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III-B.Tech–I SEM
STUDENT HANDBOOK
A.Y.2018-19
HOLY MARY INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY & SCIENCE
(Accredited by NAAC-A, Approved by A.I.C.T.E., New Delhi, Affiliated to JNTU Hyderabad)
Bogaram(V),Keesara(M),Medchal(Dist),Hyderabad-501301
Dept. of Electrical &Electronics Engineering
www.hits.ac.in
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VISION STATEMENT
VISION STATEMENT OF HITS To be a premier institute for the study of engineering, technology and
management by maintaining high academic standards which promote the analytical thinking and independent judgment among the prime stakeholders enabling them to function responsibly in the globalized society
MISSION STATEMENT
MISSION STATEMENT OF HITS
GOALS OF HITS
GOALS OF HITS Goals of Engineering education at undergraduate / graduate level: Equip students with industry – accepted career and life skills
To create a knowledge warehouse for students
To disseminate information on skills and competencies that are in use and in demand by the industry
To create learning environment where the campus culture acts as a catalyst to student fraternity to understand their core competencies, enhance their competencies and improve their career prospects. To provide base for lifelong learning and professional development in support of evolving
career objectives, which include being informed, effective, and responsible participants
within the engineering profession and in society.
To prepare students for graduate study in Engineering and Technology. To prepare graduates to engineering practice by learning from professional engineering
assignments.
M1 To impart quality professional education that meets the needs of present and emerging technological world.
M2 To strive for student achievement and success, preparing them for life and leadership with ethics.
M3 To provide a scholarly and vibrant learning environment that enables faculty, staff and students achieve personal and professional growth.
M4 To contribute to advancement of knowledge, in both fundamental and applied areas of engineering, technology & management.
M5 To undertake research and development works by forging alliances with research institutes, government organizations, industries and alumni and become a center of excellence for quality professional educations and research.
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Our Pioneers… Welcome to the VPR's Family. We are delighted to know that you are keen to seek admission
In our reputed institutions, offering Engineering, Pharmacy & Management courses in both
under graduation & post graduation in Telangana & A.P. Our institutions have today
emerged as one of the reputed group of institutions and very well known for the technical
training in our Country. The academic ambience in the institute is so conducive for everyone
that they bring out their best. This has helped our students to mould their personality;
improve their performance and this has led our alumni reach very senior levels in reputed
companies all over the world. We welcome you to be a part of our growing and glorious
family. Our best wishes for your resounding success in the future endeavours and we eagerly
look forward to see you at our campus’ in this academic year. Dr. A. Vara Prasada Reddy CHAIRMAN
Holy Mary & Nalanda Group of Institutions offering Engineering, Pharmacy &
Management courses in both under graduation & post graduation in Telangana &
A.P. Our faculty continues to provide their expertise through the industry consulting
services and continuing education programmes. The departments has also
established rich and formal relationships with the industry through the courses and
regular class room interactions, inviting industry professionals and through its
cutting edge research programmes. The significant growth in the IT as well as Non -
IT sectors can only be sustained by constant supply of high quality human resources.
It is important that our students find Jobs to suit their aptitude and background. Such
a matching of challenges in the job with the aptitude of students is increasingly
important in the competitive world today, where innovation will be greatest key to
growth. I sincerely hope that our students will use the facilities provided to them in
our campus and find their profession and justify the trust placed in them by their
family, Society and Nation in helping the Country in its march towards becoming
adeveloped Country. Let me take this opportunity to congratulate all departments of
our Holy Mary and Nalanda Group of Institutions for their untiring efforts and wish
all the students the very best in their attempts to build up purposeful careers for
them.
Dr. A. Vijaya Sarada Reddy,
SECRETARY
I am pleased to welcome you all to the implicit space of VPR's family in which you
will find insight of various colleges, courses and plans to build a student - cantered
professional educational services. At Holy Mary and Nalanda Group of Institutions
we strive to nurture our students to become all rounder in their intellectual,
professional, physical & moral developments which not only make them a good
human being but also helps them to reach the heights in their career in present
scenario of industry culture.
Sri. A. Siddharth Reddy
VICE CHAIRMAN
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Holy Mary and Nalanda Group, right from its inception has been committed to deliver good quality education aimed at the all-round development of the student. In today's competitive scenario it is imperative that the educational institutions offering higher education have to ensure that the students get an extra edge in this regard. It is here that the institutes play a vital role. In this perspective VPR has taken care to offer the 'extra edge' through various initiatives aimed at Yamini Reddy going beyond the text books.
Smt. A. Yamini Reddy
JOINT SECRETARY
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HOLY MARY INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY & SCIENCE
(Accredited by NAAC-A, Approved by A.I.C.T.E., New Delhi, Affiliated to JNTU Hyderabad)
Bogaram(V),Keesara(M),Medchal(Dist),Hyderabad-501301
www.hits.ac.in
EEE STUDENT HANDBOOK
III-B.Tech–I SEM
ACADEMIC YEAR : 2018-19
Document No: HITS/EEE/SHB/2018 Date of Issue: Aug’2018
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TABLE OF CONTENTS
S.No. Content Page No.
1
1.General Information
About the college
1.1.Beautiful campus
1.2.Faculty
1.3.Infrastructure
1.4.Laboratories
1.5.TOEFL Centre
2
1.6.English Language Laboratory
1.7.R&D Cell
1.8.Library
1.9.National Programme on Technology
Enhanced Learning (NPTEL)
1.10.Co-Curricular Activities
3
1.11.Professional bodies
1.12.Extra curricular activities
1.13.Students Counselling &Career Services Dept(SCCS-Dept)
4
1.14.Finishing School
1.15.In House projects
1.16.MOUs
5 1.17.Student achievements
6 1.18.Contact information
7 2. Placement and Higher Studies
2.1.Industry Grade skills required for Employment
8 2.2.Important criteria for employment
2.3.Higher Studies
9 2.4.Various Scholarships available in India
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10 2.5.Various International Scholarships available in India
11 3. Student Career Oriented Professional Certification Courses
12 4. Performance Monitoring and Guidance
4.1. Student Feedback
4.2.Class Teacher
4.3.Class Representatives and their roles
13 4.4. Performance Counseling
4.5. Remedial Classes / Tutorial / Revisions
4.6. Backlog Management
4.7. Correspondence with Parents
5. Rules & Regulations for students
5.1. Administrative
5.2. Academic
14 5.3. Dress Code
5.4. Discipline & Punctuality
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5.5. Lab Classes
5.6. Fee
5.7. Transport
5.8. Library Rules
16 5.9. General
17 5.10. Ragging
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6. Academic Regulations 2013 for B.Tech. Regular
6.1. Award of B.Tech. Degree
6.2. Maximum Duration for Course Completion
6.3. Course of Study
19 6.4. Credits
20 6.6. Attendance Requirements
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21. 6.7 Minimum Academic Requirements
22 7. Course Calendar for the Year
23 8.III YEAR I SEMESTER COURSE STRUCTURE
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ELECTRICAL MEASUREMENTS & INSTRUMENTATION
9.1. Course Description
9.2. Prerequisite
9.3. Marks Distribution
9.4. Evaluation Scheme
9.5. Course Outcomes
9.6. How Program Outcomes are Assessed
9.7. HITS R16 Syllabus
9.8. Course Plan
9.9. Mapping Course Objectives Leading to the Achievement of the Program Outcomes
9.10.Mapping Course Outcomes Leading to the Achievement of the Program Outcomes
Unit-I-V
9.11. Objective Questions
9.12. Tutorial Questions
9.13. Assignment Questions
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POWER SYSTEMII
10.1. Course Description
10.2. Prerequisite
10.3. Marks Distribution
10.4. Evaluation Scheme
10.5. Course Outcomes
10.6. How Program Outcomes are Assessed
10.7. HITS R16 Syllabus
10.8. Course Plan
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10.9. Mapping Course Objectives Leading to the Achievement of the Program Outcomes
10.10.Mapping Course Outcomes Leading to the Achievement of the Program Outcomes
Unit-I-V
10.11. Objective Questions
10.12. Tutorial Questions
10.13. Assignment Questions
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MICROPROCESSOR& MICROCONTROLLERS
11.1. Course Description
11.2. Prerequisite
11.3. Marks Distribution
11.4. Evaluation Scheme
11.5. Course Outcomes
11.6. How Program Outcomes are Assessed
11.7. HITS R16 Syllabus
11.8. Course Plan
11.9. Mapping Course Objectives Leading to the Achievement of the Program Outcomes
11.10.Mapping Course Outcomes Leading to the Achievement of the Program Outcomes
Unit-I-V
11.11. Objective Questions
11.12. Tutorial Questions
11.13. Assignment Questions
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Fundamentals of Management
12.1. Course Description
12.2. Prerequisite
12.3. Marks Distribution
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12.4. Evaluation Scheme
12.5. Course Outcomes
12.6. How Program Outcomes are Assessed
12.7. HITS R16 Syllabus
12.8. Course Plan
12.9. Mapping Course Objectives Leading to the Achievement of the Program Outcomes
12.10.Mapping Course Outcomes Leading to the Achievement of the Program Outcomes
Unit-I-V
12.11. Objective Questions
12.12. Tutorial Questions
12.13. Assignment Questions
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DISASTER MANAGEMENT
13.1. Course Description
13.2. Prerequisite
13.3. Marks Distribution
13.4. Evaluation Scheme
13.5. Course Outcomes
13.6. How Program Outcomes are Assessed
13.7. HITS R16 Syllabus
13.8. Course Plan
13.9. Mapping Course Objectives Leading to the Achievement of the Program Outcomes
13.10.Mapping Course Outcomes Leading to the Achievement of the Program Outcomes
Unit-I-V
13.11. Objective Questions
13.12. Tutorial Questions
13.13. Assignment Questions
29 Professional Ethics
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14.1. Course Description
14.2. Prerequisite
14.3. Marks Distribution
14.4. Evaluation Scheme
14.5. Course Outcomes
14.6. How Program Outcomes are Assessed
14.7. HITS R16 Syllabus
14.8. Course Plan
14.9. Mapping Course Objectives Leading to the Achievement of the Program Outcomes
14.10.Mapping Course Outcomes Leading to the Achievement of the Program Outcomes
Unit-I-V
14.11. Objective Questions
14.12. Tutorial Questions
14.13. Assignment Questions
30 15. Micro Processors &Microcontrollers Lab
15.1. HITS R16 Syllabus
15.2. Lab Schedule
31 16.Electrical Measurements Instrumentation Lab
16.1. HITS R16 Syllabus
16.2. Lab Schedule
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HOLY MARY INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY & SCIENCE
(Accredited by NAAC-A, Approved by A.I.C.T.E., New Delhi, Affiliated to JNTU Hyderabad)
Bogaram(V),Keesara(M),Medchal(Dist),Hyderabad-501301
1. GENERAL INFORMATION
About the College
1.1 BEAUTIFUL CAMPUS:
Set in Sylvan surroundings away from the hustle & bustle of city life yet only 6 km away from Raheja IT Park on Hyderabad – Warangal national highway, the Institute is extremely conducive to academic, co-curricular and extra-curricular activities. It has large and well ventilated buildings with modern equipment in place and “State of the art”, sports facilities.
HIGHLIGHTS:
1.2 FACULTY:
The College is proud to have the best faculty, a blend of experienced and academics with eminent academicians team IIT’s, NIT’s and other reputed organizations teaching at the Institute that makes HITS as one of the best Institute pursue B.Tech, M.Tech and MBA as one of the under JNTU Hyderabad. The faculty is constantly encouraged to upgrade their qualifications and a number of them have enrolled for Ph.D. Most of the faculty members have been empowered with Impact teachings under Wipro Mission 10X program.
1.3 INFRASTRUCTURES:
The Institute is housed in a RCC Building with a built up area of 2.50 Lakh Sq. Ft in 100 Acres and established an Air Conditioned Auditorium with Seminar Halls and a Central Library. A good canteen caters hygienic food and a fleet of buses running from all important points to bring the students to the college. Accessibility of Indi cash Bank ATM within the Campus is a recent addition to enable students and faculty to withdraw cash anytime.
1.4 LABORATORIES:
The Institute has State of the art laboratories with 500 plus Pentium IV Branded Systems equipped with latest hardware and software with online testing facility catering to the needs of CSE Program. The Institute also has well equipped Electronic Labs, Electrical Engineering Labs and Workshops for Mechanical and Civil Engineering Students. The college has recently established cadence lab for VLSI design, CATIA and Power Systems Lab.
1.5 TOEFL CENTRE:
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The Institute is an Authorized TOEFL iBT Centre, which will conduct tests all through the year as per the iBT schedule.
1.6 ENGLISH LANGUAGE LABORATORY:
The Institute has established Ultramodern Computerized English language Laboratory with 60 plus Computer Systems loaded with latest Software to enhance the Soft skills of Students to make the Students Industry ready.
1.7 R&D CELL:
The Institute has an R&D Cell under the Chairmanship of Prof. Dr. P. Bhaskara Reddy. The R&D cell undertakes externally funded R&D projects from agencies like AICTE, DST, UGC and other similar state, private and society / trust bodies. It also undertakes research publications and interactions of faculty members with outside world.
1.8 LIBRARY:
The Institute Library has over 34598 books and 78 National and International journals that are required to all branches of Engineering. The Institute has the unique distinction of becoming Member of DELNET that connects more than 700 libraries in Asia Pacific Region. The Library has 25 Computers with Internet Facility that makes our knowledge Savvy Students to be technically competent on par with Industry professionals.
1.9 NATIONAL PROGRAMME ON TECHNOLOGY ENHANCED LEARNING (NPTEL)
The main objective of NPTEL program is to enhance the quality of engineering education in the country by developing curriculum based video and web courses. This is being carried out by seven IITs and IISc Bangalore as a collaborative project. In the first phase of the project, supplementary content for 129 web courses in engineering / science and humanities have been developed. Each course contains materials that can be covered in depth in 40 or more lecture hours. In addition, 110 courses have been developed in video format, with each course comprising of approximately 40 or more one-hour lectures. In the next phase other premier institutions are also likely to participate in content creation.
1.10 CO-CURRICULAR ACTIVITIES:
The Institution organizes Local Industrial Visits to Organizations like CPRI, HBL, POWEWR GRID SUBSTATIONS, GIS SUBSTATIONS, BHEL, and to Student Conferences like NCEEET Student Conference at INFOSYS, Gachibowli Campus, and Government Sponsored Summits like INDO SOFT IT Summit 2008 at Hitex City Convention Centre to Interface with the Industry for Career Planning and to make them Industry Ready. The Aeronautical Students Visited IIT Madras for Aeromodelling Workshop and Air Force Academy Dundigal for
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Knowledge Enhancement. The Institute focuses on Techno Management Events like ELYSIUM to enhance the Technical Skills and Soft Skills to make them Employable.
1.11 PROFESSIONAL BODIES:
Holy Mary Institute of Technology and science has the unique distinction of becoming Institutional Member in Professional bodies such as Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), Aeronautical Society of India (AeSI), Computer Society of India (CSI), Institute of Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering (IETE), Indian Society of Technical Education (ISTE), ELIAP and Hyderabad Management Association.
1.12 EXTRA-CURRICULAR ACTIVITIES:
The Institute helps the B.Tech, M.Tech and MBA Students to imbibe Culture, Knowledge and Sportsman Spirit during their Study Period.
The Institution has a Basketball Court,Volley ball Court, Beach Volley ball Court, Cricket Stadium with 400 meter Excellent track for Athletic Meet and Indoor Stadium for Shuttle Badminton and Gymnasium. MLRIT has been regularly conducting JNTU Zonal Games Football, Cricket, and State level Volleyball Tournaments. The Institute has been awarded as the best organiser for conducting JNTU Zone A Intercollegiate Tournaments by JNTUH. MLRIT is affiliated to Hyderabad Cricket Association (HCA) to play league Cricket
Matches. The college has conducted 5K RUN in 2008-09 and south zone Cricket Tournament in 2009-10.
The Institute also organises events like Traditional Day, Annual Day, Fashion Shows, Rockshows and other Cultural Events. This year for the First time, it has conducted Danz Pavimento a State Level Dance Competition and a Musical Nite by International Repute Vishal
& Shekhar during Annual Day Celebrations. MLR Institutions has been conducting Traditional Day every year. The purpose of Celebrating traditional day is basically to imbibe a spirit of Oneness, where the First year Students who have joined the Institute shed their Inhibitions, play and dine together with their seniors and recollect the old traditions & glory of the Past. Apart from that the traditional day is being celebrated with a purpose of removing fear and as a measure of Anti-Ragging activity.
The college has a National Service Scheme (NSS) unit, which conducts a number of programmes viz blood donation camp, tree plantation, community services in the adjoining villages, flood relief, etc. The college has sent a team of volunteers for flood relief service on
14th
Oct. 2009 to Mahaboob Nagar.
1.13 STUDENTS COUNSELING & CAREER SERVICES DEPT (SCCS-DEPT):
HITS is only institution among 600+ professional colleges in AP, that takes into consideration each student individual aspiration and ambition into audit, and extend support on exclusive
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basis to each student for successful future into Employment / Entrepreneur / Research & Development / Higher Education before graduating from our campus.
1.14 FINISHING SCHOOL:
HITS Institute of Technology is the only Institute which offers Special Training programme partnering Institute for Electronic Governance, Govt of A.P and Infosys. The students from the Institute are selected every year and given special Training programme to make them Industry Grade and opportunity is given to them to place themselves in Multi National Companies.
1.15 IN HOUSE PROJECTS:
The students are taking part in International Project competitions hosted by major MNCs, like IBM, Microsoft and Infosys. The Great Mind Challenge hosted by IBM, Microsoft Imagine Cup and project work as part of foundation programme conducted under the aegis of Infosys are some of the important projects presently being undertaken by the students of HITS. Further, the students are encouraged to do In House Projects under the supervision of expect faculty members.
1.16 MOUs:
The Institute has MOUs for student and faculty enhancement programmes with Multi National Companies like
IBM
IBM has extablished “Center of Excellence” in HITS
Sun Microsystem Systems
Student Development Programmes and Certificates
Oracle
Faculty and Student Development Programmes
WIPRO: Mission – 10X Programme
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Faculty impact teaching programme
CA Labs
Student and Faculty enablement Programme
Infotech
To enhance the quality of educational experience for student community
Mahindra Satyam
Industry Oriented course ware and Technology
Institute of Electronic Governance
Faculty Enablement Programme on “Soft Skills, Technical Skills, Reasoning and Aptitude
and Basic Computer Skills”.
Indo – US Collaboration for Engineering Education
Faculty Development Programme sponsored by Infosys
Microsoft IT Academy
Student and Faculty enablement programme
Infosys
Foundation Programme for students
IIIT, Gachibowli, Hyderabad
Certification in Information Technology (CIT) for students
SAM Technologies
In house projects in Robotics and Embedded System
1.17 STUDENT ACHIEVEMENTS:
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Ms. R. PALANIAMMAL of Aeronautical Engineering department has secured a University Rank and Gold Medal for the batch 2005-2009.
A PRAVEEN KUMAR secured 105th
rank in GATE.
Rishit D Shah became the Microsoft Student Partner and Microsoft Student Campus Ambassador. He is a Microsoft Certified Professional.
N. Sai Praneeth also has been selected as a Microsoft student ambassador.
M. Prashanth Reddy and M. Ramya of CSE Department have been selected as the Student Ambassador for IBM.
The CSE department students Nikhil Bharadwaj, Shashank and Sulibhavi Santhosh developed a Google Application connecting all the institute activities. Lolitha and
Gananasudha of IT, Praneeth, Rajender, Akshay Raj, Harish and Pankaj of CSE, Achuth and Gautam of Aero are maintaining the application.
M Pavan Kumar of CSE Department has been selected as brand Ambassador of Sun Academic Initiative.
253 students and 5 faculty members have got IBM DB2 Certification as part of TGMC’09.
The Institute has achieved 100% results in Aeronautical Engineering, 99% in CSE, 94% in ECE, 91% in MCA and 83% in MBA departments for outgoing batches.
The Students of MLRIT have won Volleyball Tournament and were Runner’s in Table
Tennis Singles and Doubles JNTU Zone ‘A’ Inter Collegiate Tournament.
P Shivaprasad of MBA has represented Senior National Basketball Tournament held at Delhi.
G. Manikanta Gupta, ECE 1st
Year won “National memory championship” in abstract images, organized by World Memory Council.
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1.18 CONTACT INFORMATION
Principal - Prof. Dr. P. Bhaskara Reddy
- 9866678599
Dean (CS) - Prof. K. L. Chugh
- 9866666601
Department Head CSE - Mr.N.Chandra Sekhar Reddy
- 9618880606
Department Head ECE - Dr. A.V.Paramkusam
- 9160404638
Department Head IT - Dr. KVSN Rama rao
- 7032902339
Department Head AERO - Dr.M..Satyanarayana Gupta
- 9160404640
Department Head MECH - Dr.S.Madhu
- 9160404635
Department Head MBA - Dr. S. Sunitha
- 9160404639
Department Head H&S - Dr. V. Radhika Devi
- 9160404636
Administrative Officer - Mr.G. Prabhakar Reddy
- 9200176828
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2. PLACEMENT & HIGHER STUDIES
MLR Institute of Technology has a unique distinction of placing their First Batch of B.Tech/MCA Students in their prefinal year of Study and MBA Students in Multi National Companies. The Institute has so far interacted with more than 96 Companies and 142 Selections from B.Tech/MCA and MBA Programmes have taken Place.
In this direction Apart from the Placements the Institute has arranged Summer Internship Programmes with Companies like M/s Infotech Enterprises Ltd, Mahindra Finance, Max New York Life Insurance, Nokia Ltd , Mahindra Finance, Bajaj Capital Ltd, Reliance Money and Tata AIG for Engineering and MBA Students to develop Mentor Relationships and to get to know about the Work Culture and gain Competencies to make them Industry Ready during their Study period.
The Institute has arranged Campus Recruitment drives with MNC’s Like Tata Advanced Systems,
IBM, Medha Servo drives, NR Radio & Switches Pvt. Ltd, OsiTechnologies Ltd, Genpact, Reliance
Money, Nagarjuna Cements Ltd & Oasis Software Informatics.
The Institute organized an Industrial Tour to 3rd
& 4th
Year Aeronautical Engineering Students to
Satish Dawan Space Center (SHAR) Sriharikota on 16-12-2009. The 4th
year students visited Airforce Academy, Dundigal, for an Industrial Visit on 22-12-2009.
The CSE & ECE students visited Infosys Infosys on 18-07-2009 for the SPARK Programme which is an orientation programme on Information Technology Space.
2.1 INDUSTRY GRADE SKILLS REQUIRED FOR EMPLOYMENT
Behavioral and Communication Skills are recognized as important elements in professional development of an Engineer including English for specific purposes. Employers give considerable value to these diverse set of skills at the time of interviews.
In addition to course curriculum, every student will gain the following skills during the study period:
Analytical and Problem solving skills
Subject – specific knowledge
Research and improved decision making abilities
Oral communication skills
Managerial skills
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Understanding of other cultures
Confidence and competence to work in International environment
As students are the future leaders, the Responsibility, Accountability and exhibiting the leadership skills should start from the first year of engineering. Every student is advised to read / practice from the following books;
Verbal and Nonverbal by RS Agarwal
Baron GRE
Wren and Martin English Grammer Book
2.2 IMPORTANT CRITERIA OF EMPLOYMENT
pg. 17
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In addition to the industry grade skills required for employment, the most important criteria for employment is that the student should get a minimum of 60% in academics with no backlogs to make them eligible for campus recruitments. In the recent past, many companies stipulated a cut of 65% for attending the interview / writing the test. Every student should Endeavour to achieve a minimum of 65% with no backlogs to make them suitable for picking up by good companies.
Job Portals:
1. www.freshersworld.com
2. www.monster.com
3. www.naukri.com
2.3 HIGHER STUDIES
M.Tech
The Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) is an all-India examination administered and conducted in eight zones across the country by the GATE Committee comprising faculty from Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore and seven Indian Institutes of Technology on behalf of the National Coordinating Board - GATE, Department of Education, Ministry of Human Resources Development (MHRD), and Government of India.
Objective
To identify meritorious and motivated candidates for admission to Post
Graduate Programmes in
Engineering, Technology, Architecture and Pharmacy at the National level. To serve as benchmark for normalization of the Undergraduate Engineering Education in the country.
This provides an opportunity for advanced engineering education in India. An M.E or M.Tech degree is a desirable qualification for our young engineers seeking a rewarding professional career. Engineering students, while in the final year of their degree course, spend considerable time in seeking an opening for studies in foreign universities.
The students are advised to pursue M.Tech in IIT’s/NIT’s/University Colleges.
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MBA
Earning a Master’s of Business Administration (MBA) degree can provide you with management
skills and business expertise that open new career opportunities to you. An MBA program will also
launch you into the much higher pay range that upper level managers and executives enjoy.
Furthermore, in the high-level positions, an MBA degree will allow you to hold and your work will
often be more interesting and rewarding.
The students are advised to pursue M.BA in IIM’s/XLRI/Reputed Business
Schools.
Higher Studies Abroad
TOEFL is mandatory for seeking admission in any academic course at any level- undergraduate, graduate or post graduate, in USA and Canada. Similarly UK Universities ask for IELTS for seeking admission to graduate and past graduate courses.
pg. 18
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GRE The Graduate Record Examination (GRE) is administered by the Educational Testing Services (ETS) for admission into all graduate academic programs (except management) in universities across USA and Canada and some selected universities across the world including India. The exam is a Computer Adaptive Test and is administered at any of the Sylvan testing centers in the country after prior registration.
The GMAT is a Computer Adaptive Test administered online by Educational Testing Services (ETS) through Sylvan testing centers located in all the major cities in India. Those who wish to enroll for courses in Business Management in American universities have to take the GMAT test and submit their scores to the department.
2.4 VARIOUS SCHOLARSHIPS AVAILABLE IN INDIA
Bharat Petroleum Scholarship For Higher Studies | Balarama Digest Scholarship | Central Institute
of Indian Languages | Fair & Lovely Foundation - Project Saraswati Scholarships | Government Of
India Office of the Director General of Civil Aviation Scholarship | Homi Bhabha Centre For
Science Education Tata Institute of Fundamental Research Research Scholarships | HSBC
Scholarships | Indian Council Of Agricultural Research Award Of National Talent Scholarship In
Agriculture | Indian Institute Of Geomagnetism Research Scholars | Invention Awards For School
Children | Indian Oil Corporation Ltd (IOCL) - Scholarships | Jawaharlal Nehru Memorial Fund
Jawaharlal Nehru Scholarships For Doctoral Studies | Junior Research Scholarships For Cancer
Biology Tata Memorial Centre & Tata Memorial Hospital | Jaigopal Garodia Vivekananda Trust
Scholarships | Lalit Kala Akademi - Scholarship | Mahindra All India Talent Scholarships For
Diploma courses In Polytechnics | National Brain Research Centre Scholarships | NTPC
Scholarships | National Institute Of Science Communication And Information
Resources(NISCAIR) | National Board For Higher Mathematics(NBHM) | National Thermal Power
Corporation Ltd.Scholarships | National Olympiad Programme | National Level Science Talent
Search Examination - 2005 | Narotam Sekhsaria Scholarship Programme | National Brain Research
Centre Scholarships, Post Doctoral Fellowships | National Aptitude Test | NIIT National IT
Aptitude Test | Oil And Natural Gas Corporation Ltd (ONGC) Scholarships To SC/ST Students |
Office Of The Director General of Civil Aviation Scholarships Stipend to the SC/ST Candidates |
Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan - Scholarships | Scholarships To Young Artistes | Saf-Madanjeet Singh
Scholarship | Sports Authority Of India - Sports Scholarships | SAF-Madanjeet Singh Scholarship |
Spic Macay Scholarships | The Childrens Foundation - Scholarships | The L&T Build-India
Scholarship | The Hindu-Hitachi Scholarships | The Paul Foundation Scholarships | Technology
Information Forecsting and Assessment Council(TIFAC) Women Scientist Scholarship Scheme |
The Young Talent IT Scholarship The Dr.GB Scholarships Foundation |
2.5 VARIOUS INTERNATIONAL SCHOLARSHIPS AVAILABLE IN INDIA
A * STAR India Youth Scholarship | A.M.M. Arunachalam-Lakshmi Achi Scholarship For Overseas Study | British Chevening Scholarships | Bharat Petroleum - Scholarships for Higher Studies | Cambridge Nehru Scholarships | Commonwealth Scholarship and Fellowship | Czech Government
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Scholarship | Chevening Technology Enterprise Scholarship Programme | Chinese Government Scholarship | Greek Government Scholarships | Israel Government Scholarship | Iranian Government Scholarship | Offer of Italian Government Scholarship | Japanese Government Scholarships | K.C.Mahindra Scholarships For Post-Graduate Studies Abroad | Lady Meherbai D.Tata Scholarships
| Mexican Government Scholarship | Norwegian Government Scholarships | National Overseas Scholarships/Passage Grant for ST Candidates | Portuguese Government Scholarships | Sophia Merit
pg. 19
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Scholarships Inc | Slovak Government Scholarship | SIA Youth Scholarships | The Rhodes Scholarships India | The Ramakrishna Mission Institute Of Culture Award of Debesh-Kamal Scholarships For Studies Abroad | The Inlaks Foundation - Scholarships |
Website for Higher Studies:
1. www.higherstudyabroad.org
2. www.highereducationinindia.com
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pg. 20
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3.STUDENT CAREER ORIENTED PROFESSIONAL CERTIFICATION COURSES
As per the career plan for students of MLR Institute of Technology with a view to bridge the gap between Industry and Academia, it has been planned to equip every student with at least three International / National certification by the time he / she completes the course of study. The details of the certification courses are given below:
Branch Year Name of the Certification Course
2nd
Year
Certificate Information Technology
3rd
Year IBM Certified DB2 Database Associate,
Computer Science and Infosys Campus Connect
Engineering / IT / MCA
4th
Year IBM Certified Rational Application
Developer
4th
Year
SUN Certified Java Programmer
2nd
Year Institute of Electronics and
Electronics and Communication
Telecommunication Engineering
Motorola @ CAMPUS
Engineering
3rd
Year
4th
Year IBM Certified DB2 Database Associate
2nd
Year
Certificate in AutoCAD
Aeronautical Engineering
3rd
Year
Certificate in HighPerMesh
4th
Year
Certificate in CATIA
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2nd
Year
Certificate in AutoCAD
Mechanical Engineering
3rd
Year
Certificate in HighPerMesh
4th
Year
Certificate in CATIA
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4. PERFORMANCE MONITORING AND GUIDANCE
4.1 STUDENT FEEDBACK
In case the students find it difficult to cope up / understand a particular subject, they are advised to discuss it with
a. The Concerned Teacher
b. The Class Teacher
c. The Department Head
d. The Principal
Students can use the suggestion boxes for communicating feedback. Students should mention their names so that they can be informed of the progress / more details / clarifications can be obtained.
4.2 CLASS TEACHER
Every class is assigned a Class Teacher (a faculty member). Students can directly discuss their college related or personal problems related to studies with them. The Class Teachers are accessible to the students and they can talk to the Class Teacher or whenever they are free from class / lab work. Class Teacher will meet with the class representative on daily basis to discuss their day-to-day difficulties if any.
4.3 CLASS REPRESENTATIVES AND THEIR ROLES
Two students from each class are selected as the Class Representatives from the department basing on their academic performance and discipline. Department Head makes the selections.
Responsibilities of the Class Representatives:
Collection of MIS format from Class Teacher daily.
Communicating the departmental / college directives & information to the students.
Collecting the feedback of difficulties faced by the students and communicating Suggestions for improvements.
Coordinating academic events and co-curricular activities.
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Encourage students to interact for better studies, sharing books and notes.
Compilation and submission of MIS form to class teacher at the end of the period.
4.4. PERFORMANCE COUNSELING
Mentors will evaluate the student individually for the following:
a. Less marks in internal exams
b. Continuous absence (3 days) and shortage of attendance
c. Not understanding the subject
d. Students from Telugu medium
e. Assistance for back log subjects etc.
f. Communication with parents
g. Provide help to back log students
4.5 REMEDIAL CLASSES / TUTORIAL / REVISIONS
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Remedial Classes are conducted for students who are weak and who do not perform well in their internal examinations / class tests or for the students who want extra help. Slots in the time table have been reserved for Tutorial where in the students are helped to solve the question in the class itself.
4.6. BACKLOG MANAGEMENT
The Mentors maintain a complete record of Examination results of each student and they counsel and guide them in preparing for backlogs. Students are provided with material and important questions are discussed.
4.7. CORRESPONDENCE WITH PARENTS
Parents will be informed about the performance of their ward from time to time in the semester. However parents are requested to be in touch with the Student mentor / Department Head on a regular basis.
5. RULES AND REGULATIONS FOR STUDENTS
5.1 ADMINISTRATIVE
1. Students, admitted into this College, are deemed to have agreed to the rules and regulations of the college, as laid down by the College Authorities from time to time, and the rules lay down in this leaflet, issued at the time of admission.
2. Students should inform any changes in the addresses/Phone No. of their parents / guardians to the college office.
3. The college shall communicate to the parents \ guardians of the students from time to time regarding the regularity and performance in the examinations of their wards. The case of serious indiscipline on the part of the students (s) may also be communicated to parent (s) \ guardian (s).
5.2. ACADEMIC
1. Students should attend the classes in - time. Late- comers shall not be permitted to enter the class room and they are likely to loose the attendance.
2. Students are expected to be regular to the classes. The students Shall not absent themselves for classes without prior approval. Prior permission shall be taken from concerned counselor and submitted to the Head of the Department.
3. In case of ill-health, the student should submit the medical certificate along with prescription, etc., from a registered medical doctor. The student should get the medical certificate within two days from the date of reporting to the college after iII health and also
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produce a letter from Father/ Mother regarding ill-health. Permission on medical grounds shall not be granted for one or two days.
4. The students should come to the laboratories with the prescribed uniform.
5. If a student disturbs the class or makes mischief, he / she will be marked absent and may be expelled from the class.
6. Students shall spend their leisure time in the library/computer center.
7. Students are expected to put up the minimum aggregate percentage of attendance (75%) as laid down by the JNT University. Students, falling short of 75% of attendance shall not be promoted to the next Semester \ Class.
8. Parents \ guardians of the students can contact the college authorities either in person or by post regarding discipline, regularity in attending classes, performance in the examinations, etc., of their wards.
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5.3 DRESS CODE
1. Students are expected to attend the college properly dressed. They should wear the prescribed uniform while attending laboratory classes.
2. Students are expected to carry the identity cards, issued by the college, in the campus. They are required to show the identity cards at the library, computer center, office, etc. Students without Identity Cards are not allowed in to the laboratory classes.
5.4 DISCIPLINE & PUNCTUALITY
1. No student shall enter or leave the class room without the permission of
the teacher.
2. Calling students out of their class rooms while the lecture is in progress is
prohibited.
3. Students are required to help in keeping the rooms, buildings, and premises
clean and tidy. Writing or sticking up of posters and notices on the walls
is strictly prohibited.
4. Smoking, Consumption of alcohol, intoxicating drinks or drugs is strictly
prohibited in and around the college premises. Those indulging in such
activities will be put severely or expelled.
5. Students are expected to behave well with the staff, other students and the
general public. Any misbehavior, coming to the notice of the college
authorities, will be severely dealt with.
6. The conduct of the students should be exemplary not only within the
premises of the college but also outside. This will help in maintaining the
image and status of the college.
7. Students are required to observe silence at all times in the college
campus.They shall not talk in loud tone or call each other by shouting.
8. Students are prohibited from loitering in the verandahs / campus during class hours, and sitting on the steps, stair-cases or parapet walls.
9. Students are not permitted to resort to strikes and demonstrations within the campus. Participation in such activity entails their dismissal from the college. Any problem they face may be represented to the Counselor / Head of the Department / Principal.
10. Students are prohibited carrying Cell Phones and organizing any meeting
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or entertainment in the college campus without the permission of the
college authorities.
11. The entry of outsiders without permission is prohibited. Any student
found responsible for bringing outsiders into the campus for settling
personal disputes with other students, shall be expelled from the college.
12. The college is entitled to take any disciplinary action, which is deemed
necessary in the case of any indiscipline on the part of the students. The
same will be reflected on the Conduct Certificate issued at the time of
leaving the college.
13. No Student Unions, except Professional Associations, are permitted in the
college.
14. If the students cause any damage to the college property knowingly or
unknowingly individually or in a group they have to pay 5 times to cost of
property damaged them. All the students are collectively responsible for
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the proper maintenance college property i.e. building, furniture, lab
equipment, garden, playgrounds, etc., recovery, calculated on semester to
semester basis, will be collected along with examination fee for the
semester.
15. Students should keep their vehicles only at the parking place allotted for
the purpose. Vehicle riding in the campus is strictly prohibited.
16. Sitting on the parapet wall and Riding beyond the parking limits, the
fine will be imposed to
Rs.100.00
17. Breakage or loss of equipment /property as decided by the
appropriate authority
18. The Principal/Director may, on the recommendation of the Head of the
Department, or otherwise, inflict the following punishments in the interests of
the student discipline and the Institution: fined, curtailment attendance, denial
of promotion to next semester, suspension, expulsion or such other action as
deemed necessary for the maintenance of discipline in the campus.
5.5. LAB CLASSES
All students must attend lab classes without fail. Those absent shall follow this procedure laid down in the prescribed format explaining valid reasons and obtain permission to attend the future classes.
5.6 FEE
1. All students admitted into this college, will be required to pay the prescribed tuition fee and other specified fees. Failure of the same will result in the cancellation of admission. No portion of fees will be refunded under any circumstances. If any student wishes to change the college or discontinue the course at any point for any reason, he \ she shall not be permitted to do so unless he \ she pays balance amount of four years fees which he \ she would have to pay, if he \she continued till the completion of the course. His \ Her original certificates including
I.e., etc., will be issued only after all the dues as stated above, are cleared by the students. All
senior students must pay the college fee every year on or before the 15th
of July irrespective of the reopening of the college. If they fail the fine will be imposed as per norms of the management.
2. Miscellaneous fee paid for expenditure related to training programs i.e., technical or soft skills etc., is not refundable.
3. Other than the above, if any fees are levied by the University the student has to be pay the same.
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5.7 TRANSPORT
All students who are availing the college bus facility must carry the bus-pass and must produce when demanded, failing which they will not allowed to travel in the bus. All students must travel in the allotted bus and routes. They should not change but occupy only their allotted seats throughout. Unauthorized students caught in the bus for not having the bus pass, should pay even if they traveled for one day also. First and second year are not allowed to bring two-wheelers.
5.8 LIBRARY RULES
1. Library Books will be issued for 15 days time and renewal depends upon the demand of the book.
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2. Silence should be strictly maintained in the library.
3. Students are responsible for the library borrower card issued to them. Loss of the library card should be reported in writing to the circulation section immediately. Duplicate library borrower card will be issued on payment of Rs.150/- after a week time from the date of application for duplicate cards.
4. The Library borrower card is not transferable.
5. Library books must be returned on or before the due date. Any student failed to do
so, 1st
week –Rs.1/-per day/per book, 2nd
week – Rs.2/-per day/per book and 3rd
week
– Rs.3/-per day/per book penalty will be imposed From 4th
week-Rs.5/-per day/per book penalty will be imposed.
6. Students shall not make any sort of conversation in any part of the library, causing inconvenience to others.
7. Students shall not bring their belongings inside the library and should keep them outside the library.
8. Students leaving from the library should be checked at the exit.
9. Tearing of pages/stealing of books will invite suspension from using of the library facilities and further disciplinary action will be taken against such students, as per college norms.
10. The borrower shall replace the New book within 7 days, otherwise, he/she has to pay 3 times of the book cost, along with fine. In case of lose of book.
5.9. GENERAL
1. All the students admitted in this college have to give an undertaking to abide by the rules and regulations of this college in prescribed format given by the college.
2. All the students should attend the college after vacations (Dasara / Sankranthi / Christmas / Semester term / summer) on the re-opening day without fail.
3. Students must deposit all the relevant original certificates and documents at the time of the admission Office and they will not be returned until completion of the course.
4. Admission of any student can be cancelled by the Management at any point during the course for reasons which are not in consonance with the rules and regulations and which are detrain the reputation of the college.
5. All the Students are here by informed that college authorities will not take any responsibility for loss or theft of your valuable items and money kept in your bags or somewhere else. Hence I request all the students are not to keep your valuables in class room or anywhere without your presence.
6. Fee For Issue Of Duplicates
a) Duplicate Hall ticket Rs. 100.00
b) Duplicate Identity Card Rs. 100.00
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c) Duplicate College Bus Pass Rs. 50.00
d) Duplicate Study Certificate for same purpose Rs. 50.00
e) Xerox copies of OD’s Rs. 50.00
All Breakage etc., penalties will be displayed on the Notice Board, and must be paid by the student and no student will be allowed to write examination or internal test or laboratory test, if penalties are not paid by the due date specified in the notice or circular.
5.10. RAGGING
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Ragging in any form inside or outside the college campus is banned/Prohibited vide Ragging Act 26 of AP. legislative Assembly 1997. Those who indulge in this uncivilized activity are liable for severe disciplinary actions besides being liable for prosecution.
SALIENT FEATURES
Ragging means doing an act which causes or is likely to cause insult 'or annoyance or fear or apprehension or threat or intimidation or outrage of modesty or injury to a student.
S.No. Nature of Ragging Punishment
1
Teasing, Embarrassing and Imprisonment Upto 6 Month or
Humiliating
Fine Upto Rs 1000/- or Both.
Assaulting or using
Imprisonment Upto 1 Year or
2 criminal Force or criminal
Fine Upto Rs 2000/- or Both.
intimidation
3
Wrongfully restraining or Imprisonment Upto 2 Years or
Confining or causing hurt Fine Upto Rs 5000/- or Both.
Causing grievous hurt
4
kidnapping Or raping or Imprisonment Upto 5 Years or
committing
unnatural Fine Upto Rs 10000/- or Both
offence
5
Causing death or abating Imprisonment Upto 10 Years or
Suicide
fine Upto Rs. 50000/- or Both
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Note:
1. A student convicted of any of the above offences, will be, dismissed from the college
2. A student imprisoned for more than six months for any of the above offences 'will not be
admitted in any other College.
3. A student against whom there is prima facie evidence of ragging in any form will be suspended
from the college immediately.
Prohibition of Ragging:
1. Ragging is prohibited as per act 26 of AP. Legislative assembly, 1997.
2. Ragging entails heavy fines and/or imprisonment.
3. Ragging invokes suspension and dismissal from the college.
4. Outsiders are prohibited from entering the college premises without permission.
5. All students must carry their identity cards and show them when Demanded.
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6. The principal and staff will visit and inspect the rooms at any time.
7. Suspended students are debarred from entering the campus except when required to attend
enquiry and to submit an explanation
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6. ACADEMIC REGULATIONS R16 FOR B.TECH. (REGULAR)
(Applicable for the students of B.Tech (Regular) from the Academic Year 2017-2018 onwards)
6.1. AWARD OF B.TECH. DEGREE
A Student will be declared eligible for the award of the B.Tech. Degree if he fulfills the following academic regulations:
i) The candidate shall pursue a course of study for not less than four academic years and not more than eight years
ii) After eight academic years of course of study, the candidate is permitted to write the examinations for two more years
iii) The candidate shall register for 176 credits and secured 176 credits with compulsory subjects as listed in Table-1
Table-1: Compulsory Subjects
S.No. Subject Particulars
1. All practical subjects
2. Industry oriented mini project
3. Comprehensive Viva-Voce
4. Seminar
5. Project work
6.2 The students, who fail to fulfill all the academic requirements for the award of the degree within ten academic years from the year of their admission, shall forfeit their seats in B. Tech. course.
6.3 COURSES OF STUDY
The following courses of study are offered at present as specializations for the B.Tech courses
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Branch Code Branch
01 Civil Engineering
02 Electrical and Electronics Engineering
03 Mechanical Engineering
04 Electronics and Communication Engineering
05 Computer Science Engineering
08 Chemical Engineering
10 Electronics and Instrumentation Engineering
12 Information Technology
14 Mechanical Engineering(Mechatronics)
17 Electronics and Telematics Engineering
18 Metallurgy and Material Engineering
19 Electronics and Computer Engineering
20 Mechanical Engineering(Productions)
21 Aeronautical Engineering
22 Insrumentation and Control Engineering
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23 Biotechnology
24 Automobile Engineering
25 Mining Engineering
26 Mining Machinery
27 Petroleum Engineering
28 Civil and Environmental Engineering
29 Mechanical Engineering(Nano Technology)
30 Agricultural Engineering
31 Computer Science & Technology
6.4 CREDITS
I Year Semester
Periods / Week Credits Periods / Week Credits
Theory
03+1/03 06 04 03
02 04 --- ---
Practical 03 04 03 02
Drawing
02+03 06 03 02
06
03
Mini Project --- ---- --- 02
Comprehensive
--- -- --- 02
Viva Voce
Seminar --- --- 06 02
Project --- --- 15 10
6.5 DISTRIBUTION AND WEIGHT AGE OF MARKS:
i. The performance of a student in each semester / I year shall be evaluated subject – wise
with a maximum of 100 marks for theory and 75 marks for practical subject. In addition,
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Industry oriented mini-project, seminar and project work shall be evaluated for 50, 50 and
200 marks respectively.
ii. For theory subjects the distribution shall be 25 marks for Internal Evaluation and 75 marks for the End-Examination.
iii. For theory subjects, during a semester there shall be 2 mid-term examinations. Each mid-term examination consists of one objective paper, one essay paper and one assignment. The objective paper and the essay paper shall be for 10 marks each with a total duration of 1 hour 20 minutes (20 minutes for objective and 60 minutes for essay paper). The Objective paper is set with 20 bits of multiple choice, fill in the blanks and matching type of questions for a total of 10 marks.
Pattern of the question paper is as follows:
PART–A
Consists of one compulsory question with five sub questions each carrying one mark. For the I-Mid examinations the sub question would be from first 2 ½ units and for the II-Mid examination the sub
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question would be from the remaining 2 ½ units.
PART-B
Consists of five questions (out of which students have to answer three questions) carrying five marks each. Each question there will be an “either” “or” choice (that means there will be two questions from each unit and the student should answer any one question). The questions can consist of sub questions also.
The mid-essay paper shall contain 3 sections, each sections consist of two questions from each unit third section consist of two questions from half unit covered in the syllabus out of which student has to answer 1 question from each section, carrying 4+4+2 marks.
The first mid-term examination shall be conducted on 1 to 2.5 units of the syllabus, the second mid-term examination shall be conducted on 2.5 to 5 units. Five (5) marks are allocated for Assignments (as specified by the subject teacher concerned). The first Assignment should be submitted before the conduct of the first mid-examination, and the second Assignment should be submitted before the conduct of the second mid-examination. The total marks secured by the student in each mid-term examination are evaluated for 25 marks, and the average of the two mid-term examinations shall be taken as the final marks secured by each candidate.
The external paper consists of two sections
Part A: compulsory questions carrying 25 marks
Part B: Totally 10 questions are given from all five units carrying 50 marks. Two questions from each unit will be given & one has to be answered each of 10 marks.
The details of the Question Paper pattern without deviating from the R13
regulations as notified in the website is as follows:
The End semesters Examination will be conducted for 75 marks which consists of two parts viz. i). Part-A for 25 marks, ii). Part –B for 50 marks.
Part-A is compulsory question which consists of ten sub-questions. The first five subquestions are from each unit and carries 2 marks each. The next five sub-questions are one from each unit and carries 3 marks each.
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Part-B consists of five Questions (numbered from 2 to 6) carrying 10 marks each. Each of these questions is from one unit and may contain sub-questions. For each question there will be an “either” “or” choice (that means there will be two questions from each unit and the student should answer any one question)
iv. For practical subjects there shall be a continuous evaluation during a semester for 25 sessional marks and 50 end semester examination marks. Out of the 25 marks for internal evaluation, day-to-day work in the laboratory shall be evaluated for 15 marks and internal practical examination shall be evaluated for 10 marks conducted by the laboratory teacher concerned. The end semester examination shall be conducted with an external examiner and the laboratory teacher. The external examiner shall be appointed from the clusters of colleges which are decided by the examination branch of the University.
v. There shall be an industry-oriented Mini-Project, in collaboration with an industry of their specialization, to be taken up during the vacation after III year II Semester examination. However, the mini-project and its report shall be evaluated along with the project work in IV year II Semester. The industry oriented mini-project shall be submitted in a report form and presented before the committee. It shall be evaluated for 50 marks. The committee
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consists of an external examiner, head of the department, the supervisor of the mini-project and a senior faculty member of the department. There shall be no internal marks for industry-oriented mini-project.
vi. There shall be a seminar presentation in IV year II Semester. For the seminar, the student shall collect the information on a specialized topic and prepare a technical report, showing his understanding of the topic, and submit it to the department. It shall be evaluated by the departmental committee consisting of head of the department, seminar supervisor and a senior faculty member. The seminar report shall be evaluated for 50 marks. There shall be no external examination for the seminar
vii. There shall be a Comprehensive Viva-Voce in IV year II semester. The Comprehensive Viva-Voce will be conducted by a Committee consisting of Head of the Department and
two Senior Faculty members of the Department. The Comprehensive Viva-Voce is intended to assess the student’s understanding of the subjects he studied during the B. Tech. course of study. The Comprehensive Viva-Voce is evaluated for 100 marks by the Committee. There are no internal marks for the Comprehensive Viva-Voce.
viii. Out of a total of 200 marks for the project work, 50 marks shall be allotted for Internal Evaluation and 150 marks for the End Semester Examination (Viva Voce). The End Semester Examination of the project work shall be conducted by the same committee as appointed for the industry-oriented mini-project. In addition, the project supervisor shall
also be included in the committee. The topics for industry oriented mini project, seminar and project work shall be different from one another. The evaluation of project work shall be made at the end of the IV year. The Internal Evaluation shall be on the basis of two seminars given by each student on the topic of his project.
ix. The Laboratory marks and the sessional marks awarded by the College are subject to scrutiny and scaling by the University wherever necessary. In such cases, the sessional and laboratory marks awarded by the College will be referred to a Committee. The Committee will arrive at a scaling factor and the marks will be scaled accordingly. The recommendations of the Committee are final and binding. The laboratory records and internal test papers shall be preserved in the respective institutions as per the University rules and produced before the Committees of the University as and when asked for.
6.6 ATTENDANCE REQUIREMENTS:
i. A student is eligible to write the University examinations only if he acquires a minimum of 75% of attendance in aggregate of all the subjects.
ii. Condonation of shortage of attendance in aggregate up to 10% (65% and above and below 75%) in each semester or I year may be granted by the College Academic Committee.
iii. Shortage of Attendance below 65% in aggregate shall not be condoned.
iv. A student who is short of attendance in semester / I year may seek re-admission into that semester/I year when offered within 4 weeks from the date of the commencement of class work.
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v. Students whose shortage of attendance is not condoned in any semester/I year are not eligible to write their end semester examination of that class and their registration stands cancelled.
vi. A stipulated fee shall be payable towards condonation of shortage of attendance.
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vii. A student will be promoted to the next semester if he satisfies the attendance requirement of the present semester/I year, as applicable, including the days of attendance in sports, games, NCC and NSS activities
viii. If any candidate fulfills the attendance requirement in the present semester or I year, the shall not be eligible for readmission into the same class.
6.7 MINIMUM ACADEMIC REQUIREMENTS
The following academic requirements have to be satisfied in addition to the attendance requirements mentioned in item no.6
i. A student is deemed to have satisfied the minimum academic requirements if he has earned the credits allotted to each theory/practical design/drawing subject/project and secures not less than 35% of marks in the end semester exam, and minimum 40% of marks in the sum total of the mid-term and end semester exams.
ii. A student shall be promoted from first year to second year if he fulfills the minimum attendance requirement.
iii. A student will not be promoted from II year to III year unless he fulfills the academic requirement of 44 credits up to II year I semester from all the examinations, whether or not the candidate takes the examinations and secures prescribed minimum attendance in II year II semester.
iv. A student shall be promoted from III year to IV year only if he fulfills the academic
requirements of 56 credits up to III year I semester from all the examinations, whether or
not the candidate takes the examinations and secures prescribed minimum attendance in III year II semester.
v. A student shall register and put up minimum attendance in all 176 credits and earn 176 credits. Marks obtained in the best 176 credits shall be considered for the calculation of percentage of marks.
vi. Students who fail to earn 176 credits as indicated in the course structure within ten academic years (8 years of study + 2 years additionally for appearing for exams only) from the year of their admission, shall forfeit their seat in B.Tech course and their admission stands cancelled.
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7. COURSE CALENDAR FOR THE YEAR
Commencement of class work
1st spell of Instructions
( Weeks)
I mid term exams
( week)
2nd spell of Instructions
(weeks)
II mid term exams
( week)
Preparations & Practical examinations
( week)
End examinations
( weeks)
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Commencement of class work for
A.Y.2017-18 II sem
8. III YEAR I SEMESTER COURSE STRUCTURE
Note: All End Examinations (Theory and Practical) are of three hours duration.
T-Tutorial L – Lecture P- Practical C – Credits
Code Subject L T/P/D Credits
EE501PC Electrical Measurements & Instrumentation 4 1 4
EE502PC POWER SYSTEMII 4 1 4
EI503PC Microprocessors and Microcontrollers 4 1 4
A70230 Fundamentals of Management 4 - 4
MC500HS
Elective-I Professional Ethics
3 - 3
135CB
Elective-II DISASTER MANAGMENT
3 - 3
EI507PC Microprocessors and microcontrollers Lab - 3 2
EE506PC Basic Electrical simulation Lab - 3 2
EE505PC Electrical Measurements & Instrumentation lab
3 2
Total 21 3 /9 24
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ELECTRICAL MEASUREMENTS & INSTRUMENTATION
BRIEF NOTE ON THE IMPORTANTANCE OF THE COURSE AND HOW IT FITS
IN TO THE CURRICULAM
To introduce the basic principles of all measuring instruments
To deal with the measurement of voltage, current, Power factor, power, energy and magnetic measurements.
PREREQUISITES, IF ANY
Basic Electrical and Electronics Engineering, Network theory &
Electromagnetic fields.
PROGRAMME: B.Tech EEE A.YEAR: 2018-2019 DEGREE: B.TECH II YEAR
COURSE: ELECTRICAL MEASUREMENTS & INSTRUMENTATION
SEMESTER: I CREDITS: 4
COURSE COORDINATOR: DR. S.Sivaganesan
COURSE CODE: EE501PC
REGULATION:R16
COURSE TYPE: Core
COURSE AREA/DOMAIN: EEE CONTACT HOURS: 6 hours/Week.
CORRESPONDING LAB COURSE CODE :
EE505PC
LAB COURSE NAME: Electrical Measurements &
Instrumentation- Lab
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MARKS DISTRIBUTION:
Session Marks University End
Exam Marks Total Marks
There shall be two mid tem
examinations. Each Mid-term
exam consists of subjective type
and objective type test. The
subjective test is for 10 marks,
with duration of 1 hour
Subjective test of each
semester shall contain four
questions; the student has to
answer two out of them. Each
carrying 5 marks
The objective test paper Is
prepared by JNTUH, which
consists of 20 questions each
carrying 0.5 marks and total of 10
marks.
The student is assessed by
giving two assignments, one, after
completion of
1to 2 1/2 units and the second,
after the completion of 2 1/2 to 5
units each carrying 5 marks. On
75 100
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the total the internal marks are 25.
The average of two internal tests
is the final internal marks.
The external question paper is set
by JNTUH consisting of part –A
and part- B. Where part consists
of short answer questions
carrying total marks of 25
and part part-B consists of 5 essay
type questions consists of internal
choice each carrying 10 marks
and the total of 50. The total
external marks are 75.awarded
considering the average of two
assignments in each course
EVALUATION SCHEME:
S.No Component Total Duration Marks
1. I Mid Examination 90 Minutes 20
2. I Assignment ---- 05
3. II Mid Examination 90 Minutes 20
4. II Assignment ------ 05
5. External Examination 3 hours 75
Course objectives:
To introduce the basic principles of all measuring instruments
To deal with the measurement of voltage, current, Power factor, power, energy and
magnetic measurements.
Course Outcomes: After completion of this course, the student
Understand different types of measuring instruments, their construction, operation
and characteristics
Identify the instruments suitable for typical measurements
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Apply the knowledge about transducers and instrument transformers to use them
effectively.
JAWAHARLAL NEHRU TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY,
HYDERABAD
EE501PC: ELECTRICAL MEASUREMENTS & INSTRUMENTATION
B.Tech. III Year I Sem. L T P C
4 1 0 4
UNIT- I
Introduction to Measuring Instruments: Classification – deflecting, control and damping
torques – Ammeters and Voltmeters – PMMC, moving iron type instruments – expression for
the deflecting torque and control torque – Errors and compensations, extension of range using
shunts and series resistance. Electrostatic Voltmeters-electrometer type and attracted disc
type – extension of range of E.S. Voltmeters.
UNIT– II
Potentiometers & Instrument transformers: Principle and operation of D.C. Crompton’s
potentiometer – standardization – Measurement of unknown resistance, current, voltage. A.C.
Potentiometers: polar and coordinate type’s standardization – applications. CT and PT –
Ratio and phase angle errors
UNIT –III
Measurement of Power & Energy: Single phase dynamometer wattmeter, LPF and UPF,
Double element and three element dynamometer wattmeter, expression for deflecting and
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control torques – Extension of range of wattmeter using instrument transformers –
Measurement of active and reactive powers in balanced and unbalanced systems.
Single phase induction type energy meter – driving and braking torques – errors and
compensations – testing by phantom loading using R.S.S. meter. Three phase energy meter –
tri-vector meter, maximum demand meters.
R16 B.TECH EEE.
UNIT – IV
DC & AC bridges: Method of measuring low, medium and high resistance – sensitivity of
Wheat-stone’s bridge – Carey Foster’s bridge, Kelvin’s double bridge for measuring low
resistance, measurement of high resistance – loss of charge method.
Measurement of inductance- Maxwell’s bridge, Hay’s bridge, Anderson’s bridge - Owen’s
bridge. Measurement of capacitance and loss angle –Desaunty’s Bridge - Wien’s bridge –
Schering Bridge.
UNIT-V
Transducers: Definition of transducers, Classification of transducers, Advantages of
Electrical transducers, Characteristics and choice of transducers; Principle operation of
LVDT and capacitor transducers; LVDT Applications, Strain gauge and its principle of
operation, gauge factor, Thermistors, Thermocouples, Piezo electric transducers,
photovoltaic, photo conductive cells, and photo diodes.
Measurement of Non-Electrical Quantities: Measurement of strain, Gauge sensitivity,
Displacement, Velocity, Angular Velocity, Acceleration, Force, Torque, Temperature,
Pressure, Vacuum, Flow and Liquid level.
COURSE PLAN:
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S.
No
Unit
No Topic
No of
sessio
ns
plann
ed
Mode of
teaching
BB/PPT/
OHP/M
M
Referen
ce *
Remar
ks
1
I
Introduction to Measuring
Instruments: Classification 1 BB A1,B1
2 Ammeters and Voltmeters 1 BB A1,B1
3 PMMC, moving iron type
instruments 2 BB A1,B1
4
expression for
the deflecting torque and control
torque
1 BB A1,B1
5
Errors and compensations,
extension of range using
shunts and series resistance.
2 BB A1,B1
6 Electrostatic Voltmeters-
electrometer type 1 BB A1,B1
7 problems 2 BB A1,B1
8
attracted disc
type – extension of range of E.S.
Voltmeters.
1 BB A1,B1
problems 2 BB A1,B1
9
II
Potentiometers Principle and
operation of D.C. Crompton’s
potentiometer
2 PPT A1,B1
10 Instrument transformers:
Principle and operation of D.C. 1 BB A1,B1
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Crompton’s potentiometer
11 Standardization 1 BB A1,B1
Measurement of unknown
resistance, current, voltage. A.C.
Potentiometers:
12
Measurement of unknown
resistance, current, voltage. A.C.
Potentiometers:
1 BB A1,B1
13 polar and coordinate type’s
standardization 1 PPT A1,B1
14 applications. CT and PT –
Ratio and phase angle errors 1 BB A1,C1
15
III
Measurement of Power &
Energy: Single phase
dynamometer wattmeter
1 BB A1,C1
16 LPF and UPF, 2 PPT A1,C1
17
Double element and three
element dynamometer
wattmeter,
2 PPT A1,C1
18 expression for deflecting and
control torques 2 PPT A1,C1
19 Extension of range of wattmeter
using instrument transformers 1 BB A1,C1
20
Measurement of active and
reactive powers in balanced
1 BB A1,C1
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21
unbalanced systems.
Single phase induction type
energy meter
2 BB A1,C1
22
driving and braking torques –
errors and
compensations
2 BB A1,C1
23
testing by phantom loading using
R.S.S. meter. Three phase
energy meter
2 BB A1,C1
24 tri-vector meter, maximum
demand meters. 1 BB A1,C1
31
IV
DC & AC bridges: Method of
measuring low, medium and
high resistance
1 BB A1
32 sensitivity of
Wheat-stone’s bridge 1 BB A1
33
Carey Foster’s bridge, Kelvin’s
double bridge for measuring low
resistance, measurement of high
resistance
1 BB A1
34
loss of charge method.
Measurement of inductance-
Maxwell’s bridge,
2 BB A1
35 Hay’s bridge 2 BB A1
36 Anderson’s bridge 1 BB A1
37 Owen’s
bridge.
1 BB A1
38 Measurement of capacitance and
loss angle 1
BB
A1
39
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40
41
Desaunty’s Bridge, Wien’s
bridge
Schering Bridge.
1
BB
A1
42
V
Transducers: Definition of
transducers, Classification of
transducers
1 BB A1
43 Advantages of
Electrical transducers,
1 BB A1
44
Characteristics and choice of
transducers; Principle operation
of
LVDT and capacitor transducers
1 BB A1
45
LVDT Applications, Strain
gauge and its principle of
operation, gauge factor
1 BB A1
46 Thermistors, Thermocouples,
Piezo electric transducers 1 BB A1
47 photovoltaic, photo conductive
cells, and photo diodes. 1 BB A1
48
Measurement of Non-
Electrical Quantities:
Measurement of strain, Gauge
sensitivity,
Displacement, Velocity, Angular
Velocity,
1 BB A1
49
Acceleration, Force, Torque,
Temperature,
Pressure, Vacuum, Flow and
Liquid level.
2 BB A1
TEXT BOOKS:
1. “G. K. Banerjee”, “Electrical and Electronic Measurements”, PHI Learning Pvt. Ltd.,
Dept. of EEE Student Hand Book
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2nd Edition, 2016
2. “S. C. Bhargava”, “Electrical Measuring Instruments and Measurements”, BS
Publications, 2012.
REFERENCE BOOKS:
1. “A. K. Sawhney”, “Electrical & Electronic Measurement & Instruments”, Dhanpat
Rai & Co. Publications, 2005.
2. “R. K. Rajput”, “Electrical & Electronic Measurement & Instrumentation”, S. Chand
and Company Ltd., 2007.
3. “Buckingham and Price”, “Electrical Measurements”, Prentice – Hall, 1988.
4. “Reissland, M. U”, “Electrical Measurements: Fundamentals, Concepts,
Applications”, New Age International (P) Limited Publishers, 1st Edition 2010.
5. “E.W. Golding and F. C. Widdis”, “Electrical Measurements and measuring
Instruments”, fifth Edition, Wheeler Publishing, 2011.
MAPPING COURSE OBJECTIVES LEADING TO THE ACHIEVEMENT OF THE PROGRAM OUTCOMES
Course Objective Course Outcomes
a b c d e
I S
II S S
III H
IV H S
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MAPPING COURSE OUTCOMES LEADING TO THE ACHIEVEMENT OF THE PROGRAM OUTCOMES
Course Outcomes Program Outcomes
a b c d e f g h i j k l m n
a S
b S S S S S
c S S
d S S S H S
e S S S S S S
f S S S S
g S S S S
h S S S S
QUESTION BANK
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
Unit-1
1. The use of instruments is merely confined within laboratories as stand¬ardizing
instruments.
(a) absolute
(b) indicating
(c) recording
(d) integrating
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
2. Which of the following instruments indicate the instantaneous value of the electrical quantity being
measured at the time at which it is being measured ?
(a) Absolute instruments
(b) Indicating instruments
(c) Recording instruments
(d) Integrating instruments
Ans: b
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3. instruments are those which measure the total quantity of electricity delivered in a
particular time.
(a) Absolute
(b) Indicating
(c) Recording
(d) Integrating
Ans: d
4. Which of the following are integrating instruments ?
(a) Ammeters
(b) Voltmeters
(c) Wattmeters
(d) Ampere-hour and watt-hour meters
Ans: d
5. Resistances can be measured with the help of
(a) wattmeters
(b) voltmeters
(c) ammeters
(d) ohmmeters and resistance bridges
(e) all of the above
Ans: d
6 According to application, instruments are classified as
(a) switch board
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(b) portable
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) moving coil
(e) moving iron
(f) both (d) and (e)
Ans: c
7. Which of the following essential features is possessed by an indicating instrument ?
(a) Deflecting device
(b) Controlling device
(c) Damping device
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
8. A device prevents the oscillation of the moving system and enables the latter to
reach its final position quickly
(a) deflecting
(b) controlling
(c) damping
(d) any of the above
Ans: c
9. The spring material used in a spring control device should have the following property.
(a) Should be non-magnetic
(b) Most be of low temperature co-efficient
(c) Should have low specific resistance
(d) Should not be subjected to fatigue
(e) All of the above
Ans: e
10. Which of the following properties a damping oil must possess ?
(a) Must be a good insulator
(b) Should be non-evaporating
(c) Should not have corrosive action upon the metal of the vane
(d) The viscosity of the oil should not change with the temperature
(e) All of the above
Ans: e
11. A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be used as by using a low
resistance shunt.
(a) ammeter
(b) voltmeter
(c) flux-meter
(d) ballistic galvanometer
Ans: a
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12. A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be used as flux-meter
(a) by using a low resistance shunt
(b) by using a high series resistance
(c) by eliminating the control springs
(d) by making control springs of large moment of inertia
Ans: c
13. Which of the following devices may be used for extending the range of instruments ?
(a) Shunts
(b) Multipliers
(c) Current transformers
(d) Potential transformers
(e) All of the above
Ans: e
14. An induction meter can handle current upto
(a) 10 A
(b) 30 A
(c) 60 A
(d) 100 A
Ans: d
15. For handling greater currents induction wattmeters are used in conjunction with
(a) potential transformers
(b) current transformers
(c) power transformers
(d) either of the above
(e) none of the above
Ans: b
16. Induction type single phase energy meters measure electric energy in
(a) kW
(b) Wh
(c) kWh
(d) VAR
(e) None of the above
Ans: c
17. Most common form of A.C. meters met with in every day domestic and industrial
installations are
(a) mercury motor meters
(b) commutator motor meters
(c) induction type single phase energy meters
(d) all of the above
Ans: c
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18. Which of the following meters are not used on D.C. circuits
(a) Mercury motor meters
(b) Commutator motor meters
(c) Induction meters
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
19. Which of the following is an essential part of a motor meter ?
(a) An operating torque system
(b) A braking device
(c) Revolution registering device
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
20. A potentiometer may be used for
(a) measurement of resistance
(b) measurement of current
(c) calibration of ammeter
(d) calibration of voltmeter
(e) all of the above
Ans: e
Unit-2
21 is an instrument which measures the insulation resistance of an electric circuit relative to earth
and one another,
(a) Tangent galvanometer
(b) Meggar
(c) Current transformer
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
22. The household energy meter is
(a) an indicating instrument
(b) a recording instrument
(c) an integrating instrument
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
23. The pointer of an indicating instrument should be
(a) very light
(b) very heavy
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: a
24. The chemical effect of current is used in
(a) D.C. ammeter hour meter
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(b) D.C. ammeter
(c) D.C. energy meter
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
25. In majority of instruments damping is provided by
(a) fluid friction
(b) spring
(c) eddy currents
(d) all of the above
Ans: c
26. An ammeter is a
(a) secondary instrument
(b) absolute instrument
(c) recording instrument
(d) integrating instrument
Ans: a
27. In a portable instrument, the controlling torque is provided by
(a) spring
(b) gravity
(c) eddy currents
(d) all of the above
Ans: a
28. The disc of an instrument using eddy current damping should be of
(a) conducting and magnetic material
(b) non-conducting and magnetic material
(c) conducting and non-magnetic material
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
29. The switch board instruments
(a) should be mounted in vertical position
(6) should be mounted in horizontal position
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: a
30. The function of shunt in an ammeter is to
(a) by pass the current
(b) increase the sensitivity of the ammeter
(c) increase the resistance of ammeter
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
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31. The multiplier and the meter coil in a voltmeter are in
(a) series
(b) parallel
(c) series-parallel
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
32. A moving iron instrument can be used for
(a) D.C. only
(b) A.C. only
(c) both D.C. and A.C.
Ans: c
33. The scale of a rectifier instrument is
(a) linear
(b) non-linear
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: a
34. For measuring current at high frequency we should use
(a) moving iron instrument
(b) electrostatic instrument
(c) thermocouple instrument
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
35. The resistance in the circuit of the moving coil of a dynamometer wattmeter should be
(a) almost zero
(b) low
(c) high
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
36. A dynamometer wattmeter can be used for
(a) both D.C. and A.C.
(b) D.C. only
(c) A.C. only
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
37. An induction wattmeter can be used for
(a) both D.C. and A.C.
(6) D.C. only
(c) A.C. only
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(d) any of the above
Ans: b
38. The pressure coil of a wattmeter should be connected on the supply side of the current coil when
(a) load impedance is high
(b) load impedance is low
(c) supply voltage is low
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
39. In a low power factor wattmeter the pressure coil is connected
(a) to the supply side of the current coil
(b) to the load side of the current coil
(c) in any of the two meters at connection
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
40. In a low power factor wattmeter the compensating coil is connected
(a) in series with current coil
(b) in parallel with current coil
(c) in series with pressure coil
(d) in parallel with pressure coil
Ans: c
Unit-3
41. In a 3-phase power measurement by two wattmeter method, both the watt meters had
identical readings. The power factor of the load was
(a) unity
(6) 0.8 lagging
(c) 0.8 leading
(d) zero
Ans: a
42. In a 3-phase power measurement by two wattmeter method the reading of one of the
wattmeter was zero. The power factor of the load must be
(a) unity
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.3
(d) zero
Ans: b
43. The adjustment of position of shading bands, in an energy meter is done to provide
(a) friction compensation
(b) creep compensation
(c) braking torque
(d) none of the above
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Ans: a
44. An ohmmeter is a
(a) moving iron instrument
(b) moving coil instrument
(c) dynamometer instrument
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
45. When a capacitor was connected to the terminal of ohmmeter, the pointer indicated a low
resistance initially and then slowly came to infinity position. This shows that capacitor is
(a) short-circuited
(b) all right
(c) faulty
Ans: b
46. For measuring a very high resistance we should use
(a) Kelvin's double bridge
(b) Wheat stone bridge
(c) Meggar
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
47. The electrical power to a meggar is provided by
(a) battery
(b) permanent magnet D.C. generator
(c) AC. generator
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
48. In a meggar controlling torque is provided by
(a) spring
(b) gravity
(c) coil
(d) eddy current
Ans: c
49. The operating voltage of a meggar is about
(a) 6 V
(b) 12 V
(c) 40 V
(d) 100 V
Ans: d
50. Murray loop test can be used for location of
(a) ground fault on a cable
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(b) short circuit fault on a cable
(c) both the ground fault and the short-circuit fault
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
51. Which of the following devices should be used for accurate measurement of low D.C. voltage
?
(a) Small range moving coil voltmeter
(b) D.C. potentiometer
(c) Small range thermocouple voltmeter
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
52. It is required to measure the true open circuit e.m.f. of a battery. The best device is
(a) D.C. voltmeter
(b) Ammeter and a known resistance
(c) D.C. potentiometer
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
53. A voltage of about 200 V can be measured
(a) directly by a D.C. potentiometer
(b) a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a volt ratio box
(c) a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a known resistance
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
54. A direct current can be measured by
(a) a D.C. potentiometer directly
(b) a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a standard resistance
(c) a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a volt ratio box
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
55. To measure a resistance with the help of a potentiometer it is
(a) necessary to standardise the potentiometer
(b) not necessary to standardise the potentiometer
(c) necessary to use a volt ratio box in conjunction with the potentiometer
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
56. A phase shifting transformer is used in conjunction with
(a) D.C. potentiometer
(b) Drysdale potentiometer
(c) A.C. co-ordinate potentiometer
(d) Crompton potentiometer
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Ans: b
57. Basically a potentiometer is a device for
(a) comparing two voltages
(b) measuring a current
(c) comparing two currents
(d) measuring a voltage
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
58. In order to achieve high accuracy, the slide wire of a potentiometer should be
(a) as long as possible
(b) as short as possible
(c) neither too small not too large
(d) very thick
Ans: a
59. To measure an A. C. voltage by using an A.C. potentiometer, it is desirable that the supply for the
potentiometer in taken
(a) from a source which is not the same as the unknown voltage
(b) from a battery
(c) from the same source as the unknown voltage
(d) any of the above
Ans: c
60. The stator of phase shifting transformer for use in conjunction with an A.C. potentiometer usually
has a
(a) single-phase winding
(b) two-phase winding
(c) three-phase winding
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
Unit-4
61. In an AC. co-ordinate potentiometer, the currents in the phase and quadrature
potentiometer are adjusted to be
(a) out of phase by 90°
(6) out of phase by 60°
(c) out of phase by 30°
(d) out of phase by 0°
(e) out of phase by 180°
Ans: a
62. A universal RLC bridge uses
(a) Maxwell bridge configuration for measurement of inductance and De Santas bridge for
measurement of capacitance
(b) Maxwell Wein bridge for measurement of inductance and modified De Santy's bridge for
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measurement of capacitance
(c) Maxwell Wein bridge for measurement of inductance and Wein bridge for measurement of
capacitance
(d) Any of the above.
Ans: b
63. For measurements on high voltage capacitors, the suitable bridge is
(a) Wein bridge
(b) Modified De Santy's bridge
(c) Schering bridge
(d) Any of the above
(e) None of the above
Ans: c
64. In an Anderson bridge, the unknown inductance is measured in terms of
(a) known inductance and resistance
(b) known capacitance and resistance
(c) known resistance
(d) known inductance
Ans: b
65. Wagner earthing device is used to eliminate errors due to
(a) electrostatic coupling
(b) electromagnetic coupling
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
66. For measurement of mutual inductance we can use
(a) Anderson bridge
(b) Maxwell's bridge
(c) Heaviside bridge
(d) Any of the above
Ans: c
67. For measurement of inductance having high value, we should use
(a) Maxwell's bridge
(b) Maxwell Wein bridge
(c) Hay's bridge
(d) Any of the above
Ans: c
68. If the current in a capacitor leads the voltage by 80°, the loss angle of the capacitor is
(a) 10°
(b) 80°
(c) 120°
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(d) 170°
Ans: a
69. In a Schering bridge the potential of the detector above earth potential is
(a) a few volts only
(6) 1 kV
(c) 5 kV
(d) 10 kV
Ans: a
70. To avoid the effect of stray magnetic field in A.C. bridges we can use
(a) magnetic screening
(b) Wagner earthing device
(c) wave filters
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
71. If an inductance is connected in one arm of bridge and resistances in the remaining three arms
(a) the bridge can always be balanced
(b) the bridge cannot be balanced
(c) the bridge can be balanced if the resistances have some specific values Ans:
b
72. A power factor meter has
(a) one current circuit and two pres¬sure circuits
(b) one current circuit and one pressure circuit
(c) two current circuits and one pres¬sure circuit
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
73. The two pressure coils of a single phase power factor meter have
(a) the same dimensions and the same number of turns
(b) the same dimension but different number of turns
(c) the same number of turns but different dimensions
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
74. In a single phase power factor meter the phase difference between the currents in the two
pressure coils is
(a) exactly 0°
(b) approximately 0°
(c) exactly 90°
(d) approximately 90°
Ans: c
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75. In a dynamometer 3-phase power factor meter, the planes of the two moving coils are at
(a) 0°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 120°
Ans: d
76. In a vibrating reed frequency meter the natural frequencies of two adjacent reeds have a
difference of
(a) 0.1 Hz
(b) 0.25 Hz
(c) 0.5 Hz
(d) 1.5 Hz
Ans: c
77. In a Weston frequency meter, the magnetic axes of the two fixed coils are
(a) parallel
(b) perpendicular
(c) inclined at 60°
(d) inclined at 120°
Ans: b
78. A Weston frequency meter is
(a) moving coil instrument
(b) moving iron instrument
(c) dynamometer instrument
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
79. A Weston synchronoscope is a
(a) moving coil instrument
(b) moving iron instrument
(c) dynamometer instrument
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
80. In a Weston synchronoscope, the fixed coils are connected across
(a) bus-bars
(b) incoming alternator
(c) a lamp
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
Unit-5
81. In Weston synchronoscope the moving coil is connected across
(a) bus-bars
(b) incoming alternator
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(c) fixed coils
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
82. The power factor of a single phase load can be calculated if the instruments available are
(a) one voltmeter and one ammeter
(b) one voltmeter, one ammetqr and one wattmeter
(c) one voltmeter, one ammeter and one energy meter
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
83. The desirable static characteristics of a measuring system are
(a) accuracy and reproducibility
(b) accuracy, sensitivity and reproducibility
(c) drift and dead zone
(d) static error
Ans: b
84. The ratio of maximum displacement deviation to full scale deviation of the instrument is called
(a) static sensitivity
(b) dynamic deviation
(c) linearity
(d) precision or accuracy
Ans: c
85. Systematic errors are
(a) instrumental errors
(b) environmental errors
(c) observational errors
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
86. Standard resistor is made from
(a) platinum
(b) maganin
(c) silver
(d) nichrome
Ans: b
87. Commonly used standard capacitor is
(a) spherical type
(b) concentric cylindrical type
(c) electrostatic type
(d) multilayer parallel plate type
Ans: b
Dept. of EEE Student Hand Book
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88. Operating torques in analogue instruments are
(a) deflecting and control
(b) deflecting and damping
(c) deflecting, control and damping
(d) vibration and balancing
Ans: c
89. Commonly used instruments in power system measurement are
(a) induction
(b) moving coil or iron
(c) rectifier
(d) electrostatic
Ans: a
90. Damping of the Ballistic galvanometer is made small to
(a) get first deflection large
(b) make the system oscillatory
(c) make the system critically damped
(d) get minimum overshoot
Ans: a
91. If an instrument has cramped scale for larger values, then it follows
(a) square law
(b) logarithmic law
(c) uniform law
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
92. Volt box is a component to
(a) extend voltage range
(6) measure voltage
(c) compare voltage in a box
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
93. E.m.f. of a Weston cell is accurately measured by
(a) electrostatic voltmeter
(b) hot wire voltmeter
(c) isothermal voltmeter
(d) electrodynamic voltmeter
Ans: a
94. The gravity controlled instrument has crowded scale because current is proportional to
(a) balancing weight
(b) deflection angle
Dept. of EEE Student Hand Book
81
(c) sine of deflection angle
Ans: c
95. A sensitive galvanometer produces large deflection for a
(a) small value of current
(b) large value of current
(c) large value of power
(d) large value of voitage
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
96. A multirangq instrument has
(a) multiple shunt or series resistances inside the meter
(b) multicoii arrangement
(c) variable turns of coil
(d) multi range meters inside the measurement system
(e) any of the above
Ans: a
97. The rectifier instrument is not free from
(a) temperature error
(b) wave shape error
(c) frequency error
(d) all of the above
Ans: c
98. Alternating current is measured by
(a) induction ammeter
(b) permanent magnet type ammeter
(c) electrostatic ammeter
(d) moving iron repulsion type voltmeter
Ans: a
99. Most sensitive galvanometer is
(a) elastic galvanometer
(b) vibration galvanometer
(c) Duddlb galvanometer
(d) spot ballistic galvanometer
Ans: d
100. Instrument transformers are
(a) potential transformers
(b) current transformers
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) power transformers
Ans: c
Dept. of EEE Student Hand Book
82
101. An instrument transformer is used to extend the range of
(a) induction instrument
(b) electrostatic instrument
(c) moving coil instrument
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
102. Wattmeter cannot be designed on the principle of
(a) electrostatic instrument
(b) thermocouple instrument
(c) moving iron instrument
(d) electrodynamic instrument
Ans: c
103. In an energymeter braking torque is produced to
(a) safe guard it against creep
(b) brake the instrument
(c) bring energy meter to stand still
(d) maintain steady speed and equal to driving torque
Ans: d
104. Various adjustments in an energy meter include
(a) light load or friction
(b) lag and creep
(c) overload and voltage compensation
(d) temperature compensation
(e) all of the above
Ans: e
105. The power of a n-phase circuit can be measured by using a minimum of
(a) (n - 1) wattmeter elements
(b) n wattmeter elements
(c) (n + 1) wattmeter elements
(d) 2n wattmeter elements
Ans: a
106. Two holes in the disc of energymeter are drilled at the opposite sides of the spindle to
(a) improve its ventilation
(b) eliminate creeping at no load
(c) increase its deflecting torque
(d) increase its braking tcrque
Ans: b
107. Which of the following is measured by using a vector voltmeter ?
(a) Amplifier gain and phase shift
(b) Filler transfer functions
(c) Complex insersion loss
(d) All of the above Ans: d
108. The principle on which vector voltmeter is based is
(a) that it works on the principle of complex variation
(b) that it measures the response of linear ramp voltage
(c) same as digital meter
(d) that it measures the amplitude of a single at two points and at the same time measures their phase difference
Ans: d
109. To measure radio frequency, the suitable frequency meter is
(a) Weston frequency meter
(b) reed vibrator frequency meter
(c) hetrodyne frequency meter
(d) electrical resonance frequency meter Ans: c
QUESTION BANK:
SHORT ANSWER QUESTION
S. No Questio
n Blooms
Taxonomy Level
Course Outcome
UNIT -1 MEASURING INSTRUMENTS
1 Give the main classifications of electrical instruments. Understand 1
2 Define the absolute instruments. Remember 1
3 Define the secondary instrument. Remember 1
4 Define the recording instruments. Remember 1
5 State the principle of magnetic effect. Remember 2
6 State the principle of electro-static effect. Remember 2
7 State the principle of electro-induction effect. Remember 2
8 What the different types are of associated with secondary instruments?
Remember 4
9 What are the different arrangements to provide damping torque? Remember 1
10 What is the different control torques? Remember 1
11 What is the importance of spring control torque? Understand 1
12 What is the importance of gravity control torque? Understand 1
13 What is the importance of MC instruments? Understand 1
14 What is the importance of MI instruments? Understand 1
15 Give two differences between MC and MI instruments. Understand 1
UNIT – II
1 Define instrument transformer. Remember 1
2 Give the importance of instrument transformer. Understand 1
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Taxonomy Course
Outcome
Level
3 What is the main two instrument transformer? Create 4
4 Define transformation ratio. Remember 1
5 Define turns ratio. Remember 1
6 Define nominal ratio. Remember 1
7 Define ratio correction factor. Remember 1
8 Define the ratio error. Remember 1
9 Define the phase angle error. Remember 1
10 Define the burden on secondary winding of instrument transformer. Remember 1
11 What is the limitation on operation of current transformer? Understand
4
12 Write the expression for ratio and phase angle error of potential Transformer.
Understand
2
13 Write the expression for ratio and phase angle error of current Transformer.
Understand
2
14 Suggest the different methods to reduce the ratio and phase angle Error of potential transformer.
Evaluate 3
15 Suggest the different methods to reduce the ratio and phase angle error of current transformer.
Evaluate 3
UNIT – III (MEASUREMENT OF POWER)
1 Define power. Remember 1
2 Define power in DC circuits. Remember 1
3 Define power in AC circuits. Remember 1
4 Write the expression for torque in electro-dynamometer type wattmeter.
Understand
2
5 What are the main two coils in wattmeter? Remember 1
6 Define element in wattmeter/. Remember 1
7 Define the nature of resistance in pressure and current coil in wattmeter.
Remember 1
8 How the pressure and control coil of wattmeter are connected in circuit/
Analyse 2
9 What is the principle of ferro-dynamic type wattmeter? Remember 2
10 How the low power factor is different from regular wattmeter? Analyse 2
11 Name the power measured by wattmeter. Remember 1
12 Suggest the type of connection of wattmeter into circuit under different conditions.
Evaluate 3
13 What is the importance of instrument transformer in collaboration with wattmeter?
Analyse 2
14 Give the expression for three phase power using instrument transformer.
Understand
2
15 Define double element. Remember 1
UNIT – IV (MESUREMENT OF ENERGY)
1 Define energy. Remember 1
2 Define energy in DC circuits. Remember 1
3 Define energy in AC circuits. Remember 1
4 Write the expression for driving torque in single-phase induction type energy meter.
Understand
2
5 What are the main two coils in energy meter? Remember 1
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n Blooms
Taxonomy Course
Outcome
Level
6 Define element in energy meter. Remember 1
7 Define the nature of resistance in pressure and current coil in energy meter.
Remember 1
8 How the pressure and control coil of energy meter are connected in circuit?
Analyze 2
9 What is the different type of registering system of energy meter? Remember 3
10 What is the importance of braking system in energy meter? Understand
2
11 Give the arrangement to provide braking torque. Understand
3
12 Suggest the type of connection of energy meter into circuit under different conditions.
Analyze 3
13 Define the static and running frictions in energy meter. Remember 1
14 Give the expression for braking torque in energy meter. Understand
2
15 Define double element. Remember 1
UNIT –V (POTENTIOMETER)
1 Define potentiometer. Remember 1
2 What are the different types of potentiometer? Remember 3
3 Draw the DC Crompton potentiometer. Remember 1
4 What is the importance standard cell in DC Crompton potentiometer?
Understand
1
5 What is the importance of volt-ratio box in collaboration with DC Crompton potentiometer?
Understand
1
6 Draw the circuit diagram for calibration of ammeter using DC Crompton potentiometer.
Remember 1
7 Draw the circuit diagram for calibration of voltmeter using DC Crompton potentiometer.
Remember 1
8 Draw the circuit diagram for measurement of resistance using DC Crompton potentiometer.
Remember 1
9 Draw the circuit diagram for measurement of power using DC Crompton potentiometer.
Remember
1
10 Write the classification of AC potentiometer. Remember 3
11 Define polar type potentiometer. Remember 1
12 Define co-ordinate type potentiometer. Remember 1
13 Name the polar type potentiometer. Remember 1
14 Name the co-ordinate type potentiometer Remember 1
15 Draw the drysdale type potentiometer. Remember 1
UNIT –VI (RESISTANCE MEASUREMENTS)
1 Define the resistance. Remember 1
2 What are different ranges of unknown resistance? Remember 3
3 Draw the wheat stone bridge for measurement of unknown resistance.
Remember 1
4 Draw the volt-amp method circuit for measurement of unknown resistance.
Remember 1
5 Draw the amp-volt method circuit for measurement of unknown resistance.
Remember 1
6 Define the sensitivity of wheat stone bridge. Remember 1
7 Define the sensitivity galvanometer. Remember 1
S. No Question
Blooms Taxonomy Level
Course Outcome
8 What is the importance of carey foster bridge? Evaluate 2
9 What is the importance of kelvin’s double bridge? Evaluate 2
10 Draw the Kelvin’s double bridge. Remember 1
11 Compare wheat stone bridge and substitution method to measure unknown resistance.
Evaluate 2
12 Write the expression for sensitivity of wheat stone bridge. Understand
2
13 Write the expression for sensitivity of galvanometer. Understand
2
14 What is the importance of meggar circuit? Evaluate 2
15 Draw the circuit of substitution method. Remember 1
UNIT –VII A.C BRIDGES
1 What are the main classifications of bridge? Remember 3
2 What is the condition for balance of bridge in DC bridges? Analyze 4
3 What is the condition for balance of bridge in AC bridges? Analyze 4
4 Write the condition for balance in terms of magnitude and phase for AC bridges.
Analyze 4
5 Draw the circuit diagram of wheat stone bridge. Remember 1
6 Draw the circuit diagram of Maxwell’s inductance bridge. Remember 1
7 Draw the circuit diagram of Maxwell’s inductance-capacitance bridge.
Remember 1
8 Draw the circuit diagram of Anderson bridge. Remember 1
9 Draw the circuit diagram of Owen bridge. Remember 1
10 Draw the circuit diagram of Campbell bridge. Remember 1
11 Draw the circuit diagram of de-sauté’s bridge. Remember 1
12 Draw the circuit diagram of Schering bridge. Remember 1
13 What are the different types of sources for AC bridges? Remember 3
14 What are the different types of detectors in AC bridges? Remember 3
15 Write the advantages and disadvantages of wheat stone bridge. Understand
2
UNIT –VIII MAGNETIC MEASUREMENTS
1 State the principle on which ballistic galvanometer. Remember 2
2 State the principle on which flux meter. Remember 2
3 What is the importance of ballistic galvanometer? Understand
2
4 What is the importance of flux meter? Understand
2
5 Draw the ballistic galvanometer. Remember 1
6 Draw the flux meter. Remember 1
7 Write the expression for torque governing ballistic galvanometer. Understand
2
8 Write the expression for torque governing flux meter. Understand
2
9 Write the applications of ballistic galvanometer. Understand
3
10 Write the applications of flux meter. Understand
3
11 Write the expression for equation of motion. Understand
2
12 Write the advantage and disadvantages of ballistic galvanometer. Understand
2
13 Write the advantage and disadvantages of flux meter. Understand
2
14 Compare the ballistic galvanometer and flux meter. Evaluate 3
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n Blooms
Taxonomy Level
Course Outcome
15 Define ballistic galvanometer. Remember 1
Group – II LONG ASNWERS QUASTIONS
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n Blooms
Taxonomy Level
Course Outcome
UNIT -1 MEASURING INSTRUMENTS
1 Draw and explain the PMMC instrument construction along with operation
Remember 1
2 Draw and explain the MI attraction instrument construction along with operation.
Remember 1
3 Derive the expression for value of shunt in the universal aryton ammeter.
Create 2
4 Derive the expression for value of multiplier in the universal aryton voltmeter.
Create 2
5 Draw and explain the idio static instrument construction along with operation.
Remember 1
6 Derive the torque equation of MI instruments. Create 2
7 What is loading effect? Explain with an example. Remember 3
8 Give the main classifications of electrical instruments along with the definitions with relevant examples.
Understand
3
9 Define magnetic effect, electro-static effect, heat effect, chemical effect, induction effect.
Remember 2
10 Derive the expression for value of multiplier in the multi-range voltmeter.
Create 2
UNIT –II (INSTRUMENT TRANSFORMER)
1 Give the construction of current transformer and explain its operation.
Understand
1
2 Give the construction of potential transformer and explain its operation.
Understand
1
3 Draw and explain the construction and operation of 1-phase power factor meter.
Remember
1,2
4 Draw and explain the construction and operation of 3-phase power factor meter.
Remember 1,2
5 Draw and explain the construction and operation of weston type frequency meter.
Remember 1,2
6 Draw and explain the construction and operation of resonant type frequency meter.
Remember 1,2
7 Draw and explain the construction and operation of Weston type synchroscope.
Remember 1,2
8 Draw and explain the construction and operation of moving iron type frequency meter.
Remember 1,2
9 Draw and explain the construction and operation of moving iron type suynchroscopes.
Remember 1,2
10 Explain the difference between construction of 1-phase and 3-phase power factor meter and why?
Create 3
UNIT –III (MEASUREMENT OF POWER)
1 Draw and explain the construction and operation of electro- dynamometer wattmeter.
Remember 1,2
2 Derive the expression for correction factor of wattmeter. Create 2
S. No Questio
n Blooms
Taxonomy Level
Course Outcome
3 Draw and explain the construction and operation of ferrodynamic wattmeter.
Remember 1,2
4 State the blondel’s theorem and explain with an example. Remember 2
5 Derive the expression for power factor angle in two wattmeter method for measurement of power.
Create 2
6 Draw and explain the construction and operation of 2 element wattmeter.
Remember 1,2
7 Draw and explain the construction and operation of var meter. Remember 1,2
8 Explain the procedure to test whether the wattmeter measures exact power or not.
Understand
4
9 Prove the power statement in three-phase circuits using two wattmeter methods for unbalanced load.
Create 4
10 Prove the power statement in three-phase circuits using two wattmeter method.
Create Iv
UNIT –IV (MESUREMENT OF ENERGY)
1 Draw and explain the operation induction type energy meter. Remember 1,2
2 What is phantom loading, explain with an example? Remember 2
3 Explain the test-A procedure for testing of energy-meter. Understand
4
4 Explain the test-B procedure for testing of energy-meter. Understand
4
5 Explain the test-C procedure for testing of energy-meter. Understand
4
6 Draw and explain the operation of maximum demand meter. Remember 1,2
7 Explain the different type adjustments made for smooth working of energy-meter.
Understand
3
8 Draw and explain the two element energy-meter Remember 1
9 Suggest the different methods to reduce the errors which effect the measurement of energy.
Understand
3
10 Compare the 1-phase and 3-phase induction type energy meter. Understand
2
UNIT –V (POTENTIOMETER)
1 Define potentiometer and explain the operation of DC Crompton potentiometer with neat sketch.
Remember 1
2 Draw and explain the operation of drysdale potentiometer. Remember 1,2
3 Draw and explain the operation of gal tinsley potentiometer. Remember 1,2
4 Give and explain the applications of DC Crompton potentiometer. Understand
2
5 Give and explain the applications of AC Crompton potentiometer. Understand
2
6 Distinguish between DC and AC potentiometer. Understand
3
7 Explain the process of standardization for DC Crompton potentiometer.
Understand
2
8 Write different types of errors effecting the operation of DC Crompton potentiometer.
Understand
4
9 Explain the measurement of resistance and power using DC Crompton potentiometer.
Understand
2
10 Explain the measurement of voltage and current using DC Crompton potentiometer.
Understand
2
UNIT –VI (RESISTANCE MEASUREMENTS)
1 Explain the method of volt-amp for measurement of resistance. Understand
2
2 Explain the method of substitution method for measurement of resistance
Understand
2
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n Blooms
Taxonomy Level
Course Outcome
3 Draw and derive the expressions for unknown resistance using wheat stone bridge.
Remember 1,2
4 In the wheatstonebridge p= 1000 ohms, q = 100 ohms, r = 2005 ohms and s = 200 ohms.the battery has an emf of 5v. The galvanometer has a current sensitivity of 100mm/ micro amp andinternal resistanec of 100 ohms. Calculate the current through galvanometer and sensitivity of bridge
Apply 3
5 Draw and derive the expression for unknown resistance using Kelvin double bridge
Remember 1,2
6 Draw and explain the operation of megger circuit. Remember 1,2
7 In a carey foster bridge a resistance of 1.0125 ohms is compared with standard resistance of 1.0000 ohms, the slide wire has a resistance of 0.250 ohms in 100 divisions. the ratio arms nominally each 10 ohms, are actually 10.05 and 9.95 ohms. Slide wire is of 100 cm. find the position of balance.
Apply 3
8 Draw and explain loss of charge method. Remember 2
9 Compare the advantages and disadvantages of carey foster bridge, Kelvin’s double bridge and wheat stone bridge.
Evaluate 3
10 Give the classifications of different ranges of resistance suggesting the best methods to measure.
Understand
3
UNIT –VII (A.C BRIDGES)
1 Explain the basic construction of bridge. Understand
1,2
2 Draw and derive the known parameters from Maxwell’s inductance- capacitance bridge.
Remember 1,2
3 Draw and derive the known parameters from HAY’S bridge. Remember 1,2
4 Draw and derive the known parameters from ANDERSON’S bridge.
Remember 1,2
5 Draw and derive the known parameters from OWEN’S bridge. Remember 1,2
6 Draw and derive the known parameters from DE-SAUTY’S bridge. Remember 1,2
7 Draw and derive the known parameters from CAMPBELL’S bridge. Remember 1,2
8 Draw and derive the known parameters from WEIN’S bridge. Remember 1,2
9 Draw and derive the known parameters from SCHERING bridge. Remember 1,2
10 Draw and derive the known parameters from MAXWELL’S INDUCTANCE bridge.
Remember 1,2
UNIT –VIII (MAGNETIC MEASUREMENTS)
1 Distinguish between d’arsonal and ballistic galvanometer. Understand
3
2 Derive the expression for torque equation of galvanometer. Create 2
3 Draw the construction and explain the operation of ballistic galvanometer.
Remember 1,2
4 Write the advantages and disadvantages of ballistic galvanometer. Understand
3
5 What are the different types of errors effecting measurement by ballistic galvanometer and how?
Understand
3
6 Suggest the different methods for reducing the errors effecting measurement by galvanometer.
Analyse Iii
7 Derive the expression for torque equation of flux meter. Create 3
8 Draw the construction and explain the operation of flux meter. Remember 1,2
9 Write the advantages and disadvantages of flux meter. Understanfd
3
S. No Questio
n Blooms
Taxonomy Level
Course Outcome
10 What are the different types of errors effecting measurement by flux meter and how?
Understand
3
11 Suggest the different methods for reducing the errors effecting measurement by flux meter.
Analyse 3
12 Derive the expression for equation of motion flux meter. Create 2
13 Compare the ballastic galvanometer and flux meter. Evaluate 3
GROUP – III ANALYTICAL QUESTIONS
S. No Questio
n Blooms
Taxonomy Level
Course Outcome
UNIT -1 MEASURING INSTRUMENTS
1 A moving-coil instrument gives a full scale deflection. When the current is 40 mA and its resistance is 25. Calculate the value of the shunt to be connected in parallel with the meter to enable it to be used as an ammeter for measuring currents up to 50 A.
Apply 3
2 A moving-coil instrument having a resistance of 10 ohms, gives a full scale deflection. When the current is 8 mA. Calculate the value of the multiplier to be connected in series with the instrument so that it can be used as a voltmeter for measuring full scale deflection up to 100 V
Apply 3
3 A moving-coil instrument gives full.scale.deflection. For a current of 10 mA. Neglecting the resistance of the instrument, calculate the approximate value of series resistance needed to enable the instrument to measure up to (a) 20 V (b) 100 V(c) 250 V
Apply 3
4 A meter of resistance 50 ohms has a full scale deflection of 4 mA. Determine the value of shunt resistance required in order that full scale deflection should be (a) 15 mA (b) 20 A (c) 100 A
Apply 3
5 A moving-coil instrument having a resistance of 20, gives af.s.d. when the current is5 mA. Calculate the value of the multiplier to be connected in series with the instrument so that it can be used as a voltmeter for measuring full. Scale. deflection up to 200 V
Apply 3
6 A moving-coil instrument has a full scale deflection of 20 mA and a resistance of 25 . Calculate the values of resistance required to enable the instrument to be used (a) as a 0–10 A ammeter and (b) as a 0–100 V voltmeter. State the mode of resistance connection in each case.
Apply 3
7 A meter has a resistance of 40 and registers a maximum deflection when a current of 15 mA flows. Calculate the value of resistance that converts the movement into(a) an ammeter with a maximum deflection of50 A (b) a voltmeter with a range 0–250 V
Apply 3
8 An ammeter has a full. Scale deflection. Of100 mA and a resistance of 50. The ammeter is used to measure the current in a load of resistance 500 when the supply voltage is 10 V. Calculate (a) the ammeter reading expected (neglecting its resistance)(b) the actual current in the circuit, (c) the power dissipated in the ammeter, and (d) the power dissipated in the load.
Apply 3
9 A voltage of 240 V is applied to a circuit consisting of an 800 resistor in series with a 1.6 k resistor. What is the voltage across the 1.6 k resistor? The potential differences across the 1.6k resistor is measured by a voltmeter of f.s.d.250 V and sensitivity 100 /V. Determine the voltage indicated
Apply 3
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n Blooms
Taxonomy Level
Course Outcome
10 A 0–1 A ammeter having a resistance of 50is used to measure the current flowing in 1 k resistor when the supply voltage is 250 V.Calculate: (a) the approximate value of current (neglecting the ammeter resistance), (b) the actual current in the circuit, (c) the power dissipated in the ammeter, (d) the power dissipated in the 1 k resistor.
Apply 3
11 (a) A current of 15 A flows through a load having a resistance of 4. Determine the power dissipated in the load. (b) A wattmeter, whose current coil has a resistance of 0.02 is connected (as shown in Fig. 10.13) to measure the power in the load. Determine the wattmeter reading assuming the current in the load is still15 A.
Apply 3
12 A PMMC instrument has a coil dimensions 15mm*12mm. the flux density in the air gap is 1.8 mWb/m*m and the spring constant 0.14micro N-m/rad. Determine the number of turns required to produce an angular deflection of 90degrees when a current of 5mA is flowing through the coil.
Apply 3
13 A PMMC instrument has a coil dimensions 15mm*12mm. the flux density in the air gap is 1.8 mWb/m*m and the spring constant 0.14micro N-m/rad. Determine the number of turns required to produce an angular deflection of 90degrees when a current of 5mA is flowing through the coil.
Apply 3
UNIT – II INSTRUMENT TRANSFORMER
1 A current transformer has a single turn primary and a 200 turn’s secondary winding. The secondary winding supplies a current of 5a to a non-inductive burden of 1 ohm resistance. The requisite flux set up in the core by an mmf of 80a.the frequency is 50hz and the net cross- section of the core is 1000mm2.calculate the ratio and phase angle error.
Apply 3
2 The exciting current of a ring core current transformer, of ratio 1000/5a when operating at full primmary.current and with a secondary burden of non-inductive resistance of 1ohm is 1a, at a power factor of 0.4.calculate phase and ratio error.
Apply 3
3 a 1000/5a 50 hz current transformer has a secondary burden comprising of non-inductive impedance of 1.6 ohms .the primary winding has one turn .calculate the flux in the core and ratio error at full load. Neglect leakage reactance and assume the iron loss in core to be 105w at full load. the magnetizing mmf is 100
Apply 3
4 a potential transformer ratio 1000/100v has the following constants: Primary resistance = 945 ohms, secondary resistance = 0.86 ohm, primary reactance = 66.2 ohms, total equivalent reactance = 110 ohms, no-load current at 0.4 power factor. calculate phase and ratio error
Apply 3
UNIT – III (MEASUREMENT OF POWER)
1 the indication on a110v, 5a wattmeter used in conjunction with potential and current transformer of nominal ratio 100/1 and 20/1 respectively 350w.if the resistance and reactance of pressure coil is 362ohms and 100mh and the ratio and phase angle error of pt and ct are 0.8%, -45 deg and -0.2%, 90deg.what is the actual power measured, the load phase angle is 50deg and 500 hz.
Apply 3
2 In the two wattmeter method readings are 2000w and 500w respectively. Find the power factor of circuit. when the both the readings are positive If one of the wattmeter is obtained by interchanging terminals.
Apply 3
3 In the two wattmeter method readings are 7500w and-1500w Apply 3
S. No Questio
n Blooms
Taxonomy Level
Course Outcome
respectively. Find the power factor of circuit. find the power factor of the circuit If the voltage is 400v, what is the capacitance must be added such that only one wattmeter reads total power.
4 A 3-ph motor load has power factor of 0.4. The reading of total input is 3-kw. Hence calculate reading of each wattmeter.
Apply 3
5 A wattmeter has a cc of 0.1ohm resistance resistance and pc of 6500 ohms resistance. Calculate the percentage in measurement. 12a, 250v with unity power factor. 12a, 250v with 0.4 power factor.
Apply 3
6 The cc of wattmeter connected in series with ammeter and inductive load .An voltmeter and pc are connected in parallel with 100hz supply. The readings are 4.5a, 240v and 23w.pc is of r = 2000 ohms and l = 10mh. What is the error in the measurement?
Apply 3
7 A wattmeter is rated at 10a 25v the cc is of (0.06+0.02j). The pc is purely resistive of 6250 ohms. Find the error due to two different types of connections. The load is 10a at apower factor of 0.174 lagging. the voltage across load is 25v
Apply 3
8 The cc of wattmeter connected in series with ammeter and inductive load. A voltmeter and pc are connected in parallel with 100hz supply. the readings are 4.5a, 240v and 23w.pc is of r = 2000 ohms and l = 10mh
Apply 3
UNIT –IV (MESUREMENT OF ENERGY)
1 Explain the phantom loading for the wattmeter with cc of 0.1 ohm and pc of 8800 ohms and dc source of 6v and 5A.
Apply Iii
2 The readings from the TEST A are RX = 10 RS = 10 KX= 1000 KS= 1200 find the error in the measurements.
Apply 3
3 The readings from the TEST B are nx = 10o within time of 10 sec rs = 10 kx= 150 within tome of 15 sec ks= 1200 Find the error in the Measurements.
Apply 3
4 The readings from the TEST C are RX = 5 T = 100 SEC KX= 100 V = 230 V I = 2A Find the error in the measurements.
Apply 3
5 The readings from the TEST C are RX = 5 T = 90 SEC KX= 1000 V = 230 V I = 4A Find the error in the measurements.
Apply 3
6 The readings from the TEST C are RX = 5 T = 60 SEC KX= 1000 V = 230 V I = 6A Find the error in the measurements.
Apply 3
7 The readings from the TEST C are RX = 5 T = 300 SEC KX= 1000 V = 230 V I = 8A find the error in the measurements
Apply 3
8 The readings from the TEST C are RX = 5 T = 20 SEC KX= 1000 V = 230 V I = 10A find the error in the measurements.
Apply 3
UNIT –V (POTENTIOMETER)
1 The potentiometer is operated in conjunction with volt-ratio box; the voltage measured by potentiometer is 0.86 with full scale deflection of 1.6 v. Determine the reading of potentiometer for the range of 75v, 150v, 300v.
Apply 3
S. No Questio
n Blooms
Taxonomy Level
Course Outcome
2 A simple slide wire is used for measurement of current in the circuit. the voltage across standard resistor of 0.1 ohm is at 75cm. Find the magnitude of current if the standard cell emf if 1.45v is balanced at 50 cm.
Apply 3
3 For the volt-ratio the input and output voltages are 100v and 2v. If the volt-ratio box is of (r1+r2) with 10m ohms. Determine the r1 and r2 values.
Apply 3
4 Calculate the inductance of coil from the following measurement of ac potentiometer. Voltage across 0.1 ohm standard resistor in series with coil is 0.613 with 12.6 deg. Voltage drop across test coil through 100/1 volt-ratio box is 0.718 with 50.48 deg.
Apply 3
5 Calculate the impedance of the coil voltage across 1 ohm standard resistor in series with coil is 0.238v and -0.085 v are in phase and quadrature voltage respectively Voltage drop across test coil through 10/1 volt-ratio box is 0.3375 and 0.232v are in phase and quadrature voltage respectively
Apply 3
UNIT –VI (RESISTANCE MEASUREMENTS)
1 In the volt-ampere method the voltmeter and ammeter readings are 180V and 2A for the second type of connections. Find the error in the measurement.
Apply 3
2 A resistance of approximately 3000 ohms needed to balance the bridge. It is obtain on the 5 dial resistance box of 1000, 100, 10, 1, 0.1 ohms. The measuring is to be guaranteed to 0.1%.
Apply 3
3 In the Wheatstone bridge p= 1000 ohms, q = 100 ohms, r = 2005 ohms and s = 200 ohms. The battery has an emf of 5v. the galvanometer has a current sensitivity of 100mm/ micro amp and internal resistance of 100 ohms. Calculate the current through galvanometer and sensitivity of bridge.
Apply 3
4 A wheat stone bridge has ratio arm of 1000/100 ohms. to measure unknown resistance of 25 ohms. Two galvanometers are used –
Galvanometer A - resistance of 50 ohms and sensitivity of 200
Galvanometer B - resistance of 600 ohms and sensitivity of 500
Apply 3
5 The values of resistors in wheat stone bridge are P = R = 1k ohms, S == 5k ohms, G = 100 ohms, derive the bridge
Apply 3
6 In a carey foster bridge a resistance of 1.0125 ohms is compared with standard resistance of 1.0000 ohms, the slide wire has a resistance of 0.250 ohms in 100 divisions. the ratio arms nominally each 10 ohms, are actually 10.05 and 9.95 ohms. Slide wire is of 100 cm. find the position of balance.
Apply 3
UNIT –VII (A.C BRIDGES)
1 In the given bridge ARM AB = L1 WITH r1 IN SERIES WITH R1 ARM AD = 47.8 Mh in series with 32.7 ohms ARM BC = 100 OHMS ARM CD = 100 OHMS IF BALANCE IS OBTAINED FOR R1 = 1.36 OHMS CALCULATE L1 AND r1.
Apply 3
2 In the given bridge Apply 3
S. No Questio
n Blooms
Taxonomy Level
Course Outcome
ARM AB = L1 IN SERIES WITH R1 ARM AD = 2410 OHMS ARM BC = 750 OHMS ARM CD = 0.35 MICRO F WITH 64.5 OHMS FIND THE UNKNOWN PARAMETERS.
3 In the given bridge ARM AB = L1 WITH r1= 43.1 OHMS IN SERIES WITH R1 ARM AD = 250 OHMS ARM BC = 100 OHMS ARM CD = 200 OHMS ARM DE = 229.7 OHMS ARM CE = 1 MICRO F. THE UNKNOWN PARAMETERS.
Apply 3
4 In the given bridge ARM AB = 200 OHMS IN PARALLEL 1 MICRO F ARM AD = R2 IN SERIES WITH 2 MICRO F. ARM BC = 400 OHMS ARM CD = 1000 OHMS FIND THE UNKNOWN PARAMETERS.
Apply 3
5 In the given bridge ARM AB = C1 IN SERIES WITH R1 ARM AD = 5.2 OHMS IN SERIES WITH 0.5 MICRO F ARM BC = 2000 OHMS ARM CD = 2850 OHMS FIND THE UNKNOWN PARAMETERS.
Apply 3
HOLY MARY INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY & SCIENCE
(COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING)
Bogaram (V), Keesara (M), MEDCHAL – 501 301
DEPARTMENT OF ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
HAND BOOK
PROGRAMME: B.Tech EEE AC:YEAR: 2018-
2019 DEGREE: B.TECH III YEAR
COURSE: POWER SYSTEMS -II SEMESTER: I CREDITS: 4
COURSE COORDINATOR: Mr.G.RAVINDER
REDDY
COURSE CODE: EE502PC COURSE TYPE:REGULAR
REGULATION:R16
COURSE AREA/DOMAIN: EEE CONTACT HOURS: 4 hours/Week.
CORRESPONDING LAB COURSE CODE : NA LAB COURSE NAME: NA
SYLLABUS:
POWER SYSTEMS - II
Objective :
This course is an extension of Power systems-I course. It deals with basic theory of transmission lines modeling and their performance analysis. Also this course gives emphasis on mechanical design of transmission lines, cables and insulators.
UNIT - I:
Transmission Line Parameters: Types of conductors - calculation of resistance for solid conductors - Calculation of inductance for single phase and three phase, single and double circuit lines, concept of GMR & GMD, symmetrical and asymmetrical conductor configuration with and without transposition, Numerical Problems. Calculation of capacitance for 2 wire and 3 wire systems, effect of ground on capacitance, capacitance calculations for symmetrical and asymmetrical single and three phase, single and double circuit lines, Numerical Problems.
UNIT - II:
Performance of Short and Medium Length Transmission Lines: Classification of Transmission Lines - Short, medium and long line and their model representations - Nominal-T, Nominal-Pie and A, B, C, D Constants for symmetrical & Asymmetrical Networks, Numerical Problems. Mathematical Solutions to estimate regulation and efficiency of all types of lines - Numerical Problems.
Long Transmission Line-Rigorous Solution, evaluation of A,B,C,D Constants, Interpretation of the Long Line Equations, Incident, Reflected and Refracted Waves -Surge Impedance and SIL of Long Lines, Wave Length and Velocity of Propagation of Waves - Representation of Long Lines - Equivalent-T and Equivalent Pie network models (numerical problems).
UNIT-III:
Power System Transients & Factors Governing The Performance of Transmission Lines: Types of System Transients - Travelling or Propagation of Surges - Attenuation, Distortion, Reflection and
Refraction Coefficients - Termination of lines with different types of conditions - Open Circuited Line, Short Circuited Line, T-Junction, Lumped Reactive Junctions (Numerical Problems). Bewley’s Lattice Diagrams (for all the cases mentioned with numerical examples).
Skin and Proximity effects - Description and effect on Resistance of Solid Conductors - Ferranti effect - Charging Current - Effect on Regulation of the Transmission Line. Corona - Description of the phenomenon, factors affecting corona, critical voltages and power loss, Radio Interference.
UNIT - IV:
Overhead Line Insulators & Sag and Tension Calculations: Types of Insulators, String efficiency and Methods for improvement, Numerical Problems - voltage distribution, calculation of string efficiency, Capacitance grading and Static Shielding.
Sag and Tension Calculations with equal and unequal heights of towers, Effect of Wind and Ice on weight of Conductor, Numerical Problems - Stringing chart and sag template and its applications.
UNIT - V:
Underground Cables: Types of Cables, Construction, Types of Insulating materials, Calculations of Insulation resistance and stress in insulation, Numerical Problems. Capacitance of Single and 3-Core belted cables, Numerical Problems. Grading of Cables - Capacitance grading, Numerical Problems, Description of Inter-sheath grading.
TEXT/REFERENCE BOOKS:
T/R BOOK TITLE/AUTHORS/PUBLICATION
A1. Principles of Power systems, V.K Mehta and Rohit Mehta
A2. Electrical Power Systems, C.L.Wadhwa
A3. Power system Engineering, R.K Rajput
A4. Electrical Power Generation, Transmission and Distribution, S.N singh
PEO,PO,CO&PO MAPPING
Objective:
This course is an extension of Power System-I course. It deals with basic theory of
transmission lines modeling and their performance analysis. Also this course gives emphasis on
mechanical design of transmission lines, cables and insulators.
Mapping on to PEO: P1, P2, and P3.
Mapping onto PEO : P1,P2,P3
PEO 1: To prepare the students for entry into successful employment as engineers in industry, service,
consulting, and/or government organizations or for advanced study at leading graduate schools in
engineering, business, management, or other technical or non-technical fields.
PEO 2: To encourage teamwork skills among the students to design and implement complex software
systems, particularly the ability to work with people from other fields in integrated engineering teams
and develop the leadership skills for maximizing the performance of those teams.
PEO 3: To offer a curriculum that encourages students to become broadly educated engineers and to
equip with the attitudes and skills to foster learning themselves for life long, an ability to communicate
effectively with various audiences and function as responsible member of the global society.
PROGRAMME OUTCOMES (a) An ability to apply knowledge of mathematics, science, and engineering. (b) An ability to design and conduct experiments, as well as to analyze and interpret data. (c) An ability to design a system, component, or process to meet desired needs within realistic
constraints such as economic, environmental, social, political, ethical, health and safety, manufacturability, and sustainability.
(d) An ability to function on multidisciplinary teams. (e) An ability to identify, formulate, and solves engineering problems. (f) An understanding of professional and ethical responsibility. (g) An ability to communicate effectively. (h) The broad education necessary to understand the impact of engineering solutions in a global,
economic, environmental, and societal context. (i) A recognition of the need for, and an ability to engage in life-long learning. (j) A knowledge of contemporary issues. (k) An ability to use the techniques, skills, and modern engineering tools necessary for Engineering practice. Programme Specific Programme Outcomes: (l) An ability to design Power electronic circuits & proto types by using micro Controllers .
Course Outcomes:
1. Able to derive the mathematical representations of capacitance and inductance for various transmission systems.
2. Able to estimate the efficiency and regulation of various types of transmission systems. 3. Capability to understand mechanical design (sag, span length, insulators) of transmission l lines. 4. Able to know various effects associated with transmission lines, Able to know the detailed
Information of underground cables, alternative to overhead transmission.
CO-PO Mapping:
PO-a PO-b PO-c PO-d PO-e PO-f PO-g PO-h PO-i PO-j PO-k PO-l
CO's
1
2
3
4
S.no Unit no
Topic Week No of
sessions planned
Mode of teaching BB/PPT/OHP/MM
Reference
* Remarks
1 I Introduction and Types of Conductors, Calculation Of Resistance for Solid Conductors 1 2 BB A1, 3
2 Calculation of inductance for single phase and three phase and Double circuit lines, Inductance Problems 1
4 BB A1, 3
3 Concept of GMR and GMD
2 4 BB A3, 2
4 Symmetrical and Asymmetrical conductor configuration with and without transposition
2 4 BB A3,2
5 Calculation of Capacitance for 2 wire and 3 wire systems 3 1 BB A2, 2
6 Effect of Ground on Capacitance and Symmetrical and Asymmetrical Calculation of Single and 3 phase
3 2 BB A2, 2
7 Single and Double Circuit lines, Numerical Problems. 3,4 4 BB A2, 2
9 II Classification of Transmission Lines – Short, Medium and Long line and their model representations. 2
4 BB A3, 2
10 Nominal – T and Nominal – Pie Constants for Symmetrical and Asymmetrical Networks.
2 4 BB A3,2
11 A, B, C, D Constants for Symmetrical and Asymmetrical Networks, Numerical Problems. 3 1 BB A2, 2
12 Mathematical Solutions to estimate regulation and Efficiency of all types of line and Numerical Problems
3 2 BB A2, 2
13 Introduction of Long Transmission Lines, Representation of Long Lines 3,4 4 BB A2, 2
14 Rigorous Solution and A,B,C,D Constants
7 1 BB A2, 4
15
Interpretation of the Long Line Equations,Incident, Reflected Waves 7 1 BB A2, 4
16 Refracted Waves
7 1 BB A2, 4
17 Surge Impedance and SIL of Long Lines
7 1 BB A2,4
18 Wave Length and Velocity of Propagation of Waves 8 2 BB A4, 3
19 Equivalent – T and Equivalent Pie network models, Numerical Problems 8 1 BB A2,3
* For the respective topics please choose the proper reference from the list ofTEXT/REFERENCE BOOKS/Webresources in Course Information Sheet.
Text Books A1 - A10
Websites or e-books B1 - B10
BB Black Board
PPT Power Point Presentation
OHP Over Head Projector
MM Multimedia (Audio - Vedio )
S.no Unit no
Topic Week No of
sessions planned
Mode of teaching BB/PPT/OHP/MM
Reference *
Remarks
20 III Types of System Transients and Travelling or Propagation of Surges
8 3 BB A4, 3
21 Attenuation, Distortion, Reflection and Refraction Coefficients.
9 2 BB A3, 3
22 Termination of Lines with different types of conditions.
9 1 BB A4, 3
23 Open Circuited Lines, Short Circuited Line
10 1 BB A2
24 T – Junction , Lumped Reactive Junctions (Numerical Problems)
10 1 BB A3
25 Bewley’s Lattice Diagrams
10 1 BB A4,
26 (for all the cases mentioned with numerical examples)
10,11 2 BB A3,
27 Skin and Proximity effects- Description and effect on Resistance of Solid Conductors
11 1 BB A2,
28 Ferranti Effect, Charging Current
11 1 BB A3,
29 Effect on Regulation of the Transmission Line, Shunt Compensation. 11 2 BB A4, 6
30 Corona, Description of the Phenomenon, Factors affecting Corona 11 2 BB A3, 6
31 Critical Voltages and Power loss, Radio Interference 11 1 BB A4,
32 IV Types of Insulators, String efficiency and Methods for improvement, Numerical Problems.
11 1 BB A3,
33 Voltage distribution, Calculation of String efficiency. 11 1 BB A4,
34 Capacitance grading and Static Shielding.
11 1 OHP A2, 7
35 Sag and Tension Calculations with equal and unequal heights of towers. 11 1 BB A3, 7
36 Effect of Wind and Ice on weight of Conductor, Numerical Problems 11 1 BB A4, 7
37 Stringing chart and sag template and its applications 11 1 BB A3, 7
38
V
Types of Cables, Construction 11 1 BB A2,
39 Types of Insulating materials, Calculations of Insulation resistance and Stress in insulation, Problems
11 1 BB A3,
40 Capacitance of Single and 3- Core belted cables, Numerical Problems 11 1 BB A4,
41
Grading of Cables – Capacitance Grading. Numerical Problems.Description of inter-sheath grading. 11 1 BB A3,
TEXT/REFERENCE BOOKS:
T/R BOOK
ASSIGNMENT TEST – I
1Derive the ABCD parameters of medium transmission line
a) Nominal-T.
b) Nominal-π.
2. Explain the concept of GMR and GMD in detail with diagrams.
3. Derive the expression for Capacitance of single phase two wire line.
4. What is Transposition Explain?
5. Capacitance of 3 phase overhead line with unsymmetrical spacing.
6. Derive the expression for Inductance of 3 phase double circuit line with
Unsymmetrical spacing.
TITLE/AUTHORS/PUBLICATION
A1. Principles of Power systems,
V.K Mehta and Rohit Mehta
A2. Electrical Power Systems, C.L.Wadhwa
A3. Power system Engineering, R.K Rajput
A4. Electrical Power Generation, Transmission and Distribution, S.N singh
ASSIGNMENT TEST – II
1. What is Corona? Explain with necessary Equations?
2. What is SAG? Derive the expression for Un-Equal supports?
3. Define String Efficiency? Derive the Expression for String Efficiency?
4. Define a) Ferranti effect , b) Skin Effect, c) Radio-Interference, d) Stringing Charts.
5. Discuss various types of cables? Derive the Expression for Capacitance of single-core cable?
OBJECTIVE BITS
1. Which of the following is not the transmission voltage in iNDIA ?
(A) 66 kV
(B) l32kV
(C) 264 kV
(D) 400 kV
Get Answer
2. Which of the following is usually not the generating voltage ?
(A) 6.6 kV
(B) 9.9 kV
(C) 11kV
(D) 13.2 kV.
Get Answer
3. Boosters are basically
(A) inductors
(B) capacitors
(C) transformers
(D) synchronous motors.
Get Answer
4. Which of the following is not the distribution system normally used
(A) 3 phase-4 wire
(B) 3 phase-3 wire
(C) Single phase - 3 wire
(D) Single phase -4 wire.
Get Answer
5. Conductors for high voltage transmission lines are suspended from towers
(A) to reduce clearance from ground
(B) to increase clearance from ground
(C) to reduce wind and snow loads
(D) to take care of extension in length during summer.
Get Answer
6. Transmission efficiency increases as
(A) voltage and power factor both increase
(B) voltage and power factor both decrease
(C) voltage increases but power factor decreases
(D) voltage decreases but power factor increases.
Get Answer
7. With same maximum voltage to earth, which ac system (with p.f. 0.8) will require more copper as compared to dc 2 wire
system
(A) single phase. 2 wire (mid point earthed)
(B) single phase. 3 wire (neutral=1/2 outer)
(C) three phase three wire
(D) three phase-four wire (neutral = outer).
Get Answer
8. When alternating current passes through a conductor
(A) it remains uniformly distributed throughout the section of conductor
(B) portion of conductor near the surface carries more current as compared to the core
(C) portion of conductor near the surface carries less current as compared to the core
(D) entire current passes through the core of the conductor.
Get Answer
9. The fact that a conductor carries more current on the surface as compared to core, is known as
(A) skin effect
(B) corona
(C) permeability
(D) unsymmetrical fault.
Get Answer
10. The effective resistance of a conductor will be the same as ohmic resistance when
(A) current is in true sine wave form
(B) voltage is low
(C) power factor is unity
(D) Current is uniformly distributed in the conductor cross-section.
Get Answer
11. Skin effect results in
(A) reduced effective resistance but increased effective internal reactance of the conductor
(B) increased effective resistance but reduced effective internal reactance of. the conductor
(C) reduced effective resistance as well as effective internal reactance
(D) increased effective resistance as well as effective internal reactance.
Get Answer
12. Skin effect depends on
(A) size of the conductor
(B) frequency of the current
(C) resistivity of the conductor material
(D) all of the above.
Get Answer
13. The skin effect of a conductor will reduce as the
(A) diameter increases
(B) frequency increases
(C) permeability of conductor material increases
(D) resistivity of conductor material increases.
Get Answer
14. Skin effect is proportional to
(A) diameter of conductor
(B) (diameter of conductor)1/2
(C) (diameter of conductor )2
(D) (diameter of conductor )2.
Get Answer
15. In overhead transmission lines the effect of capacitance can be neglected when the length of line is less than
(A) 200 km
(B) 160 km
(C) 100 km
(D) 80 km.
Get Answer
Get all answers 1.C ----- 2.B ----- 3.C ----- 4.D ----- 5.B ----- 6.A ----- 7.D ----- 8.B -----9.A -----10.D -----11.B ----- 12.D -----13.D -----14.C ----- 15.D
16. For constant voltage transmission the voltage drop is compensated by installing
(A) synchronous motors
(B) capacitors
(C) inductors
(D) all of the above.
Get Answer
17. The disadvantage of constant voltage transmission is
(A) short circuit current of the system is increased
(B) load power factor in heavy loads
(C) large conductor area is required for same power transmission
(D) air of the above.
Get Answer
18. The surge impedance for over head line is taken as
(A) 10-20 ohms
(B) 50-60 ohms
(C) 100-200 ohms
(D) 1000-2000 ohms.
Get Answer
19. Pin insulators are normally used up to voltage of about
(A)100kV
(B) 66 kV
(C) 33 kV
(D) 25 kV.
Get Answer
20. Strain type insulator arc used where the conductors arc
(A) dead ended
(B) at intermediate anchor towers
(C) any of the above
(D) none of the above.
Get Answer
21. For 66 kV lines the number of insulator discs used are
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 12.
Get Answer
22. Ten discs usually suggest that the transmission line voltage is
(A) 11 kV
(B) 33 kV
(C) 66 kV
(D) 132 kV.
Get Answer
23. The effect of corona is
(A) increased energy loss
(B) increased reactance
(C) increased inductance
(D) all of the above.
Get Answer
24. Corona usually occurs when the electrostatic stress in the air around the conductor succeeds
(A) 30 kV (maximum value)/cm
(B) 22 kV (maximum value)/cm
(C) 11 kV (rms value)/cm
(D) 6.6 kv (rms value)/cm.
Get Answer
25. Corona effect can be detected by
(A) hissing sound
(B) faint luminous flow of bluish color
(C) presence of ozone detected by odor
(D) all of the above.
Get Answer
26. The current drawn by the line due to corona losses is
(A) sinusoidal
(B) square
(C) non-sinusoidal
Get Answer
27. Presence of ozone as a result of corona is harmful because
(A) it gives bad odor
(B) it corrodes the material
(C) it transfers energy to the ground
(D) reduces power factor.
Get Answer
28. Between two supports, due to sag the conductor takes the form of
(A) catenary
(B) triangle
(C) ellipse
(D) semi-circle.
Get Answer
29. The inductance of a single phase two wire line is given by (D is the distance between conductors and 2v is the
diameter of conductor)
(A) 0.4 loge (D/r) mH/km
(B) 0.55 loge (D/r) mH/km
(C) 0.4 loge (r/D) mH/km
(D) 0.55 loge (r/D) mH/km.
Get Answer
30. The effect of ice deposition on conductor is
(A) increased skin effect
(B) reduced corona losses
(C) increased weight
(D) reduced sag.
Get Answer
Get all answers at once 16.A ----- 17.A ----- 18.C ----- 19.D ----- 20.C ----- 21.B ----- 22.D ----- 23.A -----24.A ----- 25.D ----- 26.C ----- 27.B -----28.A -----29.A ----- 30.C
31. The effect of wind pressure is more predominant on
(A) transmission lines
(B) neutral wires
(C) insulator
(D) supporting towers.
Get Answer
32. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) Wind pressure reduces corona effects
(B) Ice on conductors improves power factor
(C) Wind pressure is taken to act in a direction at right angles to that for ice
(D) Wind pressure and ice on conductors together improve regulation of power transmitted.
Get Answer
33. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(A) As the temperature rises the tension in the transmission line decreases
(B) As temperature rises the sag in transmission lines reduces
(C) Tension and sag in transmission lines are complementary to each other.
Get Answer
34. Wooden poles for supporting transmission lines are used for voltages up to
(A) 440 V
(B)11 kV
(C) 22 kV
(D) 66 kV.
Get Answer
35. If K is the volume of cable conductor material required to transmit power, then for the transmission of the same power,
the volume of cable conductor required for single phase 2 wise AC system is
(A) 2k
(B) k cosφ
(C) k/ cos2φ
(D) 2k/ cos2p
Get Answer
36. Maximum permissible span for wooden poles is
(A) 10 meter
(B) 20 meters
(C) 60 meters
(D) 200 meters.
Get Answer
37. When transformers or switchgears are to be installed in a transmission line, the poles used are
(A) I type
(B) J type
(C) H type
(D) L type.
Get Answer
38. For improving life, steel poles are galvanized. Galvanizing is the process of applying a layer of
(A) paint
(B) varnish
(C) tar coal
(D) zinc.
Get Answer
39. The disadvantage of transmission lines as compared to cables is
(A) exposure to lightening
(B) exposure to atmospheric hazards like smoke, ice, etc.
(C) inductive interference between power and communication circuits
(D) all of the above.
Get Answer
40. ACSR conductor implies
(A) All conductors surface treated and realigned
(B) Aluminum conductor steel reinforced
(C) Anode current sinusoidally run
(D) Anodized Core Smooth Run.
Get Answer
41. The surge resistance of transmission lines is about
(A) 50 ohms
(B) 100 ohms
(C) 250 ohms
(D) 500 ohms.
Get Answer
42. During storm the live conductor of public electric supply breaks down and touches the earth. The consequences will be
(A) supply voltage will drop
(B) supply voltage will increase
(C) current will flow to earth
(D) no current will flow in the conductor.
Get Answer
43. In transmission system a feeder feeds power to
(A) service mains
(B) generating stations
(C) distributors
(D) all of the above.
Get Answer
44. For transmission lines the standing wave ratio is the ratio of
(A) maximum voltage to minimum voltage
(B) maximum current to minimum voltage
(C) peak voltage to rms voltage
(D) maximum reactance to minimum reactance.
Get Answer
45. In a transmission line following arc the distributed constants
(A) resistance and inductance only
(B) resistance, inductance and capacitance
(C) resistance, inductance, capacitance and short conductance.
Get Answer
Get all answers at once 31.D ----- 32.C ----- 33.C ----- 34.C ----- 35.D ----- 36.C ----- 37.C ----- 38.D ----- 39.D ----- 40
46. The bundling of conductors is done primarily to
(A) reduce reactance
(B) increase reactance
(C) increase ratio interference
(D) reduce radio interference.
Get Answer
47. Which of the following regulation is considered to be the best
(A) 2%
(B) 30%
(C)70%
(D) 98%.
Get Answer
48. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line depends upon
(A) shape of the conductor
(B) surface treatment of the conductors
(C) conductivity of the material
(D) geometrical configuration. of the conductors.
Get Answer
49. For a distortion-less transmission line (G = shunt conductance between two wires)
(A) R/L = G/C
(B) RL=GC
(C) RG=LC
(D)RLGC=0
Get Answer
50. Guard ring transmission line
(A) improves power factor
(B) reduces earth capacitance of the lowest unit
(C) reduces transmission losses
(D) improves regulation.
Get Answer
51. When the power is to be transmitted over a distance of 500 km, the transmission voltage should be in the range
(A) 33 kV - 66 kV
(B) 66 kV - 100 kV
(C) 110 kV - 150 kV
(D) 150kV - 220kV.
Get Answer
52. A relay used on long transmission lines is
(A) mho's relay
(B) reactance relay
(C) impedance relay
(D) no relay is used.
Get Answer
53. Total load transmitted through a 3 phase transmission line is 10,000 kW at 0.8 power factor lagging. The I2R losses are
900 kW. The efficiency of transmission line is
(A) 60%
(B) 90%
(C) 95%
(D) 99%.
Get Answer
54. Litz wires are used for intermediate frequencies.to overcome
(A) corona effect
(B) skin effect
(C) radio interference
(D) all of the above.
Get Answer
55. In order to reduce skin effect at UHF
(A) conductors are painted
(B) conductors are anodized
(C) copper lubes with silver plating are used
(D) copper rods with silver plating are used.
Get Answer
56. Shunt capacitance is usually neglected in the analysis of
(A) Short transmission lines
(B) Medium transmission lines
(C) Long transmission lines
(D) Medium as well as long transmission lines.
Get Answer
57. The chances of corona are maximum during
(A) summer heat
(B) winter
(C) dry weather
(D) humid weather.
Get Answer
58. The power transmitted will be maximum when
(A) Sending end voltage is more
(B) Receiving end voltage is more
(C) Reactance is high
(D) Corona losses are least.
Get Answer
59. Neglecting losses in a transmission system, if the voltage is doubled, for the same power transmission, the weight of
conductor material required will be
(A) four times
(B) double
(C) half
(D) one fourth.
Get Answer
60. When two conductors each of radius r are at a distance D, the capacitance between the two is proportional to
(A) loge (D/r)
(B) loge (r/D)
(C) 1/loge (D/r)
(D) 1/loge (r/D).
Get Answer
Get all answers at once
46.A ----- 47.A ----- 48.D ----- 49.A ----- 50.B ----- 51.D ----- 52.A ----- 53.B ----- 54.B ----- 55.C ----- 56.A ----- 57.D ----- 58.A ----- 59.D ----- 60.C
61. In a transmission line having negligible resistance the surge impedance is
(A) (L+C)1/2
(B) (C/L)1/2
(C) (1/LC)1/2
(D) (L/C)1/2
Get Answer
62. A relay used on short transmission lines is
(A) Reactance relay
(B) Mho's relay
(C) Impedance relay
(D) None of the above.
Get Answer
63. In case the characteristic impedance of the line is equal to the load impedance
(A) all the energy will pass to the earth
(B) all the energy will be lost in transmission losses
(C) the system will resonate badly
(D) all the energy sent will be absorbed by the load.
Get Answer
64. For a properly terminated line
(A) ZR=ZO
(B) Z/R > ZO
(C) ZR < ZO
(D) ZR =Z0 = 0.
Get Answer
65. The dielectric strength of air at 250C and 76 cm/Hg is
(A) 1 kV/cm
(B) 1 kV/mm
(C) 3 kV/cm
(D) 30 kV/cm.
Get Answer
66. The chances of corona are maximum in
(A) domestic wiring
(B) distribution lines
(C) transmission lines
(D) all of the above.
Get Answer
67. Transmission lines link
(A) service points to consumer premises
(B) distribution transformer to consumer premises
(C) receiving end station to distribution transformer
(D) generating station to receiving end station.
Get Answer
68. In case of open circuit transmission lines the reflection coefficient is
(A) 1
(B) 0.5
(C) -1
(D) Zero.
Get Answer
69. Impedance relay is used on
(A) Short transmission lines
(B) Medium transmission lines
(C) Long transmission line
(D) All the transmission lines.
Get Answer
70. Which type of insulators are used on 132 kV transmission lines ?
(A) Pin type
(B) Disc type
(C) Shackle type
(D) Pin and shackle type.
Get Answer
71. String efficiency can be improved by
(A) using Longer cross arm
(B) grading the insulator
(C) using a guard ring
(D) any of the above.
Get Answer
72. Minimum horizontal clearance of a low voltage transmission line from residential buildings must be
(A) 11/2 feet
(B) 3 feet
(C) 4 feet
(D) 8 feet.
Get Answer
73. If a 66 kV lines passes over a residential building, the minimum vertical clearance from the roof of the building must be
(A) 8 feet
(B) 12 feet
(C) 13 feet
(D) 16 feet.
Get Answer
74. Alternating current power is transmitted at high voltage
(A) to safeguard against pilferage
(B) to minimize transmission losses
(C) to reduce cost of generation
(D) to make the system reliable.
Get Answer
75. Stranded conductors arc used for transmitting, power at high voltages because of
(A) increased tensile strength
(B) better wind resistance
(C) ease-in handling
(D) low cost.
Get Answer
Get all answers at once 61.D ----- 62.A ----- 63.D ----- 64.D ----- 65.D ----- 66.C ----- 67.D ----- 68.D ----- 69.B ----- 70.B ----- 71.D ----- 72.C -----73.C ----- 74.B ----- 75.C
76. For the same resistance of line the ratio, weight of copper conductor/ weight of aluminium conductor , is
(A) 0.50
(B) 0.75
(C) 1.50
(D) 2.0.
Get Answer
77. The function of steel wire in a ACSR conductor is
(A) to take care of surges
(B) to prevent corona
(C) to reduce inductance and hence improve power factor
(D) to provide additional mechanical strength.
Get Answer
78. In high voltage transmission lines the top most conductor is
(A) R-phase conductor
(B) Y- phase conductor
(C) B-phase conductor
(D) Earth conductor.
Get Answer
79. For 11 kV line the inductance per km per phase will be of the order of
(A) 1 H
(B) 0.1 H
(C) 1 mH
(D) 0.1 mH.
Get Answer
80. For 11 kV. line the capacitance per km per phase will be of the order of
(A) 1 Farad
(B) 0.1 Farad
(C) 0.01 Farad
(D) 0.01 microF.
Get Answer
81. If 3000 kW power is to be transmitted over a distance of 30 km, the desirable transmission voltage will be
(A) 11 kV
(B) 33 kV
(C) 66 kV
(D) 132 kV.
Get Answer
82. The permissible voltage variation in transmission and distribution system is
(A) ± 0.1%
(B) ± 1%
(C)±10%
(D)± 25%.
Get Answer
83. The voltage of transmission can be regulated by
(A) use of tap changing transformers
(B) switching in shunt capacitors at the receiving end during heavy loads
(C) use of series capacitors to neutralize the effect of series reactance
(D) any of the above methods.
Get Answer
84. The most economic voltage for transmitting given power over a known distance by overhead transmission line is
approximately
(A) 3.6 kV/km
(B) 1.6 kV/km
(C) 2.6 kV/km
(D) 3.6 kVkm.
Get Answer
85. String efficiency is given by
(A) (voltage across the string) / ((numbers of discs on the string) x (voltage across disc nearest to the conductor))
(B) ((voltage across the string) x (numbers of discs on the string)) / (voltage across disc nearest to the conductor)
(C) ( (voltage across disc nearest to the conductor) x (numbers of discs on the string)) / (voltage across the string)
(D) (voltage across disc nearest to the conductor))/ ((numbers of discs on the string) x (voltage across the string)
Get Answer
86. For a 66 kV line having span of 200 meters between towers the approximate sag will be
(A) 0.02 m
(B) 0.2 m
(C) 2 m
(D) 20 m.
Get Answer
87. In the above case if the span is doubled, the sag will be
(A) 2 m
(B) 4m
(C) 8m
(D) 1 m.
Get Answer
88. The reflection coefficient for a short circuit line is
(A) 1
(B) Zero
(C) 0.5
(D) - 1.
Get Answer
89. In case the height of transmission tower is increased
(A) the line capacitance and inductance will not change
(B) the line capacitance will decrease but line inductance will decrease
(C) the line capacitance will decrease and line inductance will increase
(D) the line capacitance will decrease but line inductance will remain unaltered.
Get Answer
90. In a transmission line if booster transformer are to be used, preferred location will be
(A) at the receiving end
(B) at the sending end
(C) at the intermediate point
(D) any where in the line.
Get Answer
Get all answers at once 76.D ----- 77.D ----- 78.D ----- 79.C ----- 80.C ----- 81.B ----- 82.C ----- 83.D ----- 84.A ----- 85.A ----- 86.C ----- 87.C ----- 88.D ----- 89.D ----- 90
91. A 70/6 ACSR conduction is an aluminium conductor steel reinforced, having
(A) cross sectional area of aluminium as 70 mm2 and the cross-sectional area of steel as 6 mm2
(B) cross-sectional area of steel as 70 mm2 and the cross-sections area of aluminium as 6 mm2
(C) 70 aluminium conductors and 6 steel conductors
(D) 80 steel conductors and 6 aluminium conductors.
Get Answer
92. In aluminium conductors steel reinforced, the insulation between aluminium and steel conductors is
(A) any insulator
(B) bitumen
(C) insulin
(D) no insulation is required.
Get Answer
93. Under no load conditions the current in a transmission line is due to
(A) corona effects
(B) capacitance of the line
(C) back flow from earth
(D) spinning reserve.
Get Answer
94. Which distribution system is more reliable ?
(A) Ring main system
(B) Tree system
(C) Radial system
(D) All are equally reliable.
Get Answer
95. Out of the following systems of distribution, which system offers the best economy ?
(A) Direct current system
(B) AC single phase system
(C) AC 3 phase 3 wire system
(D) AC 3 phase 4 wire system.
Get Answer
96. What are the advantages of dc transmission system over ac transmission system ?
(A) DC system is economical
(B) There is no skin effect in dc system
(C) Corona limits are highest for dc circuits as compared to ac circuits
(D) All of the above.
Get Answer
97. The main advantage of ac. transmission system over d.c. transmission system is
(A) Easy transformation
(B) Less losses in transmission over long distances
(C) ) Less insulation problems
(D) Less problem of instability.
Get Answer
98. Which curve correctly represents the relation between capital cost and dc voltage of transmission ?
(A) curve A
(B) curve B
(C) curve C
(D) curve D.
Get Answer
99. Step-up substations are associated with
(A) distributors
(B) consumer location
(C) concentrated load
(D) generating stations.
Get Answer
Questions 100 to 102 refer to figure given below :
100. A section of a single bus scheme is shown in the figure. In this figure B represents
(A) Isolator
(B) Circuit breaker
(C) Current transformer
(D) Inductance.
Get Answer
101. An isolator is represented by
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) A and D.
Get Answer
102. C represents
(A) circuit breaker
(B) Mho's relay
(C) Earth switch
(D) None of the above.
Get Answer
103. When an alternator is connected to the infinite but bar and its excitation is gradually increased
(A) the terminal voltage will rise
(B) the terminal voltage will drop
(C) the terminal voltage will remain unaltered
(D) the terminal voltage will vary rapidly.
Get Answer
104. Consumers having low power factor equipment are advised to install
(A) tap changing transformer
(B) capacitor bank
(C) synchronous condensers
(D) none of the above.
Get Answer
105. A bus bar is rated by
(A) current only
(B) current and voltage only
(C) current, voltage, frequency
(D) current, voltage, frequency and short time current.
Get Answer
Get all answers at once 91.C ----- 92.D ----- 93.B ----- 94.A ----- 95.A ----- 96.D ----- 97.B ----- 98.B ----- 99.D -----100.C -----101.D ----- 102.A-----103.C -----104.B ----- 105.D
106. Material generally used for bus bar is
(A) copper
(B) aluminium
(C) steel
(D) tungsten.
Get Answer
107. Which of following properties has got higher value for aluminium as compared to copper?
(A) Melting point
(B) Specific gravity
(C) Electrical resistivity
(D) Thermal conductivity.
Get Answer
108. For carrying a 100 A (rms) current the cross-sectional area of aluminium bus bar should be at least
(A) 1 mm2
(B) 10 mm 2
(C) 25 mm 2
(D) 50 mm2
Get Answer
109. Isolators are used to disconnect a circuit when
(A) line is on full load
(B) line is energized
(C) circuit breaker is not open
(D) there is no current in the line.
Get Answer
110. Tap changing transformers are used for
(A) stepping up the voltage
(B) stepping down the voltage
(C) both stepping up and stepping down the voltage
(D) supplying low voltage current for instruments.
Get Answer
111. Which device automatically interrupts the supply in the event of surges
(A) Earthing switch
(B) Series reactor
(C) Isolator
(D) Circuit breaker.
Get Answer
112. In a substation the equipment used to limit short circuit current level is
(A) Series reactor
(B) Coupling capacitor
(C) Lightening switch
(D) Isolator.
Get Answer
113. Which of the following equipment is not installed in a substation ?
(A) Shunt reactors
(B) Exciters
(C) Voltage transformers
(D) Series capacitors.
Get Answer
114. Which bus bar scheme offers the lowest cost ?
(A) Single bus bar scheme
(B) Ring bus bar scheme
(C) Breaker and a half scheme
(D) Main and transfer scheme.
Get Answer
115. Which is the most expensive bus bar scheme ?
(A) Single bus bar scheme
(B) Ring bus bar scheme
(C) Double bus bar double breaker
(D) Main and transfer scheme.
Get Answer
116. Current rating is not necessary in case of
(A) Isolators
(B) Circuit breakers
(C) Load break switches
(D) Circuit breakers and load break switches.
Get Answer
117. Which of the following correctly represents the sequence of operations of isolator circuit breaker and earthing switch
while opening a circuit
(A) Close earthing switch - open circuit breaker open isolator
(B) Open isolator - close circuit breaker - open earthing switch
(C) Open circuit breaker - open isolator - close earthing switch
(D) Close circuit breaker - close isolator - open earthing switch.
Get Answer
118. Which of the following correctly presents the sequence of operations of isolator circuit breaker and earthing switch
while closing a circuit
(A) Ensure circuit breaker is closed - close isolator - open earthing switch
(B) Ensure circuit breaker is open - close isolator - open earthing switch if any close circuit breaker
(C) Ensure circuit breaker is open - open isolator - open earthing switch if any - close circuit breaker.
(D) None of the above.
Get Answer
119. Which of the following type tests are conducted on isolators
(A) Temperature rise test
(B) Impulse stage with stand test
(C) Short time current test
(D) All of the above.
Get Answer
120. In a balance 3 φ , 4 wire AC system, the phase sequence is RYB. If the voltage of R phase is. 230 < 0° V, then for
Y phase
(A) 230 < 0 V
(B) 230 < 60° V
(C) 230 < 90°V
(D) 230 < 120° V.
Get Answer
Get all answers at once 106.B ----- 107.C ----- 108.C ----- 109.D ----- 110.C ----- 111.D ----- 112.A ----- 113.B ----- 114.A ----- 115.C -----116.A ----- 117.C -----118.B -----119.D ----- 120.D
PREVIOUSE QUESTION PAPERS
HOLY MARY INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY & SCIENCE
(COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING)
Bogaram (V), Keesara (M), MEDCHAL – 501 301
DEPARTMENT OF ELECTRONICS & COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING
HAND BOOK
PROGRAMME: B.Tech EEE AC:YEAR: 2018-2019 DEGREE: B.TECH IV YEAR
COURSE: MICROPROCESSOR SEMESTER: I CREDITS: 4
&MICROCONTROLLERS COURSE COORDINATOR: Mrs.J.Pushparani
COURSE CODE: E1507PC COURSE TYPE:REGULAR
REGULATION:R16
COURSE AREA/DOMAIN: ECE CONTACT HOURS: 4 hours/Week.
CORRESPONDING LAB COURSE CODE : E1507PC LAB COURSE NAME: MPMC LAB
COURSE OVERVIEW:
This course on Embedded systems will first the students to the fundamental requirements of
embedded systems and the interaction between hardware and software in such systems. Next the
course will discuss some basic steps of hardware design, introduce to ASIPs, ASICs and FPGAs.
Since many of the embedded systems will have real time constraints, basic issues of real time
operating systems will be discussed. This will be followed by formal specification models and
languages, mapping the specification to hardware and software components along with decisions
on design tradeoffs and hardware software partitioning.
PRE-REQUISITES:
C.CODE COURSE NAME DESCRIPTION SEM
1
Switching Theory and Logical Good Logic thinking skills, Concepts of
II-I
Design Number Systems, RAM, ROM
COMPUTER
Knowledge of communicating with I/O
2 ORGANIZATION & III-I
devices and Operating system
OPERATING SYSTEMS
MARKS DISTRIBUTION:
Session Marks
University End Total
Exam Marks Marks
Mid Semester Test
• There shall be two midterm examinations.
• Each midterm examination consists of subjective type and objective
type tests.
• The subjective test is for 10 marks of 60 minutes duration.
• Subjective test of shall contain 4 questions; the student has to
answer 2 questions, each carrying 5 marks.
• The objective type test is for 10 marks of 20 minutes duration. It
consists of 10 multiple choice and 10 objective type questions, the
75 100
student has to answer all the questions and each carries half mark.
• First midterm examination shall be conducted for the first two and
half units of syllabus and second midterm examination shall be
conducted for the remaining portion.
Assignment
• Five marks are earmarked for assignments.
• There shall be two assignments in every theory course. Marks shall
be awarded considering the average of two assignments in each
course.
EVALUATION SCHEME:
S. No Component Duration Marks
1 I Mid Examination 80minutes 20
2 I Assignment - 5
3 II Mid Examination 80minutes 20
4 II Assignment - 5
5 External Examination 3 hours 75
COURSE OBJECTIVES & OUTCOMES:
Course Objectives Course Outcomes Blooms
Level
Understand the basics of an embedded Understand and Design Embedded BL1,2
system. Systems
Understand concepts of programming Understand the internal architecture and BL 1,2,4
embedded systems operation of advanced microcontrollers
To learn the method of designing an Understand types of Memory and BL 1,2,3
Embedded system for any type of Interfacing to External world.
applications.
To understand Operating Systems Learn basics of OS and RTOS BL 1,2,5
Concepts, types and choosing RTOS
Design, implement and Test Embedded Understand Embedded firmware design BL 3,5,6
system. approaches
BLOOMS LEVEL (BL)
BL 1: Remember / knowledge BL2: Understanding BL3: Apply
BL 4: Analyze BL 5: Evaluate BL 6: Create
HOW PROGRAM OUTCOMES ARE ASSESSED:
Program Outcomes Level
Proficiency Blooms
assessed by Level
Solving
A
An ability to apply knowledge of mathematics, science
S
Gate and
APPLY
and engineering
Text book
Problems
Solving
B
An ability to design and conduct experiments, as well as
S
Gate and
APPLY
to analyze and interpret data
Text book
Problems
An ability to design a system, component, or process to Assignment
C
meet desired needs within realistic constraints such as
H
and Apply and
economic, environmental, social, political, ethical, Gate Analyze
health and safety, manufacturability and sustainability. questions
An ability to identify, formulate and solve engineering
Class Test
D S & Group Apply
problems.
Activity
An ability to use the techniques, skills, and modern
Mini and
E S Micro Apply
engineering tools necessary for engineering practice.
Projects
An ability to understand the special duty they owe to
F protect the public’s health, safety and welfare by virtue N -- --
of their professional status as engineers in society.
G
An ability to understand and correctly interpret the
H
Mini / Analyze
impact of engineering solutions in global, societal and Micro and Justify
environmental contexts and demonstrate the knowledge Projects
of a need for sustainable development. and GATE
questions
H
An understanding of professional and ethical
N -- --
responsibility.
An ability to function effectively as an individual, and as
Class Test
I a member or leader in diverse teams, and in
S Analyze
& Seminar
multidisciplinary settings.
An ability to communicate effectively on complex
engineering activities with the engineering community
J
and with society at large, such as, being able to
S Seminars
Understand
comprehend and write effective reports and design
& Analyze
documentation, make effective presentations, give and
receive clear instructions.
An ability to demonstrate knowledge and understanding
Mini and
of the engineering finance and management principles as
K S Micro Apply
a member and leader in a team to manage projects in
Projects
multi-disciplinary environments.
L
Recognition of the need for, and an ability to engage in
S
Group
Analyze
life-long analyzing.
Activity
An ability to design and implement projects in the areas
Mini and
including Signal Processing, Microwaves,
M
H Micro Apply
Communication Systems, IC Technology and Embedded
Projects
Systems.
An ability to use knowledge in various domains to
Seminars & Analyze &
N identify research gaps and hence to provide solution to
S
Projects Apply
new ideas and innovations.
N = None S = Supportive H = Highly Related
E1507PC MICROPROCESSORS & MICROCONTROLLERS
Course Description:
Microprocessor technology is an exciting, challenging and growing field which will pervade industry
for decades to come. Ever since the invent of first microprocessor to the latest, microprocessors have
been used in different applications. To meet the challenges of this growing technology, one has also to
be conversant with programming aspects of the microprocessor and microcontrollers. This course of
microprocessor and interfacing presents an integrated approach to hardware and software in the
context of 8086 microprocessor and 8051 microcontroller.
A handful of additional and less complex chips connected to the microprocessor enable a complete
microcomputer to be built. This course provides a comprehensive coverage of the Intel 8086
microprocessor, it‟s major functional components, memory structure, register structure, instruction
set, external interfaces, modes of operation, assembly language programming and introduces
architectural concepts and programming of 8051 microcontroller
Prerequisites
Requires the knowledge of number theory, Boolean algebra, switching theory and logic design and
fundamentals of computer architecture.
COURSE OBJECTIVES:
Students will be able to
Outline the history of computing devices (remember)
Describe the architecture of 8086 microprocessor (understand)
Develop assembly level programs for microprocessor and microcontroller (apply)
Compare between microprocessors and microcontrollers (analyze)
Design and implement microcontroller-based embedded system (create)
COURSE OUTCOMES:
At the end of the course, the student will develop ability to
1. Retrieve the history of microprocessors (remember).
2. Describe the architecture of 8085 and 8086 microprocessors (understand).
3. Apply the principles of top down design to microprocessor software development (apply).
4. Distinguish between the different modes of operations of microprocessor (analyze).
5. Execute assembly level programs for interfacing various devices to microprocessor and
microcontroller (apply).
6. Compare between microprocessors and microcontrollers (analyze).
7. Evaluate the appropriateness of a memory expansion interface based on the address
reference mix of a particular application (evaluate).
8. Design and implement microcontroller-based embedded system (create).
UNIT – I
Introduction: Evolution of Microprocessors, 8085 MPU architecture.
8086 Family Architecture: Organization of 8086 CPU, Concept of Memory Segmentation,
Physical and logical addressing, Addressing Modes, Instruction set: Data transfer, arithmetic,
logical, string and control transfer instructions.
UNIT – II
Assembly Language Programming: Assemble directives, simple Programming of 8086 on
data transfer, arithmetic, logical, string and branching. Procedures, macros, time delays, pin
diagram, Min/Max modes of 8086, timing diagrams.
UNIT – III
Interfacing With 8086: 8255 PPI, interfacing, interfacing of switches, LEDs, ADC,
DAC and Stepper motor. Interrupt structure of 8086, 8259 PIC, need for DMA, 8257
DMA Controller.
UNIT – IV
8051 Microcontroller: 8051 Architecture, pin diagram, addressing modes, instruction
set: data transfer, arithmetic, logical, control transfer instructions. Assembly language
Programming.
UNIT – V
8051 Microcontroller: Timers, I/O ports, Serial port, Interrupts. Interfacing: LEDs,
switches, LCD, 7 Segment display, keyboard.
TEXT BOOKS:
1 D.V. Hall, “Microprocessors and Interfacing”, TMGH, 2nd Edition, 2006,
2 Muhammed Ali Mazidi, “The 8051 Microcontrollers and Embedded Systems”, Pearson, New Delhi.
REFERENCE BOOKS:
4. A.K. Ray and K.M. Bhurchandani, “Advanced Microprocessors and Peripherals”, TMH,
2nd Edition, 2006.
5. Kenneth J Ayala, “The 8051 Microcontroller”, Cengage Learning, 3rd Edition.
6. Brey, “Advanced Microprocessors”, Prentice Hall of India, New Delhi. 7. Raj Kamal, “Micro Controllers”, Pearson, 2nd Edition, 2011.
WEBSITES
& www.deas.harvard.edu/
& www.manchester.ac.uk/research/areas/
& www.eecs.umich.edu/eecs/research/resprojects.html
& www. kabuki.eecs.berkeley.edu/papers.html
& www.intel.com
& www.bbdbestoff.com/importers
& www.ece.uiuc.edu
& www.pearsoned.co.uk
& www.atmel.com
CONTENT BEYOND SYLLABUS:
Introduction to ARM Controllers
LECTURE PLAN
Sl.
Topics in syllabus Modules and Sub modules
Lecture
No. No.
UNIT – I (No. of Lectures – 10)
An overview of
Introduction of µp,
L1 1 Evolution of µp,
8085 Limitations of 8085.
L2
2 Architecture of Bus interface unit, Execution unit L3
8086 µp L4
Special functions of
Register organization of 8086,
L5 general registers, segment
3 General purpose registers, pointers and index L6
registers registers
4 Flag registers
Functions of Flag, Register
L7
L8
Addressing modes
5 Types of Addressing modes L9
of 8086.
6 Instruction set of Instruction format, Types of
L10
8086
instruction sets
UNIT –II (No. of Lectures – 17)
7
Assembler
L11
Types of Assembler, Directives
Directives
L12
How to write a program, L13
8 Simple programs
List of programs
L14
Passing parameters to the
L15
procedures, calls & returns,
9 Procedures
L16
Procedure definition, Recursive
L17
procedures
Macros
Defining macro, passing
10
parameters to macro, local labels, L18
nested macros
11
Assembly language Logical instructions, branch L19
programs
instructions, call instructions
L20
12 Sorting
Types of sorting
L21
L22
Moving a string
Length of string, L23
13 String manipulation Comparing a string, L24
Reverse of a string, L25
scanning a string
14 Pin diagram
Operation of maximum and L24
minimum mode
L25
15 Timing diagram
Timing diagram of max and min L26
mode
L27
UNIT –III (No. of Lectures – 14)
Architecture,
L34
pin diagram,
16 8255 PPI
L35
I/O modes,
Interfacing
D/A and A/D Interfacing of D/A and A/D L36
17
converters
converters
L37
20 Stepper motor and Stepper motor and actuators L38
actuators L39
21
Direct memory Need for DMA,
L40
access
Types of DMA
DMA data transfer
22 DMA data transfer method L41
method
Interfacing with
Architecture,
L42 23 pin diagram,
8257 Interfacing
L43
25
Interrupt structure S/w interrupts,
L44
of 8086
H/w interrupts,
Priority of interrupts
26
Interrupt vector Interrupt vector table, Interrupt
L45
table
service routine
Architecture,
L46
Interfacing,
28 8259 PIC
L47
Cascading,
Importance
UNIT – IV (No. of Lectures – 08)
Introduction,
L48
29 8051 MC
Architecture,
L49
Pin diagram
Flags,
30 Register set of 8051 PSW,
L50
SFR
31 Addressing Modes Addressing Modes
L51
Instruction set of
Data Transfer L52
32 Arithmetic L53
8051 Logical
33
Instruction set of Branch Instructions
L54 8051
Call and RET Instructions
Assembly
Programs involving Arithmetic,
34
Logical operations
L55 Language Programs
UNIT –V (No. of Lectures – 06)
35 Modes of timer Types L56
operations
36 Serial port Serial port operation L57
operation
37 Interrupt structure Interrupt structure of 8051 L58
of 8051
38 I/O Interfacing
Interfacing of LED L59
Keyboard Interfacing L60
TEXT BOOKS:
TB1=D.V.HALL Microprocessor
TB2=MUHAMMAD ALI MAZIDI ,8051 Microcontroller
REFERENCE BOOKS:
RB1:A.K.RAY BHURCHANDI
RB2:KENNETH AYALA
RB3:BREY
Review Question
UNIT – I
Draw the architectural diagram of 8085 and explain the function of each block in detail.
a. With a neat architectural diagram explain the functioning of 8086 microprocessor.
compare the flag resisters of 8086 & 8085. ?
Discusses the general functions of all general-purpose resisters of 8086? Explain the
special function of each resister and instruction support for these functions.
Discuss the addressing modes provided by 8086 and explain with examples?
What is the length of the instruction queue in 8086? Discuss the use of the queue?
Explain the reason for limiting the length of queue?
i. What are the advantages in using pipelining feature in introducing it to 8086
architecture?
What is the format of flag register. Explain their status change with an example.
i. What are the control flags in 8086? Explain each of the control flags in conjunction
with the Instructions being used.
ii What are the advantages of memory segmentation?
Explain the function of ALE pin in 8086
Explain physical address, effective address, offset used in 8086.
Explain the following 8086 instructions with examples.
i) MUL ii) IMUL iii) DIV iv) IDIV
Discuss various branch instructions of 8086 microprocessor that are useful for relocation
Explain the operation performed by the following instruction of 8086
i. AAM ii. CLD iii. IDIV iv. JCXZ
12. Explain the operation of JUMP, CALL and LOOP instruction with an example what are
the flags affected in each of these instructions.
What are the loop instructions of 8086? Explain the use of DF flag in the execution of
string instructions. With example describe the various branch (control) instructions in 8086
microprocessor
i. Write short notes on: i . MOVS ii. LODS
What condition or conditions will terminate the repeated string instructions
REPNE SCASB?
. i. Describe the following addressing modes with examples.
indexed addressing with displacement.
I/O port addressing
UNIT – II
Differentiate between procedures and macros using certain examples.
Discuss the importance of procedures in assembly language programming.
What is a recursive procedure? Write a recursive procedure to calculate the factorial of
number N, where N is a two-digit Hex number?
4. write briefly about
a. i. PUBLIC directive. ii. EXTERN directive.
Discuss the assembler directives with examples
What is procedure? How is a procedure identified as near or far?
What are the different ways of passing parameters to and from procedures? Explain
the methods with examples in assembly language?
Develop an assembly language program to multiply two BCD numbers of 2-digit
each
Draw and briefly explain the pin diagram of 8086?
Compute the average of N number of bytes in an array in memory. The length of the
string is in
a. First location of the array. The number starts from 2nd location of array.
Add two 5 byte numbers such the sum is stored in one of the source array locations.
Write an 8086 ALP to covert the Fahrenheit temperature to Celsius temperature.
13. Give a neat flow chart and the corresponding 8086 assembly language program for
performing
Bubble sort on N elements stored in an array A.
Develop an 8086 assembly language program that converts the given hexadecimal
data into
ASCII and vice-versa
Develop an 8086 assembly language program to find the LCM of two 16-bit unsigned
integers.
Develop an 8086 assembly language program to find the GCD of two 16-bit
unsigned integers
Develop and 8086 assembly language program for the following.
to sum the numbers from 1 to 100
to count the total number of negative numbers in the given series
How is the LOCAL directive used within a macro sequence? Explain with an
example
Draw and discuss the read and write cycle timings diagrams of 8086 in
minimum mode.?
Draw and discuss the read and write cycle timings diagrams of 8086 in
maximum mode.?
What is a far procedure? With an example clearly indicate the way of calling such
procedures.
Write an 8086 Assembly Language Program to compute the average of 4-bytes stored
in an array in memory
Write an Assembly program to convert a BCD number to Binary number
Distinguish between the inter segment and intra segment CALL instructions and
explain how they will executed with examples.
What are the major ways of passing parameters to and from procedures? Explain the
method with an example.
Write an ALP in 8086 to count number of positive and negative numbers from an array
of 8-bit integers.
Describe the function of the following pins and their use in 8086 based system.
a) DEN b). LOCK a) TEST b) READY
Develop an 8086 assembly language program to find the LCM of two 16-bit unsigned
integers.
Write an 8086 assembly language program to check the password of length 4
bytes entered
Through key board whether it is matching with the system password stored at
FF00H location.
Develop an 8086 assembly language program to find the GCD of two 16-bit
unsigned integers.
Develop an 8086 assembly language program that uses a 16-bit unsigned integer as the
search key and performs binary search on the sorted 16-bit unsigned integers.
Develop an 8086 assembly language program to perform Ascending order of
n numbers?
Develop an 8086 assembly language program to perform Descending order of n
numbers?
UNIT – III
4. Explain the need of DMA. Discuss in detail about DMA data transfer method.
5. Explain with a neat diagram interfacing of 8257 with 8086?
6. Write the programming features of 8257 DMA controller?
7. Explain about interfacing of a DMA controller with 8086?
8. Draw and discuss the mode set register of 8257?
9. Discuss the priorities of DMA request inputs of 8257?
10. Explain the following data transfer schemes.
Programmed I/O
Interrupted I/O
11. Describe memory-mapped I/O and direct I/O. Give the main advantages
and disadvantages.
12. Explain the functions of and MN / pins of 8086 in detail.
13. Explain physical address, effective address, offset used in 8086.
14. What are the registers available in 8257? What are their functions?
15. Draw and discuss the status resisters of 8257?
16. Draw and discuss the mode set register of 8257?
17. Discuss the priorities of DMA request inputs of 8257?
18. Interface 8K x 8 EPROM to 8086 microprocessor in the address range FE000H to
FFFFFH. by using 2732 EPROM chips.
19. Draw the internal block diagram of 8255 and explain its working.
20. Explain how a keyboard is interfaced to 8086 through 8255. Draw the necessary
interface circuit?
21. Distinguish between Mode set control word and BSR control Word of 8255?
22. write an ALP in 8086 to generate a symmetrical square wave form with
1KHz frequency? Give the necessary circuit setup with a DAC?
23. Write the BSR control word to set bit 3 of port C and also write the BSR control word to
reset bit
24. 3 of port C. introduce a 1m sec delay between set and reset of bit 3 of port C.
25. Briefly explain the application examples of mode 0, mode 1 and mode 2 of 8255.
26. Draw a typical keyboard interface with 8255 and write the program to detect the key
closer.
| Interface 8255 with 8086 so as to have port A address 00, port B address 02, port C
address 02 and CWR address 03 with a suitable diagram.
| Explain how eight ON/OFF switches can be interfaced with a micro processor using
8255 port .Give the hardware and software for it.
| Explain with a block diagram how 4 digit seven segment LED‟S can be interfaced to
a microprocessor using multiplexing.
| Suppose that the beginning address of an 8255 is 0500 and write a program
sequence that will
| Put both groups a and b in mode 0 with ports A and C being input ports and port B as
an output
| Explain interfacing I/O subsystem using an 8255 with one example.
| Develop an 8086 assembly language program that reads a key from the keyboard and
converts it to uppercase before displaying it. The program needs to terminate on typing
the „Crtl + C‟ key
| What is BSR mode operation? How it is useful in controlling the interrupt initiated data
transfer for mode 1 and 2?
3. Draw the block diagram of 8255 and explain each block?
4. Interface a stepper motor with 8-step input sequence to 8086 based system and write the
instruction sequence to move the stepper motor 20 steps in clockwise and 12 steps in
anti-clockwise direction.
e. A DAC is interfaced to 8255 with an address map of 0800H to 0803H. Give
the hardware design?
f. It is necessary to design a counter type ADC with the same 8255 and DAC using a
comparator.
g. Give the necessary hardware? Provide the necessary instruction sequence to store
a sample in location sample one?
h. Using the above hardware write the instruction sequence for successive approximation
ADC?
i. A DAC is interfaced to 8255 with an address map of 0B00H to 0B03H. It is
necessary to design
j. An ADC with the same 8255 and DAC using a comparator. Give the necessary
hardware?
Explain how to interface a stepper motor with 4-step input sequence to 8086 based
system with the help of hard ware design? Write the instruction sequence to move
the stepper motor 10 steps in clockwise and 12 steps in anti-clockwise direction.
Explain control word format of 8255 in I/O and BSR mode.
Interface 16 bit 8255 ports with 8086. The address of port A if F0H
Explain with a block diagram how a stepper motor can be interfaced to a microprocessor
and explain it working
Explain the working principle of a digital-to-analog converter and how it can be
interfaced. Give the hardware and software for it.
Suppose that the beginning address of an 8255 is 0500 and write a program
sequence that will (i)
Explain interfacing I/O subsystem using an 8255 with one example.
Explain with a block diagram the working of successive approximation ADC and
its interface
With neat layout, explain how a microprocessor can be used for Data Acquisition
System using A/D converters and D/ A converters
Explain the application of Stepper Motor in microcomputers.
Explain with a block diagram the working of dual slope ADC and give its interface
Draw pin configuration of 8255 an explain function of each pin.
Give the relevant hardware and software for interfacing a Stepper Motor to 8086 based
system.
Give hardware and software for 8-bit ADC by interfacing 8-bit DAC to 8086
based system.
What is a stepper motor? Give the schematic for interfacing of stepper motor to 8086
processor and an ALP to control the direction and speed of the stepper motor.
UNIT-IV
1. Explain the internal and external program memory as well as data memory of 8051 with
the diagram showing their capacities.
h. a. Discuss about various addressing modes of
8051. b. Explain the interrupt structure of 8051.
i. a. Discuss in detail about serial port operation in 8051 microcontroller.
b. Explain in detail about the interrupt structure of 8051.
b. Discuss the following signal descriptions?
i. ALE /PROG ii. EA/VPP iii. PSEN iv. RXD
4. a. How does 8051 differentiate between the external and internal program
memory? b. Explain with waveforms different modes of counter/timer in 8051?
5. i. Enlist salient features of 8051 family of microcontrollers?
ii. Explain with waveforms different modes of counter/timer in 8051?
6. Discuss the following signal descriptions?
ALE/PROG
RXD
TXD
3. Draw and discuss the formats and bit definitions of the following SFR‟s in 8051
Microcontroller?
PSW
IE
SCON
TMOD
4. Explain the support given in 8051 instruction set to handle bit addressable RAM?
5. Discuss the following signal descriptions?
INT0/INT1
TXD
T0 AND T1
RD
6. i. What is meant by interrupt? What are the different interrupt of 8051?
Explain the interrupt operation of 8051 in detail
7. Explain the internal architecture of 8051 with the help of a neat block diagram.
8. i. Distinguish between a microprocessor and a micro controller
Describe the hardware features of 8051
9. Write a program of 8051 to copy the value of 55H into RAM memory location 40H to
45H using:
Direct addressing mode
Resister indirect mode without a loop
with a loop
10. Show different methods by which a byte in TCON is copied to register R2.
2 Write 8051 instructions to set timer T0 to an initial setting of 1234 H.
3 Explain the stack operation in 8051 microcontroller.
4 Determine whether the 8051 can be made to execute a single program instruction
Using external circuitry only without the help of software.
5 Outline a scheme for single stepping the 8051 using a combination of hardware
and Software.
6 Explain 8051 communication modes with the help of suitable examples.
2 Give the 8051-instruction format.
3 Explain different addressing modes of 8051 with suitable examples.
4 Describe the hardware features of 8051
UNIT – V
Explain the internal and external program memory as well as data memory of 8051
with the diagram showing their capacities.
Draw and discuss the formats and bit definitions of the following SFRs in 8051
Microcontroller?
SCON
TCON
8. Draw and discuss the formats and bit definitions of the following SFR‟s in 8051
Microcontroller?
IP ii) TMOD iii) TCON iv) SCON
11. a. Discuss the following signal descriptions
i. INT0/ INT1 ii. TXD iii. T0 and T1 iv. RD
b. Draw and discuss the formats and bit definitions of the following SFRs
8051microcontroller.
15. a. How does 8051 differentiate between the external and internal program
memory? b. Explain with waveforms different modes of counter/timer in 8051?
16. i. How does 8051 differentiate between the external and internal program
memory? ii. Explain with waveforms different modes of counter/timer in 8051?
17. i. Explain the alternate functions of Port 0, Port 2 and Port 3?
2 Discuss the interrupt structure of 8051? Mention the priority? Explain how least priority is
made as highest priority?
19. List out the steps involved in programming the 8051 to transfer data serially.
20. Explain the terms:
i. Baud rate in the 8051
ii. SCON register
4. List out the steps involved in programming the 8051 to transfer data serially.
10. Explain 8051 communication modes with the help of suitable examples.
.11. How many ports are available in 8051? Out of them, which port pins, are individually
programmable?
12 . Explain the port pin circuits for all the ports with neat diagrams.
2. Create a square wave of 50% duty cycle on the P1.5 bit of 8051. Timer 0 is used to
generate the time delay.Analyze the program.
3. Explain the normal mode functions and alternate mode functions of different ports of
8051?.Explain each pin?
Micro Processors & Interfacing Devices
11. B.Tech II Sem EEE (R15)
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS:
UNIT-I
1. This is not a Programmable register in 8086 [ ]
a. PC b. SP c. BP d. DI
2. Example of a segment override prefix instruction is _______ [ ]
a. MOV CX, [437 AH] b. MOV 43H [SI], DH c. MOV CS:[BX], DL d. None
3. If AX = 11110000 11000111B and DX = 0000 0000 0000 0000B after CWD instruction
[ ]
a. AX=FOC7H, DX= FFFFH c. AX=FOC7H, DX= 0000H
b. AX = FFFF H, DX = FOC7
d. None of these
4.Directive to initialize a segment is _________________
5.Base Printer register in 8086 is _________ bits
6.The addressing mode of MOV [BX] [DI] 0400 H, AL is ___________ addressing mode.
7. On the application of power, the CPU fetches its first instruction at ____________ Hex
from ROM [
a. 0000H b. 000FFH c. FFFF0H d. 11111H
]
8. The maximum physical address space accessible in virtual address mode of 8086 is ____
[ ]
a. 4 MB b. 16 MB c. 1 MB d. 2 MB
9. The maximum physical address space accessible in real address mode of 8086 is __[ ]
a. 4 MB b. 16 MB c. 1 MB d. 2 MB
10. The maximum size of the segment allowed by segmentation unit of 8086 is ______[ ]
a. 1 GB b. 1 MB c. 4 GB d. 16 MB
11. At the power-up (reset) the default content in PC register in 8086 Cμ is [ ]
a. 0000H b. FFFFH c. 1234H d. None
12. 8086 microprocessor has ______ address lines [ ]
a) 8 b) 12 c) 16 d) 20
13. 8086 microprocessor can be operated in [ ]
a) 1 mode b) 2 modes c) 3 modes d) 4 modes
14. Which of the following is conditional flag [ ]
a) TF b) IF c) DF d) PF
15. Which of the following is control flag [ ]
a) TF b) IF c) DF d) PF
7. ________________ Register hold the address of I/O port
8. The CPU of 8086 is divided into _________________ and _________________ Units
18. 8086 microprocessor has ______ Data lines [ ]
a) 8 b) 12 c) 16 d) 20
19.JNZ instruction jump if [ ]
a) ZF = 1 b) A = not 0 c) ZF = 0 d) B = not 0
20.8086 is a _______ bit micro controller [ ]
a) 8 bit b) 12 bit c) 16 bit d) 4 bit
UNIT-II
1. Instruction Mnemonic for comparing 8086 instruction set is [ ]
a. CMP b. CMC c. CMA d. CLD
2. This is an unconditional branch instruction in 8086 instruction set [ ]
a. JNO b. JNGE c. JMP d. JZ
3 .Directive to initialize a segment is _________________
4..A Procedure of calling itself is known as ______________ Procedure
5..Number of I/O address lines in 8086 structures is __________
6..When a NEAR CALL is executed branching is within __________bytes
7. Among the following which is used with SCAS instruction
[
]
a) REP b) REPNE c) REPE d) REPNC
8.The addressing mode of MOV [BX] [DI] 0400 H, AL is ___________ addressing mode.
9. REPE CMPSB instruction will be executed till ______ Register data becomes Zero
10. BIOS uses _____ interrupt type to deal with PC keyboard [ ]
a. 16 H b. 10 H c. 21H d. 08H
11. “ CALL” in 8086 is used to call a subroutine with in [ ]
a. 2 KB of program memory b. 64 KB of memory
c. 128 KB of memory d. None of the above
12. Which of the following directive declares a procedure [ ]
a) PROC b) ENDP c) MACRO d) ENDM
13. Which of the following compare two strings [ ]
a) MOVS b) CMPS c) LODS d) SCAS
14. Among the following which is used with LOOP instruction [ ]
a) REP b) REPNE c) REPE d) REPNC
15. MOV AX,[BX] belongs to ___________ addressing mode.
16. Which of the following directive declares a end directive segment.
[
]
a) PROC b) END c) MACRO d) ENDS
17..When a FAR CALL is executed branching is within __________bytes
18. MOV AX,[5000] belongs to ___________ addressing mode.
19. This is an conditional branch instruction in 8086 instruction set [ ]
a. JNO b. MOV c. JMP d. PUSH
20.During PUSH operation stack pointer is _________________
UNIT-III
1. The DM A takes control over the [ ]
a) CPU B) DataBus c) Address Bus d) Data Bus and Address Bus.
2. The address bus of the 8088 uP is ? [ ]
a) 8 bit b) 16 bit c) 32 bit d) 20 bit.
3. The data bus of the 8088 uP is ? [ ]
a) 8 bit b) 16 bit c) 32 bit d) 20 bit.
4. In maximum mode operation of 8086 uP the respective ping signals for the pin S2, S1 and
S0 for opcode fetch operation is ? [ ]
a) 0, 0, 1 b) 1, 0, 0 c) 1, 1, 1 d) 1, 0, 1
5. In minimum mode operation of 8086 uP the respective ping signals for the pin IO/M ,
DT/R and SS0 for memory read operation is ? [ ]
a) 0, 0, 1 b) 1, 1, 0 c) 1, 1, 1 d) 1, 0, 1
6. In minimum mode operation of 8086 uP the respective ping signals for the pin IO/M ,
DT/R and SS0 for memory write operation is ? [ ]
a) 0, 0, 1 b) 1, 1, 0 c) 0, 1, 0 d) 1, 0, 1
7. In minimum mode operation of 8086 uP the respective ping signals for the pin IO/M ,
DT/R and SS0 for I/O read operation is ? [ ]
a) 0, 0, 1 b) 1, 1, 0 c) 1, 1, 1 d) 1, 0, 1
8. In minimum mode operation of 8086 uP the respective ping signals for the pin IO/M ,
DT/R and SS0 for I/O write operation is ? [ ]
a) 0, 1, 0 b) 1, 1, 0 c) 1, 1, 1 d) 1, 0, 1
9. In minimum mode operation of 8086 uP the respective ping signals for the pin IO/M ,
DT/R and SS0 for opcode fetch operation is ? [ ]
a) 0, 0, 1 b) 1, 0, 0 c) 1, 1, 1 d) 1, 0, 1
10. In maximum mode operation of 8086 uP the respective ping signals for the pin S2, S1 and
S0 for memory read operation is ? [ ]
a) 0, 0, 1 b) 1, 1, 0 c) 1, 1, 1 d) 1, 0, 1
11. In maximum mode operation of 8086 uP the respective ping signals for the pin S2, S1 and
S0 for memory write operation is ? [ ]
a) 0, 0, 1 b) 1, 1, 0 c) 0, 1, 0 d) 1, 0, 1
12. In maximum mode operation of 8086 uP the respective ping signals for the pin S2, S1 and
S0 for I/O read operation is ? [ ]
a) 0, 0, 1 b) 1, 1, 0 c) 1, 1, 1 d) 1, 0, 1
13. In maximum mode operation of 8086 uP the respective ping signals for the pin S2, S1 and
S0 for I/O write operation is ? [ ]
a) 0, 1, 0 b) 1, 1, 0 c) 1, 1, 1 d) 1, 0, 1
14. The internal register of the DM A controler is selected by the pins of [ ]
A) Address bus b) Data Bus c) CPU control Signals d) A0-A3.
15. The DM A controler is connected by the pins of [ ]
a) HOLD b) HLDA c) Both a& b d) None
16. The address enable is done by the pin… [ ]
a) HRQ b) HLDA c) AEN d) REQ
17. The Data Bus enable is done by the pin… [ ]
a) HRQ b) HLDA c) AEN d) REQ
18. The Hold acknowledge is given by the pin signal .. [ ]
a) HRQ b) HLDA c) AEN d) REQ
19. The pin used to request a DM A transfer for a particular channel is [ ]
a) AEN b) DREQi c) DRQ d) REQ
20. In how many channels the 8237 DM A controler works? [ ]
a) 2 Channel b) 3 Channel c) 4 Channel d) 1 Channel Only
UNIT-IV
1. In 8259 of IR0,IR3,IR6,IR7 are activated which interrupt has highest priority? [ ]
a)IR0, b)IR3 c) IR6 d)IR7
2. In 8259 of IR0,IR2,IR1,IR7 are masked and if IR2,IR3,IR6, IR7,IR4 are activated which
Of the following has highest priority? [ ]
a) IR0 b) IR6 c)IR7 d) IR1
3 . In 8259 of IR0,IR3,IR5 are masked and if IR2,IR3,IR6, IR7,IR4 are activated which
of the following has highest priority? [ ]
a) IR0>IR3>IR5 b) IR3>IR4>IR6 >IR7 c) IR0>IR6>IR7 d) IR2>IR6>IR7
4. Which register in 8259 is used to disable interruptsrequests? [ ]
a)Iterrupet mask register b) interrupt service register
c) Interrupt request register d) Priority resolver
5. Which register in 8259 is used to show the status of interrupt presently being served
by the processor? [ ]
a)Iterrupet mask register b) interrupt service register
c) Interrupt request register d) Priority resolver.
6. Which of the following registers set priority to interrupt requests in 8259. [ ]
a)Iterrupet mask register b) interrupt service register
c) Interrupt request register d) Priority resolver.
7. Bit set reset mode in 8255 is used with one of the following. [ ]
a) Port A b) Port B c) Port C d) all
4. To which of the following ports can computer be connected for bi – directional data transfer in 8255.
[ ]
a) Port A b) Port B c) Port C Upper d) Port C lower.
9. which of the following ports can operate in mode 2 in 8255. [ ]
a) Port A b) Port B c) Port C d) all
10. which of the following ports can operate in mode 1 in 8255. [ ]
a) Port A b) Port B c) Port C d) all
11. which of the following ports can operate in mode 0 in 8255. [ ]
a) Port A b) Port B c) Port C d) all
12. which of the following can acts as 4 bit ports 8255 in mode-0 [ ]
a) Port A b) Port B c) Port C d) all
13. which of the following modes use handshaking signals in 8255 [ ]
a) Bit set reset b) Mode-0 c) Mode 1 d) Mode 2
14. which of the following ports are use s handshaking signals in 8255 [ ]
a) Port A b) Port B c) Port C d) all
15. What is the control in 8255 if port A and Poert B are in mode 0. Port A is connected to
printer and port B is connected to monitor. [ ]
a) 80H b ) 87H c) 86H d) 83H
16. How many peripherals can be connected to 8257 at any point of time. [ ]
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7
17. How many maximum bytes of data a channel can transmit in 8257. [ ]
a)16 Kbytes B) 8Kbyte c) 4 Kbytes d) 32 Kbytes
18. Which of the following IC supports cascading [ ]
a) 8251 b) 8253 c) 8257 d) 8259
19. Which of the following IC is used as a Programmable interval timer [ ]
a) 8251 b) 8253 c) 8257 d) 8259
20. The address bus of the 8255 uP is ? [ ]
a) 8 bit b) 16 bit c) 32 bit d) 20 bit.
UNIT-V
1. The 8051 microcontroller is of ___pin package as a ______ processor. [ ]
a) 30, 1byte b) 20, 1 byte c) 40, 8 bit d) 40, 8 byte
2. The SP is of ___ wide register. And this may be defined anywhere in the ______.[ ]
a) 8 byte, on-chip 128 byte RAM b) 8 bit, on chip 256 byte RAM.
c) 16 bit, on-chip 128 byte ROM d) 8 bit, on chip 128 byte RAM.
3. After reset, SP register is initialized to address________. [ ]
a) 8H b) 9H c) 7H d) 6H
4. What is the address range of SFR Register bank? [ ]
a) 00H-77H b) 40H-80H c) 80H-7FH d) 80H-FFH
5. Which pin of port 3 is has an alternative function as write control signal for external data
memory? [ ]
a) P3.8 b) P3.3 c) P3.6 d) P3.1
6. What is the Address (SFR) for TCON, SCON, SBUF, PCON and PSW respectively? [ ]
a) 88H, 98H, 99H, 87H, 0D0H. b) 98H, 99H, 87H, 88H, 0D0H
c) 0D0H, 87H, 88H, 99H, 98H d) 87H, 88H, 0D0H, 98H, 99H
7. Match the following:
1) TCON i) contains status information
2) SBUF ii) timer / counter control register.
3) TMOD iii) idle bit, power down bit
4) PSW iv) serial data buffer for Tx and Rx.
5) PCON v) timer/ counter modes of operation.
a) 1->ii, 2->iv, 3->v, 4->i, 5->iii b) 1->i, 2->v, 3->iv, 4->iii, 5->ii.
c) 1->v, 2->iii, 3->ii, 4->iv, 5->I d) 1->iii, 2->ii, 3->i, 4->v, 5->iv.
8. Which of the following is of bit operations? [ ]
i) SP ii) P2 iii) TMOD iv) SBUF v) IP
a) ii, v only b) ii, iv, v only c) i, v only d) iii, ii only
9. Serial port interrupt is generated, if ____ bits are set [ ]
a) IE b) RI, IE c) IP, TI d) RI, TI
10. In 8051 which interrupt has highest priority? [ ]
a) IE1 b) TF0 c) IE0 d) TF1
11. Intel 8096 is of ___ bit microcontroller family called as ______. [ ]
a) 8, MCS51 b) 16, MCS51 c) 8, MCS96 d) 16, MCS96
12. 8096 has following features fill up the following, [ ]
i) ____ Register file, ii) ____ I/O Ports iii) ____ architecture.
a) 256 byte, five 8bit, register to register b) 256 byte, four 8bit, register to register
c) 232 byte, five 8bit, register to register d) 232 byte, six 8 bit, register to register
13. How many synchronous and asynchronous modes are there in serial port of 8096? [ ]
a) 2, 2 respectively b) 3,1 respectively c) 1, 3 respectively d) 1, 2 respectively
14. In 8096 we have _____interrupt sources and _______ interrupt vectors. [ ]
a) 18, 8 b) 21, 6 c) 21, 8 d) 16, 8
15. 8096 has ___ general purpose I/O ports, Port 2 includes ______ of the following [ ]
6. two quasi-bidirectional I/O lines ii) two output lines iii) four input lines iv) open drain outputs
a) 4, i, iv b) 6, ii, iii c) 4, i,ii,iii d) 6, i, ii, iv
16. 8096 write-protected mode, no code can write to memory address between __. [ a) 2020 to 3FFFH b) 8000 to FFFFH c) 2000 to 3FFFH d) 2020 to 202FH
]
17. If the __ pin is ___ , then we have the option of using the ____ ROM or EPROM together
with _____ memory and devices. [ ]
a) EA, high, internal, external b) EA, low, internal, external
c) EA, high, external, internal d) EA, low, external, internal
18. In 8096, CCB bit 3 is ____. [ ]
a) write strobe mode select b) address valid strobe select
c) bus width select d) Internal read control mode
8. In 8096, mode ____ of serial port are ___ modes commonly used for ____
communications.
[ ]
a) 1, 8bit, single processor b) 0, 7bit, multiple microcontroller
c) 2, 9 bit, multiple processors d) 3, 8 bit, multiple microcontroller
20. What is the function of watchdog timer? [ ]
iv) The watchdog Timer is an external timer that resets the system if the software fails to operate properly.
v) The watchdog Timer is an internal timer that sets the system if the software fails to operate properly.
vi) The watchdog Timer is an internal timer that resets the system if the software fails to operate properly.
vii) None of them
HOLY MARY INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY & SCIENCE
(COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING)
Bogaram (V), Keesara (M), R.R. Dist – 501 301
DEPARTMENT OF ELECTRONICS & COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING
HAND BOOK
PROGRAMME: B.Tech EEE AC:YEAR: 2018-
2019
DEGREE: B.TECH III YEAR
COURSE: FUNDAM ENTALS OF
MANAGEMENT
SEMESTER: I CREDITS: 4
COURSE COORDINATOR: Mr.D. Pradeep Kumar
COURSE CODE: SM504MS
REGULATION:R16
COURSE TYPE: REGULAR
COURSE AREA/DOMAIN: EEE CONTACT HOURS: 4 hours/Week.
CORRESPONDING LAB COURSE CODE : NA LAB COURSE NAME: NA
COURSE OVERVIEW:
The students understand the significance of Management in their Profession. The various
Management Functions like Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Leading, Motivation and Control
aspects are learnt in this course. The students can explore the Management Practices in their domain
area.
PRE-REQUISITES:
C.CODE COURSE NAME DESCRIPTION SEM
1
BEFA
Business Economics and Financial
Accounting in which students acquired
basic skills about economics and business
functions. Financial accounting is a
subject helps the students about
preparation of company accounts.
II-II
MARKS DISTRIBUTION:
Session Marks University End
Exam Marks
Total
Marks
Mid Semester Test
There shall be two midterm examinations.
Each midterm examination consists of subjective type and objective
type tests.
The subjective test is for 10 marks of 60 minutes duration.
Subjective test of shall contain 4 questions; the student has to
answer 2 questions, each carrying 5 marks.
The objective type test is for 10 marks of 20 minutes duration. It
consists of 10 multiple choice and 10 objective type questions, the
student has to answer all the questions and each carries half mark.
First midterm examination shall be conducted for the first two and
half units of syllabus and second midterm examination shall be
conducted for the remaining portion.
Assignment
Five marks are earmarked for assignments.
There shall be two assignments in every theory course. Marks shall
be awarded considering the average of two assignments in each
course.
75 100
EVALUATION SCHEME:
S. No Component Duration Marks
1 I Mid Examination 80minutes 20
2 I Assignment - 5
3 II Mid Examination 80minutes 20
4 II Assignment - 5
5 External Examination 3 hours 75
COURSE OBJECTIVES & OUTCOMES:
Course Objectives Course Outcomes Blooms
Level
To understand the Management
Concepts, applications of Concepts
in Practical aspects of business and
development of Managerial Skills.
The students understand the significance of
Management in their Profession. The various
Management Functions like Planning,
Organizing, Staffing, Leading,Motivation and
Control aspects are learnt in this course. The
students can explore the Management Practices in
their domain area.
BL1,2,4
To learn the basic Business
types, impact of the
Economy on Businessand
Firms specifically. To
analyze the Business from
the Financial Perspective.
The students will understand the various Forms
of Business and theimpact of economic variables
on the Business. The Demand, Supply,
Production, Cost, Market Structure, Pricing
aspects are learnt.
BL 1,2,5
BLOOMS LEVEL (BL)
BL 1: Remember / knowledge BL2: Understanding BL3: Apply
BL 4: Analyze BL 5: Evaluate BL 6: Create
HOW PROGRAM OUTCOMES ARE ASSESSED:
Program Outcomes Level Proficiency
assessed by
Blooms
Level
A
Understand the basics of Management functions and
structure of Organizations and Procedure for recruitment
and selection. S
Assignments
and text
book case
studies
Apply
B
Understanding the market dynamics namely, demand and
supply, demand forecasting, elasticity of demand and
supply, pricing methods and pricing in market structures. H
Assignments
and text
book
problems
Apply
&
Analyze
C
Gain an insight into how production function is carried
out to achieve least cost combination of inputs and cost
analysis
S
Seminars
and group
Discussions
Apply
D
Understand the importance of Human Resource
management system and its importance. S
Text books
and
Magazines
Apply
&
Justify
E
Know how to analyze the performance of organizations
and their problem solving procedures S
Group
discussions
and
Assignments
Apply
&
Analyze
F
To know the procedure and importance of Budget and forms
of budgetary and non budgetary plans and their
implementation procedure
S
Text books
and Business
magazines
Apply
G
To understand the motivational theories and importance of
motivational theories. To analyze the effectiveness of
motivational theories in decision making policy.
H
Seminars
and group
discussions
Apply
&
Justify
H To understand various forms of leadership styles and asses
the performance of organization S
Seminars &
Presentations Apply
N = None S = Supportive H = Highly Related
SYLLABUS:
UNIT - I
Introduction to Management: Definition, Nature and Scope, Functions, Managerial
Roles,Levels of Management, Managerial Skills, Challenges of Management; Evolution of
Management- Classical Approach- Scientific and Administrative Management; The
Behavioral approach; The Quantitative approach; The Systems Approach; Contingency
Approach, IT Approach.
UNIT - II
Planning and Decision Making: General Framework for Planning - Planning Process,
Typesof Plans, Management by Objectives; Development of Business Strategy. Decision
making and Problem Solving - Programmed and Non Programmed Decisions, Steps in
Problem Solving and Decision Making; Bounded Rationality and Influences on Decision
Making; Group Problem Solving and Decision Making, Creativity and Innovation in
Managerial Work.
UNIT - III
Organization and HRM: Principles of Organization: Organizational Design
&Organizational Structures; Departmentalization, Delegation; Empowerment,
Centralization, Decentralization, Recentralization; Organizational Culture; Organizational
Climate and Organizational Change.
Human Resource Management & Business Strategy: Talent Management, Talent
Management Models and Strategic Human Resource Planning; Recruitment and Selection;
Training and Development; Performance Appraisal.
UNIT - IV
Leading and Motivation: Leadership, Power and Authority, Leadership Styles;
BehavioralLeadership, Situational Leadership, Leadership Skills, Leader as Mentor and
Coach, Leadership during adversity and Crisis; Handling Employee and Customer
Complaints, Team Leadership.
Motivation - Types of Motivation; Relationship between Motivation, Performance and
Engagement, Content Motivational Theories - Needs Hierarchy Theory, Two Factor
Theory, Theory X and Theory Y.
UNIT - V
Controlling: Control, Types and Strategies for Control, Steps in Control Process,
Budgetaryand Non- Budgetary Controls. Characteristics of Effective Controls,
Establishing control systems, Control frequency and Methods.
TEXT BOOKS:
1. Management Fundamentals, Robert N Lussier, 5e, Cengage Learning, 2013.
2. Fundamentals of Management, Stephen P. Robbins, Pearson Education, 2009.
REFERENCES:
1. Essentials of Management, Koontz Kleihrich, Tata McGraw Hill.
2. Management Essentials, Andrew DuBrin, 9e, Cengage Learning, 2012
COURSE PLAN:
Lecture
Number
Unit Topics to be covered Reference
1 I Definition and nature of management A1,A2
2 I Scope of management A1
3 I Functions of management A1
4 I Managerial roles A1
5 I
Levels of Management, Managerial
Skills, Challenges of Management A1
6 I Evolution of Managerial skills A1
7 I Challenges of management A1
8 I Evolution of Management A1,A2
9 I
Scientific and adminstrative
management A2
10 I
The behavioural approach, Quantitave
approach A2
11 I
The systems approach, contigency
approach, IT Approach A2
12 II General frame work for planning A2
13 II Plananing process, types A2
14 II Management by objectives A1,A2
15 II Development of business strategy A1,A2
16 II Decision making and problem solving A1,A2
17 II
Programmed and non programmed
decisions A1,A2
18 II
Steps in problem solving and decision
making A1,A2
19 II
Bounded rationality and the influence
on decision making A1
20 II
Group problem solving and decision
making A1
21 II
Creativity and innovation in
managerial work A1
22 III Principles of organization A1
23 III Organization Design A1
24 III Organization structures A1
25 III Departmentization A1
26 III Delegation A2
27 III Empowerment, Centralization A2
28 III Decentralization, Recentralization A2
29 III Orgnaizational culture A2
30 III Orgnaizational climate A2
31 III orgnaizational change A2
32 III
Humana resource management and
business strategy A2
33 III Talent management A2
34 III talement management models A2
35 III
Talent management models and
strategic human resource planning A1,A2
36 III Recruitment and Selection A1,A2
37 III Training and development A1,A2
38 III Performance Appraisal A1,A2
39 IV Leadership styles A1,A2
40 IV Behavioural Leadership A1,A2
41 IV Siturational Leadership A1,A2
42 IV Leadership skills A1,A2
43 IV Leader as Mentor and coach A1,A2
44 IV Leadership druing adversity and crisis A1,A2
45 IV
Hyandling Employee and c ustomer
complaints A1,A2
46 IV Team leadership A1,A2
47 IV Types of motivation A2
48 IV Relationship between motivation A2
49 IV performance and Engagement A2
50 IV Content Motivational Theories A2
51 IV need and Hierarchy theory A2
52 IV Two Factor Theory A2
53 IV Theory X and Theory Y. A2
54 V
Controlling and types and strategies
for controlling A2
55 V Steps in control process A1,A2
56 V
Budgetory and Non- Budgetary
controls A1,A2
57 V Characteristics of effective controls A1,A2
58 V Establishing control systems A1,A2
59 V Control frequency A1,A2
60 V Control methods A1,A2
MAPPING COURSE OBJECTIVES LEADING TO THE ACHIEVEMENT OF PROGRAM
OUTCOMES:
Course Objective Course Outcomes
a b c d e
I S S
II H
III H
IV S H
V S
S= Supportive H= Highly Related
MAPPING COURSE OUTCOMES LEADING TO THE ACHIEVEMENT OF PROGRAM
OUTCOMES:
Course Outcomes Program Outcomes
a b c d e f g h i j k l m n
a S
b S H S S S
c H S
d S H S H H
e S S S S S S
S= Supportive H= Highly Related
QUESTION BANK
Unit-I
INTRODUCTION TO MANAGEMENT
Group – A (Short Answer Questions)
S.No Question Blooms Taxonomy
Level
1. Define Management
Understand
2. Objectives of Management
Understand
3. Importance of Management
Apply
4. Limitations of Management
Understand
5. Challenges of Management
Understand
6. Principles of Management
Remember
7. Role of Managers in Organizations
Apply
8. Define Scientific management process
Apply
9. Define Administrative management process
Apply
10. Importance of Evolution of management
Understand
11. Quantitative Approach in Management process
Apply
12.
Importance of information technology in management process
Apply
13. Explain Social needs of workers in an organization
Understand
14. Discuss the challenges of manager
Understand
15. Importance of Contingency Approach
Understand
Group - B (Long Answer Questions)
1.
Explain Nature, objectives and importance of Management
functions Remember
2. Discuss the various levels involved in Management process
Understand
3.
Discuss the important roles and responsibilities of Manager in an
organization Evaluate
4.
Discuss the Role played by the manager in crisis situation in an
organization Understand
5.
Discuss the Functions or Principles of Henry Fayol in modern
management. Remember
6. Discuss the importance of F.W Taylor’r Management functions
Understand
7.
Discuss the various challenges and Managerial functions of an
organization Understand
8. Discuss the Importance of Evolution process in management
Understand
9. Discuss the Importance of Behavioural Aporoach
Evaluate
10. Discuss the Evaluation process in Modern Approach
Evaluate
Group - C (Problem solving &Analytical Questions)
1
Explain Evaluation of Quantitative Approach with Numerical
Example Apply
2 Case studies related to Modern management practices Analyze
UNIT-II
PLANNING AND DECISION MAKING
Group – A (Short Answer Questions)
1 Define planning
Understand
2 Importance of Planning
Understand
3 What is Planning process
Understand
4 Functions of Planning
Understand
5 Define Business Strategy
Understand
6 What is Decision making
Analyze
7 Defined programmed decisions
Analyze
8 What is Non programmed decisions
Analyze
9 Define Rationality in management
Apply
10 What is group problem solving
Understand
11 Define Creativity
Understand
12 Factors influencing creativity process
Understand
13 Managerial work
Understand
14 Objectives of planning
Understand
15 What is MBO
Evaluate
Group – B (Long Answer Questions)
1 Discuss the nature, objectives and importance of Planning
Evaluate
2 Explain the factors influencing the planning process
Understand
3 Explain the steps involved in Planning process
Evaluate
4 What is MBO and explain the steps involved in MBO
Evaluate
5 What are the advantages and disadvantages of planning process
Understand
6 Discuss the decision making process in planning
Analyze
7
Discuss the importance of group problem solving in planning
process Analyze
8 Explain the bounded rationality and Influence on Decision making
Understand
9 Explain the problem solving process in Decision making
Evaluate
10
Explain the Importance of creativity and innovation in managerial
work Evaluate
UNIT-III
ORGANIZATION AND HRM
Group - A (Short Answer Questions)
1 Define organization
Remember
2 Discuss organization structure
Remember
3 What is Departmentation
Understand
4 What is Delegation
Understand
5 What is Empowerment
Analyze
6 Discuss Centralization and Decentralization
Analyze
7 What is Recentralization
Understand
8 Discuss organizational Culture
Understand
9 What is organizational climate
Understand
10 Discuss organizational Change
Understand
11 What is Talent management
Analyze
12 What strategic human resource management
Understand
Group - B (Long Answer Questions)
1 Define organization and explain the functions of organization
Understand
2
Discuss the process of organizational design and explain the factors
influencing organizational design Analyze
3
Discuss the Advantages and Disadvantages of Organizational
design Analyze
4 Explain the various factors influencing organizational culture
Evaluate
5
Discuss the Importance of Centralization, Decentralization and
Recentralization Evaluate
6
Discuss the objectives and functions of Human Resource
management Evaluate
7 Explain the various models in Talent management
Evaluate
8
Explain the importance and objectives of Recruitment and
Selection Apply
9 Discuss the importance of Training and Development
Evaluate
10
What is Performance Appraisal and explain the factors influencing
Performance Appraisal Understand
UNIT-IV
LEADING AND MOTIVATION
Group - A (Short Answer Questions)
1 Define Leadership
Understand
2 Discuss power and Authority
Understand
3 Discuss leadership skills
Understand
4 Define leader
Understand
5 Discuss the importance of Mentor
Understand
6 Discuss the importance of Customer complaints
Understand
7 What is Team leadership
Analyze
8 Define motivation
Understand
9 Define Performance management
Understand
10 What is Hierarchy theory
Analyze
Group – B (Long Answer Questions)
1 Define leadership and explain the factors influencing leadership
Understand
2 Discuss the objectives and functions of Power and Authority
Analyze
3 Discuss the various forms of leadership styles
Apply
4 Explain the functions of leadership during Adversity and Crisis
Evaluate
5 Define motivation and explain the theories of motivation
Understand
6 Discuss the procedure for customer handling system
Understand
7 Discuss the objectives and importance of two factors theory
Apply
UNIT- V
CONTROLLING
Group – A (Short Answer Questions)
1 Define Control
Understand
2 What is Control process
Understand
3 Define Budget
Apply
4 Define factors influencing budget
Analyze
5 What is Effective controlling system
Understand
6 What is control frequency
Evaluate
7 Explain the factors influencing controlling process
Analyze
8 Define strategy
Understand
Group – B (Long Answer Questions)
1 Explain the types of Control systems in an organization
Analyze
2
Discuss the objectives and procedure to design control system in an
organization Evaluate
3 Discuss Budgetary and non budgetary control systems
Analyze
4 Discuss the characteristics of effective control systems
Apply
5
What are the advantages and disadvantages of Control system in
organization Understand
6
Define Control frequency and explain the importance of control
frequency Understand
7 Discuss the Advantages and limitations of Control frequency
Analyze
8 Discuss the steps involved in controlling process
Understand
ASSIGNMENT TOPICS
UNIT-I
INTRODUCTION TO MANAGEMENT
S.
No Questions
Blooms Taxonomy
Level
1 Explain Nature, objectives and importance of Management functions Understand
2 Discuss the various levels involved in Management process Understand
3
Discuss the important roles and responsibilities of Manager in an
organization Evaluate
4
Discuss the various challenges and Managerial functions of an
organization Analyze
5 Discuss the Importance of Evolution process in management Understand
UNIT II
PLANNING AND DECISION MAKING
Explain the factors influencing the planning process Understand
2 Explain the steps involved in Planning process Evaluate
3 What is MBO and explain the steps involved in MBO Evaluate
4 What are the advantages and disadvantages of planning process Understand
5 Explain the bounded rationality and Influence on Decision making Analyze
6 Explain the problem solving process in Decision making Evaluate
7 Explain the Importance of creativity and innovation in managerial Evaluate
work
UNIT- III
ORGANIZATION AND HRM
1. Define organization and explain the functions of organization Understand
2.
Discuss the process of organizational design and explain the factors
influencing organizational design Analyze
3. Discuss the Advantages and Disadvantages of Organizational design Analyze
4. Explain the various factors influencing organizational culture Evaluate
5. Discuss the importance of Training and Development Evaluate
6.
What is Performance Appraisal and explain the factors influencing
Performance Appraisal Evaluate
UNIT-V
LEADING AND MOTIVATION
1. Discuss the objectives and functions of Power and Authority Analyze
2
Explain the functions of leadership during Adversity and
Crisis Understand
3. Discuss the procedure for customer handling system Apply
4. Discuss the objectives and importance of two factors theory Evaluate
5. Discuss the importance of Customer complaints Evaluate
UNIT-V
CONTROLLING
1. Discuss the objectives and procedure to design control system in an Analyze
organization
2. Discuss Budgetary and non budgetary control systems Evaluate
3. Discuss the characteristics of effective control systems Apply
4.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of Control system in
organization Understand
5 Discuss the Advantages and limitations of Control frequency Understand
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
UNIT – I
UNIT-I Introduction to Management
1. Whoisapersonwhoadvancedearlyscientificmanagementprinciples?
(a) Weber
(b) Taylor
(c) Vest
(d) Fayol
2. Areportingrelationshipinwhichanemployeereceivesordersfrom,andreportsto,onlyone
supervisor is knownas:
(a) Line ofauthority.
(b) Centralization.
(c) Unity ofdirection.
(d) Unity ofcommand.
3. Whichworkedonadministrativemanagementtheory:
I. Fayol
II. Parker
III. Weber
(a) I and III
(b) II andIII
(c) noneoftheseworkedonadministrativemanagementtheory
(d) I, II, andIII
4. isthestudyofhowtocreateanorganizationalstructurethatleadstohighefficiency
andeffectiveness.
(a) Scientificmanagement
(b) Jobspecialization
(c) Administrativemanagement
(d) Allocationmanagement
5. isthesinglenessofpurposethatmakespossiblethecreationofoneplanofaction
toguidemanagersinresourceallocations.
(a) Unity ofdirection
(b) Unity ofcommand
(c) Unity ofauthority
(d) Unity ofresources
6. Whichisanorganizational-environmentaltheory?
I. The open-systemsview
II. Contingencytheory
III. The Theory ofBureaucracy
IV. TheoryZ
(a) I andII
(b) I, III, andIV
(c) II, III, andIV
(d) I, II, andIII
7. Theoryis based on positive assumptions about workers.
(a) Z
(b) X
(c) Y
(d) C
8. The theory states a manager's choice of organizational structures and control systems
dependsoncharacteristicsoftheexternalenvironment.
(a) Mechanistic
(b) Managementscience
(c) Organic
(d) Contingency
9. WhichisnotoneofFayol'sprinciples:
(a) Authority andresponsibility
(b) Line ofauthority
(c) Globalization
(d) Unity ofcommand
10. Whichisnotamanagementsciencetheory:
(a) OperationsManagement
(b) TQM
(c) MIS
(d) None ofthese
11. Theorystatesthattheaverageemployeeislazyandwilltrytodoaslittleaspossible.
(a) X
(b) Y
(c) Z
(d) None
12. Inrecenthistory,workershavefeltthattheyshouldbeempoweredintheworkplace.Thisis an
exampleof
(a) socialinfluences
(b) politicalinfluences
(c) technologicalinfluences
(d) globalinfluences
13. Scientificmanagement,administrativemanagement,andbureaucraticmanagementbelongto
themanagementviewpointknownasthe
(a) classicalperspective
(b) behavioralperspective
(c) quantitativeperspective
(d) systemsperspective
14. Thetheoristthatadvocatedstandardmethodologyfordoingataskandsuggested
thatworkersweremotivatedbypayaccordingtooutput(piecework)is
(a) EltonMayo
(b) MaxWeber
(c) FrederickTaylor
(d) HenriFayol
15. AsaTheoryYmanager,youbelievethatyouremployees
(a) dislikeworkandwillavoiditifpossible.
(b) needahierarchyofauthorityandlotsofrulesandregulations.
(c) shouldbetrainedtostandardmethodologyinalltheirtasks.
(d) areself-motivatedandself-directedtowardachievingorganizationalgoals.
16.
(a) Scientificmanagementtheoryisanoutdatedmanagementtheory.
(b) Managersshouldapplyclassicalmanagementtheorytotheireverydayworkiftheywanttobe
moreeffective.
(c) Atraditionalapproachtomanagementcanbesuccessfullyappliedtotheproblemsofamodern
organisation.
(d) Qualityusuallysuffersasproductivityincreases.
17. AccordingtoFrederickTaylor,whowastoblamefortheinefficiencyinorganisations?
(a) Theunions.
(b) Themanagers.
(c) Theorganisationasawhole.
(d) Theworkers
18. Whichofthesewasnotanintegralpartofscientificmanagement?
(a) Differential payrates.
(b) Worker control ofproduction.
(c) Systematic selection ofworkers.
(d) Workspecialisation
19. Whichofthefollowingisnotavalidcriticismofscientificmanagementtheory?
(a) Increasesinpayforworkerswerenotproportionaltoincreasesinproductivity.
(b) Workerdiscretionovertheexecutionofthetaskwasreduced.
(c) Jobsbecametoocomplexforworkerstohandle.
(d) Fearofredundancywasincreased.
20. WhichofthefollowingisnotafundamentalcharacteristicsofBureaucraticManagement?
(a) Specialisation oflabour
(b) Well definedhierarchy
(c) Strivingtobea‘first-classworker’
(d) Formal rules andregulations.
Whatdoesthecase,‘Scientificmanagementinaction’illustrate?
21. WhichofthesestatementsconcerningWeber’sconceptofBureaucracyisnotcorrect?
(a) Itisbasedonrulesandproceduresratherthanpersonalpreferenceandjudgement.
(b) Itisstillarelevantconceptintoday’sorganisation.
(c) Ithasacquiredanegativereputationforinefficiencyandrigidity.
(d) Itrejectsrationalapproachestomanagingorganizations
22. Whichofthefollowingwasanearlykeymanagementidea,pre-datingtheworkofFrederickTaylor and
MaxWeber?
(a) Differential payrates.
(b) Rule-by-the-office.
(c) Workspecialisation.
(d) Classical managementtheory.
23. Whichofthefollowingwasthekeyaimofscientificmanagement?
(a) Toincreaseworkercontrolofproduction.
(b) To increaseproductivity.
(c) To decreaseabsenteeism.
(d) To develop time-and-motionstudies.
24. WhichofthefollowingisNOTakeyconceptassociatedwithscientificmanagement?
(a) One bestway.
(b) Formalisation.
(c) Time-and-motionstudies.
(d) Systematicselection.
25. Contingencytheorysuggestswhichofthefollowingasalimitationofclassicalmanagement
theory?
(a) Managementapproachesneedtotakeintoaccounttheinformalsociallifeofworkersatwork.
(b) Managementapproachesneedtotakeintoaccountcomplexityandinstabilityintheenvironment.
(c) Everythingiscontingentupontheworkersinanorganisation.
(d) Managementpracticesneedtorecognisestabilityintheenvironment
Unit-II Planning and Decision making
1. Planningis:
(a) lookingahead,
(b) guidingpeople,
(c) delegation ofauthority,
(d) fundamentals ofstaffing
2. Single use plansare:
(a) applicable in non-recurringsituation,
(b) deals with recurringsituations,
(c) budgets,
(d) strategic
3. Programs are a complexof:
(a) budgets,
(b) goals &policies,
(c) rules,
(d) None of theabove.
[Hint: Programs are complex of goals, policies, rules, procedures, tasks.]
4. The limitations of planningare:
(a) properenvironment,
(b) planningpremises,
(c) wronginformation,
(d) feasibility.
[Hint: Wrong information and time involved are the limitations of planning.]
5. Whatarethethreelevelsofplanning?
(a) Operational, intermediate andstrategic
(b) Headquarters, divisional andlocal
(c) Top, middle andbottom
(d) None of theabove
6. Allofthefollowingwouldbestepsorconcernsintheprocessofstrategicplanningexcept:
(a) Designingasoundbusinessportfolio.
(b) Checkingtoseeifanadvertisingspothadbeenruninitsallottedtimeslot.
(c) Setting supportingobjectives.
(d) Definingaclearcompanymission.
7. Identifythebestdefinitionofplanning.
(a) Anintegratedprocessinwhichplansareformulated,carriedoutandcontrolled.
(b) Thecoreactivityofplannersandplanningdepartments.
(c) Settinganorganisation'sobjectivesandthemeansofreachingthem.
(d) Devisingwaysofachievingtheobjectivesofanorganisation.
8. Budget refersto
(a) Planned target ofperformance
(b) Stepsofhandlingfutureactivities
(c) Systematicactionandallocationofresources
(d) Statementofexpectedresultsexpressedinnumericalterms
9. Whichofthefollowingindicatestheimportanceofplanning?
(a) Makeswayfororderlyactivities
(b) Providesabasicforcontrolinanorganization
(c) Reduces risk ofuncertainty
(d) All of theabove.
10. Whichofthefollowingisnotatechniqueofplanning?
(a) Budgeting
(b) Balanced scorecard
(c) PERTCPM
(d) Management byObjectives.
11. planshaveclearlydefinedobjectives
(a) Directional
(b) Flexible
(c) Specific
(d) Standing.
12. Organizing refersto:
(a) planning,
(b) delegation ofauthority,
(c) training,
(d) selection
13. Organizing aims toserve:
(a) commonpurpose,
(b) corruption,
(c) authoritystructure,
(d) All of theabove.
14. Organizingdestroys:
(a) individualrelationships,
(b) plans,
(c) simplicity in theorganization,
(d) environment.
15. Theprincipleofobjectivestates:
(a) delegation ofauthority,
(b) existence for apurpose,
(c) formalorganization,
(d) none of theabove.[Hint: An organization must exist for a purpose is the principle of objective.]
16. Foreffectiveorganizing,anorganizationrequired:
(a) principle ofbalance,
(b) span ofmanagement,
(c) organizationprocess,
(d) planning andforecasting.
17. Thestructureoforganizationincludes:
(a) identificationandclassificationofrequiredactivities,
(b) informalorganization,
(c) establishing enterpriseobjectives,
(d) authorityrelationships.
(e)
18. Thedegreetowhichanorganizationreliesonrulesandprocedurestodirectthebehaviourof
employeesis:
(a) complexity,
(b) formalization,
(c) centralization,
(d) motivation.
19. Inaformalorganization,“power”isassociatedwith:
(a) anindividual,
(b) position,
(c) relationship,
(d) control
20. Delegationis:
(a) a continuousprocess,
(b) unfoldingtalents,
(c) granting the right tocommand.
[Hint:Delegationistheactofgrantingofconferringsomethingandthetermauthoritymeansrightto
command.]
21. Unity of commandmeans:
(a) parityofauthorityandresponsibility,
(b) flowofcommandfromsubordinatetosuperior,
(c) flowofcommandfromsuperiortosubordinate,
(d) parity incontrolling.
22. Defectivedelegation:
(a) hamperscoordination
(b) size of theorganization,
(c) establish propercontrols,
(d) establish sources ofpowers.
23. IndicatewhichofthefollowingisNOTamongthesixmaintypesoforganizationstructure–
(a) Lineorganization
(b) Functionalstructure
(c) Committees
(d) Department
24. Organisattionstructureisprimarilyconcernedwith and oftasksandauthority.
(a) Allocation andDelegation
(b) Allocation andapportionment
(c) Reporting anddelegating
(d) Setting standards anddelegation
25. Lineorganizationisalsoknownas organization.
(a) Scalar
(b) Chain
(c) Matrix
(d) Project
Unit –III ORGANIZATION & HRM
1. Selection devicesmust:
(a) beexplained,
(b) match the job inquestion,
(c) to becost-effective
(d) none of theabove.
2. Thepopularon-the-jobtrainingmethodsinclude:
(a) jobrotation,
(b) classroomlectures,
(c) films.
(d) description anddisplays
[Hint:On-the-jobtrainingmethodsallowtheworkerstoworkinarealisticworkenvironmentandgather
experiences.]
3. Need refersto:
(a) controlinformationandperformancereview,
(b) keyresultareasandstatementofobjectives,
(c) agreewhatyouexpectfromme,
(d) All of theabove.
[Hint: Need states agree what you refer from me and give me an opportunity to perform.]
4. Staffing refersto:
(a) measuringperformance,
(b) managing thepositions,
(c) management inaction,
(d) making strategicplans.
[Hint: Staffing refers to appointing the right person for the right job.]
5. Non-financialincentiveshavemanythingstodowith:
(a) Directing,
(b) Motivation,
(c) Planning,
(d) organising.
6. Staffingneeds:
(a) man powerplanning,
(b) authority,
(c) communication,
(d) coordination.
[Hint:Staffingneedsestimatesofpresentandfutureneedsofmanagerialmanpowerandthereforeit needs
somepre-thinking.]
7. HRD refersto:
(a) remuneration,
(b) development,
(c) controlling,
(d) planning
8. Recruitmentcovers:
(a) selection,
(b) jobanalysis,
(c) time,
(d) none of theabove.
[Hint: Recruitment covers job analysis, job design and job descriptions.]
9. Training is the processof:
(a) motivation
(b) increasing knowledge andskill
(c) testing.
(d) employeerecommendations.
10. Vestibuletrainingprovidestheworkerwith:
(a) onthejobtraining,
(b) offthejobtraining,
(c) real life presentations off thejob
(d) demonstration
[Hint: The worker is provided with a real life presentation but not on the job directly.]
11. Which of the following is not a characteristic of formal organization:
Able to communicate with one another
Willing to act in an atmosphere of cooperation
Share a common implicit purpose
Share a common explicit purpose
12. :The obligation on the part of subordinate to complete the given job is called
Authority
Power
Reliability
Responsibility
13: The process of transferring the authority from top to the lower levels in the organization is called
Authority
Delegation
Power
Responsibility
14: What is the type of organization when the authority is delegated to the regional offices
Centralized
Decentralized
Both
None
15: Which of the following is not defined by V.A.Graicunas classification for superior-subordinate
relationships?
Group Relationships
Direct single relationships
Direct group relationships
Cross relationships
16: Which one of the following is a disadvantage for wide span of control?
Fewer levels of management
Difficult to supervise the subordinates directly
Lower supervision costs
Fewer levels of decision making
17: Which one of the following is not a cardinal principal of sound organization?
Flow of authority
Maximum number of subordinates
Attain balance
Specialization
18: The line organization is favoured because?
More scope for favoritism
No scope for specialization
Flexibility
No scope for Nepotism
19: Which one of the following refers to a project organization
Line organization
Military organization
Scalar organization
Matrix organization
20: Which of the following process of classifying the organization on the basis of similar activities?
formulation
Departmentation
Execution
Implementation
21: Which of the following is a merit for functional organization?
Calls for more coordination
Delayed decision making
Offers better control
Expensive in terms of time
22: Which one of the following is a merit for matrix organization?
Calls for greater degree of coordination
Difficult to define authority
Offers operations freedom
Difficult to define authority
23: Which of the following is a demerit for matrix organization?
Focuses on end results
Employees may find it frustrating to work with two bosses
Maintains professional identity
Seeks to optimize the utilization of resources
24: Which of the following allows an easy reallocation of resources?
Line and staff organization
Product organization
Matrix organization
Virtual organization
25.Which of the following refers to the policies and procedures of an organization:
Manual
Book
Journal
record
UNIT IV (LEADERSHIP & MOTIVATION)
1. What does the case scientific management inaction illustrate?
(e) Scientificmanagementtheoryisanoutdatedmanagementtheory.
(f) Managersshouldapplyclassicalmanagementtheorytotheireverydayworkiftheywanttobe
moreeffective.
(g) Atraditionalapproachtomanagementcanbesuccessfullyappliedtotheproblemsofamodern
organisation.
(h) Qualityusuallysuffersasproductivityincreases.
2. AccordingtoFrederickTaylor,whowastoblamefortheinefficiencyinorganisations?
(e) Theunions.
(f) Themanagers.
(g) Theorganisationasawhole.
(h) Theworkers
3. Whichofthesewasnotanintegralpartofscientificmanagement?
(e) Differential payrates.
(f) Worker control ofproduction.
(g) Systematic selection ofworkers.
(h) Workspecialisation
4. Whichofthefollowingisnotavalidcriticismofscientificmanagementtheory?
(e) Increasesinpayforworkerswerenotproportionaltoincreasesinproductivity.
(f) Workerdiscretionovertheexecutionofthetaskwasreduced.
(g) Jobsbecametoocomplexforworkerstohandle.
(h) Fearofredundancywasincreased.
5. WhichofthefollowingisnotafundamentalcharacteristicsofBureaucraticManagement?
(e) Specialisation oflabour
(f) Well definedhierarchy
(g) Strivingtobea‘first-classworker’
(h) Formal rules andregulations.
6. WhichofthesestatementsconcerningWeber’sconceptofBureaucracyisnotcorrect?
(e) Itisbasedonrulesandproceduresratherthanpersonalpreferenceandjudgement.
(f) Itisstillarelevantconceptintoday’sorganisation.
(g) Ithasacquiredanegativereputationforinefficiencyandrigidity.
(h) Itrejectsrationalapproachestomanagingorganizations
7. Whichofthefollowingwasanearlykeymanagementidea,pre-datingtheworkofFrederickTaylor and
MaxWeber?
(e) Differential payrates.
(f) Rule-by-the-office.
(g) Workspecialisation.
(h) Classical managementtheory.
8. Whichofthefollowingwasthekeyaimofscientificmanagement?
(e) Toincreaseworkercontrolofproduction.
(f) To increaseproductivity.
(g) To decreaseabsenteeism.
(h) To develop time-and-motionstudies.
9. WhichofthefollowingisNOTakeyconceptassociatedwithscientificmanagement?
(e) One bestway.
(f) Formalisation.
(g) Time-and-motionstudies.
(h) Systematicselection.
10. Contingencytheorysuggestswhichofthefollowingasalimitationofclassicalmanagement
theory?
(e) Managementapproachesneedtotakeintoaccounttheinformalsociallifeofworkersatwork.
(f) Managementapproachesneedtotakeintoaccountcomplexityandinstabilityintheenvironment.
(g) Everythingiscontingentupontheworkersinanorganisation.
(h) Managementpracticesneedtorecognisestabilityintheenvironment
11. Unity of commandmeans:
(e) parityofauthorityandresponsibility,
(f) flowofcommandfromsubordinatetosuperior,
(g) flowofcommandfromsuperiortosubordinate,
(h) parity incontrolling.
12. Defectivedelegation:
(e) hamperscoordination
(f) size of theorganization,
(g) establish propercontrols,
(h) establish sources ofpowers.
13. IndicatewhichofthefollowingisNOTamongthesixmaintypesoforganizationstructure–
(e) Lineorganization
(f) Functionalstructure
(g) Committees
(h) Department
14. Organisattionstructureisprimarilyconcernedwith and oftasksandauthority.
(e) Allocation andDelegation
(f) Allocation andapportionment
(g) Reporting anddelegating
(h) Setting standards anddelegation
15. Lineorganizationisalsoknownas organization.
(e) Scalar
(f) Chain
(g) Matrix
(h) Project
UNIT V (CONTROLLING)
11. Which of the following is not a characteristic of formal organization:
Able to communicate with one another
Willing to act in an atmosphere of cooperation
Share a common implicit purpose
Share a common explicit purpose
12. :The obligation on the part of subordinate to complete the given job is called
Authority
Power
Reliability
Responsibility
13: The process of transferring the authority from top to the lower levels in the organization is called
Authority
Delegation
Power
Responsibility
14: What is the type of organization when the authority is delegated to the regional offices
Centralized
Decentralized
Both
None
15: Which of the following is not defined by V.A.Graicunas classification for superior-subordinate
relationships?
Group Relationships
Direct single relationships
Direct group relationships
Cross relationships
16: Which one of the following is a disadvantage for wide span of control?
Fewer levels of management
Difficult to supervise the subordinates directly
Lower supervision costs
Fewer levels of decision making
17: Which one of the following is not a cardinal principal of sound organization?
Flow of authority
Maximum number of subordinates
Attain balance
Specialization
18: The line organization is favoured because?
More scope for favoritism
No scope for specialization
Flexibility
No scope for Nepotism
19: Which one of the following refers to a project organization
Line organization
Military organization
Scalar organization
Matrix organization
20: Which of the following process of classifying the organization on the basis of similar activities?
formulation
Departmentation
Execution
Implementation
21: Which of the following is a merit for functional organization?
Calls for more coordination
Delayed decision making
Offers better control
Expensive in terms of time
22: Which one of the following is a merit for matrix organization?
Calls for greater degree of coordination
Difficult to define authority
Offers operations freedom
Difficult to define authority
23: Which of the following is a demerit for matrix organization?
Focuses on end results
Employees may find it frustrating to work with two bosses
Maintains professional identity
Seeks to optimize the utilization of resources
24: Which of the following allows an easy reallocation of resources?
Line and staff organization
Product organization
Matrix organization
Virtual organization
25.Which of the following refers to the policies and procedures of an organization:
Manual
Book
Journal
record
HOLY MARY INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY & SCIENCE (COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING)
Bogaram(V),Keesara(M),Medchal.Dist - 501301
Department
Of Civil Engineering
HAND BOOK
A.Y : 2018-19
SUBJECT : DISASTER MANAGEMENT
CLASS : B.Tech
BRANCH : EEE
YEAR & SEM : IIIYEAR – I SEM
FACULTY : KONDREDDY V SUBBAIAH
HOD FACULTY SIGNATURE
VISION
To create and nurture competent Engineers and managers who would be enterprise
leaders in all parts of the world with aims of reaching the skies and touching the stars
and yet feet firmly planted on the ground – good human beings steeped in ethical and
moral values.
MISSION
Holy Mary Institute of Technology is committed to providing a positive, professional
and conducive learning environment where all students are inspired to achieve their
potential and strive for excellence in a global society as dignified professionals with the
cooperation of all stakeholders.
Importance of course
Disaster Management is very important to survive in such occurrence of
the event. Disaster Management team can help you to take measure to
minimize the impact of any sudden or unfortunate event that can cause
damage.
Purpose of Disaster Management
1. To avert a disaster.
2. To undertake the rescue operations.
3. To provide relief measures.
4. To undertake the rehabilitation programs.
5. To reduce trauma and tension.
6. To control death rate.
7. To protect the environment.
8. To minimize losses.
SYLLABUS
B.TECH. COMPTER SCIENCE ENGINEERING DISASTER MANAGEMENT
(Open Elective - I)
B.Tech. III Year I Sem. L T P C
Course Code: CS511OE 3 0 0 3 Course Objectives: The subject provides different disasters, tools and methods for
disaster management.
Course Outcomes: At the end of the course, the student will be able to: Understanding Disasters, man-made Hazards and Vulnerabilities Understanding
disaster management mechanism
Understanding capacity building concepts and planning of disaster
managements
UNIT - I Understanding Disaster: Concept of Disaster - Different approaches- Concept of
Risk - Levels of Disasters - Disaster Phenomena and Events (Global, national and
regional) Hazards and Vulnerabilities: Natural and man-made hazards; response
time, frequency and forewarning levels of different hazards - Characteristics and
damage potential or natural hazards; hazard assessment - Dimensions of vulnerability
factors; vulnerability assessment - Vulnerability and disaster risk - Vulnerabilities to
flood and earthquake hazards
UNIT - II
Disaster Management Mechanism: Concepts of risk management and crisis
managements - Disaster Management Cycle - Response and Recovery -
Development, Prevention, Mitigation and Preparedness - Planning for Relief
UNIT - III Capacity Building: Capacity Building: Concept - Structural and Nonstructural
Measures Capacity Assessment; Strengthening Capacity for Reducing Risk -
Counter-Disaster Resources and their utility in Disaster Management - Legislative
Support at the state and national levels
UNIT - IV Coping with Disaster: Coping Strategies; alternative adjustment processes -
Changing Concepts of disaster management - Industrial Safety Plan; Safety norms
and survival kits - Mass media and disaster management
UNIT - V Planning for disaster management: Strategies for disaster management planning -
Steps for formulating a disaster risk reduction plan - Disaster
managementActandPolicyinIndia Organizational structure for disaster management
in India - Preparation of state and district disaster management plans
TEXT BOOKS:
1. Manual on Disaster Management, National Disaster Management, Agency
Govt of India. 2. Disaster Management by Mrinalini Pandey Wiley 2014. 3. Disaster Science and Management by T. Bhattacharya, McGraw Hill Education
(India) Pvt Ltd Wiley 2015
REFERENCES:
1. Earth and Atmospheric Disasters Management, N. Pandharinath, CK Rajan, BS
Publications 2009. 2. National Disaster Management Plan, Ministry of Home affairs,
GovernmentofIndia(http://www.ndma.gov.in/images/policyplan/dmplan/draftn
dmp.pdf)
DISASTER MANAGEMENT
Important Long Answers Questions
UNIT-1
1. What is disaster and classify the disasters, recent disasters in India.
2. Write in detailed different approaches in disaster.
3. Explain about disaster management and levels of disasters.
4. Explain disaster phenomena and events (Global, National and Regional)
5. Explain about hazard and vulnerability and classifications.
6. Explain about vulnerability factors and vulnerability assessment.
7. Explain about vulnerabity to flood and earth quake hazard.
8. Explain about hazard and hazard assessment.
9. Explain frequency and fore warning levels of disaster.
10. Explain about Characteristics and damage potential or natural hazards
UNIT-II
1.Explain about disaster management and crisis management?
2. What is disaster management and explain in detailed disaster management cycle.
3. Explain about prevention, preparedness, mitigation in disaster management
cycle.
4. Explain about the response concept in disaster management cycle
5. Explain about the recovery, relief, rehabilitation concept in disaster management
cycle
6. Explain about in pre-disaster concept in disaster management cycle
7. Explain about in post-disaster concept in disaster management cycle
8. Explain about in during -disaster concept in disaster management cycle
9. Explain about ndma of India In disaster management cycle
10.Explain about sdma of India In disaster management cycle
UNIT-III
1. Explain about capacity building and disaster after facing problems.
2. Explain about structural and non structural measures of capacity assessment
3. What is strengthening capacity for reducing risk?
4. Explain about disaster resources and their utility in disaster management.
5. Explain about legislative support at the state and national.
6. Explain the conference regarding disaster management in India
7. Explain about disaster response forces places in India
8. Explain in detailed capacity assessment
9. What are the forces available regarding disaster management explain it
10. Explain about how to reduce in disaster explain it
UNIT-IV
1. Explain about coping with disaster and coping strategies.
2. Explain about coping strategies and alternative adjustment process.
3. Explain about changing concept of disaster management.
4. Explain industrial safety plans and safety norms, survival kits of mass media.
5. Explain mass media and disaster management.
6. What is coping strategies explain in detailed.
7. Explain safety precaution in disaster during time period.
8. Explain about disaster response team and what are duties
9. What are the district disaster management authority explain it
10. Explain the panchayit level disaster management authorities explain it
UNIT-V
1. Explain about planning for disaster management and strategies for disaster
management
2. Explain about steps for formulating a disaster risk reduction plan.
3. Explain disaster management act and policy in India
4. What are organizational structures for disaster management in India?
5. Explain about preparation of state and district disaster management plans.
6. What are the district disaster management authority explain it
7. Explain the conference regarding disaster management in India
8. Explain about ndma of India In disaster management cycle
9. Explain disaster phenomena and events (Global, National and Regional)
10. What are the district disaster management authority explain it
Important Short Answers Questions
UNIT-1
1. What is disaster and classification of disaster?
2. Write in detailed different approaches in disaster.
3. Explain about disaster management and levels of disasters.
4. Explain disaster phenomena and events in Global
5. Explain about hazard and classification of hazards?
6. Explain about vulnerability factors and vulnerability assessment.
7. Explain about vulnerabity to flood and earth quake hazard.
8. Explain about hazard and classification of hazard?
9. Explain frequency and fore warning levels of disaster.
10. Explain about Characteristics and damage potential or natural hazards
UNIT-II
1.Explain about disaster management ?
2. What is disaster management .
3. Explain about prevention, preparedness.
4. Explain about the response concept in disaster management cycle
5. Explain about the recovery, relief in disaster management.
6. Explain about in pre-disaster concept in disaster management cycle
7. Explain about in post-disaster concept in disaster management cycle
8. Explain about in during -disaster concept in disaster management cycle
9. Explain about ndma of India In disaster management cycle
10.Explain about sdma of India In disaster management cycle
UNIT-III
1. what is capacity building .
2. Explain about structural and non structural measures of capacity assessment
3. What is strengthening capacity for reducing risk?
4. Explain about disaster resources and their utility in disaster management.
5. Explain about legislative support at the state and national.
6. Explain the conference regarding disaster management in India
7. Explain about disaster response forces places in India
8. what is capacity assessment
9. What are the forces available regarding disaster management explain it
10. Explain about how to reduce in disaster explain it
UNIT-IV
1. Explain about coping with disaster and coping strategies.
2. Explain about coping strategies and alternative adjustment process.
3. Explain about changing concept of disaster management.
4. Explain industrial safety plans and safety norms, survival kits of mass media.
5. Explain mass media and disaster management.
6. What is coping strategies explain in detailed.
7. Explain safety precaution in disaster during time period.
8. Explain about disaster response team and what are duties
9. What are the district disaster management authority explain it
UNIT-V
1. Explain about planning for disaster management and strategies for disaster
management
2. Explain about steps for formulating a disaster risk reduction plan.
3. Explain disaster management act and policy in India
4. What are organizational structures for disaster management in India?
5. Explain about preparation of state and district disaster management plans.
6. What are the district disaster management authority explain it
7. Explain the conference regarding disaster management in India
8. Explain about ndma of India In disaster management cycle
9. Explain disaster phenomena and events (Global, National and Regional)
10. What are the district disaster management authority explain it
ASSIGNMENT QUESTIONS
ASSIGNMENT-1
1. Explain disaster phenomena and events (Global, National and Regional)
2. Explain about hazard and vulnerability and classifications.
3. What is disaster management and explain in detailed disaster management cycle.
4. Explain about structural and non structural measures of capacity assessment
5. Explain about vulnerability factors and vulnerability assessment.
ASSIGNMENT-2
1. Explain about legislative support at the state and national.
2. Explain about coping with disaster and coping strategies.
3. Explain about disaster management Industrial Safety Plan, Safety norms and
survival kits - Mass media and disaster management
4. Explain about preparation of state and district disaster management plans.
5. Explain disaster management act and policy in India
UNIT-1
1. Which of the following is not part of geological disaster?
A. Volcanoes
B. Earthquakes
C. Tsunami
D. Sea Surge
Ans: D
2. What is the rank of India in the world for natural disasters after China as per UNISDR?
A. Third
B. Second
C. Seventh
D. Eighth
Ans: B
3. What is the reason for volcanic eruption?
A. Movement and splitting of the major and minor plates of the Earth
B. Origin of magma because of lowering of melting point inside the Earth caused by reduction in
the pressure due to the splitting of plates and their movements in opposite directions.
C. Only A
D. Both A & B
Ans: D
4. Which of the following types of volcanic eruptions associated with Lacroix?
A. Hawaii Eruption
B. Strombolian Eruption
C. Vulcanian
D. All of the above
Ans: D
5. The volcanic eruption in Iceland falls under which volcanic belt in the World?
A. Belts of Convergent boundaries
B. Divergent Plate Boundaries
C. Hot Spots
D. None of the above
Ans: B
6. A geophysicist who studies earthquakes and the mechanical characteristics of the Earth is
called
A. Seismologist
B. Geologist
C. Geographer
D. Archaeologist
Ans: A
7. Consider the following statement (s) is/are related to the strategy to combat earthquake
disasters.
I. Establishing earthquake monitoring centres for regular monitoring and fast dissemination of
information among the people in the vulnerable areas.
II. Modifying the house types and building designs in the vulnerable areas and discouraging
contribution of high rise buildings, large industrial establishments and big urban centres in such
areas.
Code:
A. Only I B. Only II
C. Both I & II D. Neither I nor II
Ans: C
8. What causes Tsunami?
A. Sudden vertical movement of the Earth
B. Convergence of destructive plates in the ocean floor
C. Explosive volcanic eruptions in the seas/oceans.
D. All of the above
Ans: D
9. Consider the following statement (s) is/are related to the characteristics of tsunami waves.
I. Tsunamis are high energy sea waves caused mainly by the deep focus earthquakes of high
magnitude.
II. Preparing a vulnerability map of the country and dissemination of vulnerability risk
information among the people.
Code:
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I & II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans: C
10. Consider the following statement (s) is/are related to the remedial steps to reduce the risk of
life and properties by landslides..
I. Mapping of landslide prone areas a7 construction of houses, felling of trees and grazing in
landslide prone areas should be prohibited or restricted.
II. Afforestation in the vulnerable areas is an effective way of durable landslides control.
Code:
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I & II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans: C
11. Disasters can be broadly termed as __________ types.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 5
d) 3
Answer: a
12. The annual flood peaks in India are recorded in months of:
a) June, July
b) July, August
c) July, September
d) August, September
Answer: d
13.. Uttarakhand lies in zone ___________ of Earthquake prone areas.
a) 5
b) 3
c) 4
d) 2
Answer: c
14. To measure flood variability, __________ is used widely.
a) FFMI
b) FI
c) FMI
d) FFI
Answer: a
15. Disaster management deals with situation that occur after disaster.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
16. How many elements of disaster management are there?
a) 8
b) 7
c) 4
d) 6
Answer: d
17. Which of the below is an example of slow-onset disaster?
a) Earthquake
b) Tsunami
c) Cyclone
d) Draught
Answer: d
18. How many phases of disaster response are there?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
Answer: a
19. The first step in preparedness planning is:
a) Analysis of data collected
b) Determination of objectives
c) Development of implementing device
d) Determination of strategy
Answer: b
20. Tsunami detectors are placed in sea at ____________ kms from shore.
a) 25
b) 100
c) 50
d) 85
Answer: c
UNIT-II
1.Disaster Management includes? 1. Mitigation
2. Reconstruction
3. Rehabilitation
4. All the Above
Answer: 4
2. Tsunami’s can occur only during?
1. Evening
2. Morning
3. Afternoon
4. Any time in day or night
Answer: 4 3. When was the National Fire Service College established?
1. 1956
2. 1967
3. 1958
4. 1965
Answer: 1
4. How much of India’s Coastline is Vulnerable to Disasters?
1. 5600km
2. 5700km
3. 7600km
4. 6500km
Answer: 2
5. When was the National Cadet Corps (NCC), formed?
1. 1948
2. 1946
3. 1952
4. 1956
Answer: 1
6. Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre is located at?
1. Dhaka
2. Bangkok
3. Khatmandu
4. Jakartha
Answer: 2
7. The Disaster Management Act was made in?
1. 2005
2. 2004
3. 2006
4. 2008
Answer: 1
8. The term ‘Disaster’ is derived from which of the given languages?
1. Arabic
2. Greek
3. French
4. Japan
Answer: 3
9. National Institute of Disaster Management is located at?
1. New Delhi
2. Nagpur
3. Hyderabad
4. Chennai
Answer: 1
10. The Chairman of the National Disaster Management Authority is ?
1. Home Minister
2. President
3. Minister of Environment and Forest
4. Prime Minister
Answer: 4
11. The term Cyclone is derived from which language?
1. Greek
2. Latin
3. French
4. Arabic
Answer: 1
12. How much percentage of Indian Land is prone to earthquakes?
1. 56%
2. 60%
3. 69%
4. 59%
Answer: 4
13. International Tsunami Information center is located in?
1. Jakarta
2. Honolalu
3. Khatmandu
4. Brazil
Answer: 2
14. The Place where an earthquake originates is?
1. Focus
2. Epi centre
3. Crust
4. Focal
Answer: 1
15. Tsunamis are generated by?
1. Landslides under water
2. Volcanic Eruptions
3. Earthquakes
4. All above
Answer: 4
16. Tornadoes are common in which country?
1. China
2. India
3. U.S.A
4. Nepal
Answer: 3
17. The National Civil Defence college was founded in?
1. 1957
2. 1975
3. 1965
4. 1967
Answer: 1
18. From the given options, find out the Natural Hazard?
1. Cyclone
2. Earth quake
3. Landslides
4. All the above
Answer: 4
19. Which gas was released when Bhopal gas Tragedy occurred?
1. Nitrogen Cyanide
2. Methyl Cyanide
3. Methyl Nitrate
4. Methyl Iso cyanide
Answer: 4
20. International Day for Natural Disaster Reduction?
1. October 13
2. November 13
3. October 23
4. December 23
Answer: 1
UNIT-III
9. A flash flood is a flood that
is caused by heavy rain rather than from the flooding of a river
occurs in urban areas
occurs suddenly and unexpectedly and for a short duration
is caused by the blocking of drains.
Answer: c
10. A flood can vary in:
a. size
b. speed of water flow
c. duration
d. all of the above.
Answer: d
5. When a river’s water level reaches 10 metres, this means that:
the water level is 10 metres above an arbitrary ‘zero’ level
the water level is 10 metres above mean sea level
the water level is 10 metres above mean sea level or an arbitrary ‘zero’ level
it will flood.
Answer: c
6. The size of a flood is measured by:
the rate of flow of water in a waterway or river
the level of water in a waterway or river
a river gauging station
all of the above.
Answer: d
7. Which of the following is associated with a La Niña event?
the Southern Oscillation Index (SOI) is strongly negative
the ocean surface off the coast of South America is warmer than usual
there is an increased chance of above average rainfall in eastern Australia
all of the above.
Answer: c
8. Which of the following potentially affects the size of a flood?
a. bridges and other structures in waterways
b. the size and windiness of a river
c. vegetation in and around a river
d. all of the above
Answer: d
7. Which of the following is an environmental consequence of floods?
a. dispersal of weed species
b. erosion of soil
c. release of pollutants into waterways
d. all of the above.
Answer: d
7. Which of the following is used to estimate which areas will be inundated during a flood, based
on river height information?
a. satellite and radar images
b. flood maps / floodplain hydraulic models
c. river gauging stations
d. all of the above.
Answer: b
9. Which of the following statements is false?
weather forecasts for a small region are more accurate than those for a large region
weather forecasts are more accurate in Melbourne than in Darwin
forecasts of temperature are more accurate than forecasts of rainfall
all of the above
Answer: a
10. Which of the following is true?
Flood warnings:
a. should not be released until the information is certain
b. should indicate what the threat is, what action should be taken, by whom and when
c. are best if they come from a single source
d. all of the above.
Answer: b
viii) Flood risk refers to:
the chance of a flood occurring
the number of people and properties exposed to floodwaters if a flood occurs
the vulnerability of people and properties that are exposed to floodwaters
all of the above.
Answer. D
ix) Which of the following can reduce the risk of flooding?
zonings and building regulations for new developments
dams, detention basins and levees
c. flood awareness and education programs
d. all of the above.
Answer: d
ii The Probable Maximum Flood is:
i. an estimation of the largest possible flood that could occur at a particular location
ii. the maximum flood experienced in the last 100 years
iii. the maximum flood experienced in the last 200 years
iv. the maximum flood experienced since flood records have existed.
Answer: . a
iii For good land use planning, buildings should be built:
i. above the 1 in 100 year flood level
ii. above the level of the Probable Maximum Flood
iii. based on the chance and consequences of a flood for that particular building
iv. above the level of the largest historical flood.
Answer: c
iv In the future, which of the following is expected to increase the risk of flooding?
a. population growth
b. urbanisation
c. climate change
d. all of the above.
Answer: d
iv. In the future, which of the following is unlikely?
i there will be an increased chance of flash flooding and coastal inundation
ii flood risk will increase due to population growth and urbanisation
iii improvements in flood forecasting and warning technologies will reduce the impacts of floods
iv we will be able to eliminate the risk of flooding.
Answer: d 17.the region frequently affected by flood in andrapradesh?
(a) The details of Pennar
(b) The details of Krishna and Godavari
(c) Rayalaseema areas
(d) North coastal areas
Answer: b
18.an earth quak releases (a)Vibrations (b)Tremors (c)Vibrationsandtremors (d) Tremors and fire Answer: c
19.the river which causes tremendous floods in assam?
(a) Gomati
(b) Ganga
(c) Brahmaputra
(d) Yamuna
Answer:c
20.the method to identify land sides of porn areas which has been used in india since 1980 is
((a) Landslide Zonation Mapping
(b) Land Development Zooming
(c) Land Reclamation Zooming
(d) Land Disaster Mapping
Answer:a
UNIT-IV
1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a braided stream?
a. branching channels b. high gradient
c. abundant bed load d. constant discharge
Answer: d
2. Usually the largest floods in a stream occur _ .
a. very frequently, several times in one year b. frequently, every few years
c. rarely, about every ten years d. rarely, or once every few 100 years
Answer: d
3. If a dam is removed, then upstream from the former dam the river responds by
a. downcutting (lowering its bed) b. raising its bed
c. avulsion d. becoming a braided stream
e. decreasing its discharge f. making no change
Answer: a
4. Which of the following measurements is not needed to estimate stream discharge?
a. stream velocity b. width of stream
c. bed load of stream d. depth of stream
Answer: c
5.Which is not a characteristic of a regional flood?
v. An extended rise of river elevation for weeks to months.
vi. Large storm systems or an extended period of rainfall.
vii. A small drainage basin.
viii. Floodplains covered with floodwaters.
Answer: c
6. Most of the damage done by floods in the U.S. occurs .
a. on floodplains b. in small tributaries c. in delta regions
d. on uplands along major rivers e. in deserts
Answer: a
7. The process of avulsion causes
d) .
a. downcutting of the riverbed b. wider floodplains for the river
c. slow shifting of the river's channel d. formation of a new course for the river channel
8. The process of avulsion is caused by .
a. erosion of the river channel b. buildup of sediment in the river channel
c. widening of the channel d. destruction of natural levees
Answer: b
9.In ancient Egypt the Nile River
destroyed large areas of farming land every year
had to be regulated because it carried too much water
brought nutrients that made the fields fertile
changed its course almost every year
Answer: c
10.The flooding of New Orleans in 2004 was caused by
a. an earthquake b. a tsunami
c. a hurricane d. a tornado
Answer: c
11.In alpine regions reservoirs are created
to regulate the flow of melting water from icefields
to give the alpine populations enough water
to make larger rivers smaller
to get enough water into the main rivers Answer: a
12.Dikes and dams are lined up along the coast of the Netherlands
to generate electricity for its population
to change the course of rivers that flow into the North Sea
to keep storms away from the country
to keep ocean water out of the lower lying land Answer: d
13. The tsunami that killed over 250,000 people in south and southeast Asia in 2004 was caused by
a. a volcanic explosion b. an earthquake
c. a hurricane d. a tropical storm
Answer: b
14. A flood can be caused by:
a. Rising rivers b. High tides
c. Heavy rain in a small area d. All of the above
Answer: d
15.Which of the following should you do in a flood? Ans: c
a. Go sight-seeing b. Drink the water
c. Put valuables high up d. Water the garden
16. What is a flash flood? Ans: .d
a. A sophisticated flood b. Power lines fallen in flood waters
c. A deep flood d. A flood that happens fast with little warning
17. Which is the most common type of disaster in New Zealand? Ans : a
a. Floods b. Earthquakes
c. Tsunami d. Volcanoes
18. Which of these problems can be caused by floods? Answer: d
a. Landslips b. Sewage contamination
c. Destroyed crops d. All of the above
19..How many inches of fast-moving flood water can knock you off your feet? Answer: a
a. 6 inches b. 8 inches c. 10 inches
20.. What factors contribute to flooding?
a. Rainfall intensity. b. Rainfall duration.
c. BOTH of the above; rainfall intensity and rainfall duration.
Answer:c
UNIT-V
1. What is a tsunami?
a) a type of fish b) a series of huge waves
c) a kind of volcano
d) Earthquake
Answer: a series of huge waves
2. The term Tsunami is coined from?
a) Chinese term b) Indian term c) German term d) Japanese term
Answer: Japanese term
3. Tsunamis are waves generated by ?
a) Earthquakes b) Volcanic eruptions c) Underwater landslides d) All the above
Answer: All the above
4. Amateur Radio is also known as?
a) Ham radio b) Home radio c) Pocket radio d) Silent radio
Answer: Ham radio
5. Tsunami can occur only during?
a) Morning b) Noon c) Evening
d) Any time of day or nights
Answer: Any time of day or nights
6. National Institute of Disaster management is located at?
a) Pune b) Midnapur c) New Delhi d) Calcutta
Answer: New Delhi
7.Which of the following activities is covered by Disaster Management before, during or after a disaster?
a) Reconstruction and Rehabilitation b) Mitigation
c) Emergency response d) All the above
Answer: All the above
8. What is the speed of tsunami waves?
Answer: 800 Km/hour
a) 40 meters/hour b) 100 kms/hour
c) 9000 km/hour
d) 800 km/hour
HITS
9. What would you do if you heard a warning?
a) Surf on the big waves b) Get out of the water quickly and move to higher ground
c) Wait until you have finished your swim d) phone your friend
Answer: Get out of the water quickly and move to higher ground
10. When did Tsunami struck the east coast of India in recent times?
a) December 26, 2004 b) December 26, 2014
c) December 24, 2004 d) January 26, 1997
Answer : December 26, 2004
11) Tsunamis are most commonly found in which ocean?
a) Pacific Ocean b) Atlantic Ocean c) Artic Ocean d) Indian
Ocean
Answer: Pacific Ocean
12) What is the cause of tidal waves?
a) wind b) gravitational force of the moon on the sea
c) gravitational force of the sun on the sea d) gravitational force of the earth on the sea
Answer : gravitational force of the moon on the sea
13) Tsunami is classified as
a) Water Hazard b) Environmental hazard c) Biological hazard
Geological hazard Answer : Geological hazard
14Just prior to a tsunami coming ashore, sea level appears to fall quickly. This phenomenon is called
a) Sea level drop b) Draw fall c) Drawdown d) Dip in sea level
Answer: Drawdown
15. Most major tsunamis are produced by earthquakes with magnitudes greater than a) 6
b) 7 c) 8 d) 9
Answer: 7
HITS
16.The Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre (ITEWC) established at Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Sciences is located in
a) Chennai b)Goa c)Kochi d)Hyderabad
Answer: Hyderabad
17. Major tsunamis are produced by earthquakes with hypocenters less than a. 5 km b.10 km c.20 km d.30 km
Answer: 30 km
18.Just prior to a tsunami coming ashore, sea level appears to fall quickly. This phenomenon is called
a. Sea level drop b. Draw fall c. Drawdown d. Dip in sea level
Answer: Drawdown
19.As a tsunami approaches shallow water which of the following set of transformations occur? a. Wavelength increases, wave period decreases, and wave height stays the same
b. Wavelength decreases, wave period decreases, and wave height increases c.
Wavelength decreases, wave period increases, and wave height increases
d. Wavelength decreases, waver period stays the same, and wave height increases
Answer: wavelength decreases, their periods remain constant, and their wave heights increase.
20.The wave height of a tsunami is typically less than
a. 0.1 m b. 0.2 m c. 1 m d. 0.5 m e. 0. 3 m
Answer: 1 m
26. What does "tsunami" mean in Japanese?
a. severe earthquake b. Huge wind c. Harbour wave d. Terrible storm
HITS
Answer: Harbour wave