr-1

, K2=0.13 hr-

1, CA0=64 kg mol/m

3 and CB0= CC0= 0 . What is the maximum concentration attained by

B when operative as batch reactor

(a) 35.68 kgmol/m3

(b) 24.71 kgmol/m3

(c) 34.07 kgmol/m3

(d) 42.30 kgmol/m3

101. The hydrolysis of acetic anhydride is conducted in a reaction battery consisting of two

completely stirred vessels. The temperature of the 1st reactor is maintained at 10

oC and

the 2nd

at 15oC. the reaction is of the first order with specific reaction rates as below

Temperature oC 10 15

K, min-1

0.0567 0.0806

The inlet composition is 177 kg mol/m3 and the feed rate is 0.095 m

3/min, the vessels are

all of the same size , and the desired conversion is 95 %. The volume of the vessels

needed will be

(a) 3.84 m3

(b) 4.84 m3

(c) 5.84 m3

(d) 6.84 m3

102. The reaction DCAK

K

1

2

2 is conducted in CSTR. Data : flow rate : 3 m3/hr; initial

concentration of A,C and D-22 kg/mol/m3, 0.0 and 0.0 respectively. K1 and K2 : 0.7 and

16.0 m3/kg mol hr. Conversion to be obtained is 80% of equilibrium. The volume of

reactor will be

(a) 163 lit

(b) 173 lit

(c) 183 lit

(d) 193 lit

103. The liquid phase reaction DCBAK

K

1

2

, K1= 7 lit/mol-min; K2= 3 lit/mol-min is to

take place in a 120 litre steady mixed flow reactor.Two feed streams, one containing 2.8

mol A/lit and the other containing 1.6 mol B/lit, are to be introduced in equal volumes

into the reactor, and 75 % conversion of limiting component is desired. What should be

flow rate of each stream, assume constant density throughout.

(a) 4 lit/min of each

(b) 8 lit/min of each

(c) 2 lit/min of each

(d) 6 lit/min of each

104. For a homogeneous reaction A ⟶B, the rate expression at 300 K is −rA = 10CA

1+5CA, where

CA is the concentration of A (in mol/m3). Theoretically, the upper limit for the magnitude

of the reaction rate at 300 K is

(a) 2

(b) 2.5

(c) 1

(d) 4

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105. Hydrogen iodide decomposes through the reaction 2HI H2+ I2. The value of the

universal gas constant R is 8.314 J mol‒1

K‒1

. The activation energy for the forward

reaction is 168000 J mol‒1

. The ratio of the forward reaction rate at 600 K to that at 550

K is

(a) 25.6

(b) 21.33

(c) 24.8

(d) 20.4

106. An isothermal steady state mixed flow reactor of 1 m3 volume is used to carry out the

first order liquid-phase reaction A → products. Fresh feed at a volumetric flow rate of Q

containing reactant A at a concentration CA0 mixes with the recycle steam at a volumetric

flow rate RQ. Data: Q = 0.5 m3/min, CA0 = 1 mol/m

3. It is observed that when the

recycle ratio R = 0.5, the exit conversion XAf = 50% When the recycle ratio is increased

to R = 2, the new exit conversion (in percent) will be

(a) 50.0

(b) 54.3

(c) 58.7

(d) 63.2

107. We plan to run the reaction mentioned below - (CA0 = 1 mol/l, FAO = 1000 mol/min) in a

plug flow reactor kept at 40°C throughout to 90% conversion. The reaction rate constant

for the forward reaction at 40 °C is 1 min-1

. Find the volume of reactor needed.

𝐴 𝑅 = Δ𝐺° 298 = −14 130 𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙ΔH° 298 = −75 300 𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙

𝐶𝑝𝐴 = 𝐶𝑝𝑅 = 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡

(a) 2410 m3

(b) 1205 m3

(c) 241 m3

(d) none of these

108. The Thiele modulus for 1st order isothermal reaction for a flat plate geometry catalyst is

found to be 2. Calculate the catalyst effectiveness factor

(a) 0.482

(b) 0.612

(c) 0.401

(d) 0.512

109. Gaseous feed with A and B (υ0 = 10m3/hr) pass through a packed bed reactor with

catalyst (W = 4 kg). Reaction occurs as follows: A + B → R + S. Find the conversion of

reactant A if the feed contains CA0= 0.1 mol/m3 and CB0= 10 mol/m

3. Reaction rate is

given as

−rA′ = 0.6 CA CB

mol

kg. hr

(a) 90.9

(b) 91.7

(c) 92.6

(d) 89.4

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110. Consider a catalytic reaction 𝐴 → 4𝑅. Calculate the amount of catalyst needed in a

packed bed reactor (assume plug flow) for 35% conversion of A to R for a feed of 2000

mol/hr of pure A at 3.2 atm and 117°C. Reaction rate is given as -rA = KCA

Data: K = 96 lit/hr. kg catalyst CA0 = 0.1 mol/lit

(a) 150 kg

(b) 135 kg

(c) 120 kg

(d) 140 kg

111. Which of the following is used for absorption of sulfur trioxide produced in catalytic

converter?

(a) Water

(b) Oleum

(c) 99% sulphuric acid

(d) 50% sulphuric acid

112. Concentration of NaOH solution produced by mercury electrolytic cell is about

__________ percent.

(a) 10

(b) 25

(c) 50

(d) 98

113. Which of the following is not a raw material used for the manufacture of ordinary glass?

(a) Iron oxide

(b) Soda ash

(c) Limestone

(d) Silica

114. Major Raw materials for 'Solvay Process' for manufacture of the soda ash are

(a) salt, limestone and coke.

(b) ammonia, salt and limestone.

(c) ammonia, limestone and coke.

(d) sodium bicarbonate, brine and coke

115. As a rule of thumb, a good Kraft process for white paper manufacturing should have

Kappa number in range of

(a) 15 to 20

(b) 25 to 30

(c) 60 to 65

(d) 95 to 100

116. Consider a feed back control loop with 11 21

ss

K

sM

sCsG

Where K =

0.5 % output / % input and 1 = 1 min., 2 = 2 min. The controller is a proportional

controller with Gc(s) = Kc,=4 H(s) = Gv (s) = 1,The closed loop transfer function of the

loop is,

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(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

117. The transfer function of a process and measurement element connected in series is given

by

Write the equations for amplitude ratio (AR) and phase shift (ϕ) .

(a) 𝐴𝑅 =1

2𝜔2+1 and ϕ=−𝑡𝑎𝑛−12𝜔 − 0.4𝜔

(b) 𝐴𝑅 =1

4𝜔2+1 and ϕ=−𝑡𝑎𝑛−12𝜔 − 0.4𝜔

(c) 𝐴𝑅 =1

4𝜔2+1 and ϕ=−𝑡𝑎𝑛−12𝜔

(d) 𝐴𝑅 =1

0.4𝜔2+1 and ϕ=−𝑡𝑎𝑛−12𝜔

118. An open loop system represented by the transfer function is

(a) Stable and of the minimum phase type

(b) Unstable and of non–minimum phase type

(c) Stable and of the non–minimum phase type

(d) Unstable and of the minimum phase type

12

4.0

s

e s

121

2

ss

332

22 ss

132

5.02 ss

132

22 ss

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119. Consider the function,

𝐹 𝑠 =5

𝑠(𝑠2 + 3𝑠 + 2)

Where, F(s) is the Laplace transform of the function f(t). The initial value of f(t) is equal

to

(a) 5

(b) 2.5

(c) 3 5

(d) 0

120. The block diagram for a control system is shown below

For a unit step change in the set point,R(s), the steady state offset in the output Y(s) is

(a) 0.2

(b) 0.3

(c) 0.4

(a) 0.5

E(s)

2Kc

)13)(12(

2

ss

+ Y(s) U(s)

-

R(s)

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MARINE ENGINEERING


PAPER - II

Instructions:





wrong answer.



vi. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or blue

ball point pen.


viii. Hand over your question paper and OMR sheet to the invigilator on completion of


PART-A (80X1=80 Marks)

1. All liquid surfaces tend to stretch. This phenomenon is called

a) Cohesion

b) Adhesion

c) Surface tension

d) Velocity gradient

2. Which of the following fluids can be classified as non-Newtonian?

1. Kerosene oil 2. Diesel oil 3. Human blood 4. Toothpaste 5. Water

a) 1 and 2

b) 3 and 4

c) 2 and 5

d) d) 1 and 5

3. The Jet ratio of a Pelton wheel lies between

a) 3-5

b) 6-10

c) 11-15

d) 20-25

4. Specific speed of a Kaplan turbine is in the range of

a) 10-25

b) 50-125

c) 150-250

d) 250-850

5. If the diameter of a centrifugal pump impeller is doubled but the discharge is to remain

same, then the head needs to be reduced by

a) 2 times

b) 4 times

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c) 8 times

d) 16 times

6. Thermal stress developed in a bar depends upon which of the following

a) Young’s modulus

b) Change in temperature,

c) co-efficient of thermal expansion, Change in temperature, Young’s modulus

d) co-efficient of thermal expansion

7. The relation between shear modulus G, Young’s modulus E and Possion’s ratio 𝜐 is

a) G=E / (1+𝜐)

b) G=E /2𝜐

c) G=2E /(1+𝜐)

d) G=E /2 (1+𝜐)

8. The point of contraflexure in a beam where

a) the shear force is zero

b) both shear force and Bending Moment are zero

c) It is strong

d) the bending moment is zero

9. If a slenderness ratio of a column is more than 120. It is termed as

a) Short column

b) Beam

c) Medium column

d) Long column

10. A shell with wall thickness small compared to internal diameter (d/t 20) is called

a) Thin shell

b) Thick shell

c) Moderately thin shell

d) Moderately thick shell

11. When coupling two shafts that are offset with respect to one another, we could use the

a) Universal Coupling

b) Oldhams Coupling

c) Flange coupling

d) Muff coupling

12. The axial thrust will be minimum in a shaft which carries the following type of gear

a) Helical gear

b) Zerol Bevel gear

c) Worm gear

d) Herring bone gear

13. Sensitiveness of a governor is defined as the ratio of

a) mean speed to range of speed

b) range of speed to mean speed

c) maximum equilibrium speed to mean speed

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d) minimum equilibrium speed to mean speed

14. In a vibration isolation system, the transmissibility will be equal to unity, for all values of

damping factor if the frequency ratio is

a) equal to one

b) less than 1.414

c) greater than 1.414

d) equal to 1.414

15. In an under damped vibrating system, if x1 and x2 are the successive values of the

amplitude on the same side of the mean position, then the logarithmic decrement is

equal to

a) x1/ x2

b) log( x1/ x2)

c) loge( x1/ x2)

d) log( x2/ x1)

16. In a locomotive, the maximum magnitude of the unbalanced force along

the perpendicular to the line of stroke, is known as

a) tractive force

b) swaying couple

c) hammer blow

d) whipping force

17. A governor is said to be hunting, if the speed of the engine

a) remains constant at the mean speed

b) is above the mean speed

c) is below the mean speed

d) fluctuates continuously above and below the mean speed

18. The direction of rotation of a DC motor can be reversed by ____________

a) Changing the supply

b) Reversing the armature

c) Reversing the field supply

d) Reversing either field or armature

19. The DC machine type used for precision speed control is _________

a) Shunt

b) Series

c) Compound

d) Differentially compounded.

20. The armature of a DC machine is laminated in order to reduce _________

a) Eddy current losses

b) Hysteresis losses

c) Copper losses

d) Both eddy current and copper losses

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21. In an AC machine, the hysteresis loss depends on _________

a) frequency1.6

b) frequency2

c) frequency

d) frequency0.5

22. A 3-phase induction motor will operate at ____ power factor under no-load conditions.

a) Unity

b) Leading

c) Lagging


23. The motor which has a speed dependent torque is a _____________.

a) Squirrel cage induction

b) Double cage induction

c) Slip ring induction

d) Hysteresis type

24. In a 3-phase transmission line, when the spacing between the power conductors

increase, the capacitive reactance _______.

a) Increases

b) Decreases

c) Does not change

d) Frequency regulation

25. The relay used for protecting the alternator windings is _______.

a) Mho relay

b) Differential protection relay

c) Buchholtz relay

d) All the above

26. In power cables, sheaths are used for _______.

a) Providing insulation

b) Mechanical integrity

c) Moisture ingress protection.

d) Reduce skin effect

27. In a power electronics system, a cyclo-converter is used for effecting _______

conversion.

a) ac-ac

b) ac-dc

c) dc-dc.

d) All the above.

28. According to the industrial standards, 415V ac is categorized in the _________ range.

a) Low voltage

b) Medium voltage

c) High voltage


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29. In marine navigation,_________is used for direction guidance

a) SART

b) Accelerometers

c) Gyroscope

d) Dynamic positioning system

30. The void space between two bulkheads is called_________

a) Keel.

b) Cofferdam.

c) Hull.

d) Aft.

31. The right side of the ship when looking forward is termed as ______.

a) Port

b) Aft

c) Starboard

d) Forward

32. In specifying gross tonnage of a carrier vessel, 1 ton refers to ______cubic feet of space.

a) 10

b) 100

c) 1000

d) 10000

33. The water tight volume of a ship above the water line is called ___________.

a) Reserve buoyancy

b) Submergence buoyancy

c) Carrying capacity

d) All the above.

34. The thrusters used for facilitate easier berthing of a vessel inside the port is __________.

a) Forward

b) Azimuthal

c) Propulsion

d) Bow

35. The following motions of a ship are _______ angular in nature.

a) Surge, sway and heave

b) Pitch, roll and heading

c) Surge, sway and roll

d) Sway, surge and yaw

36. The vessel dynamic positioning system which is highly reliable is _______.

a) DP1

b) DP2

c) DP3

d) MIL

37. In FPSO turret mooring system helps to _______ .

a) Cruise faster

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b) Stay against the wind and sea currents

c) Weathervane

d) All the above

38. In India, ship design is certified by _______________.

a) Indian Registrar of Shipping

b) Marine Mercantile Department

c) Shipping Corporation of India

d) Ministry of Trade

39. In a naturally aspirated diesel engine, the volume of air intake is directly related to engine

a) compression ratio

b) valve size

c) fuel pressure

d) cylinder clearance volume

40. Cylinder heads of marine diesel engines are provided with _________ to relieve any

excessive pressure within the combustion chamber

a) Safety valves

b) Indicator cocks

c) Relief valves

d) Bursting discs

41. In a VIT equipped jerk type fuel pump:

a) Raising the barrel delays beginning of injection

b) Lowering the barrel delays beginning of injection

c) Raising the barrel delays end of injection

d) Lowering the barrel delays end of injection

42. An engine indicator is used to determine the following

a) Speed

b) Temperature

c) Volume of the cylinder

d) Mean effective pressure and Indicated Power

43. Scavenging is usually done to increase

a) Thermal efficiency

b) Speed

c) Power Output

d) Fuel Consumption

44. In case of constant pressure turbo charging, the exhaust of the cylinders goes into:

a) Small diameter exhaust pipes with exhaust grouping

b) Exhaust compensators

c) Nozzles

d) Large diameter pipes

45. A Diesel engine with full speed rpm of 1000 drives a propeller at 300 rpm, what is speed

reduction ratio?

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a) 0.3 to 1

b) 3.33 to 1

c) 33 to 1

d) 300 to 1

46. After an engine has been started using a Bendix drive unit, the drive gear, or pinion

disengages from the flywheel due to

a) the action of a spring

b) rotation of the starting cam

c) the higher rotating speed of the flywheel

d) accumulator pressure

47. Leaking valves in a low-pressure side, reciprocating, air compressor can result from

_____

a) Reduced compressor volumetric efficiency

b) Operating the compressor at higher speed

c) Uneven piston stroke in the compressor

d) Abrasion by dust and dirt

48. Overall length of pairs of rams is reduced in which of the following tiller designs of a

steering gear arrangement?

a) Forked tiller design

b) Round arm tiller design

c) Conventional


49. Insert Gas System on board tankers is used during which of the following operations

a) Inerting of empty tanks

b) Inerting during crude oil washing

c) Purging before gas freeing

d) All of the above

50. The seating material for perfectly sealing type Ball valves is usually made up of

a) Rubber

b) PTFE or Nylon

c) Rubber reinforced with steel wire

d) Stainless steel

51. Vacuum evaporators onboard are tested for maximum vacuum by

a) Testing of evaporator shell at maximum temperature

b) Carry out leak test for distillate pp at sea

c) Carry out leak test for vacuum pp and fittings

d) Leak test evaporator shell

52. By which of the following is the attached vacuum pump of a ballast pump is driven?

a) Electrical motor

b) Hydraulic motor

c) Pump driven clutch

d) D. All the above

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53. Less vacuum in centrifugal pump

a) Leaky discharge value

b) Loss of gland packing

c) Loss of fluid from suction take place

d) Long suction pipe

54. Tube in air compressors, self-compensating for expansion

a) Straight line tube

b) U tube

c) Coil tube

d) Floating tube

55. Deep well cargo pump is used in

a) Chemical tanker

b) Product carrier

c) LNG

d) All the above

56. Detergents are added to lubricating oils to

a) Reduce viscosity

b) Prevent foaming

c) Reduce viscosity

d) Increase fire point

57. Which controls flow of coolant through a cooling system

a) Radiator

b) Motor

c) Pump

d) Thermostat

58. To start a marine engine usually _____ is used

a) Choke

b) Flywheel

c) Compressed air

d) Gasoline

59. Rateau steam turbine is

a) Velocity compounded impulse type

b) Pressure compounded impulse type

c) Pressure velocity compounded steam turbine

d) Reaction steam turbine

60. The function of a flywheel is

a) Used to limit the inevitable fluctuation of speed during each cycle

b) Controls the mean speed of rotation

c) Stores up energy and gives up whenever required

d) Regulates the speed during one cycle of a prime mover

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61. Which of the following is not a part of exhaust system?

a) Muffler

b) Catalytic converter

c) Resonator

d) Glow plug

62. Reducing coupler is used to connect

a) Two pipes of equal diameter

b) Two pipes of different diameter

c) Two pipes of equal diameter at 90 degrees

d) A pipe and a dummy of same size

63. Crankcase ventilation is provided

a) To cool the cylinder

b) To cool piston

c) To cool crankcase

d) To remove blowby

64. EOT stands for

a) Engine Oil Trailer

b) Electrical Open Trailer

c) Energy Optimised Truck

d) Electrically operated Overhead Travelling

65. Bearing characteristic number is defined by

a) Z / P.N

b) Z . N / P

c) Z . P/ N

d) Z . N / P

66. Life of a roller bearing is

a) Is inversely proportional to its radial load F

b) Is inversely proportional to kth

power of its radial load F

c) Is directly proportional to kth

power of its radial load F

d) Is directly proportional to the cube of its radial load F

67. In a marine diesel engine to minimise knocking

a) Compression ratio should be smaller

b) Compression ratio should be higher

c) Ignition delay should be minimum

d) Both b) and c)

68. Modern day IC engines have multiple inlet and exhaust valves because

a) Multi-valves increase thermal efficiency

b) Multi-valve reduces wear and tear

c) Use of multi-valves facilitates easy location of spark plug

d) Multi-valves reduce flow resistance and improve volumetric efficiency

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69. 1 nautical mile equals_________ km.

a) 1.652

b) 1.752.

c) 1.852.

d) 1.952.

70. System which allows the anchor to be raised or lowered by means of a chain cable is

____

a) Windlass

b) Crane

c) Engine

d) Derrick.

71. ______is used by the seamen for hauling ropes during lashing of the ships to the berth.

a) Thrusters

b) Capstan

c) Derrick

d) Deck crane

72. A distress message is transmitted using VHF in the frequency ______ .

a) 156.8 GHz

b) 156.8 MHz

c) 156.8 kHz

d) 156.8 Hz

73. When the Greenwich mean time (GMT) is 6 am, the time in India will be______ .

a) 10.30 am

b) 11.30 am

c) 10.30 pm

d) 11.30 pm

74. The morning star referenced for marine navigation is ______.

a) Mars

b) Neptune

c) Pluto

d) Polaris.

75. In a berthed ship rat guard is fixed _______.

a) On the aft of the vessel

b) Parallel to the deck

c) On the mooring line

d) Pantry room

76. ___________ is the device used for locating a survival craft or a vessel which is in

distress)

a) SART

b) EPIRB

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c) VHF transmitter

d) Radio telephone

77. The mechanism used to release the life raft container from the ship is ______ .

a) Capstan

b) Remotely Operated Vehicle

c) Hydraulic release unit

d) Thrust pad

78. Recently introduced AIS is used for ___________for/of a ship.

a) Providing route guidance

b) Providing weather status and operational clearance

c) Identifying the location and navigational statistics

d) All the above

79. A typical ring-type life buoy has a buoyancy of ___N .

a) 2.5

b) 10.

c) 25

d) 50

80. The bill of lading is given by the master of the ship to _________

a) IRS surveyor

b) Ship owner

c) Port.

d) Person owning the goods

PART-B (40x2 = 80 Marks)

81. A pitot-static tube is used to measure the velocity of water in the pipe centre. The static

and total pressures are 6 mm and 7.5 m respectively. If co-efficient of Pitot tube as 0.98

then the flow velocity will be _____ m/s

a) 2.32

b) 3.32

c) 4.32

d) 5.32

82. A 25 mm diameter water jet exerts a force of 450 N in the direction of flow against a flat

plate which is held inclined at an angle of 30o to the axis of stream. The calculations

shows the flow rate of water in terms of m3/s is

a) 0.0197

b) 0.0297

c) 0.0179

d) 0.0279

83. A tensile or compressive force (F) acts on a bar of cross-section, A and length, l and the

Young’s modulus of the material, E. The deformation in the bar is

a) AE/Pl

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b) Pl/AE

c) PE/Al

d) PA/lE

84. In a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per unit run over

the whole span, the maximum Bending Moment is equal to

a) wl3/8

b) wl2/6

c) wl2/8

d) wl2/4

85. In thick cylinders the variation in the radial as well as circumferential stress across the

thickness is obtained with the help of

a) Clapeyron’s theorem

b) Lame’s theorem

c) Varignon’s theorem

d) Castigliano’s theorem

86. The deflection at the free end of a cantilever of length l carrying a point load W at its free

end is given as

a) Wl/2EI

b) Wl2/2EI

c) Wl3/3EI

d) Wl3/2EI

87. The number of teeth on each of two equal spur gears in mesh is 40. The teeth have 20°

involute profile and the module is 6 mm. Then the circular pitch is given by

a) 240mm

b) 120mm

c) 125.67mm

d) 18.85mm

88. The maximum value of ‘a’ in a crank-rocker mechanism abcd with ‘a’ as input, b = 2cm,

c=1.5 cm , d =1.25 cm

a) 0.75 cm

b) 0.7 cm

c) 2.5 cm

d) 0.8 cm

89. The torsional stiffness of a shaft is given by

a)

b)

c)

d)

l

GJ

l

EA

m2

3l

EI

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90. A helical spring having 2n turns is of stiffness k. If the spring is cut into two halves each

of n turns, the resulting stiffness of each spring is

a) equal to k

b) 2k

c) 1/k

d) equal to k/2

91. When a 4 pole DC generator with 1000 conductors and flux/pole of 10 milliweber

operates at 1000rpm, then the voltage generated is _________.

a) 166.7V

b) 186.5V.

c) 415V.


92. A 3 phase 4 pole 50Hz induction motor runs at 1460 rpm. The % slip is _______.

a) 1.7

b) 5.

c) 2.7

d) 13.3

93. Alternators should be synchronized essentially when thier _________.

a) Terminal voltage, frequency and phase sequences are same

b) RMS voltages are same.

c) Power factor is same

d) All the above.

94. In a star connected alternator winding the following applies_________.

a) Line voltage is always greater than 6.6 kV.

b) Line voltage = Phase voltage

c) Line voltage= Phase voltage /1.732

d) Phase voltage = Line voltage /1.732

95. In vessel dynamic positioning systems, DP__ configuration is highly reliable and has

______ redundancy in the control systems.

a) 2, double

b) 3, triple.

c) 1, triple

d) 3, multilevel.

96. The roll period of a ship is _______.

a) Inversely proportional to the square root of the metacentric height

b) Directly proportional to the square root of the metacentric height

c) Inversely proportional to the metacentric height

d) Directly proportional to the cube root of the metacentric height

97. For a keel angle of 30º , and a distance of 2m between the centre of gravity and center of

gravity, the righting arm equals _______.

a) 2 m

b) 0.5 m.

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c) 1 m

d) 0.25 m.

98. The maximum moulded breadth of the ship measured at the ____ is ______.

a) Midship, flange

b) Aft, moulded beam.

c) Forward, moulded flange

d) Midship, moulded beam.

99. The water pressure experienced by a shut valve located 5 m below water is ___bar.

a) 5

b) 50

c) No pressure will be felt.

d) 0.5

100. A turbo-charged four stroke direct injection diesel engine has a displacement volume of

0.0259 m3. The engine has an output of 950 kW at 2200 rpm. The mean effective

pressurein(MPa)is

a) 2

b) 1

c) 0.2

d) 0.1

101. A six cylinder, four-stroke diesel engine develops 125 kW at 3000 rpm. Its brake specific

fuel consumption is 200gm/kW h. Calculate the quantity of fuel to be injected per cycle

per cylinder. Specific gravity of the fuel may be taken as 0.85.

a) 0.0545 cc/cycle

b) 0.545 cc/ cycle

c) 5.45 cc/cycle

d)4.55 cc/cycle

102. A four stroke, four-cylinder diesel engine develops 100 kW at 3500 rpm. Its brake

specific fuel consumption is 180 g/kWh. Specific gravity of the fuel is 0.88. Calculate the

quantity of fuel injected per cycle per cylinder in CC

a) 0.0487

b) 0.0287

c) 0.0786

d) D. 0.0243

103. If the delivery ratio is 1.8, the excess air factor in the case of a two stroke engine is

a) 0.8

b) 0.9

c) 1.8

d) 1.0

104. In case of constant pressure turbo charging, the exhaust of the cylinders goes into:

a) Small diameter exhaust pipes with exhaust grouping

b) Exhaust compensators

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c) Nozzles

d) Large diameter pipes

105. A Positive displacement pump having volumetric efficiency of 90% and if it deals

theoretical discharge of 0.08 m3

/ S, the actual discharge in m3

/ S will be

a) 0.042

b) 0.052

c) 0.062

d) 0.072

106. A pump handling a liquid raises its pressure from 1 bar to 30 bar. Take the density of the

liquid as 990 kg /m3. The isentropic specific work done by the pump in kJ/kg is

a) 0.10

b) 0.30

c) 2.50

d) 2.93

107. The cylinders and intercoolers of most high pressure reciprocating air compressors are

cooled by__

a) Water

b) Oil

c) Air

d) CO2

108. Most steam traps respond well to cleaning. But when a thermodynamic trap fails to

operate after cleaning, the next course of action should be:

a) Throttle the steam outlet

b) Throttle the steam inlet

c) Lap the disc & seat of the trap

d) Bypass the trap

109. Fixed vane type emergency fire pump priming vacuum pump. After one-week fire pump

not taking suction. The vacuum pump is engaging, but not developing vacuum in the

suction side. What will be the cause?

a) Suction filter is clogged

b) Suction filter cover is leaky

c) Vacuum pump not overhauled properly

d) All the above

110. In reverse osmosis type freshwater generator plants, pretreatment of the feed water is

done to:

a) Soften the feed water

b) Sterilize the feed water

c) To facilitate wash through of salt deposits on the elements

d) Add necessary mineral to water

111. Piston rod is _______ to the piston

a) Riveted

b) Welded

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c) Bolted

d) Screwed

112. The provides a seal between the two spaces, stopping oil from being carried up to the

scavenge space in a two stroke marine engine

a) Piston

b) Cross head

c) Connecting rod

d) Stuffing box

113. The usual clearance provided in hydrodynamic bearing per mm of diameter shaft is

a)10 microns

b) 1 micron

c) 0.1 micron

d) 100 microns

114. Two stroke engines with an exhaust valve mounted in the cylinder head are known as

_______ scavenged engines

a) Cross flow

b) Direct

c) Uniflow

d) Loop

115. The _____ is used to change direction in marine propulsion

a) Gearing

b) Gyroscope

c) Compass

d) Rudder

116. Connecting rod bearings are made up of

a) Nickel

b) Steel

c) Chromium

d) Babbit

117. According to American Bureau of Shipping (ABS), ice class vessels category ___ is

highly rugged and reliable.

a) D5

b) B5

c) C5

d) A5

118. Distressed vessels burn _____ flare, and release ____smoke from canister, for ease of

locating them.

a) Red, orange

b) Red, Yellow

c) Black, Green

d) Red, Blue.

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119. In a ship the thruster which has replaced the function of a rudder is ____.

a) Tunnel

b) Bow

c) Azimuth


120. The testing used for identifying the voids in the welded section is ____.

a) Electrical dielectric

b) Dye penetrant

c) Hydraulic pressure test

d) Ultrasonic

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METALLURGY ENGINEERING/METALLURGY & MATERIAL SCIENCE


PAPER-II

Instructions:





wrong answer.









1. When load is applied to a material, instantaneous strain develops with

(a) The speed of light (b) Half the speed of light

(c) The speed of sound (d) Infinite speed

2. Super alloys are

(a) Al-based (b) Cu-based (c) Ni-based (d) Mg-based

3. In a tensile test of a ductile material, necking starts at

(a) Lower yield point (b) Upper yield point

(c) Ultimate tensile stress (d) Just before fracture

4. Loading in mode 1 fracture refers to

(a) Opening mode (b) Sliding mode (c) Tearing mode (d) Twisting mode

5. The indenter used ina Vicker’s hardness test is

(a) 10 mm diameter steel ball

(b) 1200

diamond cone with a slightly rounded point

(c) 3.2 mn diameter steel ball

(d) Square base diamond pyramid (included angle 1360 between opposite faces)

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6. Hydrogen embrittled steel samples can exhibit

(a) Only cleavage fracture

(b) Cleavage, dimple and intergranular fracture

(c) Both cleavage and dimple fracture

(d) Only intergranular fracture

7. X-ray radiography is used to determine is –

(a) soundness of casting (b) chemical composition

(b) crystal structure (d) phase present

8. The yield point phenomena observed in annealed low carbon steels is due to the presence

of

(a) silicon (b) chromium (c) phosphorous (d) carbon

9. Cross slip is prevalent in materials with

(a) high stacking fault energy (b) high grain boundary energy

(c) low stacking fault energy (d) low grain boundary energy

10. The following property can be conventionally measured to monitor the annihilation of

point defects during recovery

(a) hardness (b) impact strength

(c) thermal productivity (d) electrical resistivity

11. A truly sessile dislocation in a FCC material is

(a) Shockley partial (b) lomer dislocation

(c)frank partial (d) lomer-cottrell dislocation

12. In case of close packed structures, octahedral voids have a co-ordination of –

(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 12

13. A high cycle fatigue failure is identified by the presence of

(a) dimples (b) beach marking or striations

(c) slip lines (d) glass like fracture

14. The most important property of steels for use in automobiles bodies is –

(a) Formability (b) Yield strength (c) Toughness Resilience

15. The charpy impact test can be used to determine

(a) The ductile- brittle transition temperature

(b) Yield strength under dynamic loading conditions

(c) hardenability

(d) Ductility

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16. The following fibre has the lowest density

(a) tungsten (b) Kevlar (c) glass (d) graphite

17. A flow curve is also called as

(a) creep curve (b) S-N curve

(c) True stress-strain curve (d) R-curve

18. Electrolytic reduction of alumina is done by ………..

(a) Pattinson’s process (b) Bayer’s process

(c) Hall and Heroult process (d) Hoop’s process

19. Aluminium is used as ………….agent in steel bath

(a) Oxidizing (b) Deoxidizing (c) recarburizing (d) reducing

20. In roasting of the ore, its incipient fusion must takes place

(a) True (b) False

21. In froth flotation process, pine oil is used as ………….. agent

(a) Collectings (b) Frothing (c) Conditioning (d) modifying

22. Galena is the sulphide ore of ..,………………

(a) Zinc (b) Copper (c) Lead (d) Tin

23. Cadmium is recovered as a by-product from zinc concentrates, because former has no

individual ore in plenty

(a) True (b) False

24. Sheelite, the ore of tungsten, is ………………

(a) Magnesium tungstate (b) calcium tungstate

(c) Tungsten trioxide (d) Tungsten sulphate

25. When aluminium tri hydrate is called at about 1100oC, ……….. is obtained

(a) Aluminium carbonate (b) Aluminium sulphate

(c) Alumina (d) Sodium aluminate

26. Leaching of copper ore is done by ……… acid in hydrometallurgical operation

(a) Sulphuric (b) Nitric (c) Hydrochloric (d) Phosphoric

(e) None of these

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27. Zinc is obtained from its oxide by ……… retort process.

(a) horizontal (b) vertical

(c) Both horizontal and vertical (d) None of these

28. Refining of zinc is done by …………. Process

(a) Liquation b) Fractional distillation

(c) Electrolytic refining (d) Both fractional distillation and electrolytic refining

29. Thermoplastics and thermosets are commonly joined by

(a) Arc welding (b) Brazing (c) Gas welding (d) Adhesive bonding

30. Which of the following welding processes finds extensive applications in automobile

industry?

(a) Tungsten inert gas (TIG) welding (b) Metal inert gas (MIG) welding

(c) Submerged arc welding (d) Resistance welding

31. Which of the following weld defects is inspected by thick break test?

(a) Slag inclusions (b)Gas pockets (c) Poor Fusion (d) All of the above

32. Weld spatter occurs due to

1. High voltage current 2. Low welding current

3. High welding current 4. Arc blow

Of these:

(a) 2 is true (b) 3 and 4 are true (c) 1 is true (d) 1 and 2 are true

33. Carburizing flame contain access of

(a) Ethylene (b) Propylene (c) Acetylene (d) Methylene

34. If steel is welded by a carburizing flame, what can result?

(a) The joint becomes stronger in compression

(b) The joint becomes hard and brittle

(c) The tensile strength of the joint is increased

(d) the Joint becomes stronger in shear

35. Consider the following statements:

1. Electroslag welding is used to join thick materials

2. Electrogas welding is used to join thinner materials

3. Carbon arc welding uses consumable electrodes.

4. Arc is hidden in submerged arc welding

Of these statements:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 are true (b) 1, 3 and 4 are true

(c) 3 and 4 are true (d) 2, 3 and 4 are true

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36. Which of the following welding uses a transducer?

(a) Electron beam welding (b) Resistance welding

(c) Shielded metal arc welding (d) Friction welding

37. Which are the following parameters need to be carefully controlled in resistance

welding?

1. Pressure

2. Heat

3.Current

4. Resistance


(a) 1 and 2 are true (b) 1 and 3 are true


38. Which of the following resistance welding is used for making leak-proof joint?

(a) Spot welding (b) Projection welding

(c) Seam welding (d) percussion welding

39. Consider the following statements

1) Flash welding requires edge preparation

2) Spot welding and projection welding are same

3) Seam welding is a continuous series of spot welding


(a) 1 is true

(b) 3 is true

(c) 2 and 3 are true

(d) 1 and 3 are true

40. Thermit mixture consists of

(a) Aluminium oxide and iron (b) Iron oxide and aluminium

(c) Calcium carbide and iron (d) Iron carbide and calcium

41. Braze welding ………….

(a) Includes both welding and brazing operation

(b) Is a fusion welding process

(c) Is neither brazing nor welding but it is a separate joining technique for metals

(d) None of these

42. In thermit welding, heat is developed by ………….

(a) Wounding resistor coil around the work-piece

(b) Producing are between work-piece and electrode

(c) Oxy-acetylene

(d) Exothermic reaction between iron oxide and aluminium powder

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43. Brazing is done above ………….degree centigrade

(a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 350 (d) None of these

44. In Brinell hardness tester the load for aluminium is

(a) 300 kg (b) 1500 kg (c) 500 kg (d) 100 kg

45. Endentor used in Vickers hardness testing machine is

(a) 25 mm dia ball (b) 15 mm dia ball

(c) 10 mm dia ball (d) Diamond square-based pyramid

46. The property which enables metals to be drawn into wire is known as

(a) Malleability (b) Ductility

(c) Plastic deformation (d) Elastic deformation

47. Which of the following is a non-destructive test?

(a) Charpy test (b) Izod impact test (c) Cupping test (d) X-ray test

48. Spherical metal powders are usually produced by

(a) Electrolytic process (b) Automization (c) Oxidation (d) Milling

49. The principle on which a disappearing filament type pyrometer works is known as

(a) Kichhoff’s law (b) Fourier’s law (c) Peltier effect (d) Seeback effect

50. The flux used in brazing is usually

(a) Common salt (b)Borax

(c) Alum (d) None of the above

51. Electrons of Scanning Electron Microscope are reflected through

(a) Glass funnel (b) Specimen (c) Metal-coated surface (d) Vacuum chamber

52. Which of the following is NOT equivalent to 10 micrometers.

(a) 0.0001 cm (b) 0.01 mm (c) 10,000 nm (d) 100,000 Angstroms

53. Laue’s model pictures XRD as reflection from parallel crystalline planes. Reflection is

different from refraction as

(a) diffraction occurs throughout the bulk

(b) intensity of diffracted beams is less

(c) diffraction in crystals occurs only at Bragg’s angles


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54. X-ray diffraction can only be applied to

(a) Gaseous or vapour materials (b) Solid, crystalline materials

(c) Liquids (d) All of the above

55. X-ray diffraction fails to detect the presence of substances:

(a) containing a magnetic field

(b) containing a high concentration of carbon

(c) comprising less than 5 percent of a mixture

(d) comprising elements with two or more isotopes

56. Which of the following is not a type of radiation?

(a) Alpha rays (b) Beta rays (c) Delta rays (d) Gamma rays

57. The no. of slip systems in an ideal HCP structure is

(a) 3 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) 48

58. The stacking sequence of closed packed planes with a stacking fault is

(a) abcabcabc (b) abababab (c) abcacabcab (d) abcabacba

59. A pure tilt boundary may be equivalently represented by

(a) An array of jogs on an edge dislocation

(b) A cross grid of screw dislocation

(c) A dislocation pile up consisting of both edge and screw dislocations

(d) An array of edge dislocations perpendicular to the slip plane

60. On a decreasing the grain size of a polycrystalline material, the property most likely to

deteriorate is ------

(a) Creep (b) Toughness (c) Tensile strength (d) Fatigue

61. In age-hardenable allows, maximum ductility is obtained

(a) In as cast state

(b) Immediately after solution treatment and subsequent quenching

(c) After optimum ageing

(d) After over-aging

62. The recrystallized grain size will be smaller

(a) Lower the annealing temperature and lower the amount of prior cold work

(b) Higher the annealing temperature and lower the amount of prior cold work

(c) Lower the annealing temperature and higher the amount of prior cold work

(d) Higher the annealing temperature and higher the amount of prior cold work

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63. Austenitic stainless steel can be strengthened by

(a) Quench hardening (b) Deformation hardening

(c) Irradiation hardening (d) Quenching and tempering

64. Ductility can be represented precisely by

(a) Percent elongation (b) Percent reduction in area

(c) True local necking strain (d) True fracture strain

65. Increasing the mean stress influences the S-N curve as follows

(a) Shifts upward (b) Keeps unaltered

(c) Shifts downwards (d) None of these

66. Dislocation density is defined as

(a) Total dislocation length per unit area

(b) Total dislocation length per unit volume

(c) Total dislocation per unit area per unit time

(d) None of these

67. The following is the example of precipitation hardenable material

(a) Al-Si alloy (b) Nichrome

(c) Austenitic stainless steel (d) Cu-Be alloy

68. The most widely used glass fiber for polymer composites is

(a) R glass (b) S glass (c) E glass (d) C glass

69. A suitable technique for monitoring a growing crack in an alloy is

(a) Acoustic emission (b) Radiography

(c) Magnetic particle technique (d) Liquid penetrate test

70. Young’s modulus of a material gives an idea about

(a) Toughness (b) Stiffness (c) Hardness (d) Electrical conductivity

71. Fatigue strength of a steel can be increased by

(a) Increasing tensile surface residual stresses

(b) Introducing hydrogen in steel

(c) Increasing the grain size

(d) Increasing compressive surface residual stresses

72. The crystal which shows the maximum yield strength is the one containing

(a) No dislocation (b) Very few dislocation

(c) A high density of dislocations (d) Volume imperfection

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73. Co-ordination number of FCC is

(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 16

74. Atom per unit cell of FCC

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8

75. In screw dislocation the direction of movement is

(a) Parallel to the stress direction (b) Perpendicular to the stress direction

(c) At 120o to the stress direction (d) None of these

76. In edge dislocation the direction of movement is

(a) Parallel to the stress direction (b) Perpendicular to the stress direction

(c) at 60o to the stress direction (d) None of these

77. Acetylene is stored in gas cylinder

(a) In gaseous form (b) In Liquid form

(c) In solid form (d) Under higher pressure

78. Martensite in steel is

(a) An interstitial solid solution of c in alpha iron

(b) A supersaturated in interstitial solid solution of c in BCT iron

(c) A supersaturated solid solution of C in gamma iron

(d) A very finely dispersed lamellar structure

79. Elastic strain in copper is due to

(a) Motion of dislocation (b) Stretching of atomic bonds

(c) Breaking of atomic bonds (d) None of the above

80. The most important property of steel for use in automobiles bodies is

(a) Formability (b) Yield strength (c) Toughness (d) Resilience


81. The engineering stress-strain curve for a ceramic material is

(a) Parabolic (b) Exponential (c) Logarithmic (d) Linear

82. A defect that is bounded by two mirror planes is

(a) Twin (b) Stacking fault (c) Grain boundary (d) Edge dislocation

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83. The elastic energy of a dislocation is related to its burgers vector as follows

(a) Directly proportional

(b) Proportional to the square of the burgers vector

(c) Proportional to the square root of the burgers vectors

(d) Not related to all

84. Match the hardness test methods in group I with the indenter used in group 2

Group 1 Group 2

P. Brinell hardness 1. Brale indenter

Q. Vicker’s hardness 2. Square base diamond pyramid

R. Rockwell C hardness 3. 10mm diameter steel ball

S. Rockwell B hardness 4. 1.6 mm diameter steel balls

Codes

P Q R S

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 3 2 1 4

(c) 1 4 3 2

(d) 1 2 4 3

85. Match the loading conditions in group I with the characteristics in group 2

Group 1 Group 2

P. Tensile 1. Barreling

Q. Comprehensive 2. Intergranular cracking

R. Fatigue 3. Striations

S. Creep 4. Cup and Cone

5. Earing

Codes

P Q R S

(a) 4 5 3 1

(b) 4 1 3 2

(c) 5 1 4 2

(d) 1 2 3 5

86. Match the fracture processes in group I to the fracture surface morphologies in group 2

Group 1 Group 2

P. Ductile fracture 1. Cleavage

Q. Brittle fracture 2. Dimples

R. Fatigue fracture 3. Striations

4. Veins

Codes

P Q R

(a) 4 2 3

(b) 2 1 3

(c) 2 3 1

(d) 4 3 2

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87. The conditions necessary for super plastic deformation in an alloy are

P) extremely fine and uniform grain size

Q) high homologous temperature

R) high strain rate

S) coarse non-uniform grains

(a) P,Q (b) Q,R,S (c) P,Q,R (d) Q,R

88. Match the terms from group 1 to their description in group 2

Group I Group II

P. Half-patch effect 1. Solute-dislocation interaction

Q. Bauschinger effect 2. Dislocation multiplication

R. Cottrell atmosphere 3. Grain boundary strengthening

4. Barreling under compression

5. Mechanical hysteresis during plasticity

Codes

P Q R

(a) 3 5 1

(b) 1 4 3

(c) 5 1 2

(d) 3 4 2

89. Match the associate primary changes in group 2 with the corresponding phenomenon in

group 1

Group 1 Group 2

P. Recovery 1. Change in dislocation density

Q. Recrystallization 2. Change in the shape of a phase

R. Malleabilising 3. Change in vacancy concentration

S. Texture 4. Change in grain orientation

Codes

P Q R S

(a) 3 4 1 2

(b) 2 4 1 3

(c) 3 1 2 4

(d) 4 3 1 2

90. Match the following failure/fracture observations in group 1 with the likely

deformation/process in group 2

Group 1 Group 2

P. Cup and cone fracture 1. Creep failure

Q. Beach marks 2. Brittle failure

R. Cleavage 3. Normal ductile fracture

S. Triple point cracking 4. Completely ductile fracture

5. Fatigue failure

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Codes

P Q R S

(a) 4 1 5 2

(b) 3 5 2 1

(c) 5 4 1 2

(d) 3 2 5 1

91. Driving force for grain growth after completion of recrystallization is

(a) stored energy for cold work (b) vacancy concentration

(c) dislocation density in the crystal (d) grain boundary curvature

92. A small amount of thoria is doped into tungsten filament wires used in light bulbs. This

is because thoria particles

(a) decrease solute diffusivity

(b) enhance the mobility of grain boundary

(c) increase solute segregation to the grain boundary

(d) are effective in limiting grain growth

93. In one FCC unit cell, there are

(a) 4 tetrahedral and 8 octahedral sites

(b) 8 tetrahedral and 4 octahedral sites

(c) 12 tetrahedral and 4 octahedral sites

(d) 4 tetrahedral and 4 octahedral sites

94. Crack propagation in metallic materials is detected by the NDT method

(a) eddy current testing (b) magnetic particle inspection

(c) Acoustic emission testing (d) Ultrasonic testing

95. Secondary hardening in steel arises out of

(a) the precipitation of fine alloy carbides at high temperature

(b) the refinement of ferrite grain size by working

(c) the decomposition of retained austenite upon heat treatment

(d) the precipitation of complex intermetallic upon heat treatment

96. A fatigue fracture is characterized by

(a) Cup and cone fracture (b) Dimples

(c) Cleavage facets (d) Striations

97. Liquid penetration test can be used to detect

(a) Internal porosity in castings

(b) Corrosion wall thinning in pipes and tubes

(c) Fatigue cracks in magnesium alloys parts

(d) Residual stresses in steels

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98. As the grain size decreases -

(a) Both the yield strength and fracture toughness increases

(b) Yield strength increases but fracture toughness decreases

(c) Yield strength as well as fracture toughness decreases

(d) Yield strength and fracture toughness remain unaffected

99. Ductility of a metallic material after cold working

(a) increases (b) decreases

(c) remains unaffected (d) Unpredictable

100. The single most important requirement for a turbine blade material is -

(a) damping (b) resilience (c) creep resistance (d) DBTT

101. Mond process is used for the extraction of ………….

(a) Copper (b) Nickel (c) Tin (d) Tungsten

102. Hydrometallurgical technique is suitable for ………

(a) High grade copper ore

(b) Lean oxide and mixed copper ore

(c) The place, where electricity is cheap

(d) The country, where nitric acid is easily available

103. Resistance spot welding is extensively useful for

(a) Automobile Industry (b) Aircraft industry

(c) Reactive metals (d) High melting point metals

104. Light aluminium sheets are joined by

(a) Tungsten inert gas (TIG) welding (b) Metal inert gas (MIG) welding

(c) Submerged arc welding (d) Resistance welding

105. Presence of sulphur in a welded joint increases its

(a) Ductility (b) Toughness (c) Brittleness (d) Strength

106. Consider the following statements about electron beam welding:

1. It produces low heat affected zone.

2. There is no need of shielding gas. Flux of filler metal

3. Thermal distortion is minimum

4. It produces accurate joint

Of these statements

(a) 1 and 3 are true (b) 2 is true

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are true (d) 2 and 4 are true

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107. The following processes can be used for thermal cutting

1) Atomic hydrogen arc

2) Plasma arc

3) Electron beam

4) Laser beam

Of these:

(a) 1, 3 and 4 are true

(b) 2, 3 and 4 are true

(c) 1,2 and 3 are true

(d) 1 , 2 , 3 and4 are true

108. Consider the followings statement about explosion welding

1) It gives a weaker joint

2) Thinner and thicker work-pieces can be joined by this process

3) Is uses dynamite

Of these statements

(a) 1 and 2 are true (b) 2 and 3 are true


109. Which of the following is true about resistance welding?

(a) high voltage and low current (b) Low voltage and high current

(c) low voltage and low current (d) High voltage and high current

110. In arc welding ………….

(a) The work-piece is connected to negative terminal and electrode is connected to

positive terminal of welding machine

(b) The work-piece is connected to positive terminal and electrode is connected to

negative terminal of welding machine

(c) There is no such restriction about connections of work-piece and electrode to

terminals of welding machine


111. Soldering may be done at 4500C

(a) True (b) False

112. Photograph which is taken from microscope is known as

(a) Macrograph (b) Monograph (c) Micrograph (d) Pictograph

113. Which of the following statements is most correct about Atomic Force Microscopy

(AFM)

(a) AFM can visualise protein bound to DNA molecules

(b) AFM can visualize unfixed specimens in water or buffer

(c) AFM moves a very sharp tip over the surface of the specimen to ‘feel’ its shape

(d) All the statements above are true

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114. Phase Contrast microscopy

(a) Continuously changes the phase of the incident light from the condenser to improve

contrast in the specimen

(b) Uses circular filters in the condenser and objective to give contrast to parts of the cell

with different refractive indices

(c) Uses special lenses to distinguish between solid and liquid phase of the cell

(d) Uses special lenses to change the color of light passing through them

115. In Bragg’s equation [nλ=2.d.sinϴ], ϴ is the angle between

(a) specimen surface and incident rays

(b) normal to specimen surface and incident rays

(c) parallel lattice surfaces d distance apart and incident rays

(d) normal to parallel lattice surfaces d distance apart and incident rays

116. The thermodynamic driving force for precipitate coarsening at high temperature is

(a) Increase in diffusivity at high temperature

(b) Reduction of interfacial energy per unit volume

(c) Reduction in the yield stress of matrix

(d) Reduction of strain energy due to misfit between precipitate and matrix

117. Recrystallization temperature depends on -

(a) Amount of the prior cold work

(b) Carbon content

(c) Purity of alloy

(d) Both (a) and (c) above

118. Dislocation cross-slip is difficult in those materials which have

(a) Large number of slip systems

(b) High work hardening rate

(c) Coarse grain size

(d) Low stacking fault energy

119. Electrode is consumed in

(a) Arc welding

(b) Tungsten-inert gas welding

(c) Gas welding

(d) Thermit welding

120. Elastic strain in cropper is due to

(a) Motion of dislocation

(b) Stretching of atomic bonds

(c) Breaking of atomic bonds


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MINING ENGINEERING


PAPER-II

Instructions:





wrong answer.









1. Most stable shape of shaft is:

(a) Square (b) Rectangle (c) Circular (d) Rhombus

2. In an effective sand stowing ……. type of energy is used for pumping the slurry:

(a) Electric power (b) Pneumatic

(c) Mechanical (d) Generally no external energy is required

3. Greenspan method is used to access

(a) Stress distribution around different shaped openings

(b) strain distribution around different shaped openings

(c) Load distribution in the galleries

(d) Lord distribution on the pillars

4. Ratio between horizontal and vertical stress is

(a) 0 to 1 (b) 1 to 5 (c) 5 to 10 (d) 10 to 100

5. Compressive strength is approximately how many times of point load strength index:

(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 35

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6. Brazilian test is used to determine

(a) Compressive strength (b) Tensile strength

(c) Shear strength (d) Cohesive strength

7. The most suitable shape of a coal pillar in terms of its stability is

(a) Square (b) Rectangle (c) Rhombus (d) Circular

8. As the berm width of slope increases, the factor of safety

(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) No change (d) Cannot be stated

9. Which type of failure takes place in a slope consisting of soft formation

(a) Plane failure (b) Wedge failure (c) Topping failure (d) Circular failure

10. Griffith, Coloumb, Naviertheories are related to

(a) Pillar strength (b) Rock failure (c) Subsidence (d) Slope failure

11. In determining stresses in frames by methods of sections, the frame is divided into two

parts by an imaginary section drawn in such a way as not to cut more than:

(a) Two members with unknown forces of the frame

(b) Three members with unknown forces of the frame

(d) Four members with unknown forces of the frame

(e) Three members with known forces of the frame

12. If a member carries a tensile force „P‟on its area of cross section „A‟, the normal stress

introduced on an inclined plane making an angle „0‟ with its transverse plane, is

(a) 𝑃

𝐴sin2 𝜃

(b) 𝑃

𝐴cos2 𝜃

(c) 𝑃

𝐴tan2 𝜃

(d) 𝑃

2𝐴sin2 𝜃

13. For structural analysis, Maxwell‟s reciprocal theorem can be applied to

(a) Plastic structures (b) Elastic structures

(c) Symmetrical structures (d) Asymmetrical structures

14. For hydraulic transportation of solids in pipelines, the ratio of the size of solids to the

pipe diameter should not be more than

(a) 1 to 2 (b) 1 to 3 (c) 1 to 7 (d) 1 to 4

15. The overall recovery from thick seams with blasting gallery method of mining is

(a) 70-90% (b) 60% (c) 40% (d) 25%

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16. Coalification has taken place in the order of

(a) Peat, lignite, bituminous, anthracite (b) Lignite, peat, bituminous, anthracite

(c)Peat, lignite, anthracite, bituminous (d) Bituminous, peat, anthracite, lignite

17. Maximum number of faces available for working in a shift in a 5 heading bord and pillar

development district is

(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 15

18. The seams are called “contiguous”, if the parting between successive seams is less than

(a) 10 m (b) 12 m (c) 9 m (d) 15 m

19. The size of the barrier pillar of a panel is B&P mining is

(a) More than pillar size in the panel

(b) Same as pillar size in the panel

(c) Less than pillar size in the panel

(d) Not related to the size of the pillar in the panel

20. Which of the following is a u/g coal mine support

(a) Stop-Block (b) Pit prop (c) Jim – crow (d) Back stray

21. The Room & Pillar method of mining is applicable for deposits having a “dip” greater

than

(a) 600

(b) 450

(c) 380

(d) Mild Slope of less than 100

22. The VCR technique of mining requires blast holes at an angle of

(a) 45-500

(b) 900

(c) 35-450

(d) 0-1800

23. Narrow vertical opening excavated in a deposit at the end of a slope to provide a bench

face is called:

(a) Winze (b) Slot (c) Ramp (d) Ore pass

24. Artificial roof control in metal mines is NOT achieved by one of the following:

(a) Roof Bolts (b) Timber Supports (c) Hydraulic jacks (d) Bed Caving

25. In one of the following methods, it is possible, with adequate planning, for a rapid

increase in production, at a very short notice

(a) Sublevel caving (b) Shrinkage stoping (c) Block Caving (d) Strip stoping

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26. Hydro cyclone is basically used in Mineral Processing operations as

(a) Concentrating equipment (b) Classification equipment

(c) Filtration equipment (d) Weighing equipment

27. “Energy required for reduction of particle size is directly proportional to the new surface

area formed”. This Law is referred to as

(a) Rittingers Law (b) Kick‟s Law (c) Dobie‟s Law (d) Holme‟s Law

28. “Bartles-Mozley Concentrator” is an example of

(a) Flowing Film Concentrator (b) A variety of Jig Machine

(c) DMS Equipment (d) Hydro Cyclone

29. Carbon tetrachloride (CCL4) is mixed along with one of the following for formation of

Heavy Medium in the laboratory

(a) Tetrabromoethane (TBE) (b) Sulphuric Acid

(c) Ammonium Nitrate (d) Calcium sulphate

30. The “Degree of Liberation” necessary for effective concentration processes of many ore

minerals is 100% - True / False

(a) Generally 20-35% (b) Close to 95%

(c) Less than 15% (d) is specific to Mineral species

31. In the design of crushing rolls the NIP ANGLE of the roll crusher should never exceed

(a) 45o

(b) 65o

(c) 300 (d) 10

0

32. Xanthates are primarily used as

(a) Modifiers (b) Collectors (c) Ph Modifiers (d) Frothers

33. The main factor which plays a key role in deciding the stripping ratio is

(a) Labour charges (b) Size of the machinery

(c) Profit margin (d) Market value of minerals

34. In granite quarrying, primary drilling is done

(a) For extraction of large blocks (b) For loosening overburden

(c) To determine the depth of the overburden(c)For sub-dividing the primary blocks

35. Ore grade for which revenue from the recoverable reserve exactly equals the cost of

mining, treatment and marketing is known as

(a) Cut-off grade (b) Average grade (c) Break-even grade (d) Liquidation grade

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36. In surface mines, no haul road shall be steeper than

(a) 1 in 16 (b) 1 in 14 (c) 1 in 12 (d) 1 in 10

37. Fluid Coupling is called as

(a) Shaft coupling (b) Hydraulic coupling

(c) Flexible coupling (d) Tooth Gearing

38. In Koepe winding the overwind is prevented by

(a) Detaching hook (b) Automatic contrivances

(c) Convergence of guide rope (d) Guide rope

39. Safety devices used for arresting the forward runway of tub is

(a) Back catch (b) Drop Warwick (c) Stop block (d) Runway switch

40. Force required to cause movement is called

(a) Drawbar pull (b) Tractive effort (c) Running force (d) Reaction force

41. The deformation per unit length is called as__________

(a) Tensile stress (b) Shear stress (c) Shear Strain (d) Linear Strain

42. The ability of material to sustain large deformation is called as ________

(a) Elasticity (b) Rigidity (c) Ductility (d) Toughness

43. A solid circular shaft of diameter ‘d’, length ’L‟ is to be used to transmit power in a

machine. The maximum shear stress will include at ____________ of the shaft.

(a) Centre (b) Surface (c) Centroid (d) Neutral axis

44. The state-of-stress at a point is represented by Mohr‟s circle. If the entire circle is

located on right-hand side of vertical axis, then principal stresses are ______ in nature.

(a) Compressive (b) Tensile (c) Shear (d) Twisting

45. The plane on which principal stresses are acting, shear stress is ______ value.

(a) zero (b) Maximum (c) Minimum (d) non-zero

46. A spherical shell of radius ‘r’ and wall thickness ‘t’ is subjected to internal pressure ‘p’.

The stress included in the wall of the shell is given by ___________

(a) pr

(b) pr

(c) pr

(d) pr

4t t 2t 3t

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47. Melting temperature of white metal which is used in underground metal mines should

not be more than?

(a) 200 0C (b) 250

0C (c) 300

0C (d) 350

0C

48. A side discharge loader is generally –

(a) Compressed air operated (b) Electricity operated

(c) Diesel operated (d) Petrol operated

49. A Creeper is used for?

(a) Elevating the tub (b) Lowering the tub

(c) To unload the material (d) To load the material in tub

50. Which of the following is not a rope haulage safety device?

(a) Age craft device (b) Monkey catch

(c) Bell plate (d) Run away switch

51. The term Angle of Fleet is associated with?

(a) Drum Winding (b) Friction Winding

(c) Endless Rope Haulage (d) Belt Conveyor

52. In a fully mechanised bord and pillar mining system, winning of coal and its

transportation from the face is commonly carried out with the combination of

(a) continuous miner, shuttle car, feeder breaker and belt conveyor

(b) continuous miner, LHD, feeder breaker and chain conveyor

(c) continuous miner, SDL, feeder breaker and belt conveyor

(d) continuous miner, shuttle car, feeder breaker and chain conveyor

53. Surface miner uses one of the following methods of mining the material__________

(a) Horizontal method (b) Terrace method

(c) Wide surface mining method (d) Vertical method

54. For haul road construction subgrade material may be assessed using __________

(a) California Bearing Ration (CBR) (b) compressive strength of material

(c) Tensile strength of material (d) Weatherability Index of material

55. An aerial ropeway is called as bi-cable aerial ropeway if it has _____

(a) Single rope serving as track rope and traction rope

(b) one track rope and one traction rope

(c) two track ropes and one traction rope

(d) two track ropes and two traction ropes

56. Maximum gradient over which belt conveyor can transport material is __________

(a) 380

(b) 250 (c) 18

0 (d) 10

0

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57. Surface Miner can mine the material with compressive strength upto________

(a) 500 MPa (b) 400 MPa (c) 200 MPa (d) 100 MPa

58. The “Cut-off-grade” depends on

(a) % of valuable mineral that can be economically extracted

(b) size upto which mineral can be ground

(c) % of valueablle mineral present in the ore


59. Differential acceleration depends on

(a) Particle size (b) Specific gravity of the mineral

(c) Specific gravity of the medium (d) Electrical properties of the mineral

60. BSS Mesh number refers to

(a) Number of openings per square inch

(b) Number of openings per linear inch

(c) Number of openings per linear meter

(d) Number of openings per square meter

61. Terminal velocity of a fine particle under laminar flow condition is

(a) Directly proportional to square of the particle radius and inversely proportional to

viscosity of fluid

(b) Inversely proportional to square of the particle radius and inversely proportional to

viscosity of fluid

(c) Directly proportional to the particle radius and inversely proportional to square of the

viscosity of fluid

(d) Directly proportional to square root of the particle radius and inversely proportional

to square of the viscosity of fluid

62. Gyratory crusher is a

(a) Special type of crusher (b) Tertiary crusher

(c) Primary crusher (d) Secondary crusher

63. Xanthates are used as collectors for flotation of

(a) Sulphides (b) Oxides (c) Silicates (d) Carbonates

64. Which rock mass classification is suitable for coal measured rocks

(a) Barton (b) Bieniawski (c) Deere (d) Trezaghi

65. P wave velocity determination method classed under ______

(a) Destructive method (b) non-destructive method

(c) Static method (d) in situ method

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66. Breathing tube is used in installing cement grout bolt for the purpose of____

(a) injecting grout in the hole (b) inserting bolt in hole

(c) evacuating air from hole (d) for identification

67. In case of Brazilian test in laboratory according to ISRM standards L/D ratio should be

(a) 2.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 0.5 (d) at least 2

68. Life of a panel in coal mine depends on

(a) Incubation period of coal (b) Quality of coal

(c) Degree of Gassiness (d) Seepages in panel

69. Which rank of coal is having highest calorific value?

(a) Peat (b) Anthracite (c) Bituminous (d) Lignite

70. Which of these supports is self-advancing support?

(a) Safari Support (b) Props (c) Rock bolts (d) Power support

71. The right combinations of equipments used with continuous miner are

(a) SDL-Direct rope haulage (b) Shuttle car-squat bolter

(c) SDL-LHD (d) LHD-Direct rope haulage

72. Correct order of hardness is

(a) Apatite<fluorite<Quartz<Orthoclase

(b) Fluorite<Apatite<Orthoclase<Quartz

(c) Quartz<Orthoclase<Apatite<fluorite

(d) Orthoclase<apatite<Fluorite<Quartz

73. Slake Durability index was given by

(a) Barton (b) Bieniawski (c) Deere (d) Gamble

74. Given S is the setting load & Y is the yield load of a hydraulic prop, the correct

relationship is

(a) S=Y2 (b) S=1/Y (c) S>Y (d) S<Y

75. A Flat Jack is used to determine?

(a) Stresses acting in perpendicular direction

(b) Direction of maximum Horizontal Stresses

(c) Direction of minimum Horizontal Stresses

(d) Stresses acting in parallel direction

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76. Orepasses are used in underground metal mines for

(a) Gravity transport of ore (b) Material transport

(c) level gradient (d) Conveyor ore transport

77. In a stoping method 30 to 40% ore is drawn during stoping and rest is stored in the stope;

is the method of stoping

(a) Cut and fill (b) Square set method

(c) Sublevel stoping (d) Shrinkagestoping

78. Sub level stoping is used for

(a) Thin ore deposit (b) Thick ore deposit

(c) Massive deposit (d) Reef

79. Ring drilling pattern of blasting is used in

(a) Sub level stoping (b) Raising

(c) Underhand stoping (d) Stope and pillar method

80. Lateral development in metal mines includes

(a) Level, drives and drifts (b) Orepass and orechute

(c) Winzes and staple pits (d) Finger raises and manways


81. If a solid circular shaft of diameter (d) is subjected to torque (T), the maximum shear

stress included in the shaft will be equal to _________

(a) 64T

(b) 32T

(c) 16T

(d) 8T

πd3

πd3

πd3

πd3

82. A simply supported beam of length „L‟ and flexural rigidity „EI‟, carries a point load of

magnitude „P‟ at mid-span. The maximum slope in the beam is given by ______.

(a) PL

3

(b) PL

2

(c) PL

3

(d) 5PL

4

48EI 16EI 24EI 384EI

83. A simply supported beam of length ‘L’ and flexural rigidity ‘EI’carries UDL of intensity

‘w’ per unit length on entire span. The maximum deflection of beam is given by ___

(a) wL

4

(b) 384wL

3

(c) wL

3

(d) 5wL

4

48EI 5EI 24EI 384EI

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84. Match the following

P: Bucket wheel excavator 1: Mine tub

Q: Continuous miner 2: A F C

R: Shearer 3: Shiftable conveyor

S: Load haul duper 4: Shuttle car

The correct match is:

(a) P 3, Q 2, R 4, S 1 (b) P 3, Q 4, R 2, S 1

(c) P 3, Q 2, R 1, S 4 (d) P 1, Q 4, R 3, S 2

85. A double ended ranging drum shearer is employed in a long wall mine of face length 150

meter. The mining height is 3.5 meter and depth of the web cut is 0.6 meter. The cycle

time for unidirectional cutting is 40 min. Considering density of coal to be 1.4 T/m3,

coal production per cycle from the face in Tonne is?

(a) 384 (b) 400 (c) 441 (d) 484

86. A bucket wheel excavator with 20 bucket of capacity 0.5 m3, rotates at 5 rev/min. The

bucket fill factor is 80%. The excavator loads on to 1200 mm wide belt conveyor. The

cross sectional area (m2) of the material on the belt is 0.1B

2, where B is width of bet in

m. The minimum speed of the belt in m/s to avoid spillage of material is:

(a) 7.23 (b) 5.79 (c) 4.63 (d) 3.70

87. Given the following Table details of the grade and expenditure

% Copper 0.5% 0.4%

Recoverable copper per tonne 4 kg 2.50 kg

Copper value Rs. 50/kg Rs. 200 Rs. 125

Mining, Treatment & Selling cost of ore Rs./tonne Rs. 150 Rs. 150

Net Amount Rs. 50 (-) Rs. 25

Cut-off grade is

(a) 0.2% (b) 0.3% (c) 0.60% (d) 0.45%

88. One round trip of dumper consumes 15.7 minutes, Haul distance is 2 km, working is 275

days in a year & 17 hours a day, actual working time of dumper per hour 50 minutes,

dumper size 50 tonnes with payload of 45 tonnes, total quantity of ore to be transported

annual is 6X106 tonnes. Number of dumpers required with 60% availability will be____

(a) 13 (b) 12 (c) 11 (d) 9

89. For the given information, find out hourly capacity of a dragline

Nominal bucket capacity is 15 m3, swell factor of the material 0.74, bucket fill factor

0.90, cycle time of the dragline 58 seconds and operating efficiency is 80%.

(a) 600 m3/hour (b) 496 m

3/hour (c) 550 m

3/hour (d) 1100 m

3/hour

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90. 1000 grams of copper zinc ore were ground in a laboratory mill for 12 minutes. The

power input to the empty mill (contained ball charge only) was 226.9 watts. The power

input to the mill when grinding the sample was 283.2 watts. Feed to the mill was 80% -

1530 microns. Product from the mill was 80% -79 microns. Work index of the mineral

is

(a) 11.75 K Wh/ton (b) 10.21 K Wh/ton

(c) 11.26 K Wh/ton (d) 12.0 K Wh/ton

91. The ROM of a mine measures 26 inches and the mine proposes to install a gyratory

crusher, the minimum tonnage that can justify the gyratory crusher is

(a) 80 tons per hour (b) 55 tons per hour (c) 110 tons per hour (d) 150 tons per hour

92. Feed to a jigging plant assays 55.25% Fe, the jig concentrate produced assays 64.45% Fe

and the tailings assay 40.25% Fe. The recovery is

(a) 75% (b) 60% (c) 50% (d) 92%

93. Calculate length of roof bolt in metre for a 4.5 m wide tunnel if Excavation Support

Ratio is 1.1

(a) 2.49 (b) 2.1 (c) 1.5 (d) 2.21

94. Write the correct chronological order of development of engineering rock mass

classification from the oldest to till date

(a) Barton-Biniawiski-Deere – Trezaghi (b) Biniawiski-Barton-Deere – Trezaghi

(c) Trezaghi-Deere Barton-Biniawiski (d) Deere-Barton-Biniawiski-– Trezaghi

95. A mine is being developed by bord and pillar method with a gallery size of 4.8 m X 2.4

m. The mine operates in 3 shifts per day and 6 faces are blasted per shift. The average

pull per round of blast is 1.2 m and bulk density of coal is 1.4 t/m3. If the OMS is 4, then

the average manpower deployed in the development section per shift is

(a) 25 (b) 29 (c) 34 (d) 18

96. A double ended ranking drum shearer is employed in a longwall mine of face length 200

meter. The mining height is 3 meter and depth of the web cut is 0.6. meter. The cycle

time for cutting the face length is 60 min. and it is assumed that the effective working

hours of shearer is 6 hours per shift. Considering density of coal to be 1.3T/m3, coal

production per shift from the face in Tonne is?

(a) 3874 (b) 3200 (c) 2808 (d) 2436

97. Calculate the % extraction during development if centre to centre distance between the

pillars is 28 m and width of gallery is 4 m. The height of gallery may be taken as 3 m.

(a) 24.62 (b) 26.53 (c) 27.01 (d) 27.53

98. The equation of a Mohrs Envelop plotted for a intact rock, is given by τ = 0.47 + 32.47ϭ

+ 32.74 where τ is Shear Stress and ϭ represents the normal stress. The angle of internal

friction of the rock sample is

(a) 0.47 (b) 18.60 (c) 25.17 (d) 32.74

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99. In Alimak climber raising, which is the correct sequence in cycle

(a) Loading-scaling-blasting-drilling (b) Scaling-drilling-loading-blasting

(c) Drilling-loading-blasting-scaling (d) Blasting-loading-scaling-drilling

100. A box of weight 100kN shown in figure below is to be lifted without swinging. If all

forces are coplanar, the magnitude and direction (θ) of the force (F) with respect to x-

axis should be:

(a) F=56.389 kN and θ=28.28°

(b) F= -56.389 kN and θ= -28.28°

(c) F=9.055 kN and θ=1.414°

(d) F= -9.055 kN and θ= -1.414°

101. The bending moment at E for the structure shown in below figure, is:

(a) Zero

(b) 10 Tm

(c) 20 Tm

(d) 40 Tm

102. The tensile force required to cause an elongation of 0.045mm in steel rod of 1000mm

length and 12mm diameter is, (E=2x106

kg/cm2):

(a) 166 kg

(b) 102 kg

(c) 204 kg

(d) 74 kg

103. A 8m long simply supported rectangular beam which carries a distributed load 45kg/m

experiences a maximum fiber stress 160 kg/cm2.If the moment of inertia of the beam is

640cm4, the overall depth of the beam is:

(a) 10 cm

(b) 12 cm

(c) 15cm

(d) 16 cm

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104. An elastic isotropic body is in a hydrostatic state of stress as shown in the figure. For no

change in the volume to occur, what should be its Poisson‟s ratio:

(a) 0.00

(b) 0.25

(c) 0.50

(d) 1.00

105. If the eccentricity of total self-weight „W‟ of a masonry dam and its base is equal to

fourth of base width B, then the maximum pressure at the base is given by:

(a) 2𝑊

3𝐵

(b) 4𝑊

3𝐵

(c) 5𝑊

3𝐵

(d) 8𝑊

3𝐵

106. If point load strength index is 4MPa, what is the approximate compressive strength:

(a) 100MPa

(b) 50MPa

(c) 25MPa

(d) 5MPa

107. If later strain is 0.1 and longitudinal strain is 0.4, then what is the value of Poison‟s ratio:

(a) 0.25

(b) 0.50

(c) 4.0

(d) 1.0

108. In a coal mine, width of the gallery=3m; Immediate roof height=1.75m; Immediate roof

density=2.5 t/cu.m. Roof condition is fractured. What will be the bolt density, if the

distance between row of bolts is 1m:

(a) 2 piece per sq.m

(b) 4 piece per sq.m

(c) 1 piece per sq.m

(d) 3 piece per sq.m

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109. A coal heading 4 m wide and 2.5 height has an advance of 1 m per cycle. The amount of

explosive used in blasting is 6 kg. Taking specific gravity of coal as 1.5, the power factor

is:

(a) 1.66 te/kg

(b) 2.50 te/kg

(c) 2.99 te/kg

(d) 3.32 te/kg

110. A seam is worked at a depth of 70 m from surface and the width of galleries is 3.2 m, the

dimensions of pillars should not exceed:

(a) 15.0 m

(b) 16.5 m

(c) 19.5 m

(d) 13.5 m

111. Rock quality Designation ( RQD ) is a technique, for evaluating cavability characteristics

of stoping operations, in which the percentage of core that is intact is measured,

wherein all cores are equal to or greater than of -- length are considered:

(a) Greater than 8 inches

(b) Greater than 6 inches

(c) Greater than 2.5 inches

(d) Greater than 4 inches

112. Consider a mixture of Galena (Specific Gravity 7.5) and Quartz (Specific Gravity 2.65)

classifying in water and obeying Stokes law. Under these conditions the Free settling

ratio of these particles is:

(a) 2.65

(b) 1.99

(c) 1.75

(d) 2.35

113. In which type of Mineral Processing technologies, is an appraisal of “individual ore

particles” undertaken:

(a) Magnetic Concentration

(b) Electronic Ore Sorting

(c) Froth flotation

(d) sedimentation

114. The ratio of the theoretical power input (p1/p2) of two centrifugal fans having same

specific speed and operating at same speed is given by:

(a) (D1/D2)2

(b) (D1/D2)3

(c) (D1/D2)4

(d) (D1/D2)5

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115. A wire rope, round standard with fibre core, has a diameter of 2.54 cm. If the steel

has a tensile strength of 160 kg/mm2, the mass of the rope in SI unit is (Rope

length100m):

(a) 234 kg

(b) 235 kg

(c) 232 kg

(d) 200 kg

116. The efficiency of a compressor may be expressed by:

(a) Volumetric efficiency

(b) Isothermal efficiency

(c) Adiabatic efficiency

(d) All the above

117. Blasts are being planned in a hard sandstone overburden bench of 10m height. How

much should be the value of Burden:

(a) 3m

(b) 6m

(c) 8m

(d) 1m

118. A 1.1m wide belt conveyor carries material of bulk density 1.35t/m3

at a speed of

1.75m/s. The average cross sectional area of material is equal to w2/11, where w is the

width of the belt in m. The carrying capacity of the conveyor in t/h is:

(a) 735.55 t/hr

(b) 1471.11 t/hr

(c) 1871.11 t/hr

(d) 935.55 t/hr

119. A rectangular bar of width „b‟ and height „h‟ is being used as cantilever. The loading is

in a plane parallel to the side „b‟. The section modulus is:

(a) 𝑏ℎ3

12

(b) 𝑏ℎ2

6

(c) 𝑏2ℎ

6

(d) 𝑏2ℎ

3

120. According to DGMS guidelines, in surface mines all drivers of the vehicles should have

clear view for a distance of not less than:

(a) 5 m

(b) 10 m

(c) 20 m

(d) 30 m

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TEXTILE TECHNOLOGY / ENGINEERING


PAPER-II

Instructions:




iv. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be awarded to

the wrong answer.






viii. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion

of examination before leaving the examination hall.

PART-A (80x1=80 Marks)

1. Disperse dyes are used for dyes

a) Ionic

b) Non-ionic

c) Natural


2. Which is not a popular method for dyeing indigo

a) Slasher dyeing

b) Rope Dyeing

c) Fiber dyeing


3. Sodium chlorite bleaching of cotton is carrier out in the temperature range of

(a) 50-600C

(b) 80-850 C

(c) 30-400

C

(d) 95-1100C

4. Ziegler Natta catalyst is used in the polymerization of

(a) PET

(b) Nylon

(c) Acetate

(d) Polypropylene

5. Cellulase is

(a) A fiber

(b) An enzyme

(c) An oxidizing agent

(d) A reducing agent

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6. Wool and silk can be bleached with

(a) Na2S204

(b) NaCIO

(c) NaBO3

(d) H202

7. Sizing of single cotton yard leads to an increase in

(a) Strength and extensibility but decrease in bending rigidity and hairiness

(b) Strength and bending rigidity but decrease inextensibility and hairiness

(c) Strength and hairiness but decrease in extensibility and bending rigidity

(d) Bending rigidity and extensibility but decrease in strength and hairiness

8. Reactive dyes are held with cotton fibers by

(a) Hydrogen bond

(b) Van der Walls force

(c) Covalent bond

(d) Dipole-diploe attraction

9. Polypropylene fibers are

(a) Dope dyed

(b) Dyed with acid dyes

(c) Dyed with direct dyes

(c) Dyed with disperse dyes

10. Indigo is a

(a) Vat dye

(b) Direct dye

(c) Acid dye

(d) Basic dye

11. Rot proof finish is given to

(a) Cotton

(b) Nylon

(c) Polyester

(d) Polypropylene

12. Stone wash finish is more commonly used for

(a) Poplin

(b) Shirting

(c) Suiting

(d) Denim

13. Bronzing is a term associated with

(a) Direct dyes

(b) Vat dye

(c) Sulphur dye


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14. Reactive dyes generally form an………..Bond

(a) Electrovalent

(b) Covalent

(c) Coordinate


15. A dye which can be used for PTT and PlA can be

(a) Direct

(b) Vat

(c) Disperse


16. Sodium persulphate is used in

(a) Bleaching

(b) Scouring

(c) Mercerization

(d) Desizing

17. The chemical structure given below can possibly function as a

a) Vat dye

b) Direct dye

c) Acid dye

d) Disperse dye

18. Singeing of cotton is carried out to

(a) Remove protruding fibres from fabrics surface

(b) Impart luster

(c) Cut long threads from fabric surface


19. Dyeing of polyester is carried out by using

(a) Acid dyes

(b) Direct dyes

(c) Disperse dyes

(d) Vat dyes

20. The most productive method for textile printing is

(a) Rotary screen-printing

(b) Automatic Flat-bed screen-printing

(c) Block printing

(d) Discharge printing

21. Sublimation Transfer printing is most suitable for .

(a) Wool

(b) Jute

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(c) Polyester

(d) Cotton

22. Wash & Wear finishing of cotton is carried out to improve

(a) Crease resistance

(b) Fabric feel

(c) Abrasion resistance


23. Batch-wise scouring can be carried out in

(a) Winch

(c) Jigger

(d) Kier

(e) J-Box

24. The most important ingredient of a scouring composition is

(a) Wetting agent

(b) Alkali

(c) Emulsifying agent

(d) Sodium silicate

25. HT-HP Jet-dyeing machine is commonly used for dyeing of

(a) Wool

(b) Cotton

(c) Polyester

(d) Acrylic

26. Enzyme treatment of cotton is carried out to remove

(a) Size

(b) Colouring matter

(c) Nitrogenous substances

(d) Wexes

27. Dyeing of silk is carried out by using

(a) Disperse dyes

(b) Acid dyes

(c) Pigment colours


28. Weight reduction finish is more commonly given to

(a) Nylon

(b) Silk

(c) Polyester

(d) Cotton

29. Heat-setting of polyester is carried out on

(a) Mercerizing machine

(b) Pin stenter

(c) Open width washing machine


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30. Highest order of tensile strength

(a) Cotton

(b) Viscose

(c) Wool

(d) Ramie

31. Highest moisture regain at 65% RH and 200C

(a) Cotton

(b) PET

(c) Nylon 6

(d) Viscose

32. Highest possibility of static charge generation under standard conditions

(a) Wool

(b) Silk

(c) Polyester

(d) Cotton

33. Lowest density fibre

(a) Cotton

(b) Polypropylene

(c) Nylon

(d) Polyester

34. Density of cotton fibre in g/cc is

(a) 1.52

(b) 1.39

(c) 1.10

(d) .0.91

35. Percentage moisture regain of nylon is

(a) 0.4

(b) 4

(c) 6

(d) 8

36. Alkali resistance is highest in case of

(a) Cotton

(b) Wool

(c) Silk

(d) Polyester

37. Imperfections are sum total of

(a) Thick places and thin place

(b) All classimat faults

(c) Thick places and neps

(d) Thick places, thin places and neps

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38. The count (Ne) of a cotton yarn of 1.62 g weight and 120 yd length is

(a) 40

(b) 60

(c) 80

(d) 100

39. Yarn strength for longer gauge length

(a) Lower

(b) Higher

(c) Depends on tensile tester

(d) Remains the same

40. The load cell in Instron basically contains:

(a) Resistance

(b) Capacitance

(c) Strain gauges


41. The final breaking properties of a fibre is given by:

(a) Modulus

(b) Work of rapture

(c) Elongation

(d) Tenacity

42. One newton force is equivalent to

(a) 98 gf

(b) 100 gf

(c) 102 gf

(d) 1000 gf

43. The unit of twist multiplier in yarn is

(a) inch-1

.Ne-0.5

(b) inch-1.

Ne0.5

(c) inch.Ne

-0.5

(d) dimensionless)

44. Generally drawing of a filament is done above:

(a) Melting temperature

(b) Degradation Temperature

(c) Glass Transition Temperature


45. Which of the following is a preferred material for the sizing of polyester

(a) Sago starch

(b) Corn starch

(c) Potato starch

(d) Polyvinyl alcohol

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46. A regular satin can be woven with minimum repeat size of

(a) 4x4

(b) 5x5

(c) 2x2

(d) 3x3

47. The percent crystallinity of cotton fiber is approximately

(a) 25

(b) 33

(c) 50

(d) 67

48. Which of the following nonwoven fabrics display random fiber orientation?

(a) Air-laid

(b) Carded

(c) Spunbond

(d) Meltblown

49. The property of fabric which influences drape the most is

(a) Tensile

(b) Compressional

(c) Shear

(d) Surface

50. Softener reduces the bending rigidity of fabrics by decreasing

(a) Inter-fibre and inter-yarn friction

(b) Modulus of the fibres

(c) Glass transition temperature of the fibres

(d) Packing coefficient of yarns

51. A 25 tex cotton yarn has a twist factor of 30. The yarn twist, in turns per cm, is

(a) 4

(b) 5

(c) 6

(d) 7

52. Drawing

(a) Increases crystallinity

(b) Increases birefringence

(c) Decreases crystalline

(d) Increase strength

53. Which type of weave produces lustrous surface?

(a) Twill

(b) Satin

(c) Jacquard

(d) Pile weaves

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54. The unique ability of woven fabric to drape in multiple curvature is mainly

due to

(a) High tensile modulus

(b) Low shear rigidity

(c) Low compressibility

(d) High bending rigidity

55. The plain weave is variously known as

(a) Crepe

(b) Grecians

(c) Cretonne

(d) Calico

56. A fabric constructed with a hole-punch loom attachment that weaves different

colors into large, complex patterns is

(a) Jacquard weave

(b) Twill weave

(c) Satin weave

(d) Rachel knit

57. In weft knitted fabrics of the same mass per unit area produced from the same

yarns, the structure which will give the highest thickness is

(a) Plain

(b) Rib

(c) Purl

(d) Interlock

58. 500-end double lift, single cylinder jacquard has

(a) 500 hooks and 500 needles

(b) 500 hooks and 1000 needles

(c) 1000 hooks and 500 needles

(d) 1000 hooks and 1000 needles

59. Flatbed knitting machine can have

(a) Only one bed

(b) Only two beds

(c) One or two beds

(d) Three or more beds

60. The major application of warp knitted fabric is

(a) Apparel

(b) Filters

(c) Industrial textiles

(d) Wipes

61. Components of latch needle are

(a) Latch, butt, hook, stem

(b) Butt, bed, latch, stem

(c) Butt, hook, eye, stem

(d) Latch, butt, hook, eye

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62. Which of the following is not a weft knitted structure

(a) Single jersey

(b) Rib

(c) Interlock

(d) Under lap

63. In a flat bed knitting machine, the loop length is controlled by

(a) Raising cam

(b) Stitch cam

(c) Clearing cam

(d) Guard cam

64. What would be the resultant color of a warp knitted fabric if the front bar is

equipped with red colored threads and back bar with blue colored ones?

(a) Blue

(b) Red

(c) Red and blue both

(d) None of these

65. Relation between the weight of fabric knitted and the number of feeders on a

machine is

(a) Directly proportional

(b) Inversely proportional

(c) Proportional to square root


66. Gauge of the knitting machine

(a) No. of needless in two inches

(b) No. of needle per inch

(c) No. of sinkers

(d) Total no. of needles

67. Which of the following needles is used for making velour fabric?

(a) Triangular needle

(b) Star bladed needle

(c) Fork needle

(d) Crown needle

68. In the context of thermal bonding of nonwoven web, the statement which is

not true is

(a) A thermoplastic component has to be present in the text

(b) Heat is applied until the thermoplastic component is melt

(c) The polymer flows by surface tension and capillary action to fibre cross over

points

(d) Chemical reaction takes place

69. Identify the most suitable fabric for use on outdoor furniture

(a) Cotton fibre, carded yarn, twill weave fabric

(b) Nylon fibre, staple spun yarn, warp knit fabric

(c) Polyester fibre, filament yarn, plain weave fabric

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(d) Viscose rayon fibre, filament yarn, satin weave fabric

70. Large multi-coloured graphic designs on mass-produced T-shirts are achieved

by which of the following fabric decoration methods?

(a) Embroidery

(b) Resist dyeing

(c) Screen printing

(d) Roller printing

71. Which of the following yarn and fabric structures would best maximise the

heat retention of a micro-fibre blanket?

(a) A core spun yarn in a plain weave

(b) A textured, monofilament yarn in a warp knit

(c) A low twist level, staple spun yarn in a pile weave

(d) A high twist level, multifilament yarn in a weft knit

72. Which of the following would be the most suitable fibre, yarn and fabric

structure in the manufacture of school socks?

(a) Polyester fibre, plain weave

(b) Viscose staple spun yarn, weft rib knit

(c) Polyester and cotton core spun yarn, warp knit

(d) Cotton and nylon blended staple spun yarn, weft knit

73. A balanced fabric or weave has the ratio of warp and weft yarn

(a) 1:1

(b) 2:1

(c) 3:2


74. Stain-woven fabrics are used in

(a) Clothing and apparel

(b) Wedding dresses

(c) Drapery linings


75. Reasons for weaving a double cloth are to form

(a) A tube

(b) To produce a cloth of different colours on either side

(c) To produce quilt-like effects


76. Jacquard weave structures are used in

(a) Apparel and clothing

(b) Furnishing

(c) Utility fabrics


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77. If the honeycomb structure is made with woollen yarns then it becomes

(a) Very absorbent of moisture

(b) Very absorbent liquids

(c) It absorbs heat, especially body heat


78. Gauge is a term often used to describe

(a) The fineness of the fabric

(b) The number of needles (per inch) within the needle bed

(c) The gauge is expressed as number of needles per 1.5 inches


79. The structure and properties of spunbond are influenced by

(a) Polymer properties

(b) Molecular weight and molecular weight distribution

(c) Process settings


80. Which of the following process sequences is correct for melt-blown process?

(a) Preparation, extrusion, quenching, attenuation, lay-down, winding.

(b) Preparation, extrusion, drawing, attenuation, lay-down, winding

(c) Preparation, extrusion, quenching, lay-down, attenuation, winding

(d) Preparation, quenching, extrusion, attenuation, lay-down, winding

PART- B (40X2=80 Marks)

81. A design repeating on 10cm along length and 6cm along width of fabric

having

40 ends and 30 picks per cm will require jacquard capacity of

(a) 180

(b) 240

(c) 300

(d) 400

82. If 10 cm of yarn produces 9 cm of fabric, the yarn crimp is

(a) 11.1%

(b) 10%

(c) Data is incomplete

(d) 9%

83. 1 kg of 20 Nm will have a length of

(a) 16,800 meters

(b) 33,600 meters

(c) 20,000 meters

(d) 16,800 meters

84. A fabric having 30 tex in warp and 20 tex in weft, and having 40x30 ends and

picks per centimetre respectively. The GSM of the fabric is

(a) 90 g/m2

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(b) 170 g/m2

(c) 180 g/m2

(d) 250 g/m2

85. Limiting oxygen index is determined to test the efficiency of

(a) Wash and wear finishing

(b) Water proofing

(c) Flame retardant finishing


86. Metric count (Nm) equivalent of 90 denier yarn is

(a) 9

(b) 10

(c) 90

(d) 100

87. Average molecular orientation can be measured by

(a) X-ray diffraction

(b) Infrared spectra

(c) Scanning electron microscopy

(d) Birefringence

88. Among the following, strength/weight ratio is highest of

(a) Steel

(b) Nylon

(c) Kevlar

(d) Polyester

89. The end groups in PET are

(a) Carboxyl

(b) Hydroxyl

(c) Carboxyl and hydroxyl

(d) Carboxyl and Amino

90. With increasing moisture regain in cotton fibres, the tenacity of the fibres

(a) Increases

(b) Decreases

(c) Remains constant

(d) Increases rapidly

91. The coarser fibres preferentially migrate

(a) To the surface of the yarn

(b) To the core of the yarn

(c) At random

(d) Surface to core and back

92. In acontinuous filament yarn, at the centre of the yarn

(a) Fibre extension = yarn extension

(b) Yarn extension > fibre extension

(c) Fibre extension > yarn extension

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93. Twist multiplier (TM)) is a better indicator of twist characteristic of yarn than

T.P.I because

(a) TM is directly proportional to the tangent of twist angle

(b) TM describe level of twist in yarn irrespective of linear density

(c) TS is related to both the above characters


94. In a open packing of fibres in yarn, the maximum number of fibres in 3rd

layer

is:

(a) 6

(b) 12

(c) 16

(d) 18

95. As a guide line, the optimum level of comber waste should be

(a) Equal to short fibre%

(b) Twice the short fibre %

(c) 1.3 times the short fibre %

(d) 0.5 times the short fibre %

96. If the index of blend irregularity (IBI) is less; it means

(a) Blending is better

(b) Blending is poor

(c) A moderate blending


97. During length measurement on fibrograph, 2.5% span length was found to be

25 mm. It means

(a) .2.5% of fibres clamped are 25 mm is length

(b) .2.5% of fibres clamped are longer than 25 mm

(c) 2.5% of fibres clamped are 25 mm or longer


98. The RKm of a yarn is equal to

(a) g/tex

(b) g/den

(c) Breaking length in Km

(d) CSP

99. In a spinning mill, fibre bundle strength is preferred over single fibre strength,

because

(a) Bundle strength test is easy and quick

(b) It gives less variation

(c) It has better correlation with yarn strength

(d) It gives benefit of all above three

100. Number of 2 denier fibres in 10s cotton count yarn will be nearly

(a) 66

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(b) 100

(c) 200

(d) 266

101. The correct relationship between specific surface(s) and diameter (d) of a fibre

can be described by

(a) s = 1/d

(b) s = 4/d

(c) s = perimeter of cross-section / area of cross - section

(d) None of the above.

102. The breaking extension of the fibers in the order of highest to lowest

elongation

(a) Silk> Cotton> Flax> Jute

(b) Cotton> Jute > Silk > Flax

(c) Flax > Jute >Silk>Cotton

(d) Cotton >Jute>Flax>Silk

103. If ‘W’ is weight of moist sample, ÓD’ is oven dry weight, than regain can be

defined as:

(a) (W-OD)/OD

(b) (OD-W)/OD

(c) (W-OD)/ODX100

(d) (OD-W)/ODX100

104. Uniformity ratio is defined as:

(a) S2.5%//S50%

(b) S50%/S2.5%

(c) S2.5%/S50% X100

(d) S50%S2.5%X100

105. CRE and CRL tester would typically result in ‘_______________’ load

elongation curves.

(a) Different

(b) Same

(c) Similar


106. A yarn has a cotton count of 10s. The denier of the yarn would be:

(a) 53.15

(b) 531.50

(c) 59.05

(d) 590.5

107. A synthetic yarn is stretched by 5% and kept in the extended condition. With

time, the registered stress wil

(a) Increase linearly

(b) Decrease linearly

(c) Decrease exponentially

(d) Increase exponentially

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108. The K/S value can be calculated if one knows the

(a) Lab

(b) CIE

(c) XYZ

(d) Reflectance values

109. The relation between the cloth cover and air permeability is

(a) Linear

(b) Exponential

(c) Parabolic

(d) Hyperbolic

110. While weaving a cloth bumping increases with

(a) Increasing warp tension

(b) Decreasing loom speed

(c) Increasing picks per cm

(d) Decrease of yarn linear density (tex)

111. A plain woven fabric is produced with four healds and skip draft

(a) Minimum 8 cams are needed and they must be mounted on tappet shaft

(b) Minimum 4 cams are needed and they must be mounted on bottom shaft.

(c) Minimum 2 cams are needed and they must be mounted on tappet shaft

(d) Minimum 2 cams are needed and they could be mounted either on bottom shaft

or on tappet shaft.

112. The color of an object depends on

(a) The nature of light incident on the object

(b) The nature of interaction with the material

(c) The nature of the observer


113. The chemical groups present in a fiber can be identified by

(a) SEM

(b) DSC

(c) FTIR

(d) TGA

114. Which of the following fibers has the highest elongation-at-break?

(a) Wool

(b) Silk

(c) Jute

(d) Cotton

115. The diameter (in mm) of a cotton yarn of 50 tex count and 60% porosity is

(a) 0.20

(b) 0.26

(c) 0.32

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ROLL NO. UG2TTE33

A

I

C

T

E

A

I

C

T

E

A

I

C

T

E

A

I

C

T

E

(d) 0.38

116.The decrease in yarn strength with the increase of twist is due to

(a) Fiber slippage

(b) Fiber breakage

(c) Fiber compaction

(d) Fiber obliquity

117. With the increase in size percentage, the frequency of end breakage

(a) Decreases

(b) Increases

(c) Initially decreases and then increases

(d) Remains constant

118. The maximum number of binding points in a woven fabric is obtained with

(a) Twill weave

(b) Plain weave

(c) Satin weave

(d) Sateen weave

119.In Perice’s fabric geometry, the yarn axis is assumed to be

(a) A straight line

(b) A curved line

(c) A combination of two ring arcs and one straight line

(d) A combination of two ring arcs and one curved line

120.The test statistic used to carry out a statistical test of hypothesis for the

equality of two variances is

(a) z

(b) t

(c) 𝜒 2

(d) F

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