Sr MEDICON EAMCET GRAND TEST Date : 30-10-13 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS, A.P. SR.MEDICON EAMCET GRAND TEST DATE : 30-10-13 SUB : BOTANY (ON 2 ND YEAR) Max.Marks : 160 1. Respiration is totally absent in 1) Rhizobium 2) Chlorella 3) Bacteriophage 4) E.coli 2. Study the following regarding krebs cycle Name of reaction Substrate Product 1)Decarboxylation Ketoglutaric acid Succinic acid II) Cleavage Succinyl co entyme-A Succinic acid III) Oxidation –III Succinic acid Fumaric acid IV) Oxidation – I Oxalo succinic acid Isocitric acid Identify the correct combination 1)I, II, III & IV 2) II & III only 3) II, III & IV only 4) I & IV only 3. Total number of ATP produced during complete oxidation of 1 Mol of DHAP is 1) 18 2) 19 3) 17 4) 16 4. A bacterium which is capable of utilizing one of the most abundant gas in atm for one metabolic path way and can not utilize second most abundant gas in atm for another metabolic path way is 1) Azotobacter 2) Clostridium 3) E.coli 4) Xanthomonas 5. What would happen if a mRNA coding for a polypeptide chain of 60 amino acids, 30 th codon is mutated to UAG from UAU 1) A poly peptide with 30 A A is formed 2) A poly peptide with 29 A A is formed Sri Chaitanya Page 1 Vijayawada
Name of reaction Substrate Product1)Decarboxylation Ketoglutaric acid Succinic acidII) Cleavage Succinyl co entyme-A Succinic acidIII) Oxidation –III Succinic acid Fumaric acidIV) Oxidation – I Oxalo succinic acid Isocitric acidIdentify the correct combination1)I, II, III & IV 2) II & III only 3) II, III & IV only 4) I & IV only
3. Total number of ATP produced during complete oxidation of 1 Mol of DHAP is1) 18 2) 19 3) 17 4) 16
4. A bacterium which is capable of utilizing one of the most abundant gas in atm for one metabolic path way and can not utilize second most abundant gas in atm for another metabolic path way is1) Azotobacter 2) Clostridium 3) E.coli 4) Xanthomonas
5. What would happen if a mRNA coding for a polypeptide chain of 60 amino acids, 30th codon is mutated to UAG from UAU1) A poly peptide with 30 A A is formed 2) A poly peptide with 29 A A is formed3) A poly peptide with 60 A A is formed 4) A poly peptide with 59 A A is formed
6. In Eukaryotes which part of a gene is transcribed but not translated is1) Cistron 2) Intron 3) Exon 4) Operator
7. Connecting link between Glycolysis & krebs cycle is a precursor forI) Auxin II) G.A III) Ethylene IV) ABA1) I & IV 2) II & IV 3) II & III 4) III & IV
8. The micro essential element required for the biosynthesis of IAA is
1) Fe 2) Zn 3) 4) Mg
9. Reverse transcriptase is1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase 2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase 3) RNA dependent RNA polymerase 4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
10. Genetic code determines1) Sequence of amino acids in a proteins 2) Sequence of genes in a chromosome3) Structural pattern of an organism 4) No. of variations in an offspring
11. Enzyme Hexokinase can be inhibited by1)Fructose 2) Glucose
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3) Glucose-6-phosphate 4) Fructose-6-phosphate12. Formation of gas bubbles in a xylem vessel is known as
1) Cavitation 2) Embolism 3) Ascent of sap 4) Transpirational pull13. Assertion (A): Higher plants can absorb nitrogen from the soil in the form of Nitrate
alsoReason (R): All prokaryotes can convert dinitrogen into ammonia1) A and R are true R is correct explanation to A 2) A and R are true R is not correct explanation to A3) A is true R is false 4) A is false R is true
14. 8 Mol of aldolase enzyme and substrate molecules are taken in a test rube. After 10 min 2400 mol of products are formed. What is the TON of aldolase enzyme1) 30 2) 45 3) 90 4) 15
15. The excess amount of energy utilized by a plant than the plant in the production of
16. Which of the following is not related to the compound that acts as a substrate for last oxidation in krebs cycleI) It is a product of decarboxylation in krebs cycleII) It is an osmotically active in guard cells
III) It undergoes oxidative decarboxylation in bundle sheath cells of plants
IV) In CAM plant mesophyll cells this compound is stored in vacuoles during night time1) I only 2) All except 3) Except I & IV 4) I & II only
17. Assertion (A): Antibiotic resistant genes in a cloning vector acts as a selectable markersReason (R): Selectable markers are useful in selecting the transformed cells1) A and R are true R is correct explanation to A 2) A and R are true R is not correct explanation to A3) A is true R is false 4) A is false R is true
18. Assertion (A): R Q value for fats is less than 1Reason (R): The proportion of oxygen atoms to carbon atoms is very less when compared to carbohydrates 1) A and R are true R is correct explanation to A 2) A and R are true R is not correct explanation to A3) A is true R is false 4) A is false R is true
19. Assertion (A): RNA is not suitable as a genetic material when compared to DNAReason (R): OH group present in second carbon in ribose sugar makes RNA more reactive and makes it unstable.1) A and R are true R is correct explanation to A 2) A and R are true R is not correct explanation to A3) A is true R is false 4) A is false R is true
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20. Assertion (A): The large holes in swiss cheese are due to production of large amount of
Reason (R): Swiss cheese is produced by using saccharomyces1) A and R are true R is correct explanation to A 2) A and R are true R is not correct explanation to A3) A is true R is false 4) A is false R is true
21. Girdling experiments can not be performed in monocots (like sugar cane) due to1) Scattered vascular bundles 2) Cu path way3) Krant anatomy 4) It can not tolerate injury
22. When a cell is kept in 0.5 M sucrose solution, its volume does not change. If the same cell is placed in 0.5 M NaCl solution, the volume of the protoplast1) Increases 2) No change 3) Decreases4) Initially increases and later no change
23. Critical concentration of an essential element is1) Concentration of an element below which growth is retarded2) Concentration of an element below which growth is enhanced3) Concentration of an element below which plant remains in vegetative phase4) Concentration Of an element at which plant enters in flowering stage
24. Assertion (A): Deficiency symptoms of Ca & S first appears in younger tissues.Reason (R): Ca & S are not a part of structural component of the cell.1) A and R are true R is correct explanation to A2) A and R are true R is not correct explanation to A3) A is true R is false 4) A is false R is true
25. A chlorella cell is kept at 300 ppm Co2 conc what will happen to it1) Plant will die soon 2) Plant will neither grow nor die3) Plant will show normal photosynthesis 4) Respiration will be greatly decreased
26. Growth represented in linear curve can be calculated by using the formula
1) 2) 3) 4)
27. Highly selective transport is1) Simple diffusion 2) Facilitated diffusion 3) Active transport 4) Both 2 & 3
28. Which of the following is a redifferentiated tissue1) Wood 2) vascular cambium 3) Inter vascular cambium 4) cork cambium
29. The most commonly used cloning vector in the transfer of gene into plant cell is1) Ti plasmid 2) PBR 322 3) PUC 19 4) PUC 201
30. A ds DNA with 30 helices transcribes an mRNA, which translates a polypeptides chain, the number .of translocations involved if 5 ribosomes are attached to mRNA1) 495 2) 490 3) 500 4) 1500
31. Down stream process includes steps1) After Biosynthesis 2) Before biosynthesis
33. RNA interference is1) Inactivation of mRNA after translation 2) Inactivation of mRNA before translation3) Activation of mRNA after translation 4) Activation of mRNA after translation
34. In gene amplification process in PCR primers are 1) Short ds DNA 2) Short ds RNA 3) Short ss DNA 4) Short ss RNA
35. Match the following variety with their respect crops Variety CropA) Pusa swarnim I. OkraB) Pusa sadabahar II. ChilliC) Pusa sawani III. BrassicaD) Pusa snowball k 1 IV. Cauliflower
A B C D A B C D1) III I II IV 2) III II I IV3) III IV I II 4) IV III II I
36. Which of the following varieties are developed by mutation breeding1) Resistance to yellow mosaic Virus in mungbean2) Resistance to yellow mosaic virus in bhindi3) Pusa Gaurav 4) Pusa sem 2
37. Vitamin ‘C’ enriched vegetable among the following is1) garden peas 2) spinach 3) bathua 4) pumpkin
38. Virus free sugar cane plants can be produced from virus infected sugar cane plants by1) Embryo culture 2) Anther culture3) ovule culture 4) shoot apical meristem culture
39. The law of independent assortment states that :
1) In fertilization , the combining of sperm and eggs is random.
2) In meiosis, crossing over creates genetically diverse gametes
3) In any dihybrid cross, it is possible to get any combination of phenotypes.
4) During gametes formation, gene pairs are transmitted independently of each other
40. A plant of unknown genotype with yellow seeds and purple flowers is crossed to a plant with
green seeds and white flowers. The offspring all have yellow seeds, but some have purple
flowers and some have white flowers what is the genotype of yellow seeded, purple flowered
parental plant ?
1) YyPp 2) Yypp 3) YYpp 4) YYPp
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ZOOLOGY41. Assertion (A): Bile is essential for the digestion of lipids
Reason (R): Bile juice contain enzymes like bilirubin and biliviridin1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true R is not correct explanation of A3) A is true but R is false 4) Both A and R wrong
42. Crypts of lieberkuhn secrete1) gastric juice 2) pancreatic juice 3) bile juice 4) succus entericus
43. Incorrect one of the following is1) parietal cells – HCl 2) peptic cells – pepsinogen3) neck cells – mucus 4) chief cells – intrinsic factor
44. Kupffer cells are found in1) blood 2) heart 3) kidney 4) liver
45. Correct one of the following regarding respiratory capacities is1) FRC = ERV+RV 2) VC = IC – ERV 3) IC = ERV+VC 4) EC = IC-ERV
46. Respiratory rhythm centre is present in this part of brain1) cerebral hemispheres 2) cerebellum 3) diencephalon 4) medulla oblongata
47. A respiratory disorder in which respiratory surface is decreased is1) asthma 2) emphysema 3) cirrhosis 4) silicosis
48. Which of the following ions play important role in blood clotting1) Mg 2) Na 3) K 4) Ca
49. Action potentials are generated at maximum frequency1) bundle of his 2) Purkinje fibres 3) SAN 4) Ventricles
50. This one is used during haemodialysis to prevent blood coagulation1) Warfarin 2) Haemolysin 3) Heparin 4) Hirudin
51. Which of the following occur in epithelium of Bowman’s capsule1) Nephrocytes 2) Podocytes 3) Neural cells 4) Protonephridia
53. Match the following regarding excretory system and choose correct oneColumn – I Column – IIA) JG cells 1) VasodilatorB)Hypothalamus 2) VasoconstrictorC) Angiotensin – II 3) VasopressinD) ANF 4) Renin1) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 2) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-43) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 4) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
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Sr MEDICON EAMCET GRAND TEST Date : 30-10-1354. Isotropic band of a muscle cell contain
1) actin 2) myosin 3) M line 4) sacromere
55. In man vertebrochondral ribs are1) 3 pairs 2) 12 pairs 3) 2 pairs 4) 7 pairs
56. Wild contractions in a muscle due to low is
1) gout 2) tetany 3) arthritis 4) osteoporosis57. Scotopic vision is the function of
1) rods 2) cones 3) pupil 4) iris58. Part of ear has hair cells that acts as auditory receptors is
1) basilar membrane 2) tympanum 3) stapes 4) otolith organ59. Assertion (A): Organ of corti rests on tectorial membrane
Reason (R): It helps to maintain equilibrium of body1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true R is not correct explanation of A3) A is true but R is false 4) Both A and R wrong
60. Match the following and choose correct one Column - I Column - IIA)Addison’s disease 1. PituitaryB) Tetany 2. ThyroidC) Acromegaly 3. Adrenal cortexD) Myxoedema 4. Parathyroid1) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 2) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 3) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 4) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
64. Androgens are synthesized inside the testes in1) Interstitial cells 2) Sertoli cells 3) Follicles 4) Seminiferous tubules
65. Match the items of column – I with those in column - II Column - I Column - IIA)Inguinal canal 1. Network of seminiferous tubulesB) Rete testis 2. Secondary sexual charactersC) Leydig cells 3. For descending testisD) Prepuce 4. Dorsal bundles of musclesE) Corpora cavernosa 5. Terminal skin of penis1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-5, E-4 2) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2, E-5
66. The following hormone acts on anterior pitutary gland and helpful in release of FSH and LH after the age of puberty1) ACTH 2) TSH 3) GnRH 4) GnTH
67. Assertion (A): As long as the mother breast – feeds the child fully, chances of conception are almost nil.
Reason (R): Lactational amenorrhea can be seen during the period of intense lactation following parturition1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true R is not correct explanation of A3) A is true but R is false 4) Both A and R wrong
68. Vaults prevent conception by 1) Phagocytosis of sperms 2) Releasing hormones3) Killing Ovum 4) Blocking the entry of sperms
69. Which of the following organisms causes the sexual disease syphilis1) Neisseria gonorrhoeae 2) Treponema pallidum3) Pasteurella pestis 4) Clostrodium botulinum
70. Each antibody is made up of1) Two peptide chains 2) Three peptide chains3) Four peptide chains 4) Six peptide chains
71. Humoral immune response is mediated by1) T lymphocytes 2) Antibodies 3) Neutrophils 4) Interferons
72. rDNA technology is used in developing vaccines against1) Tetanus 2) Polio 3) Small pox 4) Hepatitis B
73. The type of immunoglobulin present in the colostrums secreted by mammary glands is1) Ig A 2) Ig O 3) Ig D 4) Ig E
74. The full form of HGP is1) Human Genome project 2) Human Gene profile3) Human Genome programme 4) Human Genomic process
75. DNA finger printing can resolve1) Identification of a person 2) Paternity dispute3) Maternity dispute 4) All of the above
76. Haemophilia is due to mutation in1) X and Y – chromosomes 2) Y-chromosome 3) X-chromosome 4) autosomal chromosome
77. Which of the following is not a hereditary disease1) Sickle cell anemia 2) Thalassemia 3) Cretinism 4) Cystic fibrosis
78. Who is known as founder of theory of catastrophism ?1) Oparin 2) Haldane 3) G cuvier 4) Darwin
79. Darwin proposed the theory of
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1) inheritance of acquired characters 2) natural selections 3) recapitulation 4)continuity of germplasm
80. A group of animals related by descent and similar in appearance, configuration is1) Genus 2) Species 3) Breed 4) Class
PHYSICS81. A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beats/s, When sounded with a source of known
frequency 250 Hz. The second harmonic of source of unknown frequency gives five beats per second when sounded with a source of frequency 513 Hz. The unknown frequency is1) 254 Hz 2) 246 Hz 3) 240 Hz 4) 260 Hz
82. A source of sound is travelling towards a stationary observer. The frequency of sound heard by the observe is 25% more than that actual frequency. If the speed of sound is ‘V’, that of source is
1) 2) 3) 4)
83. A sonometer wire of length 1.5 m is made of steel. The tension in it produce an elastic strain 1%. What is the fundamental frequency of steel if density and elasticity of steel are and respectively1) 188.5 Hz 2) 178.2 Hz 3) 200.5Hz 4) 770 Hz
84. A magnet is parallel to uniform magnetic field. The work done in rotating magnet through is . The work done in rotating through another is1) 2) 3) 4)
85. Two converging lenses ‘A’ and ‘B’ have focal lengths in the ratio 2:1. The radius of curvature of first surface of lens ‘A’ is 1/4th of second surface where as the radius of curvature of first surface of lens ‘B’ is twice that of second surface. Then the ratio between the radii of first surfaces of A and B is1) 5 ; 3 2) 3 : 5 3) 1 : 2 4) 5 : 6
86. A ray of light is incident normally on one of face of prism of angle and refractive index . The angle of deviation will be1) 2) 3) 4)
87. When a light incident on a medium at an angle of incidence ‘I’ and refracted into a second medium at angle of refraction ‘r’, the graph of sin I and sin r is as shown in diagram, then the critical angle for the two media is
1) 2) 3) 4)
88. The focal lengths of objective and eye piece of a microscope are 1 cm and 5 cm respectively. If the magnifying power for the relaxed eye is 45, the length of microscope
is
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1)30 cm 2) 25 cm 3) 15 cm 4) 12 cm89. The frequency of oscillation of a magnet at a place is 8Hz. When it is remagnetised so that pole strength becomes 6 times the initial value and placed at a place where horizontal magnetic field is twice that of initial place, the new frequency of oscillation is
1)16Hz 2) 3) 4) 4 Hz
90. Statement (A) :Intensity of all bright diffraction fringes is not same Statement (B) : The minima of a diffraction pattern are not perfectly dark.
1)A is false and B is true 2) A is true but ‘B’ is false3) Both A and B are true 4) Both ‘A’and ‘B’ are false
91. Unpolarised light of intensity 32 passes through three polarisers such that the
transmission axis of last polariser is crossed with first. If the intensity of emerging light
is , the angle between the axes of first two polarisers is
1) 2) 3) 4) zero
92. If be the angles of dip observed in two vertical planes at right angles to each
other and be true angle of dip, then.
1) 2)
3) 4)
93.In young’s double slit experiment, the fringes are displaced by a distance ‘x’, When a glass plate of refractive index 1.5 is introduced in the path of one of beans. When this
plate is replaced by another plate of same thickness, The shift of fringes is x. The
refractive index of second plate is1) 1.75 2) 1.50 3) 1.25 4) 1.00
94. When a light of wave length and photon energy 2ev falls on a metal surface, electrons are emitted with maximum speed V. If the wave length is decreased by 25%, the maximum speed of emitted electron becomes 2V. The work function is1) 2.4ev 2) 1.78ev 3) 4.2ev 4) 3.6ev
95. The magnetic susceptibility of a material of a rod is 499. Permeability of Vacuum is
. The absolute permeability of the rod in Henry/m is
1) 2) 3) 4)
96. As the electron in Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom passes from state n = 2 to n = 1, then KE (k) and PE (U) change as1) K two – fold, U also two fold 2) K four fold, U also four fold3) K four fold and U two fold 4) K tow fold and U four fold
97. The work functions of metals A and B in the ratio 1:2. If the light of frequencies f and 2f are incident on metal surface of A and B respectively, the ratio of maximum kinetic energies of photoelectrons emitted is (f is greater than threshold frequency of A and 2f is greater than threshold frequency of B)10 1:1 2) 1:2 3) 1:3 4) 1:4
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Sr MEDICON EAMCET GRAND TEST Date : 30-10-1398. The number of half life periods elapsed before which 93.75% of radioactive sample has
decayed1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
99. 1 gm of hydrogen is converted into 0.993 gm of Helium in a Thermonuclear reaction. The energy released is
1) 2) 3) 4)
100. For a transistor to work as an amplifier1) Its emitter Junction is in reverse bias and collector Junction is in forward bias2) The transistor must have breakdown region3) Its emitter Junction is in forward bias and collector Junction is in reverse bias4) Its emitter and collector Junctions are in forward bias
101. The output (X) of the logic circuit shown in figure will be
1) 2) 3) 4)
102. Assertion (A): The maximum range of coverage by the ground wave propagation is limited up to a few M Hz.
Reason (R):The attenuation of ground wave increases very rapidly with frequency1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true R is not correct explanation of A3) A is true but R is false 4) Both A and R wrong
103. Two charges 12 and - 6 are separated by a distance of 20 cm. The net electric
potential is zero on the line joining them
1) At a distance of 6.7 cm from - 6 in between the changes
2) At a distance of 0.2 m from - 6 outside the changes
3) Both of the above 4) None of the above
104. The electric field in a region of space is given by . The electric flux due to this
field through an area lying YZ plane, in Si units, is
1) 10 2) 20 3) 4)
105. If the effective capacity between x and y is ‘c’ in the given circuit, the capacity of condenser ‘P’ is
1)1C 2) 2C 3) 3C 4) 4C
106. If an electron revolves in the circular path of radius at a frequency of
cycles/sec, the equivalent electric current is1) 0.4mA 2) 0.8mA 3) 1.2mA 4) 1.6mA
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Sr MEDICON EAMCET GRAND TEST Date : 30-10-13107. When a resistor of 11 ohm is connected in series with an electric cell the current flowing
in it is 0.5A. Instead, when a resistor of 5 ohm is connected to the same electric cell in series, the current increases by 0.4A. The internal resistance of cell is1) 1.5 2) 2.5 3) 2 4) 3.5
108. When an unknown resistance and a resistance 6 are connected in the left and right gaps of a meter bridge, the balancing point is obtained at 50 cm. If 3 resistance is connected in parallel to resistance in right gap, balance point1) Decreases by 25 cm 2) Increases by 25 cm3) Decreases by 16.7 cm 4) Increases by 16.7 cm
109. In an experiment to determine the internal resistance of a cell with potentiometer, the balancing length is 165 cm. When a resistance of 5 ohm is joined in parallel with the cell the balancing length is 150 cm. The internal resistance of the cell is1) 2.2 ohm 2) 1.1 ohm 3) 3.3 ohm 4) 0.5 ohm
110. Match the following List – I List – IIa)Fleming’s left hand rule e) direction of induced currentb) Right hand thumb rule f) Magnitude and direction of magnetic
inductionc) Biot savart’s law g) Direction of force due to magnetic
inductiond) Fleming’s right hand rule h) direction of magnetic lines due to current1) a-g, b-e, c-f, d-h 2) a-g, b-h, c-f, d-e 3) a-f, b-h, c-g, d-e 4) a-h, b-g, c-e, d-f
111. A proton, a deuteron and an -particle whose kinetic Energies are same enter at right angles to a uniform magnetic field. The ratio of the radii of their circular paths is
1) 2) 3) 1:2:1 4) 2:2:1
112. To convent a 800mv range voltmeter of resistance 40 into a milli ammeter of 100mA range, the resistance to be connected as shunt is1) 10 2) 5 3) 2.5 4) 1
113. A circular coil of radius 2R is carrying current ‘I’. The ratio of magnetic fields at the
centre of coil and at a point at a distance 6R from the centre of the coil on the axis of coil
is
1) 10 2) 3) 4)
114. The flux linked with a coil at any instant ‘t’ is given by . The induced
EMF at t = 3 sec is
1) -190 V 2) -10 V 3) 10 V 4) 190 V
115. A copper disc of radius 0.1 m is rotated about its natural axis with 10rps in a uniform
magnetic field of 0.1 T with its plane perpendicular to the field. The EMF induced
across the radius of the disc is
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1) V 2) V 3) V 4) V
116. A transformer has 1500 turns in the primary coil and 1125 turns in the secondary coil. If
the voltage in the primary coil is 200V, then the voltage in secondary coil is
1) 100 V 2) 150 V 3) 200 V 4) 250 V
117. An alternating current is given by I = . The rms current will be
1) 2) 3) 4)
118. In a series L-C-R circuit the voltage across resistance, capacitance and inductance is
40V, 80V, and 40V respectively. Then the voltage across A.C source is
1) 2) 3) 80 V 4)
119. For a series L-C-R circuit, The impedance of the circuit and phase
difference between voltage and current will be
1) 2) 3) 4)
120. The time varying electric and magnetic fields in space
1) Produce EM wave which is propagated with a velocity less than velocity of light
2) Do not produce EM wave
3) Produce EM wave which propagates with a velocity greater than velocity of light
4) Produce EM waves which propagates with the velocity of light
CHEMISTRY
121. 0.2 percent solution of phenol is a1) Antiseptic 2) Disinfectant 3) Antibiotic 4) Antifertility drug
122. List – I List – IIA) Retinol I) ScurvyB) Nicotinamide II) XerophthalmiaC) Biotin III) ParalysisD) Ascorbic acid IV) Burning feet
V) PellagraThe correct match is
A B C D A B C D1) II V IV I 2) II V III I3) I IV III I 4) I III IV I
123. The water soluble carbohydrate which can’t reduce Tollen’s reagent is1) Sucrose 2) Starch 3) Cellulose 4) All
124. The alloy used to reduce nitrites or nitrates to is
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1) German silver 2) Gun metal 3) Devardas alloy 4) Aluminum Bronze125. The oxyacid of chlorine with highest Cl-O bond energy is
1) 2) 3) 4)
126. The ratio of bonds in respectively
1) 1:1 2) 1:2 3) 2 : 1 4) 2 : 3127. The slag formed in the extraction of iron from haematite is
1) 2) 3) 4)
128. Assertion (A): Rate constant increases in the presence of catalyst.Reason (R): In the presence of catalyst reaction changes from high threshold energy path to low threshold energy path1) Both A and R are true and R explains A 2) Both A and R are true but R doesn't explain A3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
129. = 0.337V. At which concentration of its reduction potential will become
0.277v.1) 0.1 2) 0.01 3) 0.05 M 4) 0.5M
130. The coordination number of sodium metal in its lattice is1) 12 2) 8 3) 6 4) 3
131. Among the following which has lowest freezing point
1) 1.0m urea 2) 0.01 m NaCl 3) 0.01m 4) 0.1m
132. Which of the following can undergo aldol condensation but does not respond for Haloform test.
1) 2) 3) 4)
133. Among the following which will give acetic acid on oxidation with acidified ?
1) IV, V, VI 2) I, II, III 3) III, IV, V 4)All134. Which of the following is a condensation and copolymer
1) Nylon-6 2) Teflon 3) Buna-s 4) Bakelite
135. For coagulation of negatively charged , among the following electrolytes which
one is most effective
1) 2) 3) 4)
136. The complexes and can be identified by
I) II) III)
1) I only 2) II only 3) I & III 4) I and II137. Assertion (A): Argenitite is leached with the solution of NaCN in the presence of air
Reason (R): of air oxidises to and prevents the reverse reaction
1) Both A and R are true and R explains A
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2) Both A and R are true but R doesn't explain A3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
138. If the molar solubility of a sparingly soluble salt is ‘a’ mole/lit, then the solubility
product of is
1) 2) 3) 4)
139. The correct sequence of reactions involved in the nitration of aniline are repectively1) Acylation, nitration, hydrolysis 2) Hydrolysis, acylation, nitration3) Alkylation, hydrolysis, nitration 4) Alkylation, nitration, hydrolysis
142. In natural rubber, the isoprene units are joined by1) Head to head by 1,4 links 2) tail to tail by 1,4 links3) head to tail by 1,4 links 4) head to tail by 1,3 links
143. X-rays of wavelength equal to 0.134nm gives first order diffraction from the surface of a
crystal when the value of is .The distance between the planes in the crystal
parallel to the surface is
1) 0.368 nm 2) 0.184 nm 3) 0.726 nm 4) 0.92 nm
144.
Correct statements among the following
I) A is II) A is
III) P is IV) P is
1) only I and III 2) only II and IV 3) only I and IV 4) only II and III145. Coloumn – I Coloumn– II
150. The following graph represents a first order reaction
151. The degree of dissociation of a weak electrolyte, is related to vant Hoff factor (i) by the expression
1) 2) 3) 4)
152. Correct statement is
1) Xe is hybridised in 2) Shape of is trigonal planar
3) is formed in first excited state of Xe
4) Central atom of has no lone pairs
153. Which of the following represents the correct graph for physical adsorption
Sri Chaitanya Page 15
Vijayawada
Sr MEDICON EAMCET GRAND TEST Date : 30-10-13
154. The reaction products follows first order kinetics. In 40 minutes the concentration of ‘X’ changes from 0.1M to 0.025M. Then the rate of the reaction when the concentration of ‘X’ is 0.01M.
1) 2) 3) 4)
155. When electrons are used in the electrolysis of a metallic salt, 1.9 gm of the metal is
deposited at the cathode. The atomic weight of the metal is 57. So the oxidation state of the metal in the salt is1) +2 2) +3 3) +1 4) +4
156. In a cubic packed structure of mixed oxides the lattice is made up of oxide ions, one fifth of tetrahedral voids are occupied by ‘X’ ions. While one half of the octahedral voids are occupied by ‘Y’ ions. Then the formula of oxide will be
1) 2) 3) 4)
157. obeys EAN rule. Value of ‘X’ is
1) 5 2) 10 3) 6 4) 4158. Which of the following is not formed when Ethanal and propanal are heated in presence
