Study IQ www.studyiq.com, [email protected]Page - 1/25 Test Name : Test 12 - Ecology and Environment 2 Total Questions : 100 Difficulty Level : Medium Total Marks : 200.00 Test Type : Free Duration : 120.00 mins Instruction : Please read the instructions carefully The total duration of examination is 120 minutes. 1. Right Answer carries 2 marks and 1/3rd is negative marking in case of the wrong answer. 2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of the screen will 3. display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or submit your examination. The test contains 100 questions. Each item is given in the language of your preference (Hindi or 4. English) A test can be given only once 5. In case you feel there is more than one correct response, mark the response, which you consider 6. the best. All questions carry equal marks i.e. 2 marks each question 7. You can always go back and change your answer before submitting the test. However, this is not 8. possible in the actual UPSC preliminary exam. Irrespective of how many answers you have marked, the test will automatically close in 2 hours 9. and you will get your score based on the responses marked till then There are 4 alternatives for each question. For each wrong answer given, one-third of the marks 10. assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty The Question Palette displayed on the right side of the screen will show the status of each 11. question using one of the following symbols: You have not visited the question yet. You have not answered the question. You have answered the question. You have NOT answered the question, but have marked the question for review. You have answered the question, but marked it for review.
Test Name : Test 12 - Ecology and Environment 2 Total Questions : 100Difficulty Level : Medium Total Marks : 200.00Test Type : Free Duration : 120.00 mins
Instruction :Please read the instructions carefully
The total duration of examination is 120 minutes.1.Right Answer carries 2 marks and 1/3rd is negative marking in case of the wrong answer.2.The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of the screen will3.display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the timerreaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or submit yourexamination.The test contains 100 questions. Each item is given in the language of your preference (Hindi or4.English)A test can be given only once5.In case you feel there is more than one correct response, mark the response, which you consider6.the best.All questions carry equal marks i.e. 2 marks each question7.You can always go back and change your answer before submitting the test. However, this is not8.possible in the actual UPSC preliminary exam.Irrespective of how many answers you have marked, the test will automatically close in 2 hours9.and you will get your score based on the responses marked till thenThere are 4 alternatives for each question. For each wrong answer given, one-third of the marks10.assigned to that question will be deducted as penaltyThe Question Palette displayed on the right side of the screen will show the status of each11.question using one of the following symbols:
You have not visited the question yet.
You have not answered the question.
You have answered the question.
You have NOT answered the question, but have marked the question for review.
You have answered the question, but marked it for review.
Q.1 Consider the following statements:1. Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) is a statutory authority.2. It does the function of building the necessary infrastructure in these waterways, surveyingthe economic feasibility of new projects.Options:A. Only 1 is correctB. Only 2 is correctC. Both are correctD. Both are incorrect
Q.2 The Tea Board is functioning as a statutory body of the Central Government under the:A. Ministry of CommerceB. Ministry of AgricultureC. Ministry of MSMEsD. Ministry of HRD
Q.3 Which of the following is incorrect about the Sampoorna Gram BimaYojana?A. Under the SampoornaBima Gram (SBG) Yojana, at least one village (having a minimum of
100 households) will be identified in each of the revenue districts of the country.B. endeavour will be made to cover all households of that identified village with a minimum of
one RPLI (Rural Postal Life Insurance) policy each.C. Coverage of all households in the identified SampoornaBima Gram village is the primary
objective of this scheme.D. All are correct
Q.4 Consider the following statements about the Atal Pension Yojana:1. Under the scheme, a subscriber would receive a minimum guaranteed pension of Rs 1,000to Rs 5,000 per month, depending upon his contribution, from the age of 60 years.2. The same pension would be paid to the spouse and children of the subscriber and on thedemise of both the subscriber and the spouse, the accumulated pension wealth is returned tothe elder most child irrespective of gender.3. The Central Government would also co-contribute 50% of the total contribution or Rs. 1000per annum, whichever is lower, to each eligible subscriber account, for a period of 5 years.Options:A. Only 1 is correctB. Only 1 and 2 are correctC. Only 3 is correctD. Only 1 and 3 are correct
Q.5 MITRA SHAKTHI is a joint training exercise between:A. India and USB. India and UKC. India and RussiaD. None of the above
Q.6 Consider the following statements:1. The Myanmar Government says that Rohingya people are not Burmese citizens2. Few years ago, religious and ethnic tensions between the Rohingya Muslims and theMahayana Buddhists (who make up the majority of the population in Mayanmar) escalated intowidespread, deadly rioting.Choose the correct options:A. Only 1 is correctB. Only 2 is correctC. Both are correctD. Both are incorrect
Q.7 Which of the following is incorrect about the Global Hunger Index?A. The report is released by the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO).B. The hunger index ranks countries based on undernourishment, child mortality, child
wasting (low weight for height) and child stunting (low height for age) only.C. The GHI ranks countries on a 100-point scale. Zero is the best score (no hunger), and 100
is the worst, although neither of these extremes is reached in practice.D. Both a and c
Q.8 Which of the following countries is not a part of the New Agenda Coalition?A. BrazilB. EgyptC. IrelandD. Israel
Q.9 The NPT is interpreted as a three-pillar system, with an implicit balance among them. Whichof the following is not one of the three pillars?A. Non ProliferationB. DisarmamentC. The right to sell nuclear technologyD. The right to peacefully use nuclear technology
Q.10 The U.S. has announced its withdrawal from the United Nations Educational, Scientific andCultural Organization (UNESCO), because of:A. Trump presidencyB. Anti-Israel biasC. Pro-China biasD. Failure to name Washington DC as a heritage city
Q.11 Consider the following:1. In its ‘Fiscal Monitor – Tackling Inequality’, the IMF has discussed UBI2. Universal Basic Income (UBI) is an income unconditionally granted to people below povertyline on an individual basis, without means test or work requirement.Choose the correct options:A. Only 1 is correctB. Only 2 is correctC. Both are correctD. Both are incorrect
Q.12 Select the correct option:A. Skills Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion (SANKALP) is Rs
4,455 crore Centrally sponsored schemeB. Skills Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion (SANKALP) is a
World Bank Sponsored schemeC. Both a and b are correctD. Both a and b are incorrect
Q.13 Recently an MOU was signed between India and Belarus. It was regarding cooperation in thefield of:A. Defence acquisitionsB. Vocational Education and TrainingC. Genetic EngineeringD. Horticulture
Q.14 Which of the following statements about the Hybrid Annuity Model is incorrect?A. Under this model, the development, operation and maintenance of the sewage treatment
STPs will be undertaken by a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) to be created by the winningbidder at the local level.
B. As per this model, 40% of the Capital cost quoted would be paid on completion of
construction while the remaining 60% of the cost will be paid over the life of the project asannuities along with operation and maintenance cost (O&M) expenses.
C. Both the Annuity and O&M payments are linked to the performance of the SewageTreatment Plant (STP). This will ensure continued performance of the assets created dueto better accountability, ownership and optimal performance.
D. All are correct
Q.15 According to the Body Mass Index, a score of 25 in a male individual would imply that the saidindividual is –A. UnderweightB. OverweightC. Healthy weightD. Obese
Q.16 Consider the following statements:1. Active euthanasia, the intentional act of causing the death of a patient in great suffering, isillegal in India.2. Passive euthanasia, the withdrawal of medical treatment with the deliberate intention tohasten a terminally ill patient’s death is allowed to be performed with the consent of thepatient or his/her relatives.Choose the correct options:A. Only 1 is correctB. Only 2 is correctC. Both are correctD. Both are incorrect
Q.17 A document prepared by a person in a healthy state of mind specifying that if s/he slides into avegetative state because of an irreversible terminal illness, the debilitated existence shouldnot be prolonged with the help of life support systems or other medical interventions is knownas:A. Death statementB. Living willC. Passive EuthanasiaD. None of the above
Q.18 Select the correct option:A. The Shanghai Cooperation Organization was established on June 15, 2001 in Shanghai by
six countries.B. At the 2016 summit held in Uzbekistan, the SCO leaders signed memorandums on the
accession of India and Israel to the organization.C. Both a and b are correctD. Both a and b are incorrect
Q.19 Which of the following options about the Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme is incorrect?A. The bonds will be restricted for sale to resident Indian entities, including individuals,
HUFs, trusts, universities and charitable institutions.B. The bonds will be denominated in multiples of gram(s) of gold with a basic unit of 1 gram.C. Bonds cannot be used as collateral for loans.D. All are correct
Q.20 US economist Richard Thaler won the 2017 Nobel Economics Prize for his contributions in thefield of:A. Rent and Income TheoryB. Behavioral EconomicsC. Unemployment RatioD. Development economics
Q.21 Consider the following statements:1. A corporate governance committee was formed by the RBI in June 20172. It was formed under the chairmanship of Uday Kotak, MD, Kotak Mahindra BankChoose the correct options:A. Only 1 is correctB. Only 2 is correctC. Both are correctD. Both are incorrect
Q.22 Which of the following statements about the NamamiGangeProgramme is incorrect?A. NamamiGangeprogramme was launched as a mission to achieve the target of cleaning
river Ganga in an effective manner.B. It requires the unceasing involvement of all stakeholders, especially five major Ganga
basin States – Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, Bihar and West Bengal.C. The program would be implemented by the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), and
its state counterpart organizations i.e., State Program Management Groups (SPMGs).D. A three-tier mechanism has been proposed for project monitoring comprising of a Supreme
Court Judge at the national level and a high court and district court judge for the State anddistrict level
Q.23 Consider the following:1. Devadasi system is a religious practice whereby parents marry a daughter to a deity or atemple.2. In recent decades, the practice has been used to push young girls into prostitution.Choose the correct options:A. Only 1 is correctB. Only 2 is correctC. Both are correctD. Both are incorrect
Q.24 Intensified Mission Indradhanush would be closely monitored at the district, state and centrallevel at regular intervals. Further, it would be reviewed by the Cabinet Secretary at theNational level and will continue to be monitored at the highest level under a special initiative.It is –A. PRAGATIB. VAAYUC. NIYAMAD. NITI
Q.25 Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently launched the Pradhan MantriGramin DigitalSakshartaAbhiyan (PMGDISHA) at Gandhinagar in Gujarat. Which of the below statementsabout the programme is correct?A. PMGDISHA is government initiative with an objective to impart digital literacy among the
people residing in Semi-Urban and Urban areas.B. It is an important initiative under Modi’s vision of ‘Digital India’ that intends at making
every family digitally literate.C. This scheme will focus on making at last six crore people in rural areas (across States/UTs)
digitally literate. By March 31, 2019, it is expected to reach all the rural households in thecountry.
D. Under free of cost PMGDISHA scheme, people in the rural area will be trained to operate acomputer, tablet, smartphones, etc. They will be taught how to access the Internet,government services, undertake digital payment, compose e-mails, etc.
Q.26 Consider the following statements about the ‘BIMSTEC Disaster Management Exercise- 2017’
1. It is the first exercise to be launched by BIMSTEC under Disaster management2. It will be hosted by India3. BIMSTEC DMEx-2017 will be conducted by the National Disaster Response Force (NDRF)as the lead agency.Choose the correct option:A. Only 1 is correctB. Only 1 and 3 are correctC. All are correctD. Only 2 is correct
Q.27 Select the incorrect statement about the BetiBachaoBetiPadhao (BBBP) Scheme :A. The scheme is aimed at promoting gender equality and the significance of educating girls.B. The Scheme is targeted at improving the Child Sex Ratio through multi sectoral
interventionsC. It is a bi-ministerial effort of Ministries of Women and Child Development andHuman
Resource Development.D. All are correct
Q.28 Consider the following statements about Ican:1. Ican, a coalition of hundreds of non-governmental organisations (NGOs), is 10 years old andis based in Geneva, Switzerland.2. After pressure from Ican, 122 nations backed a UN treaty designed to ban and eventuallyeliminate all nuclear weapons.3. None of the nine known nuclear powers in the world – except the UK and the US – endorsedit.Choose the correct option:A. Only 1 is correctB. Only 1 and 3 are correctC. All are correctD. Only 1 and 2 are correct
Q.29 Which of the following is not an objective of the National Gokul Mission?A. Development and conservation of indigenous breedsB. Undertake breed improvement programme for indigenous cattle breeds so as to improve
the genetic makeup and increase the stockC. Enhance milk production and productivityD. Discontinue the use and import of Foreign bred jersey cows
Q.30 Select the correct option:A. In 2004, WWF-India introduced the concept of CCAs in the State to empower local
communities to become active decision-makers and implement conservation initiatives.B. The conservation status of snow leopard was recently improved from “endangered” to
“vulnerable”.C. Jammu and Kashmir is one of the 22 priority landscapes of the Global Snow Leopard
Ecosystem Protection ProgramD. Both a and b are correct
Q.31 The Ministry of Tourism, in collaboration with other Central Ministries, State Governmentsand Stakeholders is organizing “ParyatanParv” across the country.ParyatanParvwill have threemain components, which of the following is not one of them?A. DekhoapnadeshB. Swadesh kisundartaC. Tourism for allD. Tourism and governance
Q.32 The _____ Scheme was launched in April, 2015. The scheme’s objective is to refinancecollateral-free loans given by the lenders to small borrowers. Name the scheme –A. Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) schemeB. Pradhan MantriVIKAS Yojana (PMVY) schemeC. Pradhan MantriYUVA Yojana (PMYY) schemeD. Pradhan MantriLoan Waiver Yojana (PMLWY) scheme
Q.33 The government is considering the levy of an inheritance tax on high net worth individuals.Consider the following statements –1. The tax could range from 5% to 10% and would apply only to families with a certain networth.2. Also popularly known as estate tax or estate duty, Inheritance tax was a tax that was leviedagainst a particular asset during the time of its inheritance.3. Inheritance tax is no longer levied in India and was abolished during the time of the RajivGandhi Government in 1985.Choose the correct option:A. Only 1 is correctB. Only 1 and 3 are correctC. All are correctD. Only 2 is correct
Q.34 How is biodiversity the bedrock of human existence1. Soil formation2. Prevention of soil erosion3. Recycling of waste4. Pollination of cropsSelect the correct answer using the codes given below:A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 1 and 4 onlyD. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.35 Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ method of conservation of flora?A. Biosphere ReserveB. Botanical GardenC. National ParkD. Wildlife Sanctuary
Q.36 Consider the following statements:1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudesWhich of the statements given above is/are correct?A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.37 Which one of the following is not a threat faced by Olive Ridley turtlesA. Natural predators like vulturesB. B. By catch in fisheriesC. C. Entanglement in ghost netsD. D. Destruction of its sandy habitat
Q.38 The reason for the Himalayan Range to be so high in biodiversityA. It has a high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative growthB. It is a confluence of different bio-geographical zonesC. Exotic and invasive species have not been introduced in this regionD. It has less human interference
Q.39 The year 2017 marks the 30th Anniversary of the Montreal Protocol on Substances thatDeplete the Ozone Layer. Which of the following about it is incorrect1. it led to the phase-out of around 100% of ozone depleting chemical2. nearly 2 million cases of skin cancer has been averted globallyA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 1 and 2D. none of the above
Q.40 Which of the following is true about the recently released National Wildlife Plan 2017 to 20311. it adopts a landscape approach2. it gives special emphasis on threatened speciesA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 1 and 2 onlyD. none of the above
Q.41 Consider the following. Which of the following are correct?1. African elephants are listed as “vulnerable” and Asian elephants as “endangered” in theIUCN Red List of threatened species.2. Census data on elephants has been done on direct count, indirect count (dung count),waterhole and salt-lick observations.A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 1 and 2D. none of the above
Q.42 Consider the following. Which of the following are correct?1. Tiger-bearing forests play a mitigative role in combating Climate Change2. According to St Petersburg Declaration the target is to triple the number of Tigers by 2022A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 1 and 2D. none of the above
Q.43 Consider the following. Choose the correct statement(s)1.The primary cause of wildlife-human conflicts is the loss of habitat
2. Habitat loss enhances conflict between Asian elephants (Elephas maximus) and agriculture.A. 1 onlyB. 2 onllyC. Both 1 and 2D. None of the above
Q.44 Consider the following kinds of organisms :1. Bacteria2. Fungi3. Flowering plantsWhich of these are employed as biopesticides?A. 1 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3
Q.45 Consider the following areas:1. Bandipur2. Bhitarkanika3. Manas4. SunderbansWhich of the above are Tiger Reserves?A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1, 3 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3 and 4 onlyD. l, 2, 3 and 4
Q.46 In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people notallowed to collect and use the biomass?A. Biosphere ReservesB. National ParksC. Wetlands declared under Ramsar ConventionD. Wildlife Sanctuaries
Q.47 Which of the following is incorrect about eutrophication?A. Eutrophication is the enrichment of surface waters with plant nutrients.B. Eutrophication can leads to algal blooms, deoxygenation of water and ultimately fish kills.
C. Eutrophicated water is oxygen rich and safe for direct human consumption withoutrequiring any treatment.
D. None of above
Q.48 Consider following statements1. An ecotype is Genetically different forms of the same organisms2. Pyramid of trophic levels is downright in case of energyA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. and 2D. none of the above
Q.49 Consider the following statements. Choose the correct option(s)1. Mangroves are effective barriers against cyclones and are important for fisheries.2. They are restricted to the intertidal zoneA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 1 and 2D. none of the above
Q.50 Which of the following has reduced mangrove extent drastically1. Over-exploitation for timber and fuelwood,2. Shrimp culture,3. Inland water diversion,4. Clearing for developmentA. a.1 onlyB. b. 2 and 3 onlyC. c. 1 2 and 3 onlyD. d. All of the above
Q.51 Consider the following statements. Choose the correct option(s)1. Seagrass meadows are not diverse2. They are threatened due to sedimentation and excess nutrientsA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 1 and 2D. None of the above
Q.52 Which one of the following gases is not included in the category 'greenhouse gases'?A. MethaneB. HydrogenC. Carbon dioxideD. Nitrous oxide
Q.53 Who among the following can alter the boundaries of a national park?1. Parliament2. State Legislature of the concerned States3. Ministry of EnvironmentForests and Climate Change.Select the correct answer using the codes given below.A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 onlyD. 2 and 3 only
Q.54 Consider the following statements:1. IUCN classify protected areas according to their management objectives.2. National parks of India are in the category IUCN 1.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2Answer & Explanation
Q.55 The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 has which of the follwing categories of protected areas.1. National parks2. Wildlife sanctuaries3. Biosphere reserveSelect the correct answer using the codes given below.A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. All of the above
Q.56 Which of these pairs is / are incorrectly matched ?1. Stockholm Convention : Persistant organic Pollutants
2. Minamata convention : Mercury3. Basel Convention : LeadSelect the correct answer using the codes given below.A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 3 only
Q.57 Consider the following statements. Choose the correct statement(s)1. Protected Areas (PAs) are clearly defined geographical spaces2. The PAs, when governed and managed effectively, can provide nature based solutions toenvironmental problemsA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 1 and 2D. none of the above
Q.58 Consider the following. Choose the coorect statement(s)1. Project Tiger’ is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) of the MoEFCC2. it does in situ conservationA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 1 and 2D. none of the above
Q.59 What is common to the Giant Sensitive Tree (Mimosa pigra) to the more Unusual feralelephants in the Andaman IslandsA. They are endangeredB. They are invasiveC. They cause damages to the tribal farm landsD. They were added to IUCN red book in 2017
Q.60 Which of the following are highly threatened species1. Lesser Florican2. Bengal Florican3. Great Indian Bustard4. Nicobar Megapode
Q.61 Consider the following. Which of these are correct statement(s)1. Wetlands are areas where water is the primary factor controlling the environment and theassociated plant and animal life2. The primary source of water is rainfallA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. None of the above
Q.62 Consider the following statements. Choose the correct statement(s)1. Bering Strait separates North America from Asia.2. Isthmus of Panama joins North America to South America.A. I onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. None of the above
Q.63 Which of the following lakes is not the part of the "Great Lakes"?A. Lake SuperiorB. Lake MichiganC. Lake HuronD. Great Slave lake
Q.64 What is common to Lantana Camara, Australian wattles (Acacia dealbata and A. mearnsii) andthe ornamental scotch broom (Cytisus scoparius)A. They are medicinal plantsB. They are alien invasive speciesC. They are endangeredD. They are frequently fed to wild animals
Q.65 Consider the following. Choose the correct statement(s)
1. Western Ghats is a UNESCO World Heritage Site2. It blocks the Southwest Monsoon from reaching the Deccan Plateau and causes rainfall onits eastern side of theA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.66 Which of the following open up to the ocean?1. Bolivia2. Brazil3. Suriname4. UruguayA. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 1, 2 and 4 onlyD. None of the above
Q.67 Through which of the following states does Western Ghats pass through?1. Gujarat2. Kerala3. Andhra Pradesh4. Tamil NaduA. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 1, 2 and 4 onlyD. All of the above
Q.68 Consider the following about the Strait of Magellan.Choose the correct statement(s)1. It connects Atlantic and Pacific oceans and also runs through South America2. Its westernmost extremity is touched by ArgentinaA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.69 Consider the following. Choose the correct statement(s)1. No country of Australia and North America is landlocked2. Tropic of Capricorn passes through Argentina and ChileA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.70 Consider the following. Choose the correct statement(s)1. Aanamudi, in Kerala is the highest peak in India outside of Himalayas2. Thamiraparani and Kaveri rivers originate from Western GhatsA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.71 Assertion: In Western Ghats, the endemic species are expected to shift towards the southernand southwestern direction in the futureReason: Coastal regions are expected to experience less warming than in-land regionsA. A is right and R is the correct explanation of AB. A is right but R is not the correct explanation of AC. A is right but R is not correctD. Both A and R are not correct
Q.72 Which of the following are not the condition(s) to qualify as a biodiversity hotspot?1. It must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics2. It has to have retained ≥ 70% of its original native habitat.A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.73 Consider the following statements. Choose the incorrect one(s)1. Non-point source pollution is marked by specific identifiable sources2. Assessing the extent of damage they cause on specific water bodies is very difficultA. 1 onlyB. 2 only
Q.74 Consider the following about hydromodification. Choose the correct statement(s)1. It covers both altering flow of water channel and land use patterns2. It can also impact the dissolved oxygen levels in waterA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.75 Consider the following. Which of these does not cause soil erosion?1. Jhum Cultivation2. Trash Farming3. Terrace FarmingA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 3 only
Q.76 Assertion: We now find tropical diseases in temperate regionsReason: Rising temperatures leading to global warming is causing this.A. A is right and R is the correct explanation of AB. A is right but R is not the correct explanation of AC. A is right but R is not correctD. Both A and R are not correct
Q.77 Which of the following statement(s) is/are FALSE?1. Viviparity mode of reproduction is seen in Mangroves.2. Stilt roots are tap roots that emerge from the main trunk of a tree above ground level.3. Pneumatophores are mangrove roots that are designed to overcome respiration problems4. The Mangrove trees cannot be used as firewood.A. 1 and 2B. 1 and 4C. 2 and 4D. 3 and 4
Q.78 Match the Following states with their local term for Sacred Groves:1. Andhra Pradesh (i) Santalburithan2. Rajasthan (ii) Jogmaya3. Uttarakhand (iii) Pavithravana4. West Bengal (iv) Deo BhumiA. 1-(iv), 2- (i), 3-(ii), 4(iii)B. 1-(iii), 2- (ii), 3-(iv), 4(i)C. 1-(iv), 2- (iii), 3-(ii), 4(i)D. 1-(iii), 2- (iv), 3-(i), 4(ii)
Q.79 Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?1. A carbon credit is a tradeable certificate or permit representing the right to emit one tonneof carbon dioxide equivalent.2. Carbon offsets are credits for reductions in greenhouse gas emissions made at anotherlocation, such as wind farms.3. The Certified Emission Reductions must only be sold in the international market and notprivately.4. There is no provision for the trading of greenhouse gases other than CO2.A. 1 and 4B. 1 and 2C. 3 and 4D. none
Q.80 Which of the following is CORRECT:1. Gymnosperms have nothing like ovary, style and stigma and there is no fruit.2. Angiosperms are the least developed of the plant kingdom3. In Bryophytes, the plant body is differentiated into a small stem and simple leaves, but trueroots are absent.4. Unlike plants, lichens do not photosynthesize.A. 1 and 3B. 2 and 3C. 1 and 4D. 2 only
Q.81 Match the following1. Phytoextraction (i) the use of fungi to decontaminate the area2. Phytostabilization (ii) using fungal mycelia to remove toxic waste and microorganisms fromwater in soil3. Mycofiltration (iii) plants accumulate contaminants into the roots and aboveground shoots
or leaves4. Mycoremediation (iv) plants reduce the mobility and migration of contaminated soilA. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)B. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(i)C. 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(i), 4-(ii)D. 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
Q.82 Which among the following is an In Situ method of Biodiversity Conservation?1. Wildlife Sanctuaries2. Botanical garden3. Biosphere Reserve4. ZooA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 4 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3
Q.83 Consider the following:1. No human activity or settlement allowed.2. Villagers cannot graze their animals3. Extremely strict rules about jungle produce collectionThese are the characteristic features of:A. National parksB. Wildlife SanctuariesC. Biosphere reservesD. Zoos
Q.84 Which of the following statements are true?1. Ex – Situ conservation is very essential for big animals like elephants, rhinos, and tigers.2. Aquarium is an example of In-situ method of biodiversity conservation.A. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.85 Which of the following statements are true?1. Central Zoo authority looks after the matters related to prevention of cruelty to animals.
2. Wild Ass is only found in Ranthambhor, Rajasthan.A. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.86 Which of the following statements is/are true?A. Bactrian camel (Two Humped Camel) is a native to Central America.B. India has more National parks compared to Wild-life sanctuaries.C. Seed bank is an example of In Situ ConservationD. None of the above
Q.87 Consider the following statements about seed banks:1. They store seeds at extremely low temperature and humidity.2. Advantage: can save large variety of plant species in a very small space.A. Only 1 is correctB. Only 2 is correctC. Both the statements are correctD. Both are incorrect
Q.88 Which of the following statements is true?A. Biodiversity is high in isolated islandsB. Biodiversity is low in tropical forests and coral reefs.C. Biodiversity is higher in Europe compared to south Asia.D. As you move from equator towards the poles, biodiversity decreases.
Q.89 Consider the following:1. These species determine the ability of a large number of other species to survive.2. Examples of these species are Bees and PlanktonThe species in discussion are:A. Sentinel SpeciesB. Symbiotic SpeciesC. Keystone SpeciesD. Base Species
1. Genetic diversity within a species often decreases with environmental variability.2. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes.A. Only 1 is correctB. Only 2 is correctC. Both are correctD. Both are incorrect
Q.91 Which of the following statements is/are correct?A. Alpha Diversity: richness and evenness of individuals within a habitat unitB. Beta Diversity: landscape diversity or diversity of habitats within a landscape or region.C. Gamma Diversity: expression of diversity between habitats.D. All are correct
Q.92 Assertion: Sacred groves are guarded by communities and NGOsReason: They do not enjoy statutory safeguards for their conservationA. A is right and R is the correct explanation of AB. A is right but R is not the correct explanation of AC. A is right but R is not correctD. Both A and R are not correct
Q.93 Consider the following. Which of these are biosphere reserves?1. Seshachalam Hills2. Solomon Islands3. Panna4. SimlipalA. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 1, 3 and 4 onlyD. All of the above
Q.94 Consider the following statements. Choose the correct option(s)1. Geothermal vents could be dangerous because they are known to let out harmful gases2. Geothermal plants are not a continuous source of energy3. Geothermal plants could cause earthquakesA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 only
Q.95 Consider the following. Choose the correct statement(s)1. Oil spills cause hypothermia in birds and animals2. Oil spills disable the ability to stay afloat in mammals and other aquatic organisms3. Oil spills stop the penetration of sunlight and damage plankton growth.A. 3 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. None of the aboveD. All of the above
Q.96 Arrange the following in the order starting from south moving northwards1. Nandadevi2. Khangchendzonga3. Pachmarhi4. SimlipalA. 4-3-2-1B. 3-4-2-1C. 3-4-1-2D. 4-3-1-2
Q.97 Consider the following. Which of the following illnesses does seaweed?1. Cancer2. Inflammation3. Wounds and Burns4. Malignant TumorsA. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 1, 3 and 4 onlyD. All of the above
Q.98 Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is often used in policy toA. Measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cerevisiae in producing curd on a commercial
scaleB. Working out the efficiency of R.B.Cs. about their capacity to carry oxygenC. Estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage waterD. Working out the efficiency of oil driven automobile engines
Q.99 To easily assess the levels of water pollution we can useA. Entamoeba histolyticaB. Escherichia ColiC. Eichhornia crassipesD. Lemna paucicostata
Q.100Which is / are correct about Basel Convention on movement of hazardous goods?1. It started off to counter the practice of import of toxic wastes by the developing world2. The convention also facilitates technology transfer to manage wastesA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. None of the above
