INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES :Read the following instructions before you answerthe questions. Answers are to be given in aSEPARATE OMR ANSWER SHEET providedinside this booklet. Break the seal and startanswering the questions once asked to do so.
1. Please write your ROLL NUMBER veryclearly (only one digit in one block) as given inyour Admission Card.
2. There are 100 questions in this test. Thequestions are arranged in the following order :• Questions 1 to 40 belong to Science
Subjects.• Questions 41 to 60 are on Mathematics
Subjects.• Questions 61 to 100 are on Social Science.
3. Select the most suitable answer for eachquestion and completely darken the circlecorresponding to the correct alternative asshown below.
4. All questions carry ONE MARK each.5. There is no negative mark. Every correct
answer will be awarded one mark.6. Do not write your name on any part of the
question booklet or on the answer sheet.
STATE COUNCIL OF EDUCATIONAL RESEARCH AND TRAINING
STATE LEVEL NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION – 2017Class – XPart – I
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)
Time : 90 Minutes Maximum Marks : 100
Roll Number
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Correct Method Wrong Method
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
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1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
SCERT 2017
The copyright of the contents of this booklet rests with the SCERT and no part of it should be used byanybody in any manner whatsoever without the prior permission of the SCERT. The items are preparedwith best expertise. In case of any dispute the opinion of the experts appointed by SCERT will be final.
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M-1
Class – X SAT
DO
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M-1 P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
There are 100 questions in all. For each
question four alternative answers are given
marked as (1), (2), (3), (4). From these, find
the most appropriate answer. The number
denoting this answer is there in the answer
sheet against the question number concerned.
Darken the circle with Blue/Black Ball Pen
only. Record the answers thus in the OMR
answer sheet only. Do not write anything in
the question booklet except your Roll Number
on the cover page and rough work in the
space provided for the purpose.
1. Identify the wrongly matched pairs.
a. Monocyte – Activelyphagocytic
b. Thrombocyte – Producesantibodies
c. Lymphocyte – Initiates bloodclotting
d. Eosinophil – Associated withallergy
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) (c) and (d)
2. The bacteria used for scavenging oil
spills by digesting hydrocarbons of
crude oil
(1) Rhizobium meliloti
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Pseudomonas putida
(4) Escherichia Coli
-1-
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(1), (2), (3), (4)����5�$�3�=�� �$���8
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���$�$����HI#���5���$�J���$����)$
� ����'�0�����%�9:�� �� ���.���
����� ��8� �&�5���� ����� �������
�'%�9:�����5���$�#A �� ����5�DK�&
# $%� �+�$�1� L��� �0�� �0�$�>�M
�.�=���%� ������&����'� OMR ���
������� (���'� ��)!$� � %� �������
5���$�L���F��#���0J�&����3���� �.��
�����/� .N�#����� �#'�����G�33�O8
5����33���.�=����(�������I������������%
1. ��I�$�0��J�P��������@����%
a. ����*��� I – N��>��� I���$��,0#� ����
b. �,����L��� I Q )F��L�P����&=���=����
c. 8���N��� I – �7���G�0����� ?�$����
d. 9: ����N�& – 58�J�$���$�LR�=G������
(1) (a) $���(b) $��(2) (b) $���(c)�$��(3) (a) $���(d) $��(4) (c) $���(d) $��
2. ,�2�P�$�8��8���?�,P�����L*���3� �?�=�M�� ���'��C����M$�����#A �$����0�$�>����L�S-��$(1) ����������� �� ���
(2) ��������������������
(3) ��������������������
(4) ��������������
M-1
Class – X SAT
-2-
3. �T�L-J�0,�� � ��F�8;*�����@����%(1) 98��� ��T�0���T-$��*(2) 0,��B���8���##�B�#&��M�G�D
(3) �T��-$�#3�M���*����#����
(4) �#?�#�?������U���5�@#$�*
4. �:�E�>#���$��LR�=G����$D� �,0<�#��H��V(1) �,���� ��� �U��$��:�E�>�0����$�$����.W���%
(2) L-�J�&= �� �$ �*�:�E�>�������%
(3) �:�E�>�� I ���$������ �'0�,������������'�����%
(4) ,��E�> ��� �����*��:�E�>���I
5. J80��>*����*���� ��(1) !�����"�� (2) ���3�(3) �0$� (4) �#� ���
6. ������������#$�&����#�$���$��LR��D� ����V(1) ��*0��(2) 5�B#A ������8���(3) ���X�$(4) ��*��3�
7. (��� #�� �1��8�����,��
�B������5O� R�
(1) #�J�>���� R�
(2) �>�3� R�
(3) ������-���� R�
(4) �-8� R�
3. Pickout the feature of dicot plant.
(1) Leaves are isobilateral
(2) Mesophyll is undifferentiated
(3) Roots show secondary growth
(4) Vascular bundles are closed
4. Which is NOT TRUE about Meiosis ?
(1) Meiosis reduces the number of
chromosomes to half
(2) Meiosis occurs during
gametogenesis
(3) Meiosis I results in two daughter
cells
(4) Meiosis I is similar to Mitosis
5. The plant that shows hydrophily
(1) Vallisneria (2) Maize
(3) Pea (4) Rafflesia
6. Which one of the following is NOT
associated with the process of hearing ?
(1) Tympanum
(2) Semicircular canals
(3) Cochlea
(4) Auditory canal
7. The skeletal joint that enablesmovement in only one direction is
(1) Hinge joint
(2) Ball and socket joint
(3) Gliding joint
(4) Pivot joint
M-1 P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
-3-
8. ��.�L�� ����3�������Y�* �&�(���,0B���0K�#?�����2X�$ ��F�E�>�(1) �,����I���J�8��(2) ��2X�$��� �+���(3) ��2X��$�Z� �(4) ��2X��$�8
9. N�> ����>��H��V
(1) 5�8I �N2G
(2) �[
(3) 5\��0��
(4) �0#�+L�B
10. ,0��� ��]+* ��8�9��'^G#���$��LR�=G� ,0<�#������' ��%a. �, _��$�&������b. ATP �'�����c. `2�� ��'�����d. (��a�J�� T�,[������
(1) (a) $���(b) $��(2) (b) $��� (c) $��(3) (a) $����(c) $��(4) (b) $����(d) $��
11. J��0�� ��F�E�>��� 2��=����(�0+��H��V
(1) 0��>��*�/��[���/5b��$�/���2L���2X�$
(2) ,B�#���Y��/�0��>*�O8�/(�#�2�/�J���b
(3) J���b/� �� ��/� 0��>*O8�/�J��.I-#���Y�
(4) 5b��$�/�0��>�/��[���/,B�#���Y��
8. The part of the nucleus that plays amajor role in the synthesis of ribosomes
(1) Chromatin reticulum
(2) Nuclear pore
(3) Nucleoplasm
(4) Nucleolus
9. Which is a fungal disease ?
(1) Athlete’s foot
(2) Filariasis
(3) Measles
(4) Rabies
10. Identify the statements related to dark
reaction of photosynthesis.
a. Takes place in the stroma
b. Formation of ATP
c. Formation of glucose
d. Evolution of oxygen
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (b) and (d)
11. Which option indicates the parts ofgynoecium ?
(1) Pollen grain, filament, ovary, tubenucleus
(2) Polar nuclei, stigma, ovule, style
(3) Style, stamen, stigma, generativenucleus
(4) Ovary, anther, filament, polar nuclei
M-1
Class – X SAT
-4-
12. 8�S��� ) �P� �N����F+����$��LR�=G����$D� ����V(1) ,0c��^G����`��3� � �*(2) `2�� �#�^����02�C������D
(3) �' ATP �d�,������,��8E����
(4) ���Le��P(���� P���0�.[1���
13. ���3��I ������3��II ��������0����� �������������#$�&������ ���$�$� (�0+�����@����%
��*'�– I ��*'�– IIa. ?#� ��T� i. ��?#�����$8��b. ?�E�J��T� ii. ��#�&�#3���
9 ��c. 0�J-#�� iii. 02#�����,���8E#��d. 0��E�J�� iv. )&�� �&
#3������#��(1) a – iv b – iii c – i d – ii(2) a – iii b – iv c – ii d – i(3) a – ii b – i c – iv d – iii(4) a – iii b – iv c – i d – ii
14. ��8=�&���� �����>�E��$� �K���=������ ?�$����?�����e(1) ��& ����*��(2) ����.��a��(3) (��a���� ��(4) #�� �,0 ��
15. (��� �L��a��F� 53#���10 cm × 11.2 cm × 10 cm. )*%1atm ��� �&� 273 K �:+f�#�&���$�e�#�����9:� �L��a�&��.M�����$��*��������%9:� �L��a�&��,��98�,S�*��3�$�������'�$������V(1) 6.022 × 1023 (2) 3.011 × 1023
(3) 6.022 × 1022 (4) 3.011 × 1022
12. Which is NOT TRUE about lactic acidfermentation ?
(1) Glycolysis is the initial phase
(2) Glucose is broken down incompletely
(3) Only two ATP molecules aregenerated
(4) Carbon dioxide is liberated
13. Match the items in Column – I with
Column – II and select the correct
option from those given below.
Column – I Column – IIa. Mutualism i. Lion and Rabbitb. Commensalism ii. Loranthus on
Mango treec. Parasitism iii. Flower and
Butterflyd. Predation iv. Vanda on Ficus
tree(1) a – iv b – iii c – i d – ii(2) a – iii b – iv c – ii d – i(3) a – ii b – i c – iv d – iii
(4) a – iii b – iv c – i d – ii
14. The hormone that promotes lactation
and stimulates the uterus to contract
(1) Calcitonin (2) Thyroxine
(3) Oxytocin (4) Vasopressin
15. A box measures 10 cm × 11.2 cm × 10 cm.
Assume that this box is filled with neon
gas at 1 atm pressure and 273 K
temperature. How many electrons will
be there in the box ?
(1) 6.022 × 1023 (2) 3.011 × 1023
(3) 6.022 × 1022 (4) 3.011 × 1022
M-1 P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
-5-
16. �N�2��� �P��F����Y�* ���0�$�>���� ��,0,��$$���� �,0B���^G��*�������� ������%2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) + ��0������ �����#$�&� ��,0,��$W�5���28��$#�H����$�*�VA) 2 atm ���#���450°C �:+f�#��B) SO2 /O2 ���#��-���g���
C) V2O5 �&�,0����$�� �0�$�>����
D) SO3 �-����g������$�$������@����%(1) (A) and (B)
(2) (A), (B) and (C)
(3) (B), (C) and (D)
(4) (A), (C) and (D)
17. ��������� ������>*�3�&�H���8��$�*� �T�LR����� ,��LR������1��d�,�����1��VA. H2, Br2, H2O, NH3
B. F2, O2, CO2, Cl2C. CO2, N2, H2, NH3
D. NH3, Cl2, CH4, CCl4
(1) (A) and (C) (2) (B) and (C)
(3) (A) and (D) (4) (B) and (D)
18. ���=��)I ��F� d- L�+D�8�1�98�,S�*��3�����C�
(1) 3 (2) 9
(3) 10 (4) 8
16. The key step for the manufacture ofsulphuric acid by contact process isgiven below.
2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) + heat
Which of the following are favourable
for the contact process ?
A. Pressure of 2 atm and temperature
of about 450°C
B. Removal of SO2 and O2
C. Use of V2O5 as catalyst
D. Removal of SO3
Choose the correct alternative.
(1) (A) and (B)
(2) (A), (B) and (C)
(3) (B), (C) and (D)
(4) (A), (C) and (D)
17. Which of the following sets containmolecules with double or triple bonds ?
A. H2, Br2, H2O, NH3
B. F2, O2, CO2, Cl2C. CO2, N2, H2, NH3
D. NH3, Cl2, CH4, CCl4(1) (A) and (C)
(2) (B) and (C)
(3) (A) and (D)
(4) (B) and (D)
18. The number of electrons present ind-subshell of copper atom
(1) 3 (2) 9
(3) 10 (4) 8
M-1
Class – X SAT
-6-
19. �����0��������%a. �C���������� i. ����L�*��
) �Pb. )?���������2�����ii. �����.���) �P 2;������
c. 5=��� � iii. �,����) �Pd. 0��-$�3��������#�"�=������ iv. �L�.���) �P
v. (�� �8��) �P
���$�$������@����%(1) a – iv b – iii c – ii d – i(2) a – iii b – ii c – v d – iv(3) a – iv b – iii c – ii d – v(4) a – v b – iii c – ii d – i
20. �������� �����#$�&H��*� �$�7 ��F� IUPAC�����V
− − − −
3 3
3 2 3
2 5
CH CH| |
CH CH CH CH CH|
C H
(1) 3 – 9:��c&�– 2, 3 –��P�-��c&��0�F$�
(2) 3 – 9:��c&�– 2, 3 –��P�-��c&��?�� $�
(3) 3 – 9:��c&�– 3, 4 –��P�-��c&��0�F$�
(4) 3 – 9:��c&�– 3, 4 –��P�-��c&��?�� $�
21. ,��#��5���*�$�/���=��3��� -&���.����������$��5#�$�*�=����%���������� �����#$�&� H�� ��$���*9#����,0�$�>�M�������V(1) �L�$�&���$��(2) ��� ���$��(3) 5#>��,P����$��(4) ,>?�����$��
19. Match the following :
a. Eye wash i. Carbonic acid
b. Food preservation ii. Tartaric acid
c. Baking powder iii. Citric acid
d. Flavouring drinks iv. Boric acid
v. Oxalic acid
Select the correct alternative.
(1) a – iv b – iii c – ii d – i
(2) a – iii b – ii c – v d – iv
(3) a – iv b – iii c – ii d – v
(4) a – v b – iii c – ii d – i
20. Which of the following is the IUPACname of the compound ?
3 3
3 2 3
52
CH CH| |
CH CH CH CH CH|C H
− − − −
(1) 3 – Ethyl – 2, 3 – dimethyl pentane
(2) 3 – Ethyl – 2, 3 – dimethyl hexane
(3) 3 – Ethyl – 3, 4 – dimethyl pentane
(4) 3 – Ethyl – 3, 4 – dimethyl hexane
21. Liquid ammonia bottles are cooled
before opening the seal. Which of the
following laws is applied here ?
(1) Boyle’s law
(2) Charle’s law
(3) Avogadro’s law
(4) Graham’s law
M-1 P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
-7-
22. O����[�����Y��#��� �0�$�>���� �8�? K� ��8^���3�*
(1) Fe, Cr, Ni and C
(2) Fe, Co, Ni and Al
(3) Fe, Ni, Cu and C
(4) Fe, Cu, Cr and C
23. �������� �����#$�&���$�$#�H����$�*�V
A. (���0��-P�&�9� ��������#8� �5�$�*-��*��:�h��2����
B. (���,>2=�&������#�������.��5�I�����#8�=����.$���
C. (��� 0��-P�&�9� �� �����#8� � �8�?-$� TE�#���.$���
D. (���,>2=�&�������#������.��98�,S����>I�#�I���2����
���$�$������@����%
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (A) and (D)
(3) (B) and (D) (4) (A) and (C)
24. C4H8 ��� �$�7�� ,0���=������� ���.� �
(1) ��$������ ���.� ����,��
(2) ��$��� ��� ���.� #���0� �+����� ���.� #��
(3) �0� �+�� ��� ���.� ���,��
(4) Ni+*&� ��� ���.� ���,��
22. The components of the alloy used for
making permanent magnets
(1) Fe, Cr, Ni and C
(2) Fe, Co, Ni and Al
(3) Fe, Ni, Cu and C
(4) Fe, Cu, Cr and C
23. Which of the following are true ?
A. Ionisation energy increases from
left to right across a period
B. Atomic size decreases on going
down a group
C. Metallic character decreases from
left to right across a period
D. Electronegativity increases on
going down a group
Choose the correct alternative.
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (A) and (D)
(3) (B) and (D) (4) (A) and (C)
24. Type of isomerism exhibited by the
compound C4H8
(1) Chain isomerism only
(2) Chain isomerism and position
isomerism
(3) Position isomerism only
(4) Functional isomerism only
M-1
Class – X SAT
-8-
25. �������� �����#$�&H���-��$�*�>8-�����5$����F� �,j-��* ���0�$�>�����V(1) �,N� ��Nk��G+�(2) ��[����#�����&(3) 8-M��>(4) E2>����T��#�����&��-��
26. 11.6 ,>���L�2�G$��02�C��$��JT8�������#����$�(��a�J�F���3��3�����C�
(1) 6.5 ���� O2 (2) 11.6 ���� O2
(3) 13 ���� O2 (4) 1.3 ���� O2
27. ���>�- � P�$�� �� P��?�,P��X�.���) �P���$�,0#� ������� �'����#����
(1) Cl2 (2) O2
(3) H2 (4) H2O
28. ����=.$��#$�&����e��#��=* ��8�#�W�����f�$�$�#���-������# ��H��V(1) ��=* ��F�#,�����,j �82���������0�����0�����f�,0��0��M�#,���� ��,j �82���������������0�����%
(2) ��=* ��F�#,������,j �82����0�����0�����f�� ,0��0��M���N� �&��2����0�����%
(3) �N� �&� �2��� �0����0�����f��,0��0��M���U�5; ��� ��[���$���0�����%
(4) ��U�5; ���� ��[���$��0�����0����f�� ,0��0��M
�N� �&��2����0�����%
25. Which of the following methods isused for the concentration of the oregalena ?
(1) Froth floatation
(2) Magnetic separation
(3) Leaching
(4) Gravity separation method
26. The number of moles of O2 requiredfor the complete combustion of 11.6 gof butane
(1) 6.5 mol O2 (2) 11.6 mol O2
(3) 13 mol O2 (4) 1.3 mol O2
27. The gas produced when manganese
dioxide is treated with hydrochloric
acid
(1) Cl2 (2) O2
(3) H2 (4) H2O
28. Which of the following does NOTdescribe a ray that can be drawn fora concave mirror ?
(1) An incident ray through the centreof curvature, reflecting right backthrough the centre of curvature
(2) An incident ray through the centreof curvature, reflecting through thefocal point
(3) An incident ray through the focalpoint, reflecting parallel to theprincipal axis
(4) An incident ray parallel to theprincipal axis, reflecting through thefocal point
M-1 P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
-9-
29. ������������ ��I#��&P,Q ��-�L�j����$�8�1
�0�G�+���#���� ���,�$�*��V
P
2A
6Ω
3Ω
2.5Ω
Q
6Ω
(1) 8 V (2) 35 V
(3) 1 V (4) 7 V
30. �� ����5��O������������������,0<�#��3�&���I�$��H��V(1) E2��$�&��D�$�� ����� O����$�����
(2) �� ��F�SI $2*�I��kg )����%(3) (��� #<�#��F� �� � , l��>L�8� ��0�$�>�M�53��
(4) �� �(���5��O���53#�*
31. #���m���0B����$����SI
$2*�I�*
(1) Jkg–1K–1 (2) Calkg–1
(3) Jkg–1 (4) CalkgK–1
32. (��� ,��� �N��.��8� ��,0�.����$�8��8$���� F.�����$�8��8$�����I��3�����C��$c�,���� 5 ��� 4 ���)*%� ��,0�.����$�8�&� 240 V �&��$�&��,0�.�����$�8��8$���� F.����$�8��8$����.F��F�5��0���
(1) 5 : 4 (2) 5 : 10
(3) 4 : 5 (4) 8 : 12
29. The potential difference between thepoints P and Q for the given network is
P
2A
6Ω
3Ω
2.5Ω
Q
6Ω
(1) 8 V (2) 35 V
(3) 1 V (4) 7 V
30. Which of the following statementsabout mass is false ?
(1) Mass remains constant at any placeon the Earth
(2) SI Unit of mass is kg
(3) Mass of an object can be measuredusing spring balance
(4) Mass is a fundamental quantity
31. The SI Unit of specific heat capacity
of a substance is
(1) Jkg–1K–1 (2) Calkg–1
(3) Jkg–1 (4) CalkgK–1
32. In a transformer the number of turnsof primary coil and secondary coil are5 and 4 respectively. If 240 V isapplied to the primary coil, the ratioof current in primary coil andsecondary coil is
(1) 5 : 4 (2) 5 : 10
(3) 4 : 5 (4) 8 : 12
M-1
Class – X SAT
-10-
33. P�$�P� �N���#P�L$ �&^��=�M������� �-G���' ��%
(1)
D B
(2)
D B
(3)
D B
(4)
D B
34. 100g �� �1� (��� #<�� 5m/s,0���E� �#> �&� ���3��8�.�$���%� #<�� ���3��8�0����� �$��E2>����T���+*L8����$n�,0#A ���,�$�*�V(1) 1.25 J (2) 0.5 J(3) – 0.5 J (4) – 1.25 J
33. Identify the circuit in which the diodeis forward biased.
(1)
D B
(2)
D B
(3)
D B
(4)
D B
34. A particle of mass 100 g is thrownvertically upwards at an initial speedof 5 m/s. The work done by the forceof gravity during the time the particlegoes up is
(1) 1.25 J (2) 0.5 J
(3) – 0.5 J (4) – 1.25 J
M-1 P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
-11-
35. ��o8�#O$�8�1� (��� 0�$#\�$�&�5��&� ���� �.=�M�G�1� (���N���&�������I5�����%�#\�(1) �-����D(2) ��I��.����(3) ��I��M����$�&��-����(4) ��I��M���F������ ���$�&�-����
36. (����=8�&����������5$W����p �>�8����2s�����+��������� ���%���8��F�)���*���%(J8 �&��p ��F��#>�1.5 km/s)(1) 3 km (2) 150 m(3) 300 m (4) 1.5 km
37. E2>����T���+*��9D� �(��?�3�&��2���$�&� (��� �� ��2L� ��G��9G������%� �� ����������5�(1) ���L�&�)�A�����8��� ��(2) �>�3��A��$��8���.��(3) ?�3��F��.$��8�#-���(4) �$�����0����
38. �&����'��� �$�(���`� �.�P� (��� 98�,S� ���=��� �-0 ��#W�����(1) �3�3�&� �,0�*�� �28��1��>I-#����J�,��-������
(2) �3�3�&�(����������J���,0�*����g�=��D
(3) �0� �I-#����J�(����3 �8����I��3 �&���>I-#����J���,0�*����g�=����
(4) �3�3�&� �,0�*�� �28��1�0� �I-#� ���J� ,��-������
35. On a stationary sail boat air is blownfrom a fan attached to the boat. Theboat will(1) Not move(2) Spin around(3) Move in the direction in which air is
blown(4) Move in the direction opposite to
that in which air is blown
36. Sound signals were sent down froma ship return after 2s. Find out thedepth of the sea, if the speed of soundin water is 1.5 km/s ?
(1) 3 km (2) 150 m
(3) 300 m (4) 1.5 km
37. An ice cube is suspended in vacuum
in a gravity free hall. As the ice melts it
(1) Will retain its cubical shape
(2) Will change its shape to spherical
(3) Will fall down on the floor of the hall
(4) Will fly up
38. When a glass rod rubbed with silk isbrought near the cap of anelectroscope, then
(1) The leaf has an induced negativecharge
(2) No charge is induced on the leaves
(3) Positive charge is induced on oneleaf and negative charge on theother leaf
(4) The leaf has an induced positivecharge
M-1
Class – X SAT
-12-
39. ������������#$�&� ��#>� 2��=����,>�N�H��V
40. (���)���1�(���9������L�3��(��������L�3����2���$�&� h �$� �&�����#-����%� �'����.$��8 ��������� �$�(1) H��������8���*
(2) ��8���*(3) ��8��D
(4) E2�B���U$�&���,�����8���*
39. Which one of the following graphsshown below represents uniformspeed ?
(1)
time
dis
tanc
e
(2)
time
velo
city
(3)
time
dist
ance
(4)
time
velo
city
40. An iron ball and a wooden ball ofsame radius are released from aheight h in vacuum. The time takenby both of them to reach the groundare
(1) Roughly equal
(2) Exactly equal
(3) Not equal
(4) Equal only at the equator
�2��
↑ ↑
→ → �$�
→
↑
↑
→
→
↑
�$�
�$�
�$�
→
→
→
,0�#>�
↑
�2��
↑
,0�#>�
↑
M-1 P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
-13-
41. 18, 24, 30, 42 9#�����'D��
?��M�&�(�����m��1 ������m�
��G���HI#��� ��.�$� �U�
�[�*�V
(1) 2519 (2) 2520
(3) 2521 (4) 2522
42. 256 �F��D��^���3���$��
�����[�*�V
(1) 511 (2) 512
(3) 1023 (4) 1024
43. 5�� �� ��'��C& �U�
�3����#�>�3����#���� ��101
)*%� 9:� �U��3���� ���
�[�*�V
(1) 102 (2) 101
(3) 100 (4) 99
44. �'�� �U��3�������� 40 � ��/
#���� �� 10 ���)*%� �U�
�3����>�*�N8���[�*�V
(1) 325 (2) 350
(3) 375 (4) 400
45. (��� ��[��!*�$����5q���0��
5 ��/�)��� �5 0��3�������
55 ���)*%��!*�$����)���
0����[�*�V
(1) 15 (2) 16
(3) 17 (4) 18
41. What is the smallest number which
leaves the same remainder 1 on
division by 18, 24, 30, 42 ?
(1) 2519 (2) 2520
(3) 2521 (4) 2522
42. What is the sum of all factors of 256 ?
(1) 511 (2) 512
(3) 1023 (4) 1024
43. The difference of the squares of two
consecutive natural numbers is 101.
What is the sum of the numbers ?
(1) 102 (2) 101
(3) 100 (4) 99
44. The sum of two numbers is 40 and
their difference is 10. What is their
product ?
(1) 325 (2) 350
(3) 375 (4) 400
45. The 5th term of an arithmetic sequence
is 5 and the sum of the first 5 terms is
55. What is its first term ?
(1) 15 (2) 16
(3) 17 (4) 18
M-1
Class – X SAT
-14-
46. (��� ��[��!*�$����)��� 110��3�������$��/�)��� 17 0��3�������$�����8���*%)��� � 28 � 0��3���� ����$[�*�V
(1) 28 (2) 1
(3) –1 (4) 0
47. (�����K�&��#1����.W����'����8��3�'%� �'�����8��3����.���#M�&/�1�*�2�����'��K���.$��%���.�$����&���,����.���#M�&/� ��K� ��.$���2��� �*�2�� �#*�%� #8�$���&���,�����.���#M�&/���K��.$����,���*�2���#*��V
(1) 2
(2) 1½
(3) 1 13
(4) 1¼
48. 2 3 10 10
1 1 1 1 1...
3 3 3 3 2 3+ + + + +
× ���
���� �*��$�&� ��G�� �U���[�*�V
(1) 1
(2)23
(3)12
(4)13
46. The sum of the first 11 terms and the
sum of the first 17 terms of an
arithmetic sequence are equal. What
is the sum of the first 28 terms ?
(1) 28 (2) 1
(3) –1 (4) 0
47. There are two taps to fill a tank. If both
are opened, the tank fills in 1 hour. If
the smaller tap alone is opened, it
takes 3 hours to fill the tank. How
many hours will it take to fill the tank,
if the larger tap alone is opened ?
(1) 2
(2) 1½
(3) 1 13
(4) 1¼
48. What is the number you get on
s i m p l i f y i n g t h e s u m
2 3 10 10
1 1 1 1 1...
3 3 3 3 2 3+ + + + +
× ?
(1) 1
(2)23
(3)12
(4)13
M-1 P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
-15-
49.x x 1 1
x 1 x x(x 1)++ −
+ + �8^2���
M�&���G�����[�*�V
(1) 2 (2)12
(3) 2x (4)12
x
50. ��,� �&� (��� �G,�����*#��5����1�&� (��� �����#��#�M������%
����� ��F�(���#� ��F�-3���,�$�*�V
(1) 3 (2) 2(3) 2 (4) 1
51. �'�� �U��3���� ���$��/
5#$����#�>�3����#���� #��
10 ���$�*%�9#$��8�#8�$
�U���[�*�V
(1) 4
(2) 4½
(3) 5
(4) 5½
49. What do we get on simplifying the
expression x x 1 1
x 1 x x(x 1)++ −
+ + ?
(1) 2 (2)12
(3) 2x (4)12
x
50 The figure shows a right triangle and
a square inside it.
What is the length of a side of the square ?
(1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 2 (4) 1
51. The sum of two numbers and the
difference of their squares are both 10.
What is the larger of these two numbers ?
(1) 4
(2) 4½
(3) 5
(4) 5½
1� %�-
2� %�-
M-1
Class – X SAT
-16-
52. 1 ���&� 6 #��� �U���3����$
�'��0������(��M� ���G���%
(��&�(I �U�$��/� ��I���&
�2���F� >�*��#��� #����1
�B����[�*�V
(1)16
(2)13
(3)1136
(4)1336
53. (��� #A ��8���8��L�j��
�$�J�=�M� (��� ������� #�
$���%� ����� ��F�0�=3#
4 ����!� F��-I.�*%� #A
��F� 0�=3#� �,�� ����!
� F��-I.�*�V
(1) π
(2) 2 π
(3) 2 π
(4) 4 π
52. Two dice marked with numbers 1 to 6
are rolled together. What is the
probability of getting an odd numbers
on one of these and a multiple of three
on the other ?
(1)16
(2)13
(3)1136
(4)1336
53. A square is drawn with vertices on a
circle. The area of the square is 4
square centimeters. What is the area
of the circle (in sq.cm.) ?
(1) π
(2) 2 π
(3) 2 π
(4) 4 π
M-1 P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
-17-
54. ��,� �&�#8�$� ,�����* ��8
(������*��F� �E�J�������#�
� ��'��E�>�3�����.����%
,�����* ��F��2���� �#� ��F��-3���,��� F��-I.�*��V(1) 3(2) 3.5(3) 4(4) 4.5
55. ��,� ��8� HI#��� #8�$
,�����* ��F� #���3D��
1 �-I.�*%� (����� ,�����* �
�F$���#��3�����B�L�j��
�$�J�=�M�*� 5����1��8
,�����*��#�M������%
HI#�����.�$� ,�����* ��F0�=3#��,������!�-I.�*�V
(1)23 1
4 16⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
(2)23 1
4 8⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
(3)23 1
4 2⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
(4)23 1
4 4⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
54. In the figure, the bisector of an angle
of the large triangle cuts the opposite
side into two pieces.
What is the length of the third side ofthe triangle in centimeters ?
(1) 3
(2) 3.5
(3) 4
(4) 4.5
55. In the figure, each side of the largest
triangle is 1 meter. By joining the
midpoints of the sides of each
triangle, an inner triangle is drawn.
What is the area of the smallest triangle(in sq.m.) ?
(1)23 1
4 16⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
(2)23 1
4 8⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
(3)23 1
4 2⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
(4)23 1
4 4⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
� %��-%
� %��-% � %��-%
M-1
Class – X SAT
-18-
56. ��,� �&�(��� �5mE�J ��F�2��� �28��� �$�J�=�M� (��,�����*��#�M������%
,�����* ��8�������28$��8���e��,��P�,>�$�*�V
(1) 22½ �
(2) 25 �
(3) 27½ �
(4) 30 �
57. ��,� �&� O #A ��,j#��/� A#A ��8�L�j�#���*%
AB $�����-3���,��� F��-I.�*��V(1) 1
(2) 3
(3)13
(4)3
2
56. In the figure, three vertices of a regular
octagon are joined to form a triangle.
What is the angle at the top vertex ofthe triangle ?
(1) 22½°
(2) 25°
(3) 27½°
(4) 30°
57. In the figure, O is the center of thecircle and A is a point on it.
What is the length of AB in centimeter ?
(1) 1
(2) 3
(3)13
(4)3
2
� %��-%
M-1 P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
-19-
58. ��,� ��8� ,�����* ��FHI#�����.�$�#� ��F��-3��,��� F��-I.�*�V
(1) 6 (2) 6
(3) 2 6 (4) 2 3
59. ��,� �&� Q ���L�j�#��F 2�� �U�����[�*�V
(1) (3, 2)(2) (–4, 1)
(3) ( )3 2, 2 2−
(4) (–3, 2)
60. ��,� �&� x-5; ��F� (��E�>�� #�� ��$��5�B#A �#�M������%
#�� ��F���I�5I ��F 2�� �U�����[�*�V(1) (1, 0) (2) (2, 0)
(3) ( )2,0 (4) (1½, 0)
58. In the figure below, what is the length
of the smallest side of the triangle ?
(1) 6 (2) 6
(3) 2 6 (4) 2 3
59. What are the coordinates of the pointQ in the figure below ?
(1) (3, 2)(2) (– 4, 1)
(3) ( )3 2, 2 2−
(4) (– 3, 2)
60. The figure below shows a semicircledrawn on a part of the x-axis as diameter.
What are the coordinates of the otherend of the diameter ?
(1) (1, 0) (2) (2, 0)
(3) ( )2,0 (4) (1½, 0)
� %��-%
M-1
Class – X SAT
-20-
61. ��#������G�1#�$���8>*��,�� �8���%a. �'���#���� �Y3��b. 0��- ������c. �L�r���-�0��G�d. 5���������3���3���,L�G����Y�8�1�$�" ��F�5# ���
(1) c, d, a, b (2) a, d, b, c
(3) c, a, d, b (4) a, c, d, b
62. 0����G����2I�'�����$�*5.�$�=G��V(1) �^�+�3����$�>�(2) $�7�$����$�>�(3) )�$�3����$�>�(4) ���-$�$����$�>�
63. #�$� �Y3���8 �), _�$$������� 8��)��$������V(1) ���=�3�$�(2) #�D����II(3) ��8�.�F(4) ���I�*�
64. ss�D��$�"�3������ ���$�(���$�"�tt���.�$�=G����?
(1) �'����8��$�"�
(2) ,N\�#�Z#�
(3) (�����8��$�"�
(4) 5������)E�[�$�"�
65. ��#������G�1��&��$�J�� ����V(1) ��.�����8�0��Q �>�,���8�0�(2) �-8���8�0��Q���+��8�0�(3) [����8�0��Q���+�
�����8�0�(4) �#D2��8?3�Q���0�$��8?3
61. Rearrange the following inchronological order.
a. Second Continental Congress
b. Treaty of Paris
c. Boston Tea Party
d. End of the war between Britain andthe American Colonies
(1) c, d, a, b (2) a, d, b, c
(3) c, a, d, b (4) a, c, d, b
62. The eighteenth century was called
(1) The Age of Conflict
(2) The Age of Reason
(3) The Age of Ideas
(4) The Age of Nationalism
63. Name the Chancellor of Austriaduring the Vienna Congress.
(1) Napoleon
(2) William II
(3) Tallyrand
(4) Metternich
64. Which was known as “The War to EndAll Wars” ?
(1) Second World War
(2) French Revolution
(3) First World War
(4) American Civil War
65. Which among the following is wronglyrelated ?
(1) Kurichya Revolt – Tribal Revolt
(2) Indigo Revolt – Peasant Revolt
(3) Santhal Rebellion – Peasant Rebellion
(4) Vellore Mutiny – Sepoy Mutiny
M-1 P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
-21-
66. 0G���Q� � I/�0G��Q� II����#�0�����B�M����$�$��,���=�� ��%
�+�,� I �+�,II
i. L�8�[���#� a. +�J?��
ii. 8��?�.��8 b. (:.�>� L
��� ��� J��
iii. J��� J�� c. 5�L�
iv. L��+�?���� � d. �J?��>-�
(1) i – c ii – d iii – a iv – b
(2) i – c ii – a iii – d iv – b
(3) i – a ii – d iii – c iv – b
(4) i – a ii – b iii – d iv – c
67. #-����#�,0O�� ��F�O�0��F��0�������%(1) #DE������(2) �����j�(3) ������J�(4) L #C
68. 58�#��-�� U&J�$���� E�*��8 �����3���$,[* ��F� �#����T��'�$������$�������>O�(1) # -�(2) +?�(3) #-&�9q���(4) #�8�
69. #�J$��>�� E�*��8 �9[� j���M������3�����'��H���J�����$������V(1) .+�(2) �0��G�>&(3) ),N�(4) 9I8�
66. Match List – I with List – II and selectthe correct response from the optionsgiven.
List – I List – IIi. Buland Darwaza a. Shahjahan
ii. Moti Masjid in b. AurangazebLahore
iii. Jama Masjid c. Akbar
iv. Badshahi Mosque d. Jahangir
(1) i – c ii – d iii – a iv – b
(2) i – c ii – a iii – d iv – b
(3) i – a ii – d iii – c iv – b
(4) i – a ii – b iii – d iv – c
67. Name the founder of the Virashaivamovement.
(1) Vallabhacharya
(2) Ramananda
(3) Ramanuja
(4) Basavanna
68. The high ranking official in charge ofcontrolling markets during the reignof Alauddin Khalji
(1) Wazir
(2) Shahna
(3) Wakil-i-Dar
(4) Wali
69. Nicolo Conti, who visited India duringthe rule of Vijayanagar Empire was anative of
(1) Russia
(2) Portugal
(3) Africa
(4) Italy
M-1
Class – X SAT
-22-
70. ��#������G�1� ,0<�#���0�����B�M� 5���$�J���$,0����*����������G�1#$�&������' ��%
��-�.��– I�u� T���#��#���j�9[������-$�$����)#��E�# ��� �E�#�����&��%
��-�.��– II�u�1893-&�����>�$�&� ���� �#��� �Y3� �&� T����#��#���j��0�K�� �%
(1) ,0<�#��– I ���$����,0<�#��– II��I���*
(2) ,0<�#��– I ��I���,0<�#��– II���$���*
(3) �'� ,0<�#��3��� ���$��,0<�#��– II, �,0<�#��– I �F���$�$�#���-��*#���*%
(4) �'� ,0<�#��3������$�*%���&�,0<�#��– II,,0<�#��– I �F����$�$#���-��*�D%
71. T�����,0O�� ��F�E�>��$�s T���� #,<� ,0����*�� Et)��E�M����V
(1) L�8>�>�B���8�
(2) 8�8�8J0��.�$�
(3) L�0����,j0�&
(4) �L-,j��c����>��
72. ��+*&�v2��(�N� ,P��$���
)O����O������g���O8�
(1) �L���L
(2) ���&
(3) ��2P&?�
(4) 02��
70. Consider the following statements
and identify the correct response from
the options given.
Statement – I : Swami Vivekananda
contributed to the rise of Indian
nationalism.
Statement – II : Swami Vivekananda
attended the Parliament of Religions
held at Chicago in 1893.
(1) Statement I is true and Statement II
is false
(2) Statement I is false and Statement II
is true
(3) Both Statements are true and
Statement II is the correct
explanation of Statement I
(4) Both statements are true but
Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I
71. Who started the ‘Swadesh Vastra
Pracharini Sabha’ as a part of the
Swadeshi movement ?
(1) Bal Gangadhara Tilak
(2) Lala Lajpat Rai
(3) Bipin Chandra Pal
(4) Rabindranath Tagore
72. The head quarters of the ‘National
School of Drama’ is at
(1) Bombay
(2) Kolkata
(3) New Delhi
(4) Pune
M-1 P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
-23-
73. .w���A+��5���$�J��D� E2����,<^���(1) 25°C ���� 35°C ����9�$�8�1��0��8
(2) �3��C(3) 150 � %��-%�$�&��2���8�1���8E��
(4) �#1����G����&� E2,0����
74. ��,�J8� ,0#�?��/� ��,������������&��$�G�1�J�P��3�&���I�$��( �/0����.�1' ����������( �/'
(1) ���.� ��#�� ,0#�?� – 5I8�F�� ��,��
(2) ($�+��$�� ,0#�?� – �0 N�� ��,��
(3) ��� ��L���,0#�?� – 9[���?� ��,��
(4) >�N�, _-� –5I8�F��
��,��
75. �������8� ��� #���+�$�$�1���8�#O����U8
(1) �e 2e�,0����
(2) �+*��U8�����E2����
(3) ��P�I�.��$��,0����
(4) ��,j��,0����
76. 5[�-;#�$�� �����.������F�N8��$�� Am��=���5[�-;������U8
(1) �B���U����2������U8
(2) ��0�+*��M�����U8
(3) �0,B�#-$���2������U8
(4) ,B�#-$��M�����U8
73. The geographical factor which is NOT
favourable for the growth of rubber
(1) Temperature between 25°C and 35°C
(2) Clayey soil
(3) Rainfall above 150 cm
(4) Land free from water logging
74. The pair of ocean currents and
oceans NOT correctly matched
Ocean currents Oceans
(1) Kuroshio current – Atlantic ocean
(2) Oyashio current – Pacific ocean
(3) Mozambique – Indian ocean
current
(4) Gulf stream – Atlantic ocean
75. The climatic region characterized by
winter rainfall
(1) Monsoon region
(2) Tropical deserts
(3) Medeterranean region
(4) Tundra region
76. The pressure belt that forms
exclusively due to the sinking of air is
(1) Equatorial low pressure belt
(2) Sub tropical high pressure belt
(3) Sub polar low pressure belt
(4) Polar high pressure belt
M-1
Class – X SAT
-24-
77. 2011� � �,0�����9[�$�&HI#��� ��.@� ,<-� 0���+���0�����1� �O���
(1) 0\�L(2) ?��$��(3) ���3�(4) �������
78. 9,j�#����0�+����$�$����(1) �A+*����(2) �>���#������(3) �?����(4) ���#������
79. ‘A’, ‘B’� ��-� �'� O8���Y�8�1� E20� ��8� 5�8�10 � %� �-%� �)*%� E20� ��8������1�u�50000�)�*K�&�E:���0���8 �&� ,0<���O8���Y�8�1��2����,��V
(1) 5 ��%��-% (2) 20 ��%��-%
(3) 10 ��%��-% (4) 0.5 ��%��-%
80. �����0.$��#$�&����;0*E2�20�D� �(1) r�8����I���(2) �2e��8��(3) �����.����(4) L-M���
81. $�%� ��%� $���� ?�$� ���9[�$�&� O�0��=G�G�19���������8(1) E�8�$�9���������8(2) .2��8�9���������8(3) �L���.��9���������8(4) ���>�02��9���������8
77. The State in India with the lowest sex
ratio as per census 2011
(1) Punjab
(2) Haryana
(3) Kerala
(4) Tamil Nadu
78. The river to which Indravati is a tributary
(1) River Krishna
(2) River Godavari
(3) River Mahanadi
(4) River Kaveri
79. Two places ‘A’ and ‘B’ are found
marked 10 cm apart on a map. Whatis the actual distance between thesetwo places on the ground if the scale
of the map is 1 : 50000 ?
(1) 5 km (2) 20 km
(3) 10 km (4) 0.5 km
80. Which one of the following is NOT a
depositional landform ?
(1) Stalagmites
(2) Mushroom rocks
(3) Moraines
(4) Beaches
81. A steel plant established in India with
the collaboration of UK
(1) Bhilai steel plant
(2) Rourkela steel plant
(3) Bokaro steel plant
(4) Durgapur steel plant
M-1 P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
-25-
82. #��$�J�� -��3�&� �E#����(1) N8��3�����2G���G&(2) N8��3����#��3��8�1������.&
(3) ����0�#��3����20-��*�
(4) ��,����#��0��
83. �����0.$��#$�&�?����>A?#����D� ���� V(1) ���Le���P�(���� P(2) �-�c�(3) ���,� �(���� P(4) )�>e
84. ��I�$��J�P����' ��%(1) #��*� ��q������������q�NH 17
(2) � 8��q������������q�NH 47
(3) ),>�q������L�q�NH 3
(4) �� ���q02���q�NH 4
85. >#e��F���$,[*��3�����������0� �� �� ���$��3�5.�$�=�����V
(1) ����#&�*�(2) �#�����#&�*�(3) T����#&�*�(4) )�>�3#&�*�
86. 2016 -&�.� �#�L�K�(�N�9[�H�� ��$��� ���8�*� 2/000�20$���� ���G� ,0�L8� �&���'�#���V(1) �#�L��7(2) �#�L��8(3) �#�L� 9(4) �#�L��10
82. The one which occurs at divergentplate margins
(1) Collision of plates
(2) Lateral movement
(3) Formation of fold mountains
(4) Sea floor spreading
83. Which one of the following is NOT agreenhouse gas ?
(1) Carbon dioxide
(2) Methane
(3) Nitrous oxide
(4) Argon
84. Identify the wrong pair.
(1) Varanasi – Kanyakumari – NH 17
(2) Salem – Kanyakumari – NH 47
(3) Agra – Mumbai – NH 3
(4) Nasik – Pune – NH 4
85. The new Economic Policies whichdisregard government control areknown as(1) Liberalisation(2) Neo-liberalisation(3) Privatisation(4) Globalisation
86. The date on which the Reserve Bankof India (RBI) introduced the new��2,000 notes in 2016 is
(1) November 7
(2) November 8
(3) November 9
(4) November 10
M-1
Class – X SAT
-26-
87. ‘WTO’ $����02�C�20��V
(1) �#L��,�P�(��>���� +�
(2) �#�P��2.� ��(��>���� +�
(3) �#�P��,�P�(��>���� +�
(4) �#L��2.� ��(��>���� +�
88. �����0.$��#$�&��0�,��3�&�������#������M��� �#<�H��*�V(1) �A,����������(2) 5,E�(3) #� 8��(4) ��CC
89. )�%L�%���%�$����9�=��� >#�C��)��*�?(1) �P�%��:�J���0�G&(2) �P�%��^�.�����J�(3) �P�%� �w.�#�
(4) �P�%���>��J�
90. �����0.$��#$�&�9[�$��8HI#���#8�$��A+��5B�+x��#�# �$��H��*�V(1) .w�(2) 0�� ����*�(3) 0\ ��(4) �*�
91. 9[�$��8�HI#���#8�$#�*�J��L�K�H��*�V(1) (�.�$�F&�L�K�(�N������ �((%�L�%� �%)
(2) �M%�P�%��N%� �%�L�K(3) �rI�L�K�(�N�9[�� (� %L�%���)
(4) �NP.&�L�K
87. The expansion of ‘WTO’ is
(1) Web Trade Organisation
(2) World Tourism Organisation
(3) World Trade Organisation
(4) Web Tourism Organisation
88. Which of the following is NOT madefrom Petroleum ?
(1) Artificial fibres
(2) Mica
(3) Vaseline
(4) Kerosine
89. Who is the present Governor of RBI ?
(1) Dr. Urjit Patel
(2) Dr. Raghuram Rajan
(3) Dr. Subba Rao
(4) Dr. Ranga Rajan
90. Which one of the following is thebiggest agro-based industry in India ?
(1) Rubber
(2) Cotton Textiles
(3) Sugar
(4) Jute
91. The biggest Commercial Bank in India is
(1) Oriental Bank of Commerce (OBC)
(2) HDFC Bank
(3) State Bank of India (SBI)
(4) Federal Bank
M-1 P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
-27-
92. ����=.$��#$�&� #�$0W
9:��$�� #�*�J�� L�K���
T-���� �#<��H��*�V
(1) 5�>-�A����3� �G�N�I
(2) T�C�
(3) #<�#��F�)B���
(4) �PL�I����P
93. ,0��;�J��B�0���� ��8#�8�
'�$�������#���$�*�V
(1) 9[�
(2) 9�`'
(3) ,>-
(4) 5�.L�
94. 0���;��-��$�&�����@��
�=����J�,0����B�� E
(1) ��$� E
(2) ��J� E
(3) �8�� E
(4) 9#�$����D
95. ���3 ��8� �8�� E�� �b8
�3�����C��?
(1) 19 (2) 8
(3) 540 (4) 20
92. Which one of the following is NOT
accepted as a security against loans
by the Commercial Banks ?
(1) Approved salary certificate
(2) Gold
(3) Land Title Document
(4) Debit Card
93. Findout the country where Direct
Democracy existed.
(1) India
(2) England
(3) Greece
(4) Arabia
94. Which among the following is formed
by indirect election ?
(1) Legislative Assembly
(2) Rajya Sabha
(3) Lok Sabha
(4) None of these
95. Number of Lok Sabha Constituencies
in Kerala
(1) 19 (2) 8
(3) 540 (4) 20
M-1
Class – X SAT
-28-
96. Who among the following is eligible
for Voting Right in India ?
(1) Any person, 21 years of age
(2) Any Indian citizen who has
completed 18 years of age(3) Any person with formal education,
who has completed 18 years of age(4) A person who has completed 18
years of age
97. To which of the following categoriesdoes the District Collector belong ?
(1) All India Service
(2) Central Service
(3) State Service
(4) None of these
98. The First Election Commissioner ofIndependent India
(1) T. N. Seshan
(2) V. S. Ramadevi
(3) R. V. Khuraizi
(4) Sukumar Sen
99. The minimum age limit for a personcontesting elections to the RajyaSabha
(1) 30 (2) 25
(3) 18 (4) 35
100. Which among the following is NOT afunction of the Election Commission ?(1) To audit the Election Expenditure
(2) To prepare the Voters List
(3) To issue Election Symbols
(4) To choose the candidates
96. 9[�$�&� �#�G#��� ���15�?��)��*�V(1) 21�#$y�$�H��������(2) 18�#$y�02� �$��$�9[��0:��
(3) 18�#$y�02� �$��$H������5E�O#������
(4) 18 #$y�02� �$��$H��������
97. J�D��8�_�� ����=.$����&H���#�E�> �&��0�����V(1) 5U��8[��� �#- (2) ��,j �#- (3) �O��� �#- (4) 9#�(���D
98. T�,[�9[�$��8�)��� ����@��=���Y-+*�(1) ��%���%���+�(2) #�%�� %������#�(3) )�%�#�%�U���.��(4) �������� �
99. ��J� E��O����z�$�$���{����� (�����#'�HI#����.@�,0�$0��B�(1) 30 (2) 25(3) 18 (4) 35
100. ����@��=���Y-+�F�����8$�&����=�� ��V(1) ����@��=���*���0�����B���
(2) �#�G��0G����g�.���(3) ��|���5��#����(4) O����z���3���' ��
_______________
M-1 P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
-29-
M-1
Class – X SAT
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
-30-