Test-1

Space for Rough Work

1/19

Test-1 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

[ SCIENCE]

Time : 3 Hrs. MM : 600

Choose the correct answer :

1. One pascal of pressure is generated by

(1) Force of 1 N on 1 cm2 area

(2) Force of 1 N on 1 mm2 area

(3) Force of 1 N on 1 m2 area

(4) Force of 1 kgf on 1 m2 area

2. A body is kept on a horizontal floor. If the area of

contact of the body is increased, then

(1) Pressure increases

(2) Pressure decreases

(3) Pressure remains constant

(4) Pressure may increase or decrease

3. A body is kept on a rough horizontal floor and a

horizontal force is applied on it. Then the force of

friction acting on it will

(1) Always increase with increase in weight of the

body

(2) Always decrease with increase in weight of the

body

(3) Not be affected by the variation in weight of the

body

(4) May increase or decrease with increase in the

weight of body

4. Match the columns and choose the correct option:

Phenomena Cause

a. A rolling ball stops (i) Electrostatic force

on the ground

b. A man rowing a boat (ii) Frictional force

c. Attraction of small (iii) Muscular force

pieces of paper to

the charged glass rod

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)

(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)

5. The force of gravity acting on the box is 600 N. If an

upward vertical force of 200 N is applied on the box

then, how much minimum force is required to be

applied to lift the box?

(1) 200 N from above or 200 N from below in upward

direction


direction


direction


direction

TEST - 1


2/19

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII) Test-1 (Code A)

6. A brick weighing 50 N and having dimensions

25 cm × 10 cm × 5 cm is kept on the ground on

three different faces. The maximum pressure exerted

on the ground is

(1) 2 kPa (2) 10 kPa

(3) 12 kPa (4) 18 kPa

7. Choose the incorrect option.

The friction can be reduced in between the two

surfaces by

(1) Lubricating the surfaces

(2) Using ball bearings in between the surfaces

(3) By polishing the surfaces

(4) By reducing the area of contact in between the

surfaces

8. A man of weight ‘W’ is standing on a cubical block

of weight 600 N and base area 400 cm2. The

pressure exerted on the base is 18 kPa. The weight

‘W’ of the man is

(1) 100 N (2) 120 N

(3) 140 N (4) 160 N

9. A girl of mass 40 kg is standing on the pencil heel

of area 2 cm2. An almirah of mass 500 kg and base

area 250 cm2 is placed on the floor. If Fa, F

g are the

respective weights of almirah and girl and Pa, P

g are

their respective pressures exerted on the ground then

[Take g = 10 m/s2]

(1) Fa > F

g, P

a > P

g

(2) Fg > F

a, P

g > P

a

(3) Fa > F

g, P

g > P

a

(4) Fa = F

g, P

g > P

a

10. A block of mass 10 kg is placed on the rough

horizontal surface. The two forces of 20 N and 50 N

are applied on the block as shown in figure given

below. If the block does not move in horizontal

direction, then the magnitude of frictional force acting

in between the block and surface is

10 kg

20 N

50 N

(1) 50 N (2) 30 N

(3) 20 N (4) 70 N

11. Tyres are provided with deep grooves on their surface

to

(1) Reduce the manufacturing cost of material used

(2) Increase the friction

(3) Decrease the friction

(4) Make them look attractive

12. In the figure given below three containers of different

shapes but same bottom area contain liquids of

densities 1000 kg/m3, 900 kg/m3 and 800 kg/m3 up

to the heights 8 cm, 9 cm and 10 cm respectively.

Then ratio of pressures at the bottom of container is

9 cm

10 cm8 cm

Density of liquid = 1000 kg/m

3


3


3

(1) 80 : 81 : 90 (2) 80 : 90 : 80

(3) 80 : 80 : 90 (4) 80 : 81 : 80


3/19


13. In the figure given below, which of the following case

is possible [Given density of water = 1 g/cm3;

density of mercury = 13.6 g/cm3]

Water Mercury

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

14. In the above figure, a container contains liquid of

density . Points A and B are at depths h1 and h

2

from the top surface of the liquid. The pressure

difference in between points B and A is [Take g as

aceleration due to gravity]

A

B

h1

h2

(1) (h1

+ h2)g (2) h

2g

(3) (h2

– h1)g (4) Zero

15. A cubical block of mass 20 kg is kept on levelled

surface. If it exerts a pressure of 50 Pa on the surface,

the volume of the block is [Take g = 10 m/s2]

(1) 4 m3 (2) 2 m3

(3) 8 m3 (4) 2 2 m3

16. Two glass balls hanging separately with the help of

string, when rubbed against polyester cloth repel

each other because

(1) Gravitational force and electrostatic force both are

repulsive

(2) Gravitational force is repulsive and electrostatic

force is attractive

(3) Gravitational force is attractive and electrostatic

force is repulsive and gravitational force is greater

in magnitude than electrostatic force

(4) Gravitational force is attractive and electrostatic

force is repulsive and gravitational force is less

in magnitude than electrostatic force

17. A block of mass ‘m’ is attached to the hook of

spring balance as shown in the figure below. The

reading of the spring balance is [Take g as

acceleration due to gravity]

m

(1)2

mg

(2) 2 mg

(3) mg (4) Zero

18. Ball bearings are used in between the axles of

bicycles because

(1) They completely remove the friction

(2) They increase the friction which helps axle to

rotate

(3) They convert static friction to dynamic friction

(4) They convert sliding friction into rolling friction


4/19


19. A body will just begin to slide when pulled

horizontally with a minimum force of 10 N. What will

be the net force acting on the body if a horizontal

force of 8 N is applied on it?

(1) 10 N (2) 8 N

(3) 0 N (4) 2 N

20. A block, under the action of forces F and 5 N, is

moving towards right as shown in the figure given

below. If the value of kinetic friction between the

block and surface is 2 N, then F is

F5 N

(1) 7 N (2) 3 N

(3) 1 N (4) 2 N

21. Polymer ‘X’ is the first fully synthetic fibre and is

elastic and durable. It is used to make parachutes

and fishing nets. Polymer ‘X’ is

(1) Nylon (2) Cotton

(3) Silk (4) Rayon

22. Consider the given box.

Cotton, terylene, silk, wool, polyester

The total number of natural polymers is

(1) 4 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 1

23. The polymer which is not found in human body is

(1) Proteins (2) Glycogen

(3) DNA (4) Cellulose

24. The cross linked polymer which is used for making

handles of utensils is

(1) Bakelite (2) Melamine

(3) Glycogen (4) Nylon

25. All of the following are thermoplastics except

(1) Teflon (2) Polypropene

(3) Melamine (4) PVC

26. Natural rubber is

(1) Polyisoprene (2) Neoprene

(3) Polyhydroxybutyrate (4) PHBV

27. Match the following :

Column-I Column-II

a. Paper (i) 10 to 15 years

b. Wood (ii) 2 to 5 months

c. Cotton clothes (iii) 10 to 30 days

d. Peels of vegetables (iv) 1 to 2 weeks

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)

(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

28. A wool like-fibre used to make sweaters, shawls or

blankets is

(1) Terrycot (2) Dacron

(3) Orlon (4) Rayon

29. Consider the following

(i) : Polyester

(ii) : Melamine

(iii) : Starch

Now, find the incorrect match.

(1) Only (i) (2) Only (iii)

(3) Both (i) & (ii) (4) Both (ii) & (iii)


5/19


30. All the given statements are the advantages of

synthetic fibres except

(1) They absorb less water, so they dry easily and

quickly

(2) They are generally less expensive and affordable

(3) They do not allow the air to pass through them

(4) They are strong and require less maintenance

31. The monomer unit of teflon is

(1) Difluoroethene (2) Styrene

(3) Ethene (4) Tetrafluoroethene

32. The common factor between polyethene and

polystyrene is that, they both are

(1) Synthetic polymers (2) Biopolymers

(3) Natural polymers (4) Cross-linked polymers

33. In 4R principle, R doesn't stand for

(1) Reduce (2) Reuse

(3) Recycle (4) Rediscover

34. The polyester which is widely used in making

bottles, wires and utensils is

(1) Terephthalate

(2) Polyethylene terephthalate

(3) Acrilan

(4) Kevlar

35. Read the following statements carefully.

Statement-1: Polyesters are the most disastrous

when they catch fire.

Statement-2: Silk is an expensive natural fibre.

Now, choose the correct option.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect

(3) Only statement-1 is correct


36. Plastics cannot be classified on the basis of their

(1) Origin (2) Structure

(3) Synthesis (4) Composition

37. Compounds obtained from petroleum and natural gas

are known as

(1) Polymers (2) Macromolecules

(3) Petrochemicals (4) Copolymers

38. Which of the following is not a variant of nylon?

(1) Nylon 66 (2) Nylon 610

(3) Nylon 6 (4) Nylon 666

39. Which of the following is not a characteristic of

plastics?

(1) Chemical resistance (2) Versatile use

(3) Light weight (4) Biodegradability

40. The polymer that has comparatively low density and

low melting point due to irregular packing is

(1) Starch (2) Nylon

(3) PVC (4) Polyethene

41. In chemistry lab, Surbhi accidently added

Acetobacter aceti in the jar containing solution of

ethyl alcohol. What would happen to ethyl alcohol

present in the jar?

(1) It would undergo aerobic fermentation and

release oxygen

(2) It would not be affected

(3) It would convert into acetic acid

(4) It would convert into methanol


6/19


42. Categorise the given breeds of cattle as, breeds of

cow and breeds of buffalo and select the correct

option.

(a) Sahiwal

(b) Jersey

(c) Jaffrabadi

(d) Mehsana

(e) Murrah

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(a), (b)

(a), (c)

(a), (e), (d)

(b), (d), (c)

(c), (d), (e)

(d), (b), (e)

(b), (c)

(e), (a)

Breeds of cow Breeds of buffalo

43. The grains should be stored at low temperature to

(1) Increase the population of pest

(2) Initiate germination of seeds

(3) Increase the moisture content

(4) Prevent the growth of microbes

44. Which of the following is incorrect regarding viruses?

(1) They have either RNA or DNA coated with

proteins as their genetic material

(2) They lack a cellular structure

(3) They are facultative parasites

(4) They are neither living nor non-living

45. The bacteria which causes cholera is

(1) Rod-shaped

(2) Spiral-shaped

(3) Spherical shaped

(4) Comma-shaped

46. A farmer grows only oilseed crops and plantation

crops in his field. Which of the following groups of

plants are grown by him?

(1) Gram, barley, Sugarcane, beetroot, bean

(2) Sunflower, Coconut, Maize, barley, rubber

(3) Tea, Mustard, Groundnut, Castor, Coconut

(4) Tea, Coffee, Sugarcane, cotton, Jute, Oat

47.

Female

A

B

Anopheles

C

Filarial worm

Dengue virus

D

E

Dengue

Carrier Pathogen Diseases

Identify A, B, C, D and E.

(1) A – Male Culex mosquito

B – Male Aedes mosquito

C – Plasmodium

D – Malaria

E – Filariasis

(2) A – Female Culex mosquito

B – Female Aedes mosquito

C – Plasmodium

D – Malaria

E – Filariasis

(3) A – Female Aedes

B – Female Culex mosquito

C – Leishmania

D – Kala azar

E – Sleeping sickness

(4) A – Housefly

B – Sandfly

C – Trypanosoma

D – Sleeping Sickness

E – Kala azar


7/19


48. A person with following symptoms was admitted to

the hospital. Identify the disease the person is

suffering from, its causal agent and its mode of

transmission.

Painless watery diarrhoea followed by vomiting.

Excessive loss of water from the body.

Rapid dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.

Tubercul-osis

Typhoid

Cholera

Chicken pox

Mycobacteriumtuberculosis

Salmonellatyphi

Vibrio cholerae

Varicella zoster

virus

Inhalation of infected droplets released through coughing, sneezing, etc.

Contaminated food and water

Contaminated water and food

Dew drop like rashes on skin, fever, uneasiness

DiseaseCausal

organismMode of

transmission

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

49. Shweta uprooted berseem and pea plants from the

field and saw nodules on the roots. These nodules

contain bacteria which

(1) Convert free atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates

(2) Enrich the soil with phosphorus and potassium

(3) Help in weeding

(4) Act as a fertilizer

50. In an examination, students were asked to name the

following.

(a) A modern method of irrigation useful for sandy

soil.

(b) A tool used for both sowing seeds and weeding.

(c) A machine which separates seeds from the chaff.

(d) A manure prepared using earthworms.

(e) A crop grown between March and June.

Some students gave the following answers.

Manoj- (a) Sprinkler method

(b) Seed drill

(c) Thresher

(d) Vermicompost

(e) Musk melon

Mansi- (a) Drip system

(b) Hoe

(c) Winnowing

(d) Green manure

(e) Water melon

Puneet-(a) Sprinkler method

(b) Seed drill

(c) Thresher

(d) Vermicompost

(e) Water melon

Payal- (a) Moat

(b) Seed drill

(c) Khurpi

(d) Vermicompost

(e) Rice

Arya- (a) Drip system

(b) Seed drill

(c) Thresher

(d) Compost

(e) Wheat

Arti- (a) Sprinkler method

(b) Seed drill

(c) Thresher

(d) Vermicompost

(e) Groundnut

Which students gave all the correct answers?

(1) Payal, Puneet and Arya

(2) Mansi, Payal and Arya

(3) Puneet and Arti

(4) Manoj and Puneet


8/19


51. Saumya, in her kitchen garden observed burnt

appearance of leaves, curling and wrinkling of leaves

of the okra plant. What is the causative agent of the

disease and its mode of transmission?

Xanthomonas citri

Yellow vein mosaic virus

Puccinia graminis

Yellow vein mosaic virus

Air

Insect

Air and seeds

Air and water

Causative agent Mode of

transmission

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

52. After eating noodles, fried rice and Manchurian from

a road side food stall, Suresh started vomiting and

suffered from diarrhoea and nausea. The doctor said

he is suffering from food poisoning caused by

bacterial infection. Which of the following organisms

could be the cause of it?

(1) Salmonella and Clostridium

(2) Aspergillus and Penicillium

(3) Salmonella and Penicillium

(4) Clostridium and Aspergillus

53.

‘P’ ‘R’

‘R’ ‘R’

‘R’

‘Q’

‘Q’

‘Q’

‘Q’ ‘Q’

‘Q’

‘R’

‘R’ ‘R’

‘R’

‘R’

‘Q’ ‘R’

‘R’ ‘R’

‘R’

‘R’

‘R’

‘R’ ‘R’

‘R’

‘R’‘R’

Beehive

The ‘P’, ‘Q’ and ‘R’ are the different castes of a

honey bee. ‘P’ and ‘R’ are diploid and ‘Q’ is haploid.

What are the functions of ‘P’, ‘Q’ and ‘R’?

(1) P – To make a beehive

Q – To produce bee wax

R – To lay eggs

(2) P – To produce eggs

Q – To fertilize the queen

R – To collect nectar and maintain the beehive

(3) P – To produce eggs

Q – To collect nectar

R – To fertilize the queen

(4) P – To produce bee wax

Q – To produce honey

R – To fertilize the queen

54. Categorize the given crops as rabi and kharif crops

and select the correct option.

(a) Maize (b) Gram

(c) Jowar (d) Bajra

(e) Linseed (f) Soyabean

(g) Wheat (h) Mustard

(i) Rice (j) Ground nut

(k) Pea (l) Barley

(c), (f), (g), (h), (k), (l)

(a), (b), (e), (f), (i), (j)

(b), (e), (f), (h), (k), (l)

(b), (e), (g), (h), (k), (l)

(a), (b), (d), (e), (i), (j)

(c), (d), (g), (h), (k), (l)

(a), (c), (d), (g), (i), (j)

(a), (c), (d), (f), (i), (j)

Rabi crop Kharif crop

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

55. Raghu's grandmother added oil and salt in raw

mangoes while preparing pickle. The purpose of

adding salt and oil is to

(1) Enhance the taste of the pickle

(2) Check the growth of microorganisms

(3) Smoothen the mangoes by breaking their cell

walls

(4) Increase the moisture content

56. Select the incorrect match.

(1) Rinderpest of cattle – Virus

(2) Anthrax – Bacteria

(3) Mastitis of cattle – Protozoan

(4) Ranikhet of poultry birds – Virus


9/19


57. While preparing curd, your mother adds small

amount of curd in the warm milk to

(1) Decrease the temperature of the milk

(2) Initiate fermentation

(3) Convert lactic acid into lactose

(4) Promote multiplication of Lactobacillus

58. All of the following prevents the growth of unwanted

plants in the field, except

(1) Atrazine (2) Butachlor

(3) DDT (4) 2, 4, 1- MCPA

59. Which of the following methods is the best irrigation

method for irrigating plants present in semi-arid and

arid zones?

(1) Moat

(2) Canal system

(3) Rahat

(4) Drip system

60. A farmer dumps plant and animal wastes in a pit,

covers it and leaves it to decompose. After and

during the process they would obtain_____ and ____.

(1) Compost, biogas

(2) Green manure, vermicompost

(3) Urea, biogas

(4) Potash, urea

61. All of the given reasons support that seeds should

be sown at proper depth, except

(1) To get enough air for respiration

(2) To prevent eaten by the birds

(3) To reduce the struggle while passing through the

layers of soil to get sunlight and fresh air

(4) To prevent overcrowding of plants

62. A doctor was explaining about different shots of BCG

and HBV vaccine to a couple who just gave birth to

twins. These two vaccines would prevent the twins

from

(1) Cholera and chicken pox

(2) Tuberculosis and hepatitis

(3) Small pox and tuberculosis

(4) Typhoid and measles

63. ______was the first antibiotic discovered by ______.

(1) Penicillin, Alexander Fleming

(2) Tetracycline, Edward Jenner

(3) Chloramphenicol, Norman Borlaug

(4) Ampicillin, Alexander Fleming

64. All of the following are chemical preservatives used

to preserve jams, jellies, etc., except

(1) Sodium metabisulphite

(2) Vinegar

(3) Sodium hydroxide

(4) Sodium benzoate

65. Akansha observed that farmers were using a curved

blade for harvesting the crop manually. The tool

used by farmers was

(1) Sickle (2) Thresher

(3) Cotton strippers (4) Khurpi

66. Fumes of which of the following are sprayed over the

stored grains to prevent them against pest infection?

(1) Benzene hexachloride

(2) Methyl bromide

(3) Malathion

(4) Butachlor


10/19


67. For a school project, students were asked to bring

the seeds of high yielding varieties of wheat.

Students brought the following.

Ranjan – Jaya and Padma

Rohit – Arjun, Sonalika and Pusa lerma

Savita – Ganga-101 and Pusa-205

Reema – Sharbati Sonora and Kalyan Sona

Bhanu – Kalyan Sona and Sonalika

Karan – Arjun and Sonalika

Jasmine – Jaya, Padma and Pusa-205

How many students brought the correct varieties of

wheat?

(1) Five (2) Four

(3) Three (4) Two

68. Statement-1: White leghorn is the most popular

breed of broiler all over the world.

Statement-2: Poultry bird reared for meat is called

broiler.



(3) Both the statements are correct

(4) Both the statements are incorrect

69. Match the following columns and select the correct

option

Column-I Column-II

a. Anthrax (i) Salmonella typhi

b. Tuberculosis (ii) Bacillus anthracis

c. Typhoid (iii) Varicella zoster virus

d. Chicken pox (iv) Mycobacterium

tuberculosis

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

(3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

70. In a school exhibition, a student was demonstrating

the preservation technique developed by Louis

Pasteur for preserving milk. Select the procedure

followed by him.

(1) He heated the chilled milk at 72°C for 30 sec

(2) He added one spoon of sodium benzoate in

1 litre of milk.

(3) He heated the milk for about 15-30 seconds at

70°C and suddenly chilled.

(4) He added a spoon of sugar and curd in the milk

and heated for 15-30 seconds at 70°C and

chilled suddenly.

71. ‘X’ is a fungus which affects the wheat crop and

causes a disease ‘Y’ in which brown pustules can

be observed on the stalk, leaves and leaf sheath.

The pustules burst and release a mass of black

spores.

Identify ‘X’, Y and the mode of transmission of Y.

Puccinia graminis

Xanthomonas citri

Bacillus anthracis

Yellow Vein mosaic virus

Rust of wheat

Citrus canker

Yellow Vein mosaic disease

Anthrax

Air and Seeds

Air

Water

Insect

X Y

Mode of

transmission

of Y

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


11/19


72. Which of the following is not the correct difference

between manure and fertilizers?

They are prepared in fields

They contain small amounts of essential plant nutrients

They do not add any humus to the soil

Nutrients present in them are absorbed slowly by the crop

They are prepared in factories

They are rich in plants nutrients

They add a lot of humus to the soil

Being soluble in water, they are readily absorbed by the crop plants

Manures Fertilizers

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

73. Identify the tool according to the given information.

(i) Used for weeding

(ii) Used for loosening of the soil

(iii) Has a long rod of wood or iron and a strong,

broad and bent plate of iron fixed at one end.

(1) Combine (2) Khurpi

(3) Cultivator (4) Hoe

74. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the fungus

used for the anaerobic conversion of sugar into

alcohol.

(1) It is grown on natural sugars present in barley,

wheat, etc.

(2) It is Saccharomyces cerevisiae

(3) It is unicellular

(4) It is also used for preparation of curd

75. Select the correct sequence of practices followed

while growing a crop.

(1) Tilling Sowing Manuring Irrigation Harvesting

(2) Sowing Tilling Irrigation Manuring Harvesting

(3) Ploughing Irrigation Sowing Harvesting

Manuring

(4) Irrigation Manuring Sowing Ploughing

Harvesting

76. Today many people are suffering from vitamin-D

deficiency. Which of the following should they

in-corporate in their diet to fulfil the deficiency?

(1) Papaya and carrot

(2) Boiled eggs

(3) Cod and shark liver oil

(4) Apricot and chicken

77. The vaccine for infantile paralysis was introduced by

(1) Louis Pasteur (2) Alexander Fleming

(3) Sabin and Salk (4) Edward Jenner

78. Select the incorrect match.

(1) Edward Jenner – Father of immunology

(2) Anton Van Leeuwenhoek – Father of microbiology

(3) Robert Koch – Discovered Bacillus anthracis

(4) Alexander Fleming – Discovered fermentation

79. Categorise the following diseases as bacterial, viral

and protozoan and select the correct option.

(a) Cholera (b) AIDS

(c) Typhoid (d) Tuberculosis

(e) Polio (f) Hepatitis

(g) Malaria (h) Chicken pox

(i) Measles

(a), (b), (d)

(a), (c), (d)

(f), (g), (h), (i)

(b), (e), (f)

(c), (e), (f), (i)

(b), (e), (f), (h), (i)

(a), (b), (c)

(i), (d), (c)

Bacterial

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Viral

(g), (h)

(g)

(d), (e)

(a), (g), (h)

Protozoan

80. Why do farmers remove plants such as motha,

chauli, bathua, growing along with the main crops?

(1) These compete with the main crop for water,

nutrients, space and light which reduces the

growth of main crop

(2) Their yield is high than the main crop

(3) Their demand is less

(4) They take more time to grow than the main

crop


12/19


[ MATHEMATICS

]

81. If two adjacent sides of a quadrilateral are given,

then to draw a unique quadrilateral, we need

(1) One angle (2) Two angles

(3) Three angles (4) One side

82. Given four distinct quadrilaterals, a square, a

rectangle, a kite and a rhombus, which of the

following quadrilaterals must have perpendicular

diagonals?

(1) Rectangle and square

(2) Square, kite and rhombus

(3) Kite and rectangle

(4) Rhombus, kite and rectangle

83. A farmer has 10 sheep and 8 chickens. If the ratio

of their heads to legs is k, then the additive inverse

of k is

(1)–9

28(2)

7

27

(3)–3

26(4)

3

26

84. If N, W, Z and Q represent the system of natural

numbers, whole numbers, integers and rational

numbers respectively, then which of the following

systems must follow the closure property under

subtraction, addition and multiplication?

(1) N and W

(2) N, W, Z and Q

(3) W, Z and Q

(4) Z and Q

85. The quadrilateral PQRS shown below can be

constructed with ease, if the construction is started

with

30°

12 cm

8 c

m

9 cm

P

Q

R

S

40°

(1) Diagonal QS (2) Side PS

(3) Side PQ (4) Side RS

86. In the given figure, if a regular pentagon and a regular

hexagon overlap each other, then which of the

following options is correct?

ba

c

(1) a > b > c (2) b > c > a

(3) c > b > a (4) a > c > b

87. Which of the following is not a linear equation?

(1) x(x2 + 2x + 3) = x2(x + 2) – 7x + 4

(2)1

3x =

4

– 2x

(3)

2 23( 1) 2( 4 )

3 2

x x x

(4) x + 4 = 3

2x


13/19


88. If the reciprocal of a number x is same as x and b

is the number whose reciprocal is 3

2 more than the

square of x, then the number 2

–5

c b is not a/an

(1) Natural number (2) Rational number

(3) Integer (4) Whole number

89. If one side and two diagonals are given in a

parallelogram, then which of the following properties

is used to construct a parallelogram?

(1) Opposite angles are equal

(2) Opposite sides are parallel and equal

(3) Diagonals bisect each other

(4) Co-interior angles are supplementary

90. The sum of all the interior angles of a septagon is

(1) 1080° (2) 750°

(3) 900° (4) 1440°

91. Denominator of a rational number is 3 more than its

numerator. If 7 is added to the numerator and 1 is

subtracted from the denominator, then the new

number becomes 4

3. The rational number is

(1)13

16(2)

17

13

(3)13

15(4)

14

17

92. If 1 1 1

12 3x x x

x 0, then 6x is not a/an

(1) Natural number (2) Odd number

(3) Prime number (4) Even number

93. A quadrilateral whose one measurement is enough

for its construction is a

(1) Square (2) Parallelogram

(3) Rectangle (4) Rhombus

94. The interior angles of a convex polygon cannot be

more than

(1) Two acute angles (2) Three acute angles

(3) Four acute angles (4) One acute angle

95. If – – –

3x a x b x c

b c c a a b

, where a, b and c are

positive real numbers, then x is equal to

(1) a + 2b – c (2) a + b + c

(3) 3a + 2b + c (4) a + 2b + 3c

96. The minimum number of known measurements to

construct a kite uniquely is

(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 4 (4) 5

97. If a, b and c are chosen from the three numbers

–2

3, 4 and 6, then the largest possible value of the

expression 2a

cb

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠ is

(1)8

27(2)

4

3

(3)3

2(4)

2

3

98. In the given figure, if PQRS is a parallelogram such

that QRS = 70°, SPT = 37° and PQ = PT, then

the measure of TQR is

37°

70°

Q

P

R

T

S

(1) 103.5° (2) 73.5°

(3) 97.5° (4) 94.5°


14/19


99. In which of the following options, we cannot

construct a unique quadrilateral ABCD?

(1) AB = 6 cm, AD = 7 cm and A = 60°, where

ABCD is a parallelogram

(2) BC = 7 cm and C = 30°, where ABCD is a

rhombus

(3) CD = 6 cm and BC = 8 cm, where ABCD is a

rectangle

(4) AC = 8 cm and BD = 10 cm, where ABCD is

a kite

100. If the sum of two numbers is 21 and the difference

between them is 3, then the smaller number is

(1) 9 (2) 12

(3) 14 (4) 7

101. If a and b are integers such that a < b, then the

number of integers between 2a and 2b is

(1) a + b – 1 (2) 2b – 2a – 2

(3) 2b – 2a – 1 (4) 2b – a + 2

102. In the given figure, ABC is an equilateral triangle

whose vertices lie on a rhombus PQCS. If AB = PQ,

then which of the following options is correct?

b

a

A

BP

S

C

Q

d

(1) b + d = a (2) b + a + d = 160°

(3) a > b + d (4) b + a + 2d = 180°

103. Sumaiya had to multiply two positive integers. She

incorrectly took 54 instead of taking 45 as one of

the multipliers. As a result, the product went up by

720. Then, the new product is

(1) 4320 (2) 2340

(3) 3600 (4) 4230

104. The difference of the digits of a two digit number is

4. If the sum of the number formed by reversing the

digits and the original number is 110, then the

product of its digits is

(1) 21 (2) 12

(3) 13 (4) 32

105. The quadrilateral which can be constructed with the

help of only two diagonals uniquely is a

(1) Kite (2) Parallelogram

(3) Rhombus (4) Rectangle

106. If a, b, c and d are rational numbers such that

a + 1 = b + 2 = c + 3 = d + 4 = a + b + c + d + 5,

then a + b + c + d is equal to

(1)–17

3(2)

–10

3

(3)–8

3(4)

23

3

107. If x and y are two numbers such that 2002x – 4004x

= 8008 and 2002y + 6006y = 40040, then the

average of x and y is

(1) 6 (2)5

2

(3)1

2(4) 7

108. ABCD is a rhombus such that AC = 6 cm and

BD = 8 cm. The length of DA is

(1) 8 cm (2) 5 cm

(3) 6 cm (4) 14 cm

109. Which of the following options is incorrect?

(1) An octagon has 20 diagonals.

(2) A hexagon has 4 diagonals more than a

pentagon.

(3) Triangle has no diagonal.

(4) A diagonal always lie inside the polygon.


15/19


110. If a and b are positive integers such that a > 1 and

b > 1, then which of the following has greatest

value?

(1)1

a

b (2)

–1

a

b

(3)2

2 1

a

b (4)

2

2 –1

a

b

111. If z1, z

2 and z

3 are rational numbers such that

1

4 < z

1 < z

2 < z

3 <

1

3 and z

1 –

1

4 = z

2 – z

1 =

z3 – z

2 =

1

3 – z

3, then z

1 is equal to

(1)25

48(2)

13

48

(3)5

24(4)

1

48

112. The product of two rational numbers is –3. If one

rational number is –16, then the multiplicative inverse

of the other number is

(1)16

3(2)

–3

16

(3)–16

3(4)

3

16

113. In the given figure, if LIKE is an isosceles trapezium

with LI | | EK, then the length of LM is

20 cm

10 c

m

36 cmKE

IL

M N

(1) 5 cm (2) 6 cm

(3) 4 cm (4) 8 cm

114. If the sum of the three different positive integers is

7, then which of the following rational numbers does

not lie between its sum and product?

(1)36

5(2)

127

14

(3)102

13(4)

25

3.5

115. In the given figure, if a square, an equilateral triangle

and a regular pentagon share a common point P,

then the value of is

P

(1) 102° (2) 103°

(3) 78° (4) 63°

116. Two rational numbers are removed from the six

rational numbers 1 1 1 1 1, , , ,

3 6 9 12 15 and

1

18 so that the

sum of the remaining four is 2

3. The product of the

two removed rational numbers is

(1)1

180(2)

1

216

(3)1

125(4)

1

108

117. The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by

3 cm. If the length and breadth are each increased

by 4 cm, the perimeter of the new rectangle will be

22 cm more than half the perimeter of the given

rectangle, then the breadth of the given rectangle is

(1) 1.5 cm (2) 2.6 cm

(3) 10 cm (4) 3.4 cm


16/19


[ MENTAL ABILITY

]

118. In the given figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral,

if A = (a + 30)°, B = (20 + b)° and

C = (2b – a + 40)°, then the measure of D is

A

BD

C

(1) 75° (2) 105°

(3) 95° (4) 55°

119. If a = 1 1 1

14 9 16

........, and b = 1 1

19 25

+

1

49 ......., then b in terms of a is equal to

(1)4

3

a

(2)3

4

a

(3)2

3

a

(4)4

7

a

120. In a polygon, if the number of sides is same as the

number of diagonals, then the polygon must be a/an

(1) Square (2) Pentagon

(3) Octagon (4) Triangle

Directions (Q.121 to Q.123): Find the missing term in

following patterns

121. 125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, ?

(1) 165 (2) 166

(3) 167 (4) 168

122. 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, ?

(1) 18 (2) 16

(3) 21 (4) 20

123. 289, 324, 361, 400, 484, 529, ?

(1) 586 (2) 625

(3) 676 (4) 576

Directions (Q.124 to Q.126): Read the given information

and answer the following question:

‘a – b’’mean a is greater than b, ‘a + b’ means a is less

than b, ‘a > b’ means ‘a – b’ and ‘a < b’ means ‘a + b’

124. If p < q – p < r, then

(1) q + r (2) q – r

(3) r – q (4) p < q + p < r

125. If p > q > r + s, then

(1) p > s + q < r (2) p > s – r < q

(3) p > s – q < r (4) p > r – q < s

126. If p < q > r – s, then

(1) p > r + s > q (2) r < s – p < q

(3) q > r + s > p (4) p < q – r < s

Directions (Q.127 to Q.129): Read the information given

below carefully and answer the following question:

(i) Some person P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are standing

in a row, not necessarily in order.

(ii) T is standing exactly in the middle of the row and

second to the right of P.

(iii) Q, R and V are not at the ends, but R and V are

adjacent to each other.

(iv) Q is standing at the 4th position to the left of S.

127. Who is standing at left end?

(1) P (2) Q

(3) U (4) R


17/19


128. The person standing at second to the left of sixth

position from left is

(1) S (2) U

(3) V (4) T

129. The person who is adjacent to U and Q is

(1) S (2) P

(3) R (4) T

130. The three position of a same dice is given

5

12

5

23

5

34

Which number is opposite to 1?

(1) 4 (2) 2

(3) 6 (4) 3

131. A cube is painted blue on all of its faces. Now it cut

into 343 smaller cubes of equal size. How many

smaller cubes are painted on one surface only?

(1) 160 (2) 250

(3) 150 (4) 170

132. Count the number of cubes in adjacent figure.

(1) 100 (2) 112

(3) 84 (4) 108

Directions (Q.133 to Q.135): In this question Column-I

has some words which are coded in numbers given in

Column-II.

Column-I Column-II

ROSE 1246

SUN 257

NOSE 7246

Read the above information carefully and answer the

following questions.

133. The code for ‘R’ is

(1) 4 (2) 6

(3) 1 (4) 2

134. ‘7’ is code for

(1) O (2) N

(3) S (4) U

135. The code for ‘‘ONES’’ can be

(1) 4672 (2) 4572

(3) 7614 (4) 4172

Directions (Q.136 to Q.138): Four friends Shweta, Ruchi,

Indu and Bhanu likes to speak in French, Spanish, Hindi,

and Sanskrit, not necessarily in order. Each one likes to

speak only one language. The person who speak Hindi

did not like to eat Poha or Noddles. The person speak

French like Pizza. Indu like poha and did not speak

Sanskrit. Ruchi not like idli or Noddles. Shweta does not

speak French or Sanskrit. Each one like only one food.

136. Who speak French?

(1) Shweta (2) Indu

(3) Ruchi (4) Bhanu

137. Who like Noddles?

(1) Shweta (2) Indu

(3) Ruchi (4) Bhanu

138. Which of the following pair is correct?

(1) Spanish – Poha (2) Shweta – Pizza

(3) Bhanu – Idli (4) Indu – Hindi


18/19


139. If south becomes north-east, then north-west

becomes

(1) North-east (2) North

(3) South (4) East

140. Akhil starts from point A towards east and after 10

m he reaches at B. He take left turn and move

further 10 m to reaches at point C. Now he take

right turn and move further 10 m to point D. He is

facing now towards.

(1) North (2) East

(3) South (4) West

141. A person facing towards north turned by 135° in

clockwise and 90° in anticlokwise and 135° further in

same direction. Now the person is facing towards

(1) South-west (2) North-west

(3) South (4) West

142. 86 : 7 : : 66 : 6 : : 46 : 5 : : 28 : ?

(1) 5 (2) 4

(3) 6 (4) 8

Directions (Q.143 & Q.144): Choose an answer figure

which has same relation with figure(C) as figure(A) and

(B) have in problem figure:

143. Problem figure

A B C D

?

Answer Figure

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

144. Problem figure

?

A B C D

Answer Figure

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Directions (Q.145 to Q.147): Find the mirror image in the

following questions.

145.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

146. HOVERCRAFT

(1) (2)

(3) (4)


19/19


147. 1728195642

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Directions (Q.148 to Q.150): Choose a correct option to

complete the given figure in the following questions.

148.

?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

149.

?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

150.

?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

� � �

1/7

Test-1 (Code A) - (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

ANSWERS

1. (3)

2. (2)

3. (1)

4. (2)

5. (4)

6. (2)

7. (4)

8. (2)

9. (3)

10. (1)

11. (2)

12. (4)

13. (2)

14. (3)

15. (3)

16. (4)

17. (3)

18. (4)

19. (3)

20. (1)

21. (1)

22. (3)

23. (4)

24. (1)

25. (3)

26. (1)

27. (4)

28. (3)

29. (4)

30. (3)

Test Date : 18-10-2015

31. (4)

32. (1)

33. (4)

34. (2)

35. (1)

36. (4)

37. (3)

38. (4)

39. (4)

40. (1)

41. (3)

42. (1)

43. (4)

44. (3)

45. (4)

46. (3)

47. (2)

48. (3)

49. (1)

50. (4)

51. (2)

52. (1)

53. (2)

54. (4)

55. (2)

56. (3)

57. (4)

58. (3)

59. (4)

60. (1)

61. (4)

62. (2)

63. (1)

64. (3)

65. (1)

66. (2)

67. (2)

68. (2)

69. (4)

70. (3)

71. (1)

72. (3)

73. (4)

74. (4)

75. (1)

76. (3)

77. (3)

78. (4)

79. (2)

80. (1)

81. (3)

82. (2)

83. (1)

84. (4)

85. (1)

86. (4)

87. (4)

88. (1)

89. (3)

90. (3)

91. (1)

92. (4)

93. (1)

94. (2)

95. (2)

96. (2)

97. (4)

98. (2)

99. (4)

100. (1)

101. (3)

102. (3)

103. (1)

104. (1)

105. (3)

106. (2)

107. (3)

108. (2)

109. (4)

110. (2)

111. (2)

112. (1)

113. (2)

114. (2)

115. (1)

116. (1)

117. (1)

118. (2)

119. (2)

120. (2)

121. (2)

122. (3)

123. (4)

124. (2)

125. (1)

126. (4)

127. (3)

128. (4)

129. (2)

130. (4)

131. (3)

132. (4)

133. (3)

134. (2)

135. (1)

136. (3)

137. (4)

138. (1)

139. (3)

140. (2)

141. (4)

142. (1)

143. (2)

144. (4)

145. (3)

146. (2)

147. (1)

148. (2)

149. (2)

150. (3)

TEST - 1

2/7

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII) Test-1 (Code A) - (Answers & Hints)

Hints to Selected Questions

[ SCIENCE]

1. Answer (3)

2. Answer (2)

3. Answer (1)

4. Answer (2)

5. Answer (4)

200 N600 N

F

F = 400 N

200 N600 N

F

F + 200 = 600

F = 400 N

6. Answer (2)

–4

Force 50=

Area(minimum) 10 5 10P

= 10 kPa

7. Answer (4)

8. Answer (2)

600 N

W

Pressure = 600

Area

W = 18 × 103

W + 600 = 18 × 103 × 400 × 10–4

W + 600 = 720

W = 720 – 600 = 120 N

9. Answer (3)

Fa = 500g

= 500 × 10

= 5000 N

Fg = 40g

Fg = 400 N

a gF F

Pg =

–4

400

2 2 10

= 1000 kPa

Pg = 1000 kPa

45000 10

250a

P

Pa = 200 kPa

Pg > P

a

10. Answer (1)

11. Answer (2)

12. Answer (4)

∵ P = hg

∵ P1 : P

2 : P

3

= 1h

1 :

2h

2 :

3h

3

= 0.08 × 1000 : 0.09 × 900 : 0.1 × 800

= 80 : 81 : 80

13. Answer (2)

14. Answer (3)

15. Answer (3)

P = 2

Force 200

Area L

50 = 2

200

L

L2 = 4

L = 2 meter

Volume = (2)3 = 8 m3

3/7


16. Answer (4)

17. Answer (3)

18. Answer (4)

19. Answer (3)

8 N

8 N

Limiting friction = 10 N

F = 8 – 8 = 0 N

20. Answer (1)

F5 N

2 N

7 NF

21. Answer (1)

22. Answer (3)

23. Answer (4)

24. Answer (1)

25. Answer (3)

26. Answer (1)

27. Answer (4)

28. Answer (3)

29. Answer (4)

30. Answer (3)

31. Answer (4)

32. Answer (1)

33. Answer (4)

34. Answer (2)

35. Answer (1)

36. Answer (4)

37. Answer (3)

38. Answer (4)

39. Answer (4)

40. Answer (1)

41. Answer (3)

Acetobacter aceti converts ethyl alcohol into acetic

acid.

42. Answer (1)

Sahiwal and Jersey are breeds of cow.

43. Answer (4)

Micro-organisms and enzymes are most active at

moderate temperature.

44. Answer (3)

Viruses are obligate parasites.

45. Answer (4)

Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae

46. Answer (3)

47. Answer (2)

A – Female Culex mosquito

B – Female Aedes mosquito

C – Plasmodium

D – Malaria

E – Filariasis

48. Answer (3)

49. Answer (1)

50. Answer (4)

(a) – Sprinkler method

(b) – Seed drill

(c) – Thresher

(d) – Vermicompost

(e) – Zaid crops, watermelon and muskmelon

51. Answer (2)

52. Answer (1)

Salmonella and Clostridium are bacteria which cause

food poisoning and Aspergillus and Penicillium are

fungi which cause food poisoning.

53. Answer (2)

P – queen, Q – drone, R– worker

54. Answer (4)

Kharif crops are sown in the month of June and

harvested in September and rabi crops are sown in

October and harvested in March.

55. Answer (2)

56. Answer (3)

Mastitis of cattle is caused by bacteria.

4/7


57. Answer (4)

58. Answer (3)

DDT is a pesticide and the other three are

weedicides.

59. Answer (4)

60. Answer (1)

61. Answer (4)

Placing seeds at proper intervals prevent

overcrowding of plants.

62. Answer (2)

HBV vaccine is given against hepatitis and BCG

vaccine is given against tuberculosis.

63. Answer (1)

Penicillin was the first antibiotic to be discovered.

64. Answer (3)

65. Answer (1)

Sickle is a curved blade used for harvesting.

66. Answer (2)

Methyl bromide is a fumigant

67. Answer (2)

Sharbati Sonora, Kalyan sona, Pusa Lerma,

Sonalika, Arjun are the HYVs of wheat.

68. Answer (2)

White leghorn is the most popular breed of egg

laying poultry.

69. Answer (4)

70. Answer (3)

Louis Pasteur invented the technique of

pasteurisation.

71. Answer (1)

72. Answer (3)

73. Answer (4)

74. Answer (4)

Yeast undergo anaerobic fermentation.

75. Answer (1)

76. Answer (3)

77. Answer (3)

Polio is known as infantile paralysis.

78. Answer (4)

79. Answer (2)

80. Answer (1)

[ MATHEMATICS

]

81. Answer (3)

82. Answer (2)

83. Answer (1)

84. Answer (4)

85. Answer (1)

86. Answer (4)

a + c = 120° …(i)

and a + b = 108° …(ii)

Also, a + 2 × 120° + 2 × 108° = 5 × 108°

a = 84°

From (i) and (ii), we get

c = 36° and b = 24°

ba

c

a > c > b

87. Answer (4)

88. Answer (1)

89. Answer (3)

90. Answer (3)

91. Answer (1)

Let the numerator be x.

Then, the denominator = x + 3

Original rational number = 3

x

x

According to the question,

New rational number = 7 7

3 –1 2

x x

x x

7 4

2 3

x

x

On cross multiplying, we get

3x + 21 = 4x + 8

x = 13

So, the original rational number = 13

3 16

x

x

5/7


92. Answer (4)

93. Answer (1)

94. Answer (2)

We know that the sum of all the exterior angles in

a polygon is 360°. At each vertex of the polygon

where there is an acute angle, the exterior angle is

greater than 90°. If there are four or more acute

angles, then the sum of the exterior angles at these

vertices will be greater than 360°, which is

impossible.

95. Answer (2)

– – –3

x a x b x c

b c a c b a

– – –

–1 –1 –1 0x a x b x c

b c a c b a

– ( ) – ( ) – ( )

0x a b c x a b c x c b a

b c a c b a

[x – (a + b + c)]1 1 1

0b c c a a b

⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠ x = a + b + c

96. Answer (2)

97. Answer (4)

98. Answer (2)

99. Answer (4)

100. Answer (1)

101. Answer (3)

102. Answer (3)

Since, AB = PQ

AC = SC

b

a

A

BP

S

C

Q

d

SAC = ASC = a

ACS = 180° – 2a

∵ PQCS is a rhombus,

S = Q = a

Now,

QC = BC

CBQ = BQC = a

Also, a + b + ABC = 180°

a + b = 120° …(i)

Also, d = 180° – 2a …(ii)

S + C = 180° [∵ PQCS is a rhombus]

a + 180° – 2a + 180° – 2a + 60º = 180º

3a = 240°

a = 80°

From (ii), d = 20°

and from (i), b = 40°

103. Answer (1)

Let the number be x.

Now, 54x – 45x = 720

x = 80

So, the new product = 80 × 54 = 4320.

104. Answer (1)

105. Answer (3)

106. Answer (2)

a + 1 = b + 2 = c + 3 = d + 4 = a + b + c + d + 5

a + 1 = b + 2

b = a – 1

Similarly, a + 1 = c + 3, d = a – 3 and c = a – 2

Now, a + b + c + d + 5 = d + 4

a + b + c = – 1

a + a – 1 + a – 2 = –1

3a = 2

a = 2

3

a + b + c + d = a – 4 = 2– 4

3

= –10

3

107. Answer (3)

108. Answer (2)

109. Answer (4)

110. Answer (2)

Since a > 1 and b > 1,

b + 1 > b – 1

or 1 1

1 –1b b

1 1

If , thena b

a b

⎡ ⎤ ⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦

or1 –1

a a

b b

…(i)

1 1

If c d

⎡ ⎢⎣, then

m

c >

m

d, where 0m ⎤ ⎦

Similarly, we can say that

2 2

2 –1 2 1

a a

b b

…(ii)

2–

2 –1 –1

a a

b b

= 2 – 2 – 2

(2 –1)( –1)

ab a ab a

b b

= –

(2 –1)( –1)

a

b b < 0 [∵ a > 1 and b > 1]

2

2 –1 –1

a a

b b

6/7


[ MENTAL ABILITY

]

111. Answer (2)

Let z1 –

1

4 = z

2 – z

1 = z

3 – z

2 =

1

3 – z

3 = d

Now, 1 1 1–

3 4 12 , which is equal to 4d

d = 1

48

z1 =

1 1 13

48 4 48

112. Answer (1)

113. Answer (2)

114. Answer (2)

115. Answer (1)

116. Answer (1)

117. Answer (1)

118. Answer (2)

119. Answer (2)

a – b = 1 1 1

......4 16 36

a – b = 1 1 1

1 ....4 4 9

⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

a – b = 1

4a

b = 3

4

a

120. Answer (2)

121. Answer (2)

125 + 2 = 127

127 + 3 = 130

130 + 5 = 135

135 + 7 = 142

142 + 11 = 153

153 + 13 = 166

122. Answer (3)

1 + 1 = 2

1 + 2 = 3

2 + 3 = 5

3 + 5 = 8

5 + 8 = 13

8 + 13 = 21

123. Answer (4)

(17)2 = 289

(18)2 = 324

(19)2 = 361

(20)2 = 400

(21)2 = 441

(22)2 = 484

(23)2 = 529

(24)2 = 576

124. Answer (2)

p < q – p < r

p + q > p + r

q > r

q – r

125. Answer (1)

p > q > r + s

p – q – r < s

p – s < q + r

p > s + q < r

126. Answer (4)

p < q > r – s

p + q – r > s

p + q > r + s

p < q – r < s

127. Answer (3)

U P Q T R V S or U P Q T V R S

128. Answer (4)

129. Answer (2)

130. Answer (4)

131. Answer (3)

(n – 2)2 × 6, where n is cube root of total number

(7 – 2)2 × 6 = 25 × 6 = 150

7/7


132. Answer (4)

133. Answer (3)

Column-I Column-II

R O S E

S N

N O S E

U

1 2

2 7

7 2

4 6

5

4 6

134. Answer (2)

135. Answer (1)

O N E S 4 6 7 2

136. Answer (3)

Name Subject Food

Shweta

Ruchi

Indu

Bhanu

Hindi

French

Spanish

Sanskrit

Idli

Pizza

Poha

Noddles

137. Answer (4)

138. Answer (1)

139. Answer (3)

E

NENW

SW SE

N

W

S(NE)

(S)

140. Answer (2)

A B

C D

10 m

10 m

10 m

141. Answer (4)

E

N

W

S

135°

135°

90°

142. Answer (1)

ab : a + b

2

143. Answer (2)

144. Answer (4)

145. Answer (3)

146. Answer (2)

147. Answer (1)

148. Answer (2)

149. Answer (2)

150. Answer (3)

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