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Tests MOD3

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Module III. Theme: “Metabolism and its investigation methods” Variant 1. 1. Expenditure of energy of a young man increased from 500 kJ to 2000 kJ in 1 hour. Which of the following process may be the reason for it? A. Physical activity B. Increase of environment T C. Mental work D. Food intake E. Transition from sleep to wake 2. During physical activity a young man’s O 2 consumption and CO 2 elimination per 1 min is 1000 ml. What substances are oxidized in the cells of his organism? A. Carbohydrates B. Proteins C. Lipids D. Carbohydrates and lipids E. Carbohydrates and proteins 3. By the method of indirect calorimetry it was determined that the basic metabolism of an examined person is 40% lower than it should be. The dysfunction of the activity of what endocrine gland is the reason for such state? A. Pancreas B Thymus C. Thyroid gland D. Epiphysis E. Adrenal glands 4. During a patient’s examination the increase of basic metabolism level by 50% was determined. The increasing secretion of what hormone did cause this change? A. Prolactin B. Insulin C. Parathormone D. Somatotropin E. Thyroxin 5. A teenager of 14 has got positive nitrogen balance. Which of the following may be reason for it? A. Starvation B. Growth of organism C. Deficient of dietary protein D. Considerable physical activity E. Emotional tension 6. What type of condition a person has if the index of his expenditure of energy is lower than the level of basal metabolism? A. State of rest B. State of relaxation C. State of light work D. State of nervous tension E. Sleep 7. It measures a person’s expenditure of energy on an empty stomach, in the lying position, in the state of physical and mental rest, comfort temperature. At what time the person’s expenditure of energy will be the least? A. 5-6 p.m B. 7-8 p.m C. 10-12 a.m D. 3-4 a.m E. 2-4 p.m 1
Transcript
Page 1: Tests MOD3

Module III.Theme: “Metabolism and its investigation methods”

Variant 1. 1. Expenditure of energy of a young man increased from 500 kJ to 2000 kJ in 1 hour. Which of the following process may be the reason for it?A. Physical activityB. Increase of environment TC. Mental workD. Food intakeE. Transition from sleep to wake

2. During physical activity a young man’s O2 consumption and CO2 elimination per 1 min is 1000 ml. What substances are oxidized in the cells of his organism?A. CarbohydratesB. ProteinsC. LipidsD. Carbohydrates and lipidsE. Carbohydrates and proteins

3. By the method of indirect calorimetry it was determined that the basic metabolism of an examined person is 40% lower than it should be. The dysfunction of the activity of what endocrine gland is the reason for such state?A. PancreasB ThymusC. Thyroid glandD. EpiphysisE. Adrenal glands

4. During a patient’s examination the increase of basic metabolism level by 50% was determined. The increasing secretion of what hormone did cause this change?A. ProlactinB. InsulinC. ParathormoneD. SomatotropinE. Thyroxin

5. A teenager of 14 has got positive nitrogen balance. Which of the following may be reason for it?A. StarvationB. Growth of organismC. Deficient of dietary protein D. Considerable physical activityE. Emotional tension

6. What type of condition a person has if the index of his expenditure of energy is lower than the level of basal metabolism?A. State of restB. State of relaxationC. State of light workD. State of nervous tensionE. Sleep

7. It measures a person’s expenditure of energy on an empty stomach, in the lying position, in the state of physical and mental rest, comfort temperature. At what time the person’s expenditure of energy will be the least?A. 5-6 p.mB. 7-8 p.mC. 10-12 a.mD. 3-4 a.m E. 2-4 p.m

8. It measures a person’s expenditure of energy on an empty stomach, in the lying position, in the state of physical and mental rest, comfort temperature. At what time the person’s expenditure of energy will be the greatest?A. 5-6 p.mB. 7-8 p.mC. 10-12 a.mD. 2-4 p.mE. 3-4 a.m

9. By the method of indirect calorimetry it was determined that the volume of O2 consumption is 100 ml/min and the volume of CO2 elimination is 800 ml/min?A. 1,0B. 1,25C. 0,9D. 0,84E. 0,8

10. During measuring a patient’s expenditure of energy it was determined that the respiratory quotient is 1,0. What substances are oxidized in the cells of his organism?A. CarbohydratesB. ProteinsC. LipidsD. Proteins and lipidsE. Carbohydrates and lipids.

Answers: 1- A, 2-A, 3-C, 4-E, 5-B, 6-E, 7-D, 8-A, 9- E, 10 –A.

1

Page 2: Tests MOD3

Module III. Theme: “Metabolism and its investigation methods”

Variant 2. 1. During measuring a patient’s expenditure of energy it was determined that the respiratory quotient is 0,7. What substances are oxidized in the cells of his organism?A. CarbohydratesB. ProteinsC. LipidsD. Proteins and lipidsE. Carbohydrates and lipids

2. During a 35-year-old woman’s examination the increase of basic metabolism level was determined. The increasing secretion of what hormone caused this change?A. TriiodothyronineB. Somatotropin C. InsulinD. CortisolE. Glucagon

3. By the method of indirect calorimetry it was determined that the basic metabolism of an examined 30-year-old man is 30% lower than it should be. The decreasing secretion of what hormone caused this change?A. Triiodothyronine, tetraiodothyronineB. Tyrocalcitonin, parathormoneC. GlucocorticoidD. CatecholamineE. Growth hormone-releasing factor, somatostatin.

4. Hormones that may cause negative nitrogen balance include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. GlucagonB. Thyroid hormoneC. CortisolD. Growth hormone (GH)E. Parathormone

5. Active vitamin D3 (calcitriol) and parathyroid hormone (PTH) have many similar effects. Which of the following physiologic effects is specific only for calcitriol?A. Increased renalphosphate reabsorbtionB. Increased renal Ca2+ reabsorbtionC. Increased intestinal Ca2+ absorbtion

D. Increased plasma [Ca2+]E. Decreased plasma [HPO4

2-]

6. How will respiratory quotient change after long-term hyperventilation?A. It will increase till 3,0B. It will increase till 2,5C. It will increase till 1,5D. It will not changeE. It will decrease till 0,5

7. What O2 volume is inhaled by person during experiment if only carbohydrates are oxidized and this person exhaled 6l of CO2?A. 5lB. 6lC. 8lD. 9lE. 12l

8. What is the average level of daily basic metabolism in man?A. 3000 kcal B. 1000 kcalC. 2500 kcalD. 1700 kcalE. 1400 kcal

9. What type of energy in organism doesn’t use for carrying-out of work?A. ChemicalB. MechanicalC. ElectricalD. HeatE. All of listing types

10. What is the daily intake of retinol (A) for healthy organism?A. 0,5 mgB. 1,0 mgC. 1,5 mgD. 2,0 mgE. 2,5 mg

Answers: 1- C, 2-A, 3-A, 4-D, 5-A, 6-E, 7-B, 8-D, 9-D, 10–C.

Page 3: Tests MOD3

Module III. Theme: “Metabolism and its investigation methods”

Variant 3.

1. How much entering energy will organism excrete as a heat after all stages of energy metabolism?A. 20%B. 100%C. 40%D. 60%E. 80%

2. Calorific (heat) oxygen equivalent – this is a ...A. Ratio of the exhalant CO2 to inhalant O2

B. Quantity of excreting energy during 1l O2

inhalationC. Ratio of the inhalant O2 to exhalant CO2

D. Quantity of excreting energy during 1l O2

exhalationE. Quantity of excreting energy per 1 min during pure O2 respiration

3. Specific value of basic metabolism in men on average is….A. 1 kcal/kg/hB. 2 kcal/kg/hC. 3 kcal/kg/hD. 10 kcal/kg/hE. 5 kcal/kg/h

4. During the experiment a person inhales 0,4 l O2, respiratory quotient is 1. How much litres of CO2 the patient exhales?A. 0,6 lB. 0,8 lC. 0,4 lD. 1,0lE. 0,2 l

5. The expenditure of energy of 40-year-old miner is more than 5000 kcal per day. What substances in his dietary intake are necessary to increase for the recovery of such expenditure of energy? A. Vitamins B. Liquid C. Proteins D. Carbohydrates

E. Lipids

6. Women have the different level of basic metabolism from men on:A. it’s not different B. it’s less on 10-15% C. it’s more on 10-15 %D. it’s less on 30-40%E. it’s more on 30-40%

7. What part of daily entering energy is used by organism to work?A. 20-30%B. 30-40%C. 10-20%D.50-60%E. 100%

8. Utilization of complex organic compounds to simple with energy release is named of …A. AssimilationB. Energetic balanceC. DissimilationD. Basic metabolismE. Heat loss

9. List of conditions of basic metabolism measuring, EXEPT:A. in the morningB. in conditions of temperature comfortC. in state of restD. on empty stomachE. graduated exercise

10. What is the daily intake of pantothenic acid (B3) for healthy organism?A. 6 mgB. 12 mgC. 24 mgD. 46 mgE. 62 mg

Answers: 1-B, 2- B, 3- A, 4-C, 5-E, 6-B, 7- C, 8- C, 9-E, 10- B.

Page 4: Tests MOD3

Module III. Theme: “Metabolism and its investigation methods”

Variant 4.

1. What is the respiratory quotient?A. Ratio of the inhalant O2to exhalant CO2

B. Ratio of the exhalant CO2 to inhalant O2

C. Difference between inhalant O2 and exhalant CO2

D. Ratio of the inhalant CO2 to exhalant O2

E. Ratio of the exhalant O2 to inhalant O2

2. What kinds of works are carrying-out in human organism?A. Chemical, mechanical, atomic, kineticB. Chemical, mechanical, electroosmoticC. Chemical, mechanical, thermal, potentialD. Thermal, electrical, atomic, potentialE. All answers are correct

3. What is the main principle of the direct calorimetry?A. Direct measuring of excretion body heatB. Calculation of quantity of inhaling O2

C. Measuring of the respiratory quotientD. Isodynamic principleE. Calculation of quantity of exhaling O2

4. Expenditure of energy is formed by…A. Specific dynamic food action + working additionB. Basic metabolism + specific dynamic food actionC. Basic metabolism + working additionD. Basic metabolismE. Specific dynamic food action

5. What is the basic metabolism?A. Quantity of energy for life in standard conditionsB. All amount of energy for maintenance of life C. Maximal amount of energy for lifeD. Minimal amount of energy for maintenance of lifeE. Quantity of expenditure of energy in state of rest per 1 hour

6. What vitamins are soluble in water?A. RetinolB. ErgocalciferolC. TocopherolD. Arachidonic acidE. Lipoic acid

7. What is the daily intake of ascorbic acid (C) for healthy organism?A. 25 mgB. 55 mgC. 75 mgD. 95 mgE. 115 mg

8. How much energy will organism receive after dissociation of 10g NaCl?A. 50 kcalB. 100 kcalC. 0 kcalD. 25 kcalE. 10 kcal

9. What is the daily intake of folic acid (B9) for healthy organism?A. 120 microgramB. 220 microgramC. 320 microgramD. 420 microgramE. 520 microgram

10. What is the average level of expenditure of energy in mental work people?A. 2500 - 3000 kcalB. 2100 - 2450 kcalC. 3000 - 4000 kcalD. 1500 -1700 kcalE. 3000 – 4000 kcal

Answers: 1-B, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C, 5- D, 6-E, 7- C, 8-C, 9-C, 10-D.

Page 5: Tests MOD3

Module III. Theme: “Thermoregulation and its investigation methods”

Variant 11. The air temperature is 38ººC, relative humidity of the air is 80 %, wind speed – 0 m/sec. In what way the maximum amount of heat is emitted on these conditions? A. ConvectionB. Heat irradiationC. Sweat evaporationD. Heat conductionE. Radiation convection

2. The lightly clothed man is standing in a room where the air temperature is 14º C. Windows and doors are closed. In what way the maximum amount of heat is emitted on these conditions? A. ConvectionB. Heat irradiationC. Sweat evaporationD. Heat conductionE. Radiation convection

3. What mechanism of heat emission is the most effective if a person is on the condition of 80% air humidity and the environment temperature is 35ºC?A. ConvectionB. Heat irradiationC. Sweat evaporationD. Heat conductionE. Radiation convection

4. In cold windy weather people become frozen quicker than in windless weather. What type of the heat emission is increased by wind?A. ConvectionB. Heat irradiationC. Sweat evaporationD. Heat conductionE. Radiation convection

5. The inhabitants of areas with cold weather have an increased content of special hormone in blood, which has an adaptive heat regulation meaning. The increasing secretion of what hormone does cause the development of adaptation? A. ThyroxinB. InsulinC. GlucagonD. SomatotropinE. Cortisol6. In what conditions the increasing of sweat evaporation is not cause the heat emission?

A. In condition of big amount of sweat evaporationB. In condition of concentrated sweat evaporationC. In condition of very low relative humidityD. In condition of very high relative humidityE. All answers are incorrect

7. People adapted to the action of high external temperature don’t lose a large amount of sodium chloride with sweat. What hormone does cause such effect on sudoriferous glands? A. Atrial natriuretic factor (atriopeptin)B. Antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin)C. CortisolD. ThyroxinE. Aldosteron

8. Andressed person is being taken test of the heat emission determination at room temperature. In what way the maximum amount of heat is emitted under such condition?A. ConvectionB. Heat irradiationC. Sweat evaporationD. Heat conductionE. Radiation convection

9. A man went out from a conditioned medium to the street with the air temperature was 40ºC, relative humidity was 60%. In what way the maximum amount of heat is emitted under such condition?A. ConvectionB. Heat irradiationC. Sweat evaporationD. Heat conductionE. Radiation convection

10. During the thermometry it was determined that the temperature of skin open parts is by 1-1,5ºC lower than the temperature of the dress covered parts. What type of the heat emission is reduced by dress?A. ConvectionB. Heat irradiationC. Sweat evaporationD. Heat conductionE. Radiation convection Answers: 1-C, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A, 5-A, 6-D, 7- C, 8-B, 9-C, 10-A

Page 6: Tests MOD3

Module III. Theme: “Thermoregulation and its investigation methods”

Variant 2.

1. The air temperature is 36ºC, relative humidity is 80% indoors. In what way the maximum amount of heat is emitted on these conditions? A. ConvectionB. Heat irradiationC. Sweat evaporationD. Heat conductionE. Radiation convection

2. The workers of hot workshops of metallurgical enterprises lose a lot of water with sweat. What drink is it necessary to take for optimum compensation of this state?A. Salt waterB. Soda waterC. MilkD. Natural juicesE. Kvass

3. Experimental surgical procedure caused a violation of the animal ability to maintenance of the body temperature on constant level under the conditions of external low temperature. What is the probable reason of this violation?A. The hypophysis is injuredB. The disfunction of anterior hypothalamus nucleiC. The epiphysis is injuredD. The disfunction of posterior hypothalamus nucleiE. The cortex of cerebrum is injured

4. In what temperature range warm receptors have got a maximum level of the activity?A. 20-25 ºCB. 25-30 ºCC. 40-46 ºCD. 30-35 ºCE. 35-40 ºC

5. People at the same temperature are colder in rainy weather than in dry weather. What is the main reason of this phenomenon?A. The sweat evaporation is reducedB. The convection is increasedC. The heat irradiation is increasedD. The sweat evaporation is increased

E. The air heat conduction is increased

6. During an experiments rats were adapted to living on cold conditions at the T= +5ºC. The increasing secretion of what hormone caused the development of adaptation?A. GlucagonB. InsulinC. ThyroxinD. SomatotropinE. Cortisol

7. In what daily period a human organism has got a maximal temperature?A. 6.00 p.mB. 4.00 p.mC. 7 p.mD. 10 p.mE. 12 p.m

8. People suffer from the hot weather more in nylon shirts than in cottons. What is the main reason of this phenomenon?A. The convection is increasedB. The heat irradiation is increasedC. The convection and sweat evaporation are decreased D. Sweat evaporation is increasedD. Radiation convection is increased

9. What type of thermal receptors is located in skin with high density?A. WarmB. Density is equalC. HotD. ColdE. Cool

10. Which of the hypothalamic area has the centre of heat emission?A. The anterior and posterior nucleus groups B. The posterior nucleus group C. The dorsal nucleus group D. The anterior nucleus group E. All answers are correct.

Answers: 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C, 5-E, 6-C, 7-A, 8-C, 9-D, 10-D.

Page 7: Tests MOD3

Module III. Theme: “Thermoregulation and its investigation methods”

Variant 3.

1. Where is the thermoregulation centre located?A. In the medulla oblongataB. In the midbrainC. In the hypothalamusD. In the cerebellumE. In the pons varolii

2. What maximal amount of sweat might be secreted by human sweat glands per day?A. 10 lB. 5 lC. 20 lD. 25 lE. 2 l

3. What part of heat is emitted from the body by skin?A. 20%B. 40%C. 80%D. 60%E. 100%

4. What part of heat is emitted from the body by conduction and convection at comfort temperature and 40% relative humidity? A. 70%B. 40%C. 60%D. 50%E. 25%

5. What type of heat emission mainly functions at 40ºC external temperature and normal relative humidity?A. ConvectionB. Heat irradiationC. Sweat evaporationD. Heat conductionE. Radiation convection

6. What is the thermal (heat) balance? A. The equilibrium between heat conduction and thermogenesis in the body.B. All answers are correctC. The equilibrium between thermogenesis and heat emission in the bodyD. The equilibrium between retractive and unretractive thermogenesis E. All answers are incorrect

7. What main function of the brown adipose tissue?A. It increases the level of thermogenesisB. It stimulates the synthesis of ATPC. It stimulates the energy synthesisD. It stimulates glycogen mobilizationE. All answers are correct

8. What is the basic mechanism of unretractive thermogenesis?A. The increasing of the chemical work of cellsB. Stimulation of muscle shiveringC. Stimulation of conjugation between oxidative phosphorylation and tissue respirationD. Stimulation of dissociation between oxidative phosphorylation and tissue respirationE. All answers are correct

9. Cold muscle shivering is the special case ofA. Physical thermoregulationB. Thermal preferenceC. Chemical thermoregulationD. All answers are correctE. Not of all answers are correct

10. What is the main mechanism of body heat emission in sauna conditions?A. ConvectionB. Heat irradiationC. Sweat evaporationD. Heat conductionE. Radiation convection

Answers: 1-C, 2-A, 3-C, 4-E, 5-C, 6-C, 7-A, 8-A, 9-C, 10-C.

Page 8: Tests MOD3

Module III. Theme: “Thermoregulation and its investigation methods”

Variant 4.

1. Which hormone does increase thermogenesis and body temperature?A. AldosteroneB. InsulinC. ParathormoneD. VasopressinE. Thyroxin

2. The air temperature is 18º C, relative humidity of the air is 100 %, wind speed – 0 m/sec. Due to what mechanism will there be heat emission under these conditions?A. ConvectionB. Heat irradiationC. Sweat evaporationD. Heat conductionE. Radiation convection

3. In what daily period human organism has got a minimal temperature?A. 6.00 p.mB. 4.00 p.mC. 7 p.mD. 10 p.mE. 12 p.m

4. Which temperature range is comfort for light dressed person at 50% relative humidity of environment?A. 16 - 18 ºCB. 22 - 24 ºCC. 26 - 28 ºCD. 18 - 20 ºCE. 20 - 22 ºC 5. What is the physical thermoregulation?A. It’s mechanism of perspiration increasingB. It’s mechanism of heat exchange changingC. It’s mechanism of heat emission increasingD. It’s mechanism of metabolism level decreasingE. It’s mechanism of physical adaptation6. What is the chemical thermoregulation?

A. It’s change of carbohydrates breaking up speed B. It’s change of lipolysis intensityC. It’s change of proteolysis intensityD. It’s change of thermogenesis intensityE. It’s change of metabolism intensity.

7. What is the health-giving adaptive result of thermoregulation functional system?A. Muscle shiveringB. Increasing of sweat evaporationC. Constancy of body temperatureD. Changing of body temperatureE. Behavioural reaction

8. What processes are main in the mechanism of body heat emission in ordinary conditions?A. Increasing of muscle tonus and shiveringB. Activation of unretractive thermogenesisC. Convection, irradiation, evaporation, conductionD. Only convection, irradiation, conductionE. Convection, irradiation, evaporation, thermogenesis

9. In what temperature range cold receptors have got the maximum level of activity?A. 20-25 ºCB. 25-30 ºCC. 40-46 ºCD. 30-35 ºCE. 35-40 ºC

10. What is the main type of body heat emission in cold water?A. ConvectionB. Heat irradiationC. Sweat evaporationD. Heat conductionE. Radiation convection

Answers: 1-E, 2-B, 3-B, 4-D, 5-B, 6-D, 7-C, 8-C, 9-A, 10-D

Page 9: Tests MOD3

Module III. Theme: “General properties of the digestion system, digestion in the oral cavity”

Variant 1.

1. Animal’s chorda tympani is being taken irritation during an acute experiment. How will the parotid salivary gland secretion change?A. Saliva will not be secretedB. It’ll be a small volume of the liquid salivaC. It’ll be a big volume of the liquid salivaD. It’ll be a small volume of the viscid salivaE. It’ll be a big volume of viscid saliva

2. During tests a student’s mouth got too dry. The increased realization of what reflexes was the mechanism caused the development of this state?A. Unconditional sympathetic.B. Unconditional parasympatheticC. Conditional parasympatheticD. Conditional sympatheticE. Unconditional metasympathetic

3. In Ancient India a person suspected of crime committing was required to swallow a handful of dry rice. Criminals could not swallow the rice because of decreased salivation. What process is the reason for such state?A. Inhibition of adrenal sympathetic systemB. Activation of parasympathetic nucleus of the facial nerveC. Inadequate blood supply of salivary glandsD. Activation of parasympathetic nucleus of the glossopharingeal nerveE. Activation of adrenal sympathetic system

4. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be found in saliva?A. Salivary α-amylaseB. Na+

C. ReninD. HCO3

-

E. Chymotrypsinogen

5. A peripheral part of animal’s sympathetic nerve fiber is being taken irritation. How will the sublingual (Rivinus') gland secretion change?A. Saliva will not be secreted.B. It’ll be a small volume of the liquid salivaC. It’ll be a big volume of the liquid salivaD. It’ll be a small volume of the viscid saliva

E. It’ll be a big volume of viscid saliva

6. A patient has got a chronic neuritis of the n. trigeminus. Which of the digestive processes might be broken in this case?A. MasticationB. SalivationC. Formation of taste feelingD. DeglutitionE. Salivation

7. A small volume of the viscid saliva is secreted by the person’s salivary glands. Dysfunction of what salivary glands is developed in this case? A. Parotid glandsB. Small oral glandsC. Sublingual (Rivinus') glandsD. Submandibular glandsE. Proper lingual glands

8. Patient’s tongue tip is being taken anesthetization. What type of taste sensation will disappear? A. sour B. salty C. sweet D. bitterE. sour-salty

9. The patient has glossopharingeal nerve (IX) dysfunction. What type of taste sensation will disappear in this case?A. sour B. salty C. sweet D. bitterE. sour-salty

10. Patient’s tongue root is being taken anesthetization by procainamide hydrochloride. What type of taste sensation will disappear? A. sour B. salty C. sweet D. bitterE. sour-salty

Answers: 1-C, 2-D, 3-E, 4-E, 5-D, 6-A, 7-A, 8-C, 9-D, 10-D.

Page 10: Tests MOD3

Module III. Theme: “General properties of the digestion system, digestion in the oral cavity”

Variant 2.

1. A stroke patient has got a dysphagia. What part of the brain is suffered?A. NeoencephalonB. Cervical part of spinal cordC. BrainstemD. ThalamencephalonE. Mesencephalon

2. Patient’s saliva pH is 8,0 according test. What process will be result of this state? A. Dental tissue hyperplasia B. Dental cariesC. Dental fluorosisD. OdontolithE. Dental tissue hypoplasia

3. Secondary oesophageal peristalsisA. Is preceded by an oral-pharyngeal phase of swallowingB. involves activation of medullary swallowing centersC. Is accompanied by lower esophageal sphincter relaxationD. Occurs in both the skeletal and smooth muscle portions of the oesophagusE. Is abolished by vagotomy

4. In contrast to secondary oesophageal peristalsis, primary oesophageal peristalsis is characterized by which of the following statements?A. It doesn’t involve relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincterB. It involves only contraction of oesophageal smooth muscleC. It’s not influenced by the instric nervous systemD. It has an oropharingeal phaseE. It involves only contraction of oesophageal skeletal muscle

5. During a 45-year-old woman’s examination the skin hyperpigmentation and BP decreasing was determined. What changes of taste sensitivity will be observed at the patient?A. Increase of a taste threshold B. Decrease of a taste threshold C. Sweet sensation violation D. Salt sensation violationE. Bitter sensation violation

6. To what classification type of receptors the taste receptors concern?A. BaroreceptorB. TactileC. IrritantD. Primary-sensing receptorsE. Secondary-sensing receptors

7. The lower oesophageal sphincter…A. Normally prevents reflux of gastric contents into the oesophagusB. Relax ahead of a peristaltic wave passing down the oesophagus C. Is abnormally contracted in achalasia D. all above-listedE. none

8. The patient has dysfunction of VII cerebral nerve pair. What type of taste sensation will disappear in this case?A. sour B. salty C. sweet D. bitterE. sour-salty

9. Dendrites of ganglion inferius n. glossopharingeus form synapses with the receptors are being on:A. Tongue tipB. Tongue rootC. Lateral surfaces of tongueD. Tongue limbsE. Epiglottis

10. Where the third neurone of the gustatory (taste) analyzer pathways is located?A. Medulla oblongata B. Pons varoliiC. CerebellumD. Thalamus E. Hypothalamus

Answers: 1-C, 2-D, 3-C, 4-D, 5-A, 6-E, 7-D, 8-A, 9-B, 10-D.

Page 11: Tests MOD3

Module III. Theme: “General properties of the digestion system, digestion in the oral cavity”

Variant 3.

1. Intensity of the olfactory sensitivity depends on what factors?A. Chemical structure of aromatic substanceB. Concentration of aromatic substance in airC. Movement rate of aromatic substance through a noseD. Physical condition of olfactory receptorsE. All answers are correct

2. Where the central part of the gustatory analyzer is located?A. Posterior central gyrusB. Superior temporal gyrus,C. Parahypocampal gyrus D. Supramargynal gyrus E. Superior frontal gyrus

3. In what department of the CNS there is a center of salivation?A. NeoencephalonB. Cervical part of spinal cordC. Medulla oblongataD. ThalamencephalonE. Mesencephalon

4. Where swallowing receptors are located? A. Lateral surfaces of tongue B. Anterior third of tongue C. Surface of tongue rootD. Middle third of tongueE. Epiglottis

5. Is absorption process observed in an oral cavity?A. Some substances are absorbed onlyB. The absorption begins only in a stomachC. The absorption begins only in a small intestineD. The absorption begins only in a big intestineE. No substances are absorpted

6. What is normal saliva pH?A. 3,7 - 5,7B. 5,8 - 7,8C. 7,9 - 9,0D. 1,8 - 3,3

7. Saliva enzymes hydrolyze mainly …A. ProteinsB. LipidsC. VitaminsD. CarbohydratesE. All answers are correct

8. What main processes play the leading part in salivation?A. LocalB. HumoralC. Neural, local, humoralD. NeuralE. Local and humoral

9. What is the rate of salivation at the rest and after maximal stimulation?A. 2,0-2,5 and 8-10 ml/min B. 8-10 and 15-20 ml/minC. 0,2-0,3 and 6-7 ml/minD. 4-5 and 7-10 ml/minE. Rate of salivation doesn’t change

10. What is the most important irritation for a peristalsis in the esophagus?A. The food which has got in the esophagusB. SwallowingC. Food regurgitation from the stomachD. Closing the upper oesophageal sphincterE. Opening the lower oesophageal sphincter

Answers: 1-E, 2-C, 3-C, 4-C, 5-A, 6-B, 7-D, 8-D, 9-C, 10-B.

Page 12: Tests MOD3

Module III. Theme: “General properties of the digestion system, digestion in the oral cavity”

Variant 4.

1. Why is the final saliva concentration more hypotonic than the primary one?A. Na+ reabsorption is decreased in salivary gland epithelium B. K+ secretion is decreased in salivary gland epithelium C. H2O reabsorption is decreased in salivary gland epithelium D. CL- secretion is decreased in salivary gland epithelium E. Bicarbonates secretion is decreased in salivary gland epithelium

2. At a dog with a salivary gland fistula have received a saliva portion with high K+

concentration. What main reason of this phenomenon?A. K+ secretion in glandular acinusB. K+ secretion in glandular ductusC. Glandular acinus permeabilityD. Glandular ductus permeabilityE. Ductus water reabsorption

3. A dog with a salivary gland fistula is taken irritation of cerebral nerve pair IX. As a result the saliva is isotonic. What the reason of it?A. The increasing of saliva volume in acinusB. The increasing of protein secretion C. The increasing of salt secretionD. The increasing of salivation rate secretionE. The increasing of kallikrein secretion

4. At a dog with a salivary gland fistula after introduction of aldosterone have received a saliva portion with high concentration of... A. Na+

B. Cl-

C. K+

D. Bicarbonates

E. H+

5. What factors lead to sensation of thirst during a lecture at the lecturer?A. DehydrationB. HyperosmiaC. CortisolD. Parasympathetical innervation

E. Sympathetical innervation

6. An ulcer of tunica mucosa of mouth is revealed in the child. Which substances deficiency in a blood and saliva can be the cause of it? A. Ca2+

B. α-amylaseC. LysozymeD. BicarbonatesE. Phosphates

7. Acetylcholine (ACh) is required for the contraction of...A. The lower oesophageal sphincter (LES)B. The upper oesophageal sphincter (UES)C. Both the LES and UESD. The antrumE. Neither

8. Which of the following secretions is most depend on vagal stimulation?A. Saliva B. Hydrochloric acid (HCL)C. PepsinD. Pancreatic juiceE. Bile

9. The major stimulus for primary peristalsis in the oesophagus is…A. presence of food in the oesophagusB. swallowingC. regurgitation of food from the stomach D. closing of the upper oesophageal sphincter (UES)E. opening of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LES)

10. With the violation of cerebral regulation a patient has got a broken act of swallowing. What part of the brain has suffered? A. Prosencephalon B. Cervical part of the spinal cord C. Brainstem D. DiencephalonE. Mesencephalon

Answers: 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C, 5-E, 6-C, 7-B, 8-A, 9-B, 10-C.

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Module III. Theme: “Digestion in the stomach”

Variant 1.

1. 150 ml of meat broth was introduced through a probe into the gastric cavity of an experimental animal. The content of what matter will increase in its blood quickly?A. Insulin B. Somatostatin C. Gastrin D. Glucagon E. Neurotensin

2. The content of what products is it advisable to increase in the food ration of a person with reduced secretory function of the stomach?A. SweetB. BrothC. SaltD. MilkE. Lard

3. Which one of the following statements about gastric emptying is correct?A. Solids empty more rapidly than liquidsB. Vagotomy accelerates the emptying of solidsC. Indigestible food empties during the digestive periodD. Acidification of the antrum decreases gastric emptyingE. Vagotomy decreases accommodation of the proximal stomach

4. The principal paracrine secretion involved in the inhibitory feedback regulation of gastric acid secretion is…A. GastrinB. SomatostatinC. HistasmineD. Enterogastrone

E. Acetylcholine

5. The rate of gastric emptying increases with an increase in?A. Intragastric volumeB. Intraduodenal volumeC. Fat content of duodenumD. Osmolality of duodenum E. Acidity of duodenum

6. Basal acid output is increased by? A. Acidification of the antrumB. Administration of an H2 receptor antagonistC. VagotomyD. Alkalinization of the antrumE. Acidification of the duodenum

7. Which one of the following processes applies to the proximal stomach?A. AccomodationB. PeristalsisC. RetropulsionD. SegmentationE. Trituration

8. Choose the area of the gastrointestinal tract (GI) where secretion of intrinsic factor occurs: A. Fundus of the stomachB. Antrum of the stomachC. Duodenum of the intestineD. Ileum of the intestineE. Colon

9. Removal of the pyloric sphincter is associated with?A. A decrease in gastric complianceB. An increase in maximal output of acid,C. An increase in basal output of acidD. An increase in the rate of gastric empying of solidsE. An increase in the serum gastrin level

10. In the formation of HCL by the parietal cells, the transport of H+ across the parietal cell is coupled with the transport of …. A. K+

B. CL-

C. HCO3-

D. H+

E. Na+

Answers: 1-C, 2-B, 3-E, 4-B, 5-A, 6-D, 7-A, 8-A, 9-D, 10-A.

Module III.

Page 14: Tests MOD3

Theme: “Digestion in the stomach” Variant 2.

1. Withdrawal from chronic administration of an antisecretory compound is followed by rebound gastric acd hypersecretion. Which drug could account for the observed result?A. A H1 receptor antagonistB. A proton pump inhibitor C. A cholinergic receptor antagonistD. An antacidE. A CCKB receptor antagonist

2. The paracrine secretion responsible for inhibiting gastric acid secretion is….A. HistamineB. EnterogastroneC. SomatostatinD. PepsinE. Enterooxyntin

3. A medical student presents to the emergency room with a two-day history of severe vomiting and orthostatic hypotension. What kind of metabolic abnormalities would you expect?A. Hypokalemia, hypochloremia, and metabolic acidosisB. Hyperkalemia, hyperchloremia, and metabolic alkalosisC. Normal serum electrolytes and metabolic acidosis D. Normal serum electrolytes and metabolic alkalosisE. Hypokalemic, hypochloremic, metabolic alkalosis

4. Expansion of the antrum causes an increase in all of the following EXCEPTA. Secretion of gastrinB. Secretion of pancreatic enzymesC. Secretion of gastric acid (HCL)D. gastric motilityE. Receptive relaxation

5. During a patient’s examination the decrease of the motor and evacuatory functions of the stomach was determined. The deficit of which of the following substances can it be connected with?A. SecretinB. GastrinC. Adenosine

D. Somatostatin E. Gastric-inhibiting peptide

6. Which of the following will inhibit stomach contractions? A. Acetylcholine (Ach)B. MotilinC. GastrinD. SecretinE. Histamine

7. Gastric acid secretion increases when food enters the stomach because…A. Protein digestion products directly stimulate the parietal cells to release hydrochloric acid (HCL)B. Food raises the pH of the stomach, allowing more acid to be releasedC. BothD. None are correctE. Only A

8. Gastric parietal cells secrete…A. GastrinB. MotilinC. Cholecystokinin (CCK)D. Intrinsic factorE. Secretin

9. Choose the stimulus that is most important for regulation of the gastrin secretion:A. SecretinB. HistamineC. Cholecystokinin (CCK)D. BombesinE. Motilin

10. The major stimulus for gastric acid (HCL) secretion during the cephalic phase is …A. HistamineB. GastrinC. SecretinD. SomatostatinE. Acetylcholine (ACh)

Answers: 1-B, 2-C, 3-E, 4-E, 5-B, 6-D, 7-C, 8-D, 9-D, 10-E.

Module III.

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Theme: “Digestion in the stomach” Variant 3.

1. The major stimulus for receptive relaxation of the stomach is?A. Food in the stomachB. Food in the intestine C. SecretinD. Cholecystokinin (CCK)E. Motilin

2. Gastric acid (HCL) secretion is inhibited by….A. SomatostatinB. Entero-oxyntinC. High pHD. amino acidsE. acetylcholine (ACh)

3. Megaloblastic anemia might be expected to occur following removal of…A. The stomachB. The terminal ileumC. Both of themD. None are correctE. Only B

4. Which of the following can occur without brain stem coordination?A. ChewingB. SwallowingC. Primary oesophageal peristalsisD. VomitingE. Gastric empying

5. Choose the area of the gastrointestinal tract (GI) where secretion of gastrin occurs: A. Fundus of the stomachB. Antrum of the stomachC. Duodenum of the intestineD. Ileum of the intestineE. Colon

6. Pharmacological blockade of histamine H2 receptors in the gastric mucosa…A. Inhibits both gastrin- and acetylcholine-mediated secretion of acidB. Inhibits gastrin-induced but not meal-stimulated secretion of acid

C. Has no effect on either gastrin-induced or meal-stimulated secretion of acidD. Prevents activation of adenyl cyclase by gastrinE. Causes an increase in potassium transport by gastric parietal (oxyntic) cells

7. Which of the following reflexes is most dependent on a vagovagal reflex?A. ChewingB. SwallowingC. Receptive relaxationD. Gastric emptyingE. Intestinal segmentation

8. The rate of gastric emptying is controlled primary by reflexes that occur…A. During chewingB. During swalowingC. When chime enters the stomachD. When chime enters the intestineE. During the interdigestive period

9. A 45-year-old woman with severe vomiting caused by pyloric obstruction would be expected to show…A. HyperchloremiaB. An increase in plasma bicarbonate concentration [HCO3

-] C. An increase in alveolar ventilationD. Acid urineE. A decrease in arterial CO2 tension (PaCO2)

10. Gastric digestion is most important for which of the following substances?A. FatsB. CarbohydratesC. ProteinsD. VitaminsE. Minerals

Answers: 1-A, 2-A, 3-C, 4-E, 5-B, 6-A, 7-C, 8-D, 9-B, 10-C.

Module III.

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Theme: “Digestion in the stomach” Variant 4.

1. Cutting the vagus nerve has a major effect on all of the following EXCEPT… A. The rate of liquid emptying from the stomachB. Receptive relaxationC. Migrating motor complex (MMC)D. Primary oesophageal peristalsisE. Non of all

2. Expantion of the antrum causes an increase in all of the following EXCEPT….A. Secretion of gastrinB. Secretion of pancreatic enzymesC. Secretion of gastric acid (HCL)D. Gastric motilityE. Receptive relaxation

3. Which of the listed below the stomach malfunction most likely to cause the anemia condition?A. Malabsorption of mineralsB. Malabsorption of vitamin B12

C. Malabsorption of waterD. Malabsorption of carbohydratesE. Malabsorption of fats

4. Gastrin secretion is increased by …A. Acid in the lumen of the stomachB. Distention of the stomachC. Increased circulation levels of secretinD. Increased circulating levels of gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)E. Vagotomy

5. Gastrin is structurally similar to – A. Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)B. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)C. GlucagonD. Cholecystokinin (CCK)E. Secretin

6. Which of the following are important in mixing the contents of the gastrointestinal tract?A. Peristalsis in the oesophagusB. Peristalsis in the stomach, segmentation contractions

C. Mass action contractionsD. The gastrocolic reflexE. The gastoileal reflex

7. Gastric secretion is increased by….A. Stimulation of the vagus nervesB. Stimulation of stretch receptors in the wall of the stomachC. Alcohol D. All above-listed E. None

8. Which of the following would be expected to decrease gastric emptying?A. The enterogastric reflexB. GIPC. Both of them D. None are correctE. Only A

9. Choose the stimulus that is most important for regulation of the gastric acid (HCL) secretion:A. SecretinB. HistamineC. Cholecystokinin (CCK)D. BombesinE. Motilin

10. The symptoms of the stomach dumping syndrome (discomfort after meals in patients with intestinal shot circuits such as anastamosis of the jejunum to the stomach) are caused in part by…A. HypoglycemiaB. HyperglycemiaC. Increased blood pressureD. Increased secretion of glucagonE. Increased secretion of cholecystokinin (CCK)

Answers: 1-C, 2-E, 3-B, 4-B, 5-D, 6-B, 7-D, 8-C, 9-B, 10-A.

Page 17: Tests MOD3

Module III. Theme: “Digestion in the duodenum. Role of the liver, pancreatic juice and bile in digestion.”

Variant 1.

1. A part of a patient’s pancreas was ablated. What products is it necessary for him to limit in his food ration? A. FruitB. Boiled vegetablesC. Dairy produceD. Vegetables rich in proteins (beans, soy)E. Fat meat, beef tea.

2. Lean solution of hydrochloric acid was introduced into the duodenum of an animal through a probe. The content of what hormone will be increases as a result of it?A. GastrinB. Cholecystokinin pancreozymin C. SecretinD. GlucagonE. Neurotensin

3. Deficit of what enzyme is the most often the reason for incomplete digestion of fats in the digestive tract and the increase of the neutral fat quantity in experiments?A. Pancreatic lipaseB. Gastric lipaseC. Pancreatic amylaseD. Intestinal lipaseE. Enterokinas

4. In the process of aging of a human being there is a decrease of the synthesis and secretion of the pancreatic juice, a decrease of trypsin content in it. To the violation of the splitting of what substances does it lead first of all?A. PolysaccharidesB. PhospholipidsC. ProteinsD. Nucleic acidsE. Lipids

5. A patient’s duodenum is ablated. The decrease of the secretion of what hormone will it cause? A. GastrinB. SecretinC. HistaminD. Cholecystokinin (CCK)

E. Neurotensin6. A person has got considerable violation in digestion of proteins, fats and carbohydrates. Reduced secretion of what digestive juice is the result of it?A. SalivaB. PancreaticC. GastricD. BileE. Intestinal

7. The exocrine portion of the pancreas does not secrete - A. ChymotripsinogenB. ProelastaseC. α-limit dextrinaseD. Pancreatic α-amylase E. Deoxyribonuclease

8. Which of the following are correctly paired?A. Pancreatic α-amylase : starchB. Trypsin : proteins and polypeptidesC. Rennin : coagulated milkD. Enteropeptidase : trypsinogenE. All above-listed

9. After secretion of trypsinogen into the duodenum the enzyme is converted into its active form, trypsin, by…A. EnteropeptidaseB. ProcarboxypeptidaseC. Pancreatic lipaseD. Previously secreted trypsinE. An alkaline pH

10. Removal of proximal segments of the small intestine results in a decrease in….A. Basal acid outputB. Maximal acid outputC. Gastric emptying of liquidsD. Gastric emptying of solidsE. Pancreatic enzyme secretion

Answers: 1-E, 2-C, 3-C, 4-C, 5-B, 6-B, 7-C, 8-E, 9-E, 10-C.

Module III. Theme: “Digestion in the duodenum. Role of the liver, pancreatic juice and bile in digestion.”

Page 18: Tests MOD3

Variant 2.

1. Which of the following is not produced by a hormone secreted by the mucosa of the gastrointestinal tract? A. Increased production of pancreatic juice rich in enzymesB. Contraction of the gallbladderC. increased production of watery pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonateD. Decreased gastric motilityE. Decreased secretion of glucagon

2. After a meal rich in carbohydrate is ingested, insulin secretion is probably stimulated by – A. GIP (gastric inhibitory peptide)B. CCK (cholecystokinin)C. SerotoninD. VIP (vasoactive intestinal peptide)E. Gastrin

3. Which of the following has the highest pH?A. Gastric juiceB. Bile in the gallbladderC. Pancreatic juiceD. SalivaE. Secretions of the intestinal glands

4. Epinephrine inhibits glucose uptake by muscle and adipose tissue. This inhibitory effect is attributed to …A. Glucagon secretionB. Thyroid hormone secretionC. Inhibition of insulin secretionD. Inhibition of growth hormone (GH) secretionE. Inhibition of cortisol secretion

5. Choose the area of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract where the absorption of iron occurs: A. Fundus of the stomachB. Antrum of the stomachC. Duodenum of the intestineD. Ileum of the intestineE. Colon

6. Total pancreatectomy would be expected to cause – A. Decreased absorption of fat-soluble vitaminsB. Little or no change in the plasma glucagons levelC. A rise in the blood glucose levelD. Decreased absorption of amino acidsE. All above-listed

7. The hormones that normally regulate the secretion of the exocrine portion of the pancreas include – A. Cholecystokinin (CCK)B. SecretinC. Both of them D. None are correctE. Only A

8. Nearly all binding of cobalamin (vitamin B12) to intrinsic factor occurs in the…A. StomachB. DuodenumC. Jejunum D. IleumE. Colon

9. The major factor that protects the duodenal mucosa from damage by gastric acid is:A. Pancreatic bicarbonate secretionB. The endogenous mucosal barrier of the duodenumC. Duodenal bicarbonate secretionD. Hepatic bicarb0onate secretionE. Bicarbonate contained in bile

10. The metabolic effects of insulin include …A. Decreased glucose utilizationB. Decreased lipolysisC. Increased proteolysisD. Increased gluconeogenesisE. Increased ketogenesis

Answers: 1-E, 2-A, 3-C, 4-C, 5-C, 6-E, 7-C, 8-B, 9-A, 10-B.

Module III. Theme: “Digestion in the duodenum. Role of the liver, pancreatic juice and bile in digestion.”

Page 19: Tests MOD3

Variant 3.

1. A stone in the common bile duct stopped bile coming into the bowels. Violation of what process is observed there? A. Absorption of proteinsB. Digestion of carbohydratesC. Absorption of carbohydratesD. Digestion of fatsE. Digestion of proteins

2. Bile contains – A. bile acidsB. Cholesterol C. Bilirubin glucuronideD. Alkaline phosphataseE. All above-listed

3. After complete hepatectomy, a rise would be expected in the blood level of – A. Bilirubin glucuronide B. FibrinogenC. GlucoseD. 25-hydroxycholecalciferolE. None are correct

4. The lipoprotein that is the major source of the cholesterol used in cells is – A. VLDLB. Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)C. High-density lipoproteins (HDL)D. ChylomicronsE. IDL

5. Lipoprotein lipase lowers the plasma concentration of – A. VLDL B. ChylomicronsC. Both of them D. NoneE. Only A

6. Gluconeogenesis in the liver is enhanced by increased plasma levels of – A. AlanineB. GlucagonC. CortisolD. All above-listed

E. None are correct7. The output of glucose from the liver is increased by – A. Induction of phosphorylaseB. GlucagonC. Both of themD. None are correctE. Only B

8. Acute obstruction of the common bile duct produced experimentally will incur which of the following changes in plasma and urinary levels of bilirubin?

Unconjugated bilirubin in plasma

Conjugated bilirubin in plasma

Conjugated bilirubin in urine

A increase no change increaseB no change increase increaseC decrease decrease decreaseD increase decrease increaseE decrease no change increase

9. Contraction of the gallbladder is correctly described by which of the following statements?A. It is inhibited by a fat-rich mealB. It is inhibited by the presence of amino acids in the duodenumC. It is stimulated by atropineD. It occurs in response to cholecystokininE. It occurs simultaneously with the contraction of the Oddi’s sphincter

10. Severe inflammation of the ileum may be accompanied by…A. Increased vitamin B12 absorptionB. Decreased bile acid pool sizeC. Increased colon absorption of waterD. Decreased release of secretinE. Increased absorption of dietary fats

Answers: 1-D, 2-E, 3-E, 4-B, 5-C, 6-D, 7-C, 8-B, 9-D, 10-B.

Module III. Theme: “Digestion in the duodenum. Role of the liver, pancreatic juice and bile in digestion.”

Variant 4.

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1. Which one of the following statements about bile acids is correct? A. Conjugation with glycine enhances passive absorption of bile acidsB. Bile acids constitute approximately 80% of the total solutes in bileC. Deoxycholic acid and lithocholic acid are examples of primary bile acidsD. Bile acid synthesis is catalyzed by the microsomal enzyme 7α-hydroxylaseE. Bile acids are essentially water-insoluble

2. Which of the following functions would be disrupted by a gallstone blocking the common bile duct?A. Formation of the micelles involved in fat absorption in the intestineB. Emulsification of fats in the intestine C. Removal of bilirubin from the circulationD. All above-listedE. None

3. Which one of the following statements about bile acids is correct?A. They are essentially water-insolubleB. The majority of bile acids is absorbed by passive diffusionC. Glycine conjugates are more soluble than taurine conjugatesD. The amount lost in the stool each day represents the daily loss of cholesterolE. The bile acid dependent fraction of bile is stimulated by the hormone secretion

4. Choose the stimulus that is most important for regulation of the gallbladder emptying:A. SecretinB. HistamineC. Cholecystokinin (CCK)D. BombesinE. Motilin

5. Choose the area of the gastrointestinal tract (GI) where the absorption of bile acids occurs: A. Fundus of the stomachB. Antrum of the stomachC. Duodenum of the intestineD. Ileum of the intestine

E. Colon6. The major factor controlling the secretion of bile salts from the liver is the amount of…A. secretin released during a meal B. Fat entering the small intestineC. Bile acids produced by the liverD. Bile reabsorbed from the intestineE. Cholecystokinin (CCK) released during a meal

7. Secondary bile acids are formed….A. In the liver from cholesterolB. By the conjugation of bile acids with taurine or glycineC. Both D. NeitherE. All above-listed

8. All of the following stimulate cholecystokinin (CCK) secretion EXCEPT?A. Amino acidsB. Fatty acidsC. Hydrochloric acid (HCL) D. Bile acidsE. Essential acids

9. All of the following effects are caused by secretin EXCEPT:A. Stimulation of pancreatic bicarbonate(HCO3

-) secretionB. Enhancement of bile acid secretionC. Potentiation of pancreatic enzyme secretion by cholecystokinin (CCK)D. Inhibition of gastric muscle contractionE. Inhibition of gastric secretion

10. Which of the listed below the digestive system malfunction most likely to cause the jaundice condition?A. Blockage of the bile ductB. Malabsorption of vitamin B12

C. Malabsorption of waterD. Malabsorption of carbohydratesE. Malabsorption of proteins

Answers: 1-D, 2-D, 3-D, 4-C, 5-D, 6-D, 7-D, 8-D, 9-B, 10-A.

Module III. Theme: “Digestion in the intestine. Physiological mechanisms of starvation and satiety.”

Variant 1.

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1. Which one of the following statements about small intestinal motility is correct? A. Contractile frequency is constant from duodenum to terminal ileum B. Peristalsis is the major contractile pattern during feeding C. Migrating motor complexes occur during the digestive period D. Vagotomy abolishes contractile activity during the digestive period E. Contractile activity is initiated in response to bowel wall distention

2. Acidification of the duodenum will…A. Decrease pancreatic secretion of bicarbonate B. Increase secretion of gastric acid C. Decrease gastric empting D. Increase contraction of the gallbladder E. Increase contraction of the sphincter Oddi

3. Which one of the following statements about small intestine crypt cells is correct?A. They evidence well-developed microvilliB. They are responsible for net NaCl and water absorptionC. They contain significant quanities of brush border hydrolasesD. They are responsible for net NaCl and water secretionE. They demonstrate little or no proliferative activity

4. Which one of the following statements is correct?A. Pepsin is inactivated at a pH of 3 and belowB. Enterooxyntin is a small intestinal hormone inhibitory to gastric acid secretionC. Gastric acid secretion is greatest during the cephalic phase of digestionD. Somatostatin increases antral G cell gastrin releaseE. Maximal acid output may be increased in a patient with duodenal ulcer disease

5. A person is found to have increased basal and maximal acid outputs, decreased serum calcium levels, and microcytic anemia. Inflammation in which area of the gastrointestinal tract would explain these findings?

A. ColonB. JejunumC. DuodenumD. GallbladderE. Stomach

6. The ileum, not the jejunum, normally absorbs..A. Bile salts B. Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12)C. Both of themD. NeitherE. All above-listed

7. Fats are transported from intestinal cells to blood plasma primarily in the form of ….A. MicellesB. ChylomicronsC. TriglyceridesD. Fatty acidsE. Monoglycerids

8. Intestinal motility is increased by all of the following EXCEPT…A. Cholecystokinin (CCK)B. SecretinC. Gastrin D. InsulinE. Motilin

9. Choose the stimulus that is most important for regulation of the intestine emptying during the interdigestive period:A. SecretinB. HistamineC. Cholecystokinin (CCK)D. BombesinE. Motilin

10. Elimination of the terminal ileum will result in malabsorption of … A. Vitamin B12 and fatsB. WaterC. CarbohydratesD. ProteinsE. Hydrochloric acid (HCL)

Answers: 1-E, 2-C, 3-D, 4-E, 5-C, 6-C, 7-B, 8-B, 9-E, 10-A.

Module III. Theme: “Digestion in the intestine. Physiological mechanisms of starvation and satiety.”

Page 22: Tests MOD3

Variant 2.

1. The brush border of intestinal cells contains large amounts of - A. PepsinB. MaltaseC. SecretinD. Salivary α-amylaseE. Carboxypeptidase B

2. Which of the following hormones are found in the mucosa of the gastrointestinal tract and in the brain?A. Cholecystokinin (CCK)B. GlucagonC. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)D. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)E. All above-listed

3. The greatest amount of a fat absorption occurs in the… A. StomachB. DuodenumC. IleumD. ColonE. Rectum

4. The pathway from the intestinal lumen to the circulating blood for a short-chain fatty acid (less than 10 carbon atoms) is… A. Intestinal mucosal cell→ chylomicrons→ lymphatic duct→ systemic venous bloodB. Intestinal mucosal cell→hepatic portal vein blood → systemic venous bloodC. Space between mucosal cells→ lymphatic duct→ systemic venous bloodD. Space between mucosal cells→ chylomicrons → lymphatic duct→ systemic venous bloodE. Intestinal mucosal cell→ LDL→ hepatic portal vein blood → systemic venous blood

5. The commonly ingested starches include - A. AmylopectinB. GlycogenC. Both D. NeitherE. All above-listed

6. During the process of Vitamin B12 absorption, almost all of the ingested vitamin B12… A. Binds to intrinsic factor in the stomachB. Is absorbed in the stomachC. Binds to protein R and is absorbed in the terminal ileum D. All above-listedE. None

7. Removal of the entire colon would be expected to cause …A. JaundiceB. Severe malnutritionC. Megaloblastic anemia D. DeathE. None

8. Removal of the terminal ileum will result in…A. A decrease in absorption of amino acidsB. An increase in the water content of the fecesC. An increase in the concentration of bile acid in the enterohepatic circulationD. A decrease in the fat content of the fecesE. An increase in the absorption of iron

9. A Na+- depend active transport system is necessary for the intestinal absorption of all of the following EXCEPT :A. Dipeptides B. Bile saltsC. FructoseD. Vitamin CE. Glucose

10. If acidosis and hypokalemia result from loss of fluid from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, the fluid was most likely drained from the?A. StomachB. IntestineC. GallbladderD. PancreasE. Colon

Answers: 1-B, 2-E, 3-D, 4-B, 5-C, 6-C, 7-E, 8-B, 9-C, 10-E.

Module III. Theme: “Digestion in the intestine. Physiological mechanisms of starvation and satiety.”

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Variant 3.

1. Which of the following process of a hungry man who sees tasty food will be activated first of all?A. Secretion of the gastric juice B. Secretion of intestinal juiceC. Colon motorityD. Contraction of Oddi’s sphincterE. Small intestine motor activity

2. In an experiment cerebral structures are electrostimulated. As a result of it polyphagia (excessive yearning food) appeared. What department of the brain are electrodes put in?A. AdenohypophysisB. Ventromedial nuclei of hypothalamusC. Supraoptical nuclei of hypothalamus D. Lateral nuclei of hypothalamusE. Red nucleus

3. In an experiment cerebral neurons are electrostimulated. As a result of it hypophagia (refusal to meal) appeared. What department of the cerebrum are electrodes put in?A. AdenohypophysisB. Ventromedial nuclei of hypothalamusC. Supraoptical nuclei of hypothalamus D. Lateral nuclei of hypothalamusE. Red nucleus

4. Patients may experience nausea and a sense of early satiety (fullness) following….A. Surgical resection of the proximal small bowelB. A vagotomy of the distal stomachC. Surgical resection of the proximal stomachD. Surgical removal of the gastric antrumE. A vagotomy of the gastric fundus and corpus

5. Hyperthyroidism is accompanied by… A. AnorexiaB. Stimulated appetite C. BradycardiaD. Increased weight gainE. Decreased sweating

6. Which of the following hypothalamic nuclei is responsible for the sense of hunger controlling?A. Paraventricular nucleusB. Ventromedial nucleusC. Arcuate nucleusD. Lateral nucleusE. Suprachiasmatic nucleus

7. Which of the following hypothalamic nuclei is responsible for the sense of satiety controlling?A. Paraventricular nucleusB. Ventromedial nucleusC. Arcuate nucleusD. Lateral nucleusE. Suprachiasmatic nucleus

8. Which of the following hypothalamic nuclei are responsible for food intake controlling?A. Paraventricular and supraoptical nucleiB. Ventromedial and lateral nucleiC. Arcuate and dorsomedial nucleiD. Subthalamical and periforneatic nuclei E. Suprachiasmatic and anterial nuclei

9. All of the following effects are caused by hypothyroidism EXCEPT:A. Decreased sympathetic activityB. Decreased metabolic rateC. Stimulated appetiteD. SleepnessE. Cold intolerance

10. Which of the listed below effects is not typical in hyperthyroidism?A. Increased appetiteB. Increased weight of the body C. Increased thermogenesis D. Increased heart rate (HR)E. Increased alveolar ventilation

Answers: 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-B, 5-B, 6-D, 7-B, 8-B, 9-C, 10-B.

Page 24: Tests MOD3

Module III. Theme: “Digestion in the intestine. Physiological mechanisms of starvation and satiety.”

Variant 4.

1. Which of the listed below metabolic reactions are energy sources at state of long-term starvation? A. Gluconeogenesis B. Cortisol-dependent catabolism of muscles C. STH- and catecholamine-induced lipolysis D. All above-listed E. Neither

2. The positive nitrogen balance may be caused by all listed factors, EXCEPT…A. StarvationB. Intake a lot of amount of proteinsC. Condition of organism growthD. PregnancyE. Increasing of muscles volume

3. Which one doesn’t cause the increase of plasma insulin concentration directly or indirectly?A. Starvation B. Glucocorticoid therapy C. Food intakeD. Physical exercisesE. Stress

4. In clinic the degree of satiety/starvation condition is determined by correlation of insulin/glucagon concentration in plasma. How will this correlation change, if a man is in a satiety condition?A. Correlation doesn’t changeB. Correlation will decreaseC. Correlation will increase D. NeitherE. Both of them

5. In clinic the degree of satiety/starvation condition is determined by correlation of insulin/glucagon concentration in plasma. How will this correlation change, if a man is in a starvation condition?A. Correlation doesn’t changeB. Correlation will decreaseC. Correlation will increase D. NeitherE. Both of them

6. Activity of which enzymes does predominate at state of starvation? A. Anabolic B. Catabolic C. Both of them D. Activity doesn’t changeE. Neither

7. Activity of which enzymes does predominate at state of satiety? A. Anabolic B. Catabolic C. Both of them D. Activity doesn’t changeE. Neither

8. State of starvation is accompanied by hyperconcentration of certain hormones, EXCEPT…A. CortisolB. Glucagon C. Adrenalin D. Insulin E. Essential acids

9. Maintenance of condition satiety/starvation is provided for balance between such hormonal groups as… A. Insulin and antiinsulin hormones groups B. Release and statin factorsC. Thyroid and parathyroid hormones D. Serotonin and melatonin E. Glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids

10. Which of the listed below effects are determined by hyperconcentration of antiinsulin hormone groups in starvation condition?A. Reduced sensitivity to insulin in muscles and lipid tissue B. Decreased glucose utilization C. Increased of gluconeogenesis D. All above-listed E. Neither

Answers: 1-D, 2-A, 3-A, 4-C, 5-B, 6-B, 7-A, 8-D, 9-A, 10-D.

Module III.

Page 25: Tests MOD3

Theme: “Motor activity of the stomach and intestine. Absorption processes.”Variant 1.

1. In infants, defecation often follows a meal. The cause of colonic contractions in this situation is … A. The gastroileal reflex B. Increased circulating levels of CCKC. The gastrocolic reflexD. Increased circulating levels of somatostatinE. The enterogastric reflex

2. Peristaltic waves …A. Can be influenced by the sympathetic nervous systemB. Can be influenced by the parasympathetic nervous systemC. Can be initiated by stretching a portion of the intestinal wall D. All above-listed E. Neither

3. Which one of the following is the putative inhibitory neurotransmitter responsible for relaxation of gastrointestinal smooth muscle?A. Dopamine B. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) C. SomatostatinD. Substance PE. Acetylcholine (ACh)

4. Which gastrointestinal motor activity is most affected by vagotomy ?A. Secondary esophageal peristalsisB. Distention-induced intestinal segmentationC. Orad stomach accomodationD. Caudad stomach peristalsisE. Migrating motor complex (MMC)

5. The hormone involved in the initiation of the migrating motor complex (MMC) is …A. GastrinB. MotilinC. SecretinD. CholecystokininE. Enterogastrone 6. Absorption of fat-soluble vitamins requires… A. Intrinsic factor

B. ChymotrypsinC. Pancreatic lipase D. Pancreatic amylaseE. Secretin

7. At concentration present in the diet, which vitamin is absorbed primarily by diffusion? A. Vitamin C B. FolateC. Vitamin D D. NiacinE. Vitamin B12

8. The origin of electrical slow wave activity in gastrointestinal tract smooth muscle is …A. The interstitial cells of CajalB. The smooth muscle of the circular muscle layerC. The smooth muscle of the muscularis mucosa D. The smooth muscle of the longitudinal muscle layerE. The myenteric plexus

9. The migrating motor complex (MMC) in humans … A. Occurs only in the small intestine B. Requires an intact intrinsic nervous system for coordinated propagationC. Is the result of food-mediated distension of the small intestineD. Mixes intestinal contents with bile and digestive enzymesE. Is correlated with periodic increases in plasma gastrin levels

10. The delivery of chime into the proximal small intestine will …A. Increase gastric acid secretionB. Decrease pancreatic bicarbonate secretionC. Increase gastric emptying of solidsD. Decrease circulating CCK levelsE. Increase small intestine segmentation

Answers: 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C, 5-B, 6-C, 7-C, 8-A, 9-B, 10-E.

Module III.

Page 26: Tests MOD3

Theme: “Motor activity of the stomach and intestine. Absorption processes.”Variant 2.

1. The macrolid antibiotic erythromycin is associated with gastrointestinal disturbance related to increased motility. The antibiotic works by binding to receptors on nerves and smooth muscle that recognize the gastrointestinal hormone … A. Gastrin B. MotilinC. SecretinD. CholecystokininE. Enteroglucagon

2. The motitlity pattern primarily responsible for the propulsion of chime along the small intestine is …A. The migrating motor complex (MMC) B. Peristaltic wavesC. Myogenic wavesD. HaustrationsE. Segmentation

3. After taking 100ml of 25% concentrated solution of magnesium sulphate there will be a lot of fluid excrements. Why?A. Because the work of the bowels is inhibited B. Because the secretion of gastric juice is stimulatedC. Because osmolarity is increased in the bowelsD. Because the secretion of hormones of the duodenum is stimulatedE. Because osmolarity decreases

4. Na+- dependent transport is responsible for the absorption of all of the following EXCEPT…A. Vitamin E B. Amino acidsC. GlucoseD. Bile saltsE. Dipeptides

5. Choose the substance that is most important for iron absorption from the intestine…A. Intrinsic factor B. FerritinC. Bile saltsD. Vitamin DE. Trypsin 6. Choose the substance that is most important for Ca++ absorption from the intestine…

A. Intrinsic factor B. FerritinC. Bile saltsD. Vitamin DE. Trypsin

7. Choose the substance that is most important for cholesterol absorption from the intestine…A. Intrinsic factor B. FerritinC. Bile saltsD. Vitamin DE. Trypsin

8. Which one of the following statements about the process of vitamin B12 absorption is correct? A. In humans, intrinsic factor is secreted from chief of the gastric glandB. Vitamin B12 binds preferentially to intrinsic factor in the stomachC. In adults, vitamin B12 absorption occurs along the length of the small intestineD. Absorption may be reduced in a patient with pancreatic insufficiencyE. Absorption occurs via passive diffusion into the enterocyte

9. As compared to long-chain fatty acids, medium-chain fatty acids… A. Are also packaged as chylomicronsB. Can be used as a source of calories in patients with malabsorptive diseaseC. Are less water-solubleD. Are also returned to the circulation via the lymphE. Are more abundant in the diet

10. In contrast to secretory diarrhea, osmotic diarrheaA. Is characterized by an increase in stool osmolarityB. Is the result of increased crypt cell secretionC. Is the result of decreased electroneutral sodium absorptionD. Is caused by bacterial toxinsE. Occurs only in the colon

Answers: 1-B, 2-E, 3-C, 4-A, 5-B, 6-D, 7-C, 8-D, 9-B, 10-A.

Module III.

Page 27: Tests MOD3

Theme: “Motor activity of the stomach and intestine. Absorption processes.”Variant 3.

1. Glucose absorption is increased to the greatest degree by – A. Injection of insulin B. Drinking isotonic salineC. Drinking a solution containing fructoseD. Injection of glucagonE. Drugs that inhibit Na+-K+ ATPase

2. In which of the following is the absorbtion of water greatest?A. EsophagusB. StomachC. DuodenumD. JejunumE. Colon

3. Drugs and toxins that increase the cyclic AMP content of the intestinal mucosa cause diarrhea because they…A. Increase peristalsis in the small intestine B. Increase peristalsis in the colonC. Inhibit K+ absorption in the crypts of LieberkiihnD. Increase secretion of Cl- into the intestinal lumenE. Increase absorption of Na+ in the small intestine

4. The following processes are involved in the absorption of the products of digestion from the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract to the blood…A. Facilitated diffusionB. Secondary active transportC. DiffusionD. Active transportE. All of them

5. Ca++ absorption is increased by …A. Oxalates in the dietB. 1,25-dihydroxycholecaciferol and hypocalcemiaC. HypokalemiaD. HypercalcemiaE. Neither 6. Vitamin B12 is absorbed primarily in the … A. Stomach

B. Duodenum C. JejunumD. IleumE. Colon

7. Which one of the following statements best describes water and electrolyte absorption in the GI tract? A. Most water and electrolytes come from ingested fluids B. The small intestine and colon have similar absorptive capacitiesC. Osmotic equilibration of chyme occurs in the stomachD. The majority of absorption occurs in the jejunumE. Water absorption is independent of Na+ absorption

8. Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis can occur with excess fluid loss from the…A. StomachB. Ileum C. Colon D. Pancreas E. Liver

9. The major mechanism for absorption of Na+ from the small intestine is… A. Na+-H+ exchange B. Cotransport with K+

C. Electrogenic transportD. Neutral NaCl absorptionE. Solvent drag

10. Dietary fat, after being processed, is extruded from the mucosal cells of the gastrointestinal tract into the lymphatic ducts in the form of …A. MonoglyceridesB. Diglycerides C. Triglycerides D. Chylomicrons E. Free fatty acids

Answers: 1-B, 2-D, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B, 6-D, 7-D, 8-C, 9-D, 10-D.

Module III.

Page 28: Tests MOD3

Theme: “Motor activity of the stomach and intestine. Absorption processes.”Variant 4.

1. Gas within the colon is primarily derived from which one of the following sources? A. CO2 liberated by the interaction of HCO3

- and H+

B. Diffusion from the bloodC. Fermentation of undigested oligosaccharides by bacteriaD. Swallowed atmospheric air E. Air pockets within foodstuffs

2. Which one of the following statements about the colon is correct? A. Absorption of Na+ in the colon is under hormonal (aldosteron) control B. Bile acids enhance absorption of water from the colonC. Net absorption of HCO3

- occurs in the colonD. Net absorption of K+ occurs in the colonE. The luminal potential in the colon is positive

3. Vitamins synthesized by intestinal bacteria and absorbed in significant quantities include…A. Vitamin B6

B. Vitamin K C. ThiamineD. RiboflavinE. Folic acid

4. Which of the following sugars is absorbed from the small intestine by facilitated diffusion?A. GlucoseB. GalactoseC. Fructose D. SucroseE. Lactose

5. Bicarbonate absorption from the upper small intestine is closely coupled with…A. Na-glucose absorptionB. Neutral NaCl absorptionC. Na+/H+ exchange D. Electrogenic Na+ absorptionE. Na-vitamin B12 absorption 6. Which one of the following statements best describes water and electrolyte absorption in the gastrointestinal tract? A. Most water and electrolytes derive from the oral intake of fluids

B. The small and large intestines have similar absorptive capacitiesC. Net secretion of K+ occurs from the ileumD. Osmotic equilibration of chime occurs in the duodenumE. Cholera toxin inhibits sodium-coupled nutrient transport

7. Short-chain fatty acid absorbtion occurs almost exclusively from the … A. StomachB. Duodenum C. Jejunum D. IleumE. Colon

8. Which one of the following statements about medium-chain fatty acids is correct?A. They are more water-soluble than long-chain fatty acidsB. Within the enterocyte, they are used for triglyceride resynthesis C. They are packaged into chylomicronsD. They are transported in the lymphE. They require emulsification prior to enterocyte uptake

9. The transport protein responsible for entry of glucose into the intestinal enterocyte is called … A. Glut-2 B. Glut-5C. SGLT 1D. SGLT 2E. SGLT 5

10. Micelle formation is necessary for absorbtion of …A. Bile salts B. IronC. CholesterolD. AlcoholE. B vitamins

Answers: 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-C, 5-C, 6-D, 7-E, 8-A, 9-C, 10-C.

Module III.

Page 29: Tests MOD3

Theme: “Excretion system. Mechanisms of urine formation”.Variant 1.

1. What is the patient’s filtration fraction, ifpara-aminohippuric acid (PAH) clearance = 750 mL/min, urinary flow = 2 mL/min, plasma creatinine concentration = 0.8 mg/dL, plasma glucose concentration = 120 mg/dL, urinary creatinine concentration = 66 mg/dLA. 0.18B. 0.20C. 0.22D. 0.24E. 0.26

2. Approximately how much glucose is reabsorbed by patient’s kidneys, talked above?A. 0 mg/minB. 120 mg/minC. 165 mg/minD. 200 mg/minE. 320 mg/min

3. The graph below illustrates the relationship between plasma glucose concentration and glucose reabsorption by the kidney. The GFR is 100 mL/min. The renal threshold for glucose isA. 50 mg/dLB. 100 mg/dLC. 150 mg/dLD. 200 mg/dLE. 500 mg/dL

4. The Tmax for glucose at the graph below is…A. 100 mg/minB. 200 mg/minC. 300 mg/minD. 400 mg/minE. 500 mg/min

5. Use the data below to calculate the net amount of substance X secreted by the kidney:Clearance of inulin = 120 mL/minPlasma concentration of X = 10 mg/dLUrine concentration of X = 10 mg/mLUrinary flow rate = 1.5 mL/minA. 1 mg/minB. 2 mg/minC. 3 mg/minD. 4 mg/minE. 5 mg/min

6. Na+ is reabsorbed from the basolateral surface of the renal epithelial cells by

A. Na/H exchangeB. Na-glucose cotransportC. Na-K pumpD. Facilitated diffusionE. Solvent drag

7. The secretion of H+ in the proximal tubule is primarily associated withA. Excretion of potassium ionB. Excretion of hydrogen ionC. Reabsorption of calcium ionD. Reabsorption of bicarbonate ionE. Reabsorption of phosphate ion

8. Use the following laboratory data to calculate the renal blood flow. Renal artery para-aminohippuric acid (PAH) concentration = 0.05 mg/mL Renal vein PAH concentration = 0.005 mg/mLUrinary PAH concentration = 20 mg/mLUrinary flow rate = 2 mL/minRenal plasma flow is approximately:A. 500 mL/minB. 600 mL/minC. 700 mL/minD. 800 mL/minE. 900 mL/min

9. If a substance appears in the renal artery but not in the renal vein,A. Its clearance is equal to the glomerular filtration rateB. It must be reabsorbed by the kidneyC. Its urinary concentration must be higher than its plasma concentrationD. Its clearance is equal to the renal plasma flowE. It must be filtered by the kidney

10. A freely filterable substance that is neither reabsorbed nor secreted has a renal artery concentration of 12 mg/mL and a renal vein concentration of 9 mg/mL. Calculate the filtration fraction (GFR/RPF).A. 0.05B. 0.15C. 0.25D. 0.35E. 0.45

Answers: 1-C, 2-D, 3-D, 4-C, 5-C, 6-C, 7-D, 8-E, 9-D, 10-C.

Module III.

Page 30: Tests MOD3

Theme: “Excretion system. Mechanisms of urine formation”.Variant 2.

1. The macrolid antibiotic erythromycin is associated with gastrointestinal disturbance related to increased motility. The antibiotic works by binding to receptors on nerves and smooth muscle that recognize the gastrointestinal hormone … A. Gastrin B. MotilinC. SecretinD. CholecystokininE. Enteroglucagon

2. The motitlity pattern primarily responsible for the propulsion of chime along the small intestine is …A. The migrating motor complex (MMC) B. Peristaltic wavesC. Myogenic wavesD. HaustrationsE. Segmentation

3. After taking 100ml of 25% concentrated solution of magnesium sulphate there will be a lot of fluid excrements. Why?A. Because the work of the bowels is inhibited B. Because the secretion of gastric juice is stimulatedC. Because osmolarity is increased in the bowelsD. Because the secretion of hormones of the duodenum is stimulatedE. Because osmolarity decreases

4. Na+- dependent transport is responsible for the absorption of all of the following EXCEPT…A. Vitamin E B. Amino acidsC. GlucoseD. Bile saltsE. Dipeptides

5. Choose the substance that is most important for iron absorption from the intestine…A. Intrinsic factor B. FerritinC. Bile saltsD. Vitamin DE. Trypsin 6. Choose the substance that is most important for Ca++ absorption from the intestine…

A. Intrinsic factor B. FerritinC. Bile saltsD. Vitamin DE. Trypsin

7. Choose the substance that is most important for cholesterol absorption from the intestine…A. Intrinsic factor B. FerritinC. Bile saltsD. Vitamin DE. Trypsin

8. Which one of the following statements about the process of vitamin B12 absorption is correct? A. In humans, intrinsic factor is secreted from chief of the gastric glandB. Vitamin B12 binds preferentially to intrinsic factor in the stomachC. In adults, vitamin B12 absorption occurs along the length of the small intestineD. Absorption may be reduced in a patient with pancreatic insufficiencyE. Absorption occurs via passive diffusion into the enterocyte

9. As compared to long-chain fatty acids, medium-chain fatty acids… A. Are also packaged as chylomicronsB. Can be used as a source of calories in patients with malabsorptive diseaseC. Are less water-solubleD. Are also returned to the circulation via the lymphE. Are more abundant in the diet

10. In contrast to secretory diarrhea, osmotic diarrheaA. Is characterized by an increase in stool osmolarityB. Is the result of increased crypt cell secretionC. Is the result of decreased electroneutral sodium absorptionD. Is caused by bacterial toxinsE. Occurs only in the colon

Answers: 1-B, 2-E, 3-C, 4-A, 5-B, 6-D, 7-C, 8-D, 9-B, 10-A.

Module III.

Page 31: Tests MOD3

Theme: “Excretion system. Mechanisms of urine formation”.Variant 3.

1. Glucose absorption is increased to the greatest degree by – A. Injection of insulin B. Drinking isotonic salineC. Drinking a solution containing fructoseD. Injection of glucagonE. Drugs that inhibit Na+-K+ ATPase

2. In which of the following is the absorbtion of water greatest?A. EsophagusB. StomachC. DuodenumD. JejunumE. Colon

3. Drugs and toxins that increase the cyclic AMP content of the intestinal mucosa cause diarrhea because they…A. Increase peristalsis in the small intestine B. Increase peristalsis in the colonC. Inhibit K+ absorption in the crypts of LieberkiihnD. Increase secretion of Cl- into the intestinal lumenE. Increase absorption of Na+ in the small intestine

4. The following processes are involved in the absorption of the products of digestion from the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract to the blood…A. Facilitated diffusionB. Secondary active transportC. DiffusionD. Active transportE. All of them

5. Ca++ absorption is increased by …A. Oxalates in the dietB. 1,25-dihydroxycholecaciferol and hypocalcemiaC. HypokalemiaD. HypercalcemiaE. Neither 6. Vitamin B12 is absorbed primarily in the … A. Stomach

B. Duodenum C. JejunumD. IleumE. Colon

7. Which one of the following statements best describes water and electrolyte absorption in the GI tract? A. Most water and electrolytes come from ingested fluids B. The small intestine and colon have similar absorptive capacitiesC. Osmotic equilibration of chyme occurs in the stomachD. The majority of absorption occurs in the jejunumE. Water absorption is independent of Na+ absorption

8. Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis can occur with excess fluid loss from the…A. StomachB. Ileum C. Colon D. Pancreas E. Liver

9. The major mechanism for absorption of Na+ from the small intestine is… A. Na+-H+ exchange B. Cotransport with K+

C. Electrogenic transportD. Neutral NaCl absorptionE. Solvent drag

10. Dietary fat, after being processed, is extruded from the mucosal cells of the gastrointestinal tract into the lymphatic ducts in the form of …A. MonoglyceridesB. Diglycerides C. Triglycerides D. Chylomicrons E. Free fatty acids

Answers: 1-B, 2-D, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B, 6-D, 7-D, 8-C, 9-D, 10-D.

Module III.

Page 32: Tests MOD3

Theme: “Excretion system. Mechanisms of urine formation”.Variant 4.

1. Gas within the colon is primarily derived from which one of the following sources? A. CO2 liberated by the interaction of HCO3

- and H+

B. Diffusion from the bloodC. Fermentation of undigested oligosaccharides by bacteriaD. Swallowed atmospheric air E. Air pockets within foodstuffs

2. Which one of the following statements about the colon is correct? A. Absorption of Na+ in the colon is under hormonal (aldosteron) control B. Bile acids enhance absorption of water from the colonC. Net absorption of HCO3

- occurs in the colonD. Net absorption of K+ occurs in the colonE. The luminal potential in the colon is positive

3. Vitamins synthesized by intestinal bacteria and absorbed in significant quantities include…A. Vitamin B6

B. Vitamin K C. ThiamineD. RiboflavinE. Folic acid

4. Which of the following sugars is absorbed from the small intestine by facilitated diffusion?A. GlucoseB. GalactoseC. Fructose D. SucroseE. Lactose

5. Bicarbonate absorption from the upper small intestine is closely coupled with…A. Na-glucose absorptionB. Neutral NaCl absorptionC. Na+/H+ exchange D. Electrogenic Na+ absorptionE. Na-vitamin B12 absorption 6. Which one of the following statements best describes water and electrolyte absorption in the gastrointestinal tract?

A. Most water and electrolytes derive from the oral intake of fluidsB. The small and large intestines have similar absorptive capacitiesC. Net secretion of K+ occurs from the ileumD. Osmotic equilibration of chime occurs in the duodenumE. Cholera toxin inhibits sodium-coupled nutrient transport

7. Short-chain fatty acid absorbtion occurs almost exclusively from the … A. StomachB. Duodenum C. Jejunum D. IleumE. Colon

8. Which one of the following statements about medium-chain fatty acids is correct?A. They are more water-soluble than long-chain fatty acidsB. Within the enterocyte, they are used for triglyceride resynthesis C. They are packaged into chylomicronsD. They are transported in the lymphE. They require emulsification prior to enterocyte uptake

9. The transport protein responsible for entry of glucose into the intestinal enterocyte is called … A. Glut-2 B. Glut-5C. SGLT 1D. SGLT 2E. SGLT 5

10. Micelle formation is necessary for absorbtion of …A. Bile salts B. IronC. CholesterolD. AlcoholE. B vitamins

Answers: 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-C, 5-C, 6-D, 7-E, 8-A, 9-C, 10-C.

Module III.

Page 33: Tests MOD3

Theme: “Excretion system. Regulation of kidneys functions”.Variant 1.

1.Net filtration from capillaries will increase followingA. Increased contraction of the precapillary sphincterB. Decreased arterial pressureC. Increased plasma protein concentrationD. Decreased capillary permeabilityE. Increased postcapillary resistance

2.Which one of the following increases during aerobic exercise?A. Heart rateB. Mean blood pressureC. Plasma filtration out of the capillaries within the exercising musclesD. Skin temperatureE. All are correct

3. A patient is diagnosed with hypovolumic shock. How is changing the speed of kidneys filtration at this case?A. It is increasedB. It is decreasedC. It isn’t changedD. All are correctE. None are correct

4. In the presence of ADH, the filtrate will be isotonic to plasma in theA. Descending limb of the loop of HenleB. Ascending limb of the loop of HenleC. Cortical collecting tubuleD. Medullary collecting tubuleE. Renal pelvis

5. Renin secretion by the kidney is increased byA. Increasing mean blood pressureB. Increasing glomerular filtration rateC. Increasing sympathetic nerve activityD. Increasing angiotensin II synthesisE. Increasing atrial natriuretic hormone secretion

6. Which of the following is most likely to cause an increase in the glomerular filtration rate?

A. Contraction of mesangial cellsB. Blockage of the ureterC. Release of renin from the juxtaglomerular apparatusD. Dilation of the afferent arteriolesE. Volume depletion

7. Glomerular filtration rate would be decreased byA. Constriction of the efferent arterioleB. An increase in afferent arteriolar pressureC. Compression of the renal capsuleD. A decrease in the concentration of plasma proteinE. An increase in renal blood flow

8. The consumption of oxygen by the kidneyA. Decreases as blood flow increasesB. Is regulated by erythropoietinC. Remains constant as blood flow increasesD. Directly reflects the level of sodium transportE. Is greatest in the medulla

9. The anion gap will increase with an increase in the plasma concentration ofA. SodiumB. PotassiumC. ChlorideD. BicarbonateE. Lactate

10. Sodium reabsorption from the distal tubule will be increased if there is an increase inA. Plasma potassium concentrationB. Plasma volumeC. Mean arterial pressureD. Urine flow rateE. Plasma osmolality

Answers: 1-E, 2-E, 3-B, 4-C, 5-C, 6-D, 7-C, 8-D, 9-E, 10-A.

Module III.

Page 34: Tests MOD3

Theme: “Excretion system. Regulation of kidneys functions”.Variant 2.

1. 309. Destruction of the supraoptic nuclei of the brain will produce which of the following changes in urinary volume and concentration? (Assume that fluid intake equals fluid loss.)a. An increased urinary volume and a very dilute urineb. An increased urinary volume and concentrated urinec. A normal urinary volume and concentrationd. Decreased urinary volume and a very dilute urinee. Decreased urinary volume and a concentrated urine

2. The motitlity pattern primarily responsible for the propulsion of chime along the small intestine is …A. The migrating motor complex (MMC) B. Peristaltic wavesC. Myogenic wavesD. HaustrationsE. Segmentation

3. After taking 100ml of 25% concentrated solution of magnesium sulphate there will be a lot of fluid excrements. Why?A. Because the work of the bowels is inhibited B. Because the secretion of gastric juice is stimulatedC. Because osmolarity is increased in the bowelsD. Because the secretion of hormones of the duodenum is stimulatedE. Because osmolarity decreases

4. Na+- dependent transport is responsible for the absorption of all of the following EXCEPT…A. Vitamin E B. Amino acidsC. GlucoseD. Bile saltsE. Dipeptides

5. Choose the substance that is most important for iron absorption from the intestine…A. Intrinsic factor B. FerritinC. Bile saltsD. Vitamin DE. Trypsin

6. Choose the substance that is most important for Ca++ absorption from the intestine…A. Intrinsic factor B. FerritinC. Bile saltsD. Vitamin DE. Trypsin

7. Choose the substance that is most important for cholesterol absorption from the intestine…A. Intrinsic factor B. FerritinC. Bile saltsD. Vitamin DE. Trypsin

8. Which one of the following statements about the process of vitamin B12 absorption is correct? A. In humans, intrinsic factor is secreted from chief of the gastric glandB. Vitamin B12 binds preferentially to intrinsic factor in the stomachC. In adults, vitamin B12 absorption occurs along the length of the small intestineD. Absorption may be reduced in a patient with pancreatic insufficiencyE. Absorption occurs via passive diffusion into the enterocyte

9. As compared to long-chain fatty acids, medium-chain fatty acids… A. Are also packaged as chylomicronsB. Can be used as a source of calories in patients with malabsorptive diseaseC. Are less water-solubleD. Are also returned to the circulation via the lymphE. Are more abundant in the diet

10. In contrast to secretory diarrhea, osmotic diarrheaA. Is characterized by an increase in stool osmolarityB. Is the result of increased crypt cell secretionC. Is the result of decreased electroneutral sodium absorptionD. Is caused by bacterial toxinsE. Occurs only in the colonAnswers: 1-A, 2-E, 3-C, 4-A, 5-B, 6-D, 7-C, 8-D, 9-B, 10-A.

Module III.

Page 35: Tests MOD3

Theme: “Excretion system. Regulation of kidneys functions”.Variant 3.

1. Glucose absorption is increased to the greatest degree by – A. Injection of insulin B. Drinking isotonic salineC. Drinking a solution containing fructoseD. Injection of glucagonE. Drugs that inhibit Na+-K+ ATPase

2. In which of the following is the absorbtion of water greatest?A. EsophagusB. StomachC. DuodenumD. JejunumE. Colon

3. Drugs and toxins that increase the cyclic AMP content of the intestinal mucosa cause diarrhea because they…A. Increase peristalsis in the small intestine B. Increase peristalsis in the colonC. Inhibit K+ absorption in the crypts of LieberkiihnD. Increase secretion of Cl- into the intestinal lumenE. Increase absorption of Na+ in the small intestine

4. The following processes are involved in the absorption of the products of digestion from the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract to the blood…A. Facilitated diffusionB. Secondary active transportC. DiffusionD. Active transportE. All of them

5. Ca++ absorption is increased by …A. Oxalates in the dietB. 1,25-dihydroxycholecaciferol and hypocalcemiaC. HypokalemiaD. HypercalcemiaE. Neither 6. Vitamin B12 is absorbed primarily in the … A. Stomach

B. Duodenum C. JejunumD. IleumE. Colon

7. Which one of the following statements best describes water and electrolyte absorption in the GI tract? A. Most water and electrolytes come from ingested fluids B. The small intestine and colon have similar absorptive capacitiesC. Osmotic equilibration of chyme occurs in the stomachD. The majority of absorption occurs in the jejunumE. Water absorption is independent of Na+ absorption

8. Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis can occur with excess fluid loss from the…A. StomachB. Ileum C. Colon D. Pancreas E. Liver

9. The major mechanism for absorption of Na+ from the small intestine is… A. Na+-H+ exchange B. Cotransport with K+

C. Electrogenic transportD. Neutral NaCl absorptionE. Solvent drag

10. Dietary fat, after being processed, is extruded from the mucosal cells of the gastrointestinal tract into the lymphatic ducts in the form of …A. MonoglyceridesB. Diglycerides C. Triglycerides D. Chylomicrons E. Free fatty acids

Answers: 1-B, 2-D, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B, 6-D, 7-D, 8-C, 9-D, 10-D.

Module III.

Page 36: Tests MOD3

Theme: “Excretion system. Regulation of kidneys functions”.Variant 4.

1. Gas within the colon is primarily derived from which one of the following sources? A. CO2 liberated by the interaction of HCO3

- and H+

B. Diffusion from the bloodC. Fermentation of undigested oligosaccharides by bacteriaD. Swallowed atmospheric air E. Air pockets within foodstuffs

2. Which one of the following statements about the colon is correct? A. Absorption of Na+ in the colon is under hormonal (aldosteron) control B. Bile acids enhance absorption of water from the colonC. Net absorption of HCO3

- occurs in the colonD. Net absorption of K+ occurs in the colonE. The luminal potential in the colon is positive

3. Vitamins synthesized by intestinal bacteria and absorbed in significant quantities include…A. Vitamin B6

B. Vitamin K C. ThiamineD. RiboflavinE. Folic acid

4. Which of the following sugars is absorbed from the small intestine by facilitated diffusion?A. GlucoseB. GalactoseC. Fructose D. SucroseE. Lactose

5. Bicarbonate absorption from the upper small intestine is closely coupled with…A. Na-glucose absorptionB. Neutral NaCl absorptionC. Na+/H+ exchange D. Electrogenic Na+ absorptionE. Na-vitamin B12 absorption 6. Which one of the following statements best describes water and electrolyte absorption in the gastrointestinal tract?

A. Most water and electrolytes derive from the oral intake of fluidsB. The small and large intestines have similar absorptive capacitiesC. Net secretion of K+ occurs from the ileumD. Osmotic equilibration of chime occurs in the duodenumE. Cholera toxin inhibits sodium-coupled nutrient transport

7. Short-chain fatty acid absorbtion occurs almost exclusively from the … A. StomachB. Duodenum C. Jejunum D. IleumE. Colon

8. Which one of the following statements about medium-chain fatty acids is correct?A. They are more water-soluble than long-chain fatty acidsB. Within the enterocyte, they are used for triglyceride resynthesis C. They are packaged into chylomicronsD. They are transported in the lymphE. They require emulsification prior to enterocyte uptake

9. The transport protein responsible for entry of glucose into the intestinal enterocyte is called … A. Glut-2 B. Glut-5C. SGLT 1D. SGLT 2E. SGLT 5

10. Micelle formation is necessary for absorbtion of …A. Bile salts B. IronC. CholesterolD. AlcoholE. B vitamins

Answers: 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-C, 5-C, 6-D, 7-E, 8-A, 9-C, 10-C.

Module III.

Page 37: Tests MOD3

Theme: “Kidneys role in homeostasis regulation.”Variant 1.

1.What is the patient’s daily net acid excretion, if his urinary volume = 1.5 L/day, urinary [NH4+] = 20 meq/L, urinary [HCO3−] = 4 meq/L, urine pH = 6.5,urinary titratable acids = 10 meq/L urine, plasma pH = 7.3.A. 51 meq/dayB. 39 meq/dayC. 34 meq/dayD. 30 meq/dayE. 26 meq/day

2. How much new bicarbonate is being formed per day in patient, talked in question 1?A. 51 meq/dayB. 39 meq/dayC. 34 meq/dayD. 30 meq/dayE. 26 meq/day

3. Assuming production of a normal fixed acid load, what is this patient’s acid-base status, talked in question 1?A. NormalB. Respiratory acidosisC. Metabolic acidosisD. Respiratory alkalosisE. Metabolic alkalosis

5. If 600 mL of water is ingested rapidly, plasma volume will increase by approximatelyA. 400 mLB. 200 mLC. 100 mLD. 50 mLE. 25 mL

6.The daily production of hydrogen ion from CO2 is primarily buffered byA. Extracellular bicarbonateB. Red blood cell bicarbonateC. Red blood cell hemoglobinD. Plasma proteinsE. Plasma phosphate

7. Use the following clinical laboratory data obtained from a patient with diabetes mellitus to calculate the anion gap:Plasma [Na+] = 140 meq/L Plasma [HCO3−] = 6 meq/L

Plasma [K+] = 7.0 meq/L Arterial [H+] = 80 meq/LPlasma [Cl−] = 105 meq/L Plasma [glucose] = 600 mg/dLThe anion gap is…A. 12 meq/LB. 22 meq/LC. 29 meq/LD. 36 meq/LE. 42 meq/L

8. The major source of the total daily acid load produced by the body isA. Anaerobic metabolismB. Aerobic metabolismC. Phospholipid catabolismD. Protein catabolismE. Triglyceride catabolism

9.The pH of the tubular fluid in the distal nephron can be lower than that in the proximal tubule becauseA. A greater sodium gradient can be established across the wall of the distalnephron than across the wall of the proximal tubuleB. More buffer is present in the tubular fluid of the distal nephron than in the proximal tubuleC. More hydrogen ion is secreted into the distal nephron than into the proximal tubuleD. The brush border of the distal nephron contains more carbonic anhydrase than that of the proximal tubuleE. The tight junctions of the distal nephron are less leaky to solute than those of the proximal tubule

10. Which of the following statements about renin is true?A. It is secreted by cells of the proximal tubuleB. Its secretion leads to loss of sodium and water from plasmaC. Its secretion is stimulated by increased mean renal arterial pressureD. It converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin IE. It converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II

Answers: 1-B, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D, 5-D, 6-C, 7-C, 8-B, 9-E, 10-D.

Module III.

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Theme: “Kidneys role in homeostasis regulation.”Variant 2.

1. The macrolid antibiotic erythromycin is associated with gastrointestinal disturbance related to increased motility. The antibiotic works by binding to receptors on nerves and smooth muscle that recognize the gastrointestinal hormone … A. Gastrin B. MotilinC. SecretinD. CholecystokininE. Enteroglucagon

2. The motitlity pattern primarily responsible for the propulsion of chime along the small intestine is …A. The migrating motor complex (MMC) B. Peristaltic wavesC. Myogenic wavesD. HaustrationsE. Segmentation

3. After taking 100ml of 25% concentrated solution of magnesium sulphate there will be a lot of fluid excrements. Why?A. Because the work of the bowels is inhibited B. Because the secretion of gastric juice is stimulatedC. Because osmolarity is increased in the bowelsD. Because the secretion of hormones of the duodenum is stimulatedE. Because osmolarity decreases

4. Na+- dependent transport is responsible for the absorption of all of the following EXCEPT…A. Vitamin E B. Amino acidsC. GlucoseD. Bile saltsE. Dipeptides

5. Choose the substance that is most important for iron absorption from the intestine…A. Intrinsic factor B. FerritinC. Bile saltsD. Vitamin DE. Trypsin 6. Choose the substance that is most important for Ca++ absorption from the intestine…

A. Intrinsic factor B. FerritinC. Bile saltsD. Vitamin DE. Trypsin

7. Choose the substance that is most important for cholesterol absorption from the intestine…A. Intrinsic factor B. FerritinC. Bile saltsD. Vitamin DE. Trypsin

8. Which one of the following statements about the process of vitamin B12 absorption is correct? A. In humans, intrinsic factor is secreted from chief of the gastric glandB. Vitamin B12 binds preferentially to intrinsic factor in the stomachC. In adults, vitamin B12 absorption occurs along the length of the small intestineD. Absorption may be reduced in a patient with pancreatic insufficiencyE. Absorption occurs via passive diffusion into the enterocyte

9. As compared to long-chain fatty acids, medium-chain fatty acids… A. Are also packaged as chylomicronsB. Can be used as a source of calories in patients with malabsorptive diseaseC. Are less water-solubleD. Are also returned to the circulation via the lymphE. Are more abundant in the diet

10. In contrast to secretory diarrhea, osmotic diarrheaA. Is characterized by an increase in stool osmolarityB. Is the result of increased crypt cell secretionC. Is the result of decreased electroneutral sodium absorptionD. Is caused by bacterial toxinsE. Occurs only in the colon

Answers: 1-B, 2-E, 3-C, 4-A, 5-B, 6-D, 7-C, 8-D, 9-B, 10-A.

Module III.

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Theme: “Kidneys role in homeostasis regulation.”Variant 3.

1. Glucose absorption is increased to the greatest degree by – A. Injection of insulin B. Drinking isotonic salineC. Drinking a solution containing fructoseD. Injection of glucagonE. Drugs that inhibit Na+-K+ ATPase

2. In which of the following is the absorbtion of water greatest?A. EsophagusB. StomachC. DuodenumD. JejunumE. Colon

3. Drugs and toxins that increase the cyclic AMP content of the intestinal mucosa cause diarrhea because they…A. Increase peristalsis in the small intestine B. Increase peristalsis in the colonC. Inhibit K+ absorption in the crypts of LieberkiihnD. Increase secretion of Cl- into the intestinal lumenE. Increase absorption of Na+ in the small intestine

4. The following processes are involved in the absorption of the products of digestion from the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract to the blood…A. Facilitated diffusionB. Secondary active transportC. DiffusionD. Active transportE. All of them

5. Ca++ absorption is increased by …A. Oxalates in the dietB. 1,25-dihydroxycholecaciferol and hypocalcemiaC. HypokalemiaD. HypercalcemiaE. Neither 6. Vitamin B12 is absorbed primarily in the … A. Stomach

B. Duodenum C. JejunumD. IleumE. Colon

7. Which one of the following statements best describes water and electrolyte absorption in the GI tract? A. Most water and electrolytes come from ingested fluids B. The small intestine and colon have similar absorptive capacitiesC. Osmotic equilibration of chyme occurs in the stomachD. The majority of absorption occurs in the jejunumE. Water absorption is independent of Na+ absorption

8. Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis can occur with excess fluid loss from the…A. StomachB. Ileum C. Colon D. Pancreas E. Liver

9. The major mechanism for absorption of Na+ from the small intestine is… A. Na+-H+ exchange B. Cotransport with K+

C. Electrogenic transportD. Neutral NaCl absorptionE. Solvent drag

10. Dietary fat, after being processed, is extruded from the mucosal cells of the gastrointestinal tract into the lymphatic ducts in the form of …A. MonoglyceridesB. Diglycerides C. Triglycerides D. Chylomicrons E. Free fatty acids

Answers: 1-B, 2-D, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B, 6-D, 7-D, 8-C, 9-D, 10-D.

Module III.

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Theme: “Kidneys role in homeostasis regulation.”Variant 4.

1. Gas within the colon is primarily derived from which one of the following sources? A. CO2 liberated by the interaction of HCO3

- and H+

B. Diffusion from the bloodC. Fermentation of undigested oligosaccharides by bacteriaD. Swallowed atmospheric air E. Air pockets within foodstuffs

2. Which one of the following statements about the colon is correct? A. Absorption of Na+ in the colon is under hormonal (aldosteron) control B. Bile acids enhance absorption of water from the colonC. Net absorption of HCO3

- occurs in the colonD. Net absorption of K+ occurs in the colonE. The luminal potential in the colon is positive

3. Vitamins synthesized by intestinal bacteria and absorbed in significant quantities include…A. Vitamin B6

B. Vitamin K C. ThiamineD. RiboflavinE. Folic acid

4. Which of the following sugars is absorbed from the small intestine by facilitated diffusion?A. GlucoseB. GalactoseC. Fructose D. SucroseE. Lactose

5. Bicarbonate absorption from the upper small intestine is closely coupled with…A. Na-glucose absorptionB. Neutral NaCl absorptionC. Na+/H+ exchange D. Electrogenic Na+ absorptionE. Na-vitamin B12 absorption 6. Which one of the following statements best describes water and electrolyte absorption in the gastrointestinal tract?

A. Most water and electrolytes derive from the oral intake of fluidsB. The small and large intestines have similar absorptive capacitiesC. Net secretion of K+ occurs from the ileumD. Osmotic equilibration of chime occurs in the duodenumE. Cholera toxin inhibits sodium-coupled nutrient transport

7. Short-chain fatty acid absorbtion occurs almost exclusively from the … A. StomachB. Duodenum C. Jejunum D. IleumE. Colon

8. Which one of the following statements about medium-chain fatty acids is correct?A. They are more water-soluble than long-chain fatty acidsB. Within the enterocyte, they are used for triglyceride resynthesis C. They are packaged into chylomicronsD. They are transported in the lymphE. They require emulsification prior to enterocyte uptake

9. The transport protein responsible for entry of glucose into the intestinal enterocyte is called … A. Glut-2 B. Glut-5C. SGLT 1D. SGLT 2E. SGLT 5

10. Micelle formation is necessary for absorbtion of …A. Bile salts B. IronC. CholesterolD. AlcoholE. B vitamins

Answers: 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-C, 5-C, 6-D, 7-E, 8-A, 9-C, 10-C.

Module III.

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Theme: “General properties of analysers.”Variant 1.

1. Each of the figures in the diagram below illustrates a train of action potentials in response to a sudden limb movement. The sensory neuronencoding the velocity of the limb movement is illustrated by which figure?

2. Free nerve endings contain receptors that encode the sensation ofA. Fine touchB. VibrationC. PressureD. TemperatureE. Muscle length

3. The middle cerebellar peduncle contains afferent fibers conveyed in which of the following tracts?A. Dorsal spinocerebellarB. Ventral spinocerebellarC. TectocerebellarD. PontocerebellarE. Vestibulocerebellar

4. The precentral gyrus and corticospinal tract are essential forA. VisionB. OlfactionC. Auditory identificationD. KinesthesiaE. Voluntary movement

5. The most important role of the γ motoneurons is toA. Stimulate skeletal muscle fibers to contractB. Maintain Ia afferent activity during contraction of muscleC. Generate activity in Ib afferent fibersD. Detect the length of resting skeletal muscleE. Prevent muscles from producing too much force

6. During a normal voluntary movementA. Large muscle fibers are recruited before small muscle fibersB. Fast muscle fibers are recruited before slow muscle fibers

C. Weak muscle fibers are recruited before strong muscle fibersD. Poorly perfused muscle fibers are recruited before richly perfused muscle fibersE. Anaerobic fibers are recruited before aerobic fibers

7. Which one of the following hypothalamic nuclei is responsible for the detection of the core body temperature?A. The lateral hypothalamusB. The arcuate nucleusC. The posterior nucleusD. The paraventricular nucleusE. The anterior hypothalamus

8. Which one of the following events accompanies the rapid voluntary flexion of the arm?A. An increase in the activity of the Ia afferent fibers from the biceps (the agonist)B. A decrease in the activity of the Ib afferent fibers from the biceps (the agonist)C. An increase in the activity of the Ia afferent fibers from the triceps (the antagonist)D. A decrease in the activity of the Ib afferent fibers from the triceps (the antagonist)E. An increase in the activity of the alpha motoneurons to the triceps (the antagonist)

9. In which one of the following sensory systems does stimulation cause the receptor cell to hyperpolarize?A. VisionB. HearingC. TasteD. TouchE. Smell

10. During a voluntary movement, the Golgi tendon organ provides the central nervous system with information aboutA. The length of the muscle being movedB. The velocity of the movementC. The blood flow to the muscle being movedD. The tension developed by the muscle being movedE. The change in joint angle produced by the movementAnswers: 1-B, 2-D, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B, 6-C, 7-E, 8-C, 9-A, 10-D.

Module III.

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Theme: “General properties of analysers.”Variant 2.

1. Which of the following receptors is responsible for measuring the intensity of a steady pressure on the skin surface?A. Pacinian corpuscleB. Ruffini endingC. Merkel’ s diskD. Meissner’ s corpuscleE. Krause ending

2. Nicotinic receptors are responsible forA. Producing the skeletal muscle end-plate potentialB. Decreasing the rate of phase-4 depolarization at the SA nodeC. Increasing the force of stomach contractionsD. Delaying the emptying of liquids from the stomachE. Decreasing the excitability of sympathetic postganglionic neurons

3. The NMDA receptor is activated byA. GlycineB. AcetylcholineC. Substance PD. HistamineE. Glutamate

4. The velocity of nerve conduction is increased with a decrease in theA. Diameter of the nerve fiberB. Degree of myelinizationC. Space constant of the nerve fiberD. Capacitance of the nerve fiber membraneE. Resting membrane potential

5. Adaptation to a sensory stimulus produces -A. A diminished sensation when other types of sensory stimuli are applied near a given stimulusB. A more intense sensation when a given stimulus is applied repeatedlyC. A sensation localized to the hand when the nerves of the brachial plexus are stimulatedD. A diminished sensation when a given stimulus is applied steadily for a period of timeE. Failure to perceive the stimulus when one’s attention is directed to another matter 6. What 2 words describe the relationships (1) between stimulus intensity and amplitude of the

generator potential and (2) between stimulus intensity and the number of action potentials that are generated? A. Direct, inverse B. Inverse, directC. Inverse, inverseD. Direct, directE. Direct, unrelated

7. Which of the following sensations is generated by impulses initiated in naked nerve endings?A. Pain B. ColdC. HearingD. Muscle tensionE. Temperature of blood in the head

8. Which one of the following aspects of the external or internal environment are sensed? A. Changes in pressure of external airB. Blood glucoseC. Linear accelerationD. Muscle tens ionE. All are correct

9. Which of the following determines the nature (as opposed to the intensity) of a sensation? A. The type of receptorB. The part of the brain where the specific neural pathways from the receptor terminateC. Both of them D. None E. Only A

10. A sensation felt in one hand can be produced by stimulation of - A. The afferent neurons from the hand as they enter the spinal cordB. The motor cortex supplying the handC. Both of them D. None E. Only A

Answers: 1-B, 2-A, 3-E, 4-D, 5-D, 6-D, 7-A, 8-E, 9-C, 10-C.

Module III.

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Theme: “General properties of analysers.”Variant 3.

1. Impulses in sensory nerves are generated by receptors located in sense organs. Sometimes the receptors are confused with sense organs. Which of the following receptors and sense organs are correctly paired? A. Rods and cones : eye B. Hair cells : inner earC. Stretch receptors : carotid sinusD. Hair cells : taste budsE. All are correct

2. When all sensory inputs that produce a polysynaptic reflex are dissected out and stimulated one after the other - A. The sum of the tensions developed with each stimulus will be greater than the tension developed when all of the inputs are stimulated simultaneouslyB. Supramaximal stimulation of any one input does not produce as strong a contraction as that produced by direct stimulation of the muscleC. Both of themD. NeitherE. All above-listed

3. Sensitization of a reflex, in those situations in which the chemical basis has been studied in detail, involves - A. Increased sensitivity of the receptors on the postsynaptic neuron to the transmitter released from the presynaptic neuron B. Increased impulse traffic along the axons of the presynaptic neuronsC. Increased permeability of the presynaptic terminals to K+

D. Decreased permeability of the presynaptic terminals to Ca++

E. Discharge of neurons that end on the terminals of the presynaptic neurons

4. When a dorsal root in the lower thoracic region is sectioned, large numbers of the following types of nerve fibers are interrupted -A. Afferent fibers from cutaneous receptorsB. Afferent fibers from the abdominal visceraC. Both of themD. NeitherE. All above-listed

5. Which of the following happen when the strength of the adequate stimulus is increased?A. The latency is decreased

B. The amplitude of the motor response is increasedC. The motor response spreads to include other muscles and even other limbsD. There is increased inhibition of stretch reflexesE. All above-listed 6. When a ventral root in the lower thoracic region is sectioned, large numbers of the following types of nerve fibers are interrupted -A. Preganglionic sympathetic fibersB. Motor neurons to skeletal muscleC. Both of themD. NeitherE. All above-listed

7. Decreased discharge in the Ia afferent fibers from the annulospiral endings in a muscle spindle will be observed when - A. The muscle is passively shortenedB. the muscle contracts in response to stimulation of motor fibers to the extrafusal muscle fibersC. The dorsal root of the spinal nerve that supplies the muscle is cutD. All above-listed E. Neither

8. Which of the following has the slowest conduction velocity?A. A α fibersB. A β fibers C. A γ fibersD. B fibersE. C fibers

9. The distance by which 2 touch stimuli must be separated to be perceived as 2 separate stimuli is greatest on - A. The lipsB. The palm of the handC. The back of the scapulaD. The dorsum of the handE. The tips of the fingers

10. Which of the following need to be intact for normal stereognosis? A. Dorsal columnsB. Parietal lobeC. Pressure pathwaysD. All above-listed E. NeitherAnswers: 1-E, 2-C, 3-E, 4-C, 5-E, 6-C, 7-D, 8-E, 9-C, 10-D.

Module III.

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Theme: “General properties of analysers.”Variant 4.

1. In which of the following tracts in the spinal cord do second-order sensory neurons with cell bodies in the dorsal horn ascend to more rostral spinal segments or to the brain? A. Ventral corticospinal tractB. Lateral and ventral spinothalamic tractsC. Anteroir vestibulospinal tractD. Reticulospinal tractE. Rubrospinal tract

2. Primary afferent neurons terminate in the following regions - A. Thalamus B. Superficial layers of the ventral hornC. lateral portion of the contrlateral intermedoilateral gray column of the spinal cordD. Inferior oliveE. Dorsal roots of spinal cord

3. Which one of the following stimuli normally activates a receptor that is located on the free nerve ending of a sensory neuron?A. TasteB. GravityC. LightD. SoundE. Smell

4. Which characteristic of a sensory stimulus is encoded better by phasic receptors than by tonic receptors?A. How strong the stimulus isB. The type of energy producing the stimulusC. How rapidly the stimulus is appliedD. The duration of the stimulusE. Where the stimulus is located

5. Which one of the following sensory systems uses unmyelinated fibers to convey information to the central nervous system (CNS)?A. ProprioceptionB. VisionC. VibrationD. TemperatureE. Pressure

6. Activity of which one of the following sensory system is associated with increasing the K+ flow into the receptor cells? A. TasteB. OlfactionC. AuditionD. TouchE. Vision

7. Activity of which one of the following sensory system is associated with hyperpolarization of the receptor cells? A. TasteB. OlfactionC. AuditionD. TouchE. Vision

8. Secondary afferent neurons terminate mostly in the following regions - A. Thalamus B. Superficial layers of the ventral hornC. lateral portion of the contrlateral intermedoilateral gray column of the spinal cordD. Inferior oliveE. Dorsal roots of spinal cord

9. Third afferent neurons terminate mostly in the following regions - A. Thalamus B. Superficial layers of the ventral hornC. lateral portion of the contrlateral intermedoilateral gray column of the spinal cordD. Sensory areas of precentral gyrus E. Dorsal roots of spinal cord

10. In an expirement on an animal electric activivty of spiral ganglion neurons is registered. It allows to analyze afferent impulsation from certain receptors. What receptors are these?A. Maculae B. Corti’s organC. Cemicircular canalsD. VestibularE. Vestibular and Corti’s organ

Answers: 1-B, 2-E, 3-E, 4-C, 5-D, 6-C, 7-E, 8-A, 9-D, 10-B.

Module III.

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Theme: “Investigation of the somatic sensor analyzer. Pain and antinociceptive system”Variant 1.

1. Pacinian corpuscles are - A. A type of temperature receptorB. Usually innervated by A δ nerve fibersC. Rapidly adapting touch-pressure receptorsD. Slowly adapting touch-pressure receptorsE. Pain receptors

2. When a normally innervated skeletal muscle is stretched, the initial response is contraction, but with increasing stretch, the muscle suddenly relaxes. This relaxation occurs because - A. With strong stretch, γ efferent discharge is decreased B. with strong stretch, the discharge from the annulospiral endings of afferent nerve fibers is inhibitedC. With strong stretch, there is decreased activity in the afferent nerve fibers from the Golgi tendon organs D. With strong stretch, there is increased activity in the afferent nerve fibers from the Golgi tendon organs E. Because of reciprocal innervation, there is increased discharge in the afferent nerve fibers from the antagonists to the stretched muscle

3. Impulses generated in touch receptors in the tongue reach the cerebral cortex via the - A. ThalamusB. Internal capsuleC. Dorsal roots of the first cervical spinal nervesD. Trochlear nerveE. Hypoglossal

4. Impulses generated in the taste buds of the tongue reach the cerebral cortex via the - A. ThalamusB. Internal capsuleC. Dorsal roots of the first cervical spinal nervesD. Trochlear nerveE. Hypoglossal

5. After a craniosacral trauma a patient does not recognize object at touching them. What department of cerebrum has been damaged?A. CerebellumB. Occipital lobulusC. Temporal particleD. Precentral gyrus

E. Postcentral gyrus6. To get the imprints of dentitions for the following prosthetics the solution of gypsum was brought into the mouth cavity of a woman of 65. What receptors of the mucous tunic of the mouth cavity become excited first of all? A. Chemoreceptors B. Thermal coldC. Thermal hermalD. TactileE. Taste

7. Gustatory sensibility of a person is preserved, but general sensitiveness of the mouth cavity structures is lost. The damage of what organ does it testify about? A. N. vagusB. N. trigeminusC. N. glossopharyngeusD. N. hypglossusE. N. glossopharyngeus and n. vagus

8. A person has got a hemorrhage into the back central gyrus. Violation of what sensitivity on the opposite side will it cause?A. Auditory and visualB. VisualC. AuditoryD. Smell and tasteE. Skin and proprioceptive

9. Smell and taste are similar in that - A. The receptors for both are chemoreceptors B. Both play an important role in determining the flavor of foods C. Both of themD. NeitherE. All above-listed 10. In humans, taste buds are found on - A. The palateB. The pharyngeal wallC. The epiglottisD. the back of the tongueE. All above-listed

Answers: 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-A, 5-E, 6-D, 7-B, 8-E, 9-C, 10-E..

Module III.

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Theme: “Investigation of the somatic sensor analyzer. Pain and antinociceptive system”Variant 2.

1. When a skilled movement is initiated, increased neural activity is first seen in the - A. spinal motor neurons B. Precentral motor cortexC. Basal gangliaD. CerebellumE. Cortical association areas

2. The basal ganglia are primarily concerned with - A. Sensory integrationB. Short-term memoryC. Control of movementD. Neuroendocrine controlE. Slow-wave sleep

3. The extrapyramidal system is not concerned with - A. Stetch reflexesB. Righting reflexesC. SpasticityD. Sensation from the visceraE. Functions mediated by the pyramidal system

4. In an athlete catching a ball, neurons in the following regions would be expected to show increased activity - A. The cerebellar cortex B. The corticospinal tractC. Area 4 of the cerebral cortexD. The ventral horns in the spinal cordE. All above-listed

5. Interruption of the motor pathways in the internal capsule on one side of the body causes - A. spastic paralysis on the same side of the bodyB. Spastic paralysis on the opposite side of the bodyC. Loss of touch and pressure sensation on the opposite side of the bodyD. Flaccid paralysis on the same side of the bodyE. Flaccid paralysis on the opposite side of the body 6. A positive supporting reaction (magnet reaction) - …A. Is a reflex mechanism by which spinal animals can be induced to stand

B. Is due to hyperactive stretch reflexesC. Both of themD. NeitherE. All above-listed

7. The continuous contraction of antigravity muscles that occurs during standing depends on - A. Tonically increased discharge in the γ efferent neurons to the spindles in these musclesB. Increased discharge in the α efferent neurons to the extrafusal fibers in these musclesC. Increased discharge of neurons in the brain stemD. All above-listed E. None

8. In humans, most of the axons that form the corticospinal tract –A. End on Renshaw cellsB. End on dorsal horn neuronsC. End on motor neurons is the spinal cord that supply extrafusal fibers in skeletal muscleD. End on motor neurons in the spinal cord that innervate muscle spindlesE. None

9. Which one of the following receptors is responsible for monitoring the rate of muscle stretch?A. Nuclear bag intrafusal fibersB. nucear chain intrafusal fibersC. Golgi tendon organsD. Pacinian corpusclesE. Ruffini’s corpuscles

10. Which of the following functions represents in the postcentral cortex? A. Speech productionB. VisionC. Motor function D. Somatic sensationE. Hearing

Answers: 1-E, 2-C, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B, 6-C, 7-D, 8-E, 9-A, 10-D.

Module III. Theme: “Investigation of the somatic sensor analyzer. Pain and antinociceptive system”

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Variant 3.

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1. Synaptic transmission between pain fibers from the skin and spinal cord neurons is mediated byA. AcetylcholineB. Substance PC. EndorphinsD. SomatostatinE. Serotonin

2. The pain produced by ischemia is poorly localized and throbbing while pain from a needle stick is well localized and sharp. Which of the following comparisons of ischemic and needle stick pain is correct?A. Ischemic pain sensory fibers are classified as A delta (A∆) sensory fibersB. Ischemic pain is produced by overstimulating somatic touch receptorsC. Ischemic pain is transmitted to the brain through the neospinothalamic tractD. Ischemic pain receptors quickly adapt to a painful stimulusE. Ischemic pain sensory fibers terminate within the substantia gelatinosa of the spinal cord

3. Which one of the following statements about pain sensation is correct?A. Painful sensation can be elicited by any sensory neuron if its firing frequency is high enoughB. Painful sensations arising from a particular area of the skin occur only when pain fibers from that area of the skin are stimulatedC. Cutting the anterolateral tract on both sides of the spinal cord will permanently eliminate painful sensations arising from skin regions innervated by sensory neurons located below the site of the lesionD. Pain fibers conduct impulses to the spinal cord and to skin regions surrounding the site of a painful stimulusE. None

4. A man falls into a deep sleep with one arm under his head. This arm is paralyzed when he awakens, but it tingles, and pain sensation in it is still intact. The reason for the loss of motor function without loss of pain sensation is that - A. A fibers are more susceptible to hypoxia than B fibersB. A fibers are more sensitive to pressure than C C. C fibers are more sensitive to pressure than A D. Sensory nerves are nearer the bone than motor nerves and hence are less affected by coolingE. Sensory nerves are nearer the bone than motor nerves and hence are less affected by pressure

5. An anterolateral cordotomy is performed that produces relief of pain in the right leg. It is effective because it interrupts the - A. Left dorsal columnB. Left ventral spinothalamic tractC. Right lateral spinothalamic tractD. Left lateral spinothalamic tractE. Right corticospinal tract

6. Stimulation of which of the following might be expected to produce itching? A. Dorsal root C fibersB. B fibers in peripheral nervesC. Dorsal columns of the spinal cordD. Touch receptorsE. Motor fibers in the ventral roots of the spinal nerves

7. Visceral pain - A. Shows relatively rapid adaptation B. is mediated by B fibers in the dorsal roots of the spinal nervesC. Can sometimes be relieved by applying an irritant to the skinD. Is similar to “fast pain” produced by noxious stimulation of touch receptorsE. Can be produced by marked and prolonged stimulation of touch receptors

8. Injecting a local anesthetic into an area to which visceral pain is referred sometimes abolishes the pan. When this occurs, it indicates that - A. The sensory neurons involved send one branch to the viscus andanother to the area to which the pain is referredB. The referral is psychosomaticC. The individual with the pain has previously had a painful injury in the area to which the pain is referredD. Impulses in afferents from the viscus somehow facilitate transmission in the sensory pathway from the area to which the pain is referredE. The afferents from the viscus and those from the area to which the pain is referred end on the same second-order sensory neurons

9. Pain due to partial obstruction of the ureter may be felt in the testicle because - A. Nerve fibers from the testicles and nerve fibers from the ureter may end on the same neurons in the spinal cordB. Embryologically, the testicles arise from the same dermatome as the ureterC. Nerve fibers from the ureter may send collaterals to neurons innervated by afferent fibers from the testiclesD. All above-listed E. Neither

10. Which of the following may be chemical mediators of pain, i.e., substances that are produced locally and act on naked nerve endings to initiate impulses in pain fibers?A. HistamineB. K+

C. KininsD. All above-listed E. Neither

Answers: 1-B,2-E,3-D,4-B,5-D,6-A,7-C,8-D,9-D,10-D

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Module III. Theme: “Investigation of the somatic sensor analyzer. Pain and antinociceptive system”

Variant 4.1. During physical activity a person is less sensitive to pain. Activation of what index is the reason for this phenomenon? A. Sympathoadrenal systemB. Nociceptive systemC. Function of the thyroid glandD. Antinociceptive systemE. Function of adrenal glands

2. As a result of a spinal trauma a man of 33 got violation of pain and temperature sensitivity. Damage of what pathway does it cause? A. SpinothalamicB. Medial spinocorticalC. posterior spinocerebellarD. Lateral spinocorticalE. Anterior spinocerebellar

3. During an examination a student’s absolute threshold of pain sensitivity is bigger than in the state of calm. Activating of what system of organism is the reason for this state? A. AntinociceptiveB. SympathoadrenalC. Sympathetic part of the nervous systemD. Parasympathetic part of the nervous systemE. Hypophyseal - adrenal system

4. Examination of an 18-year-old patient showed that he did not feel the temperature irritations in the central part of the back surface of the tongue. What is the reason for this state?A. Edema of the mucous tunic of the tongue B. Affection of the glossopharyngeal nerve C. Affection of the tongue nerveD. Absence of cold and thermal receptors in this areaE. Affection of somatosensory cortex

5. As a result of the affection by a pathological process of conduction tracts of the spinal cord the pain sensitivity of skin and muscles was damaged. What pathways were damaged?A. Lateral sp inocorticalB. SpinothalamicC. Medial spinocortical D. Anterior spinocerebellarE. Posterior spinocerebellar

6. After falling down a flight of stairs, a young woman is found to have partial loss of voluntary movement on the right side of her body and loss of pain and temperature sensation on the left side

below the midthoracic region. It is probable that she has a lesion - A. Transecting the left half of the spinal cord in the lumbar regionB. Transecting the left half of the spinal cord in the upper thoracic regionC. Transecting sensory and motor pathways on the right side of the ponsD. Transecting the right half of the spinal cord in the upper thoracic regionE. Transecting the dorsal half of the spinal cord in the upper thoracic region

7. Which one of the following statements best describes cold receptors? A. Cold receptors produce a sensation of warmth when their firing frequency is very lowB. Sudden decreases in temperature always increase the firing frequency is very lowC. Cold receptors are tonic receptors that slowly increase their firing rate when the temperature is decreasedD. Cold receptors do not fire at skin temperatures above body temperatureE. Cold receptors produce a sensation of pain when their firing frequency is very high

8. Lesions within the basal ganglia produce all of the following signs EXCEPT …A. HypotoniaB. HemiballismC. TremorD. HypokinesiaE. Athetosis

9. The reflex responsible for withdrawing a limb is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT… A. Local sign B. IrradiationC. Unmyelinated afferent fibersD. Monosynaptic reflexE. Afterdischarge

10. Procedures that increase the release of opioid peptides in the CNS decrease the effect of painful stimuli because the limbic system contains opioid receptors to which the peptides can bind. A. Both the statement and the explanation are true and they are relatedB. Both the statement and the explanation are true but they are unrelatedC. the statement is true but the explanation is falseD. The statement is false but the explanation is trueE. The statement is false but the explanation is true

Answers: 1-D, 2-A, 3-A, 4-D, 5-B, 6-D, 7-B, 8-A, 9-D, 10-B.

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Module III. Theme: “Investigation of the visual analyzer physiological properties.”

Variant 1.

1. When emmetropic persons become presbyopic, theirA. Visual acuity increasesB. Near point increasesC. Far point decreasesD. Total refractive power increasesE. Ability to see distant objects decreases

2. When a person slowly rotates toward the right,A. Both the left and right eyes deviate toward the left B. The stereocilia on the hair cells in the right horizontal semicircular canal bend away from the kinociliumC. The hair cells in the left horizontal semicircular canal become depolarizedD. The visual image on the retina becomes unfocusedE. The endolymph in the left and right horizontal semicircular canals moves in opposite directions

3. Which one of the following visual lesions will produce extensive loss of peripheral vision in the left visual fields of both eyes?A. A lesion of the left lateral geniculateB. Section of the left optic nerveC. A lesion of the right visual cortexD. Removal of the right lensE. Section of the left optic tract

4. An increase in refractive power is produced by contraction of theA. IrisB. Ciliary bodyC. Suspensory ligamentsD. Extraocular musclesE. Pupil

5. Which one of the reactions in the retinal rods is caused directly by the absorption of light energy?A. Dissociation of scotopsin and metarhodopsinB. Decomposition of scotopsinC. Transformation of 11-cis retinal to all-trans retinalD. Transformation of metarhodopsin to lumirhodopsinE. Transformation of vitamin A to retinene

6. The alpha rhythm appearing on an EEG has which of the following characteristics?

A. It produces 20 to 30 waves per secondB. It disappears when a patient’s eyes openC. It is replaced by slower, larger waves during REM sleepD. It represents activity that is most pronounced in the frontal region of the brainE. It is associated with deep sleep

7. When light strikes the eye there is an increase inA. The activity of the transducinB. The amount of transmitter released from the photoreceptorsC. The concentration of all-trans retinal within the photoreceptorsD. The concentration of calcium within the photoreceptorsE. The activity of guanylyl cyclase

8. Activation of transducin by light activates an enzyme whicha. Hydrolyzes cGMPb. Increases the dark currentc. Activates adenylyl cyclased. Releases calcium from intracellular storese. Depolarizes the membrane

9. If nystagmus is a prominent symptom of a cerebellar lesion, the lesion is withinA. The dentate nucleusB. The flocculonodular lobeC. The lateral cerebellumD. The cerebrocerebellar cortexE. The superior cerebellar peduncle

10. Rods are able to detect light at much lower intensities than cones for all of the following reasons EXCEPT …A. The diameter of rods is greaterB. The rods can more easily detect scattered light within the eyeC. The number of rods innervating a single ganglion cell is greaterD. The same light stimulus produces a larger receptor potential in rodsE. The receptor potential adapts more rapidly in rods

Answers: 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B, 5-C, 6-B, 7-A, 8-A, 9-B, 10-E.

Module III.

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Theme: “Investigation of the visual analyzer physiological properties.”Variant 2.

The image distance of a normal relaxed eye is indicated in the diagram:

1. The focal length of the diagram eye isA. 14 mmB. 15 mmC. 17 mmD. 19 mmE. 21 mm

2. If an object is placed 25 cm away from the diagram eye, the image will be focused on the retina if the refractive power of the eye is increased toA. 64 dioptersB. 68 dioptersC. 70 dioptersD. 72 dioptersE. 75 diopters

3. Which one of the optic field defects listed in the following diagram is produced by a pituitary gland tumor?

4. When light strikes the eye, it decreases all of the following EXCEPT the …A. Membrane conductance of rods and conesB. Amount of synaptic transmitter released by rods and conesC. concentration of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) in rods and conesD. Active transport of Na+ by rods and conesE. Concentration of all-trans retinal in rods and cones

5. Which one of the following statements about the optical properties of myoptic eye is correct?A. A converging lens can be used to correct the optical defectB. The image of a distant objects is formed in front of the retinaC. The power of accommodation for near vision is greater than normal

D. The refractive power of the lens is less than normalE. The far point is greater than normal 6. Which of the following refractive problems most closely resembles presbyopia? A. Hyperopia B. MyopiaC. AstigmatismD. CataractE. Diplopia

7. If the refractive power of the unaccommodated eye of an emmetropic woman is 60 diopters (D), the axial length of her eye is closest to …A. 14,5 mmB. 15,5 mmC. 16,5 mmD. 17,5 mmE. 18,5 mm

8. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the role played by transducin during the response of rods and cones to light? A. Transducin reduces membrane conductance by closing Na+ channels B. Transducin stimulates synaptic transmitter release by opening Ca++ channelsC. Transducin initiates the photoreceptor response by converting 11-cis retinal to all-trans retinalD. Transducin enhances the action of rhodopsin by converting vitamin A to 11-cis retinalE. Transducin reduces the concentration of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) by activating a phosphodiesterase enzyme

9. Which one of the following is more descriptive of rods than of cones? A. Not located within the foveaB. Provide information about the color of an objectC. Recover their sensitivity more rapidly after exposure to bright lightD. Responsible for the high visual acuity of the visual systemE. Organized into on-center, off-surround receptor fields

10. After looking through the window for a while, a person began to read a book. Due to the change of the state of a sertain eye structure the refractive power of optical mediums increases. What eye structure is it?A. lensB. CorneaC. Vitreous bodyD. PupilE. Liquid of chambers of the eyeAnswers: 1-A, 2-E, 3-B, 4-E, 5-B, 6-A, 7-C, 8-E, 9-A, 10-A.

Module III.

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Theme: “Investigation of the visual analyzer physiological properties.”Variant 3.

1. What process takes place during shifting one’s look from near to remote things? A. Contraction of the ciliary muscleB. Relaxation of the ciliary muscleC. Relaxation of suspensory ligamentsD. Increase of lens cuvatureE. increase of refractive power of the eye

2. Which of the visual functions is violated most of all when rods are damaged?A. Light adaptationB. Color visionC. Binocular visionD. Central visionE. Peripheral vision

3. If the principal focal distance of a lens is 0,75m, its refractive power is - A. 0,25 diopterB. 0,75 diopterC. 1,0 diopterD. 1,33 diopterE. 10,3 diopters

4. Visual accommodation involves - A. Increased tension on the lens ligamentsB. A decrease in the curvature of the lensC. Relaxation of the sphincter muscle of the irisD. Contraction of the ciliary muscleE. Increased intraocular pressure

5. When a visual stimulus falls on a given point in the retina for a long time - A. The image becomes more clearly focusedB. There is adaptation in the visual cortexC. The discharge rate in the bipolar cells increasesD. The pupils constrictE. The image fades and disappears 6. The fovea of the eye - … A. Has the lowest light threshold

B. Is the region of highest visual acuityC. Contains only red and green conesD. Contains only rodsE. Is situated over the head of the optic nerve

7. The region of the eye with the greatest concentration of rods is the - A. Ciliary body B. IrisC. Optic diskD. FoveaE. Parafoveal region

8. Which of the following affect visual acuity?A. Vitamin A deficiencyB. CataractsC. AstigmatismD. Contrast between stimulus and backgroundE. All above-listed

9. Vitamin A is a precursor for the synthesis of… A. SomatostatinB. Iodopsin and rhodopsinC. The pigment of the irisD. MelatoninE. Acetylcholine

10. The innervation of the eye and its muscles includes A. Somatic efferent fibers to the medial and lateral rectus musclesB. Visceral efferent fibers to the ciliary muscleC. Visceral efferent fibers to the iris muscleD. Visceral efferent fibers from the superior cervical ganglia to the blood vesselsE. All above-listed

Answers: 1-B, 2-E, 3-D, 4-D, 5-E, 6-B, 7-E, 8-E, 9-B, 10-E..

Module III. Theme: “Investigation of the visual analyzer physiological properties.”

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Variant 4.

1. Direct afferent input to the ganglion cells in the retina is from - A. Bipolar and amacrine cellsB. RodsC. ConesD. Horizontal cellsE. Pigment cells

2. The brain areas activated by visual stimuli include - A. The visual cortex (area 17)B. The inferior temporal cortexC. The superior colliculusD. The posterioinferior parietal cortexE. All above-listed

3. After a brain injury a person lost his sight. Damage of what areas of cerebral cortex can cause such a state?A. FrontB. TemporalC. OccipitalD. ParietalE. Temporal and parietal

4. Which of the following functions represents in the occipital cortex? A. Speech productionB. VisionC. Motor function D. Somatic sensationE. Hearing

5. Which one of the following reflex is primary integrated in cerebral cortex?A. Tonic neck reflexesB. Withdrawal reflexesC. Emotional responsesD. Optical righting reflexesE. None are correct 6. Compared to cones, rods can detect light at lower intensities because A. Rods are larger than cones and rods have larger receptive fields than conesB. Rods can increase their sensitivity to light more quickly than conesC. Rods are more concentrated than cones in the foveaD. All are correct

E. None all correct

7. When light strikes a visual receptor cell (a rod or cone), it causes which of the following reactions? A. An increase in thr intracellular cGMP concentrationB. A decrease in the conductance and hyperpolarization of the cellC. Release of an inhibitory neuotransmitter from the cellD. All are correctE. None are correct

8. Which one of the following is characteristic of myopic eyes?A. They are too short for the refractive power of their lensesB. They have a focal plane behind the retinaC. They have a far point that is greater than normalD. They require a diverging lens to correct the optical defectsE. They have a greater than normal power of accommodation

9. Which one of the following condition causes hyperopia? A. A progressive decrease in the power of accomodationB. An optical defect that requires a diverging lens to see distant objects clearlyC. A progressive loss of lens transparencyD. An optical defect that requires continuous accommodation to see distant objects clearlyE. All are correct

10. Which one of the following condition causes myopia? A. A progressive decrease in the power of accomodationB. An optical defect that requires a diverging lens to see distant objects clearlyC. A progressive loss of lens transparencyD. An optical defect that requires continuous accommodation to see distant objects clearlyE. All are correct

Answers: 1-A, 2-E, 3-C, 4-B, 5-D, 6-A, 7-B, 8-B, 9-D, 10-B.

Module III. Theme: “Investigation of the hearing and equilibrium analyzers physiological properties.”

Variant 1.

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1. If the threshold for hearing increases 1000 times, the hearing loss isA. 20 decibelsB. 30 decibelsC. 40 decibelsD. 50 decibelsE. 60 decibels

2. The primary function of the bones of the middle ear is toA. Amplify the sound stimulusB. Filter high-frequency sounds from the sound stimulusC. Enable the direction of a sound stimulus to be detectedD. Enhance the ability to distinguish different sound frequenciesE. Protect the ear from damage

3. Depolarization of the hair cells in the cochlea is caused primarily by the flow ofA. K+ into the hair cellB. Na+ into the hair cellC. Cl- out of the hair cellD. Ca2+ into the hair cellE. Mg2+ into the hair cell

4. A sound stimulus of 20 decibels (dB) isA. 10 times thresholdB. 20 times thresholdC. 50 times thresholdD. 100 times thresholdE. 200 times threshold

5. If a patient is unable to hear high-frequency sounds, the damage to the basilar membrane is closest to theA. Oval windowB. HelicotremaC. Stria vascularisD. ModiolusE. Spiral ganglion 6. Which one of the component of the auditory system performs production of endolymph? A. Stria vascularis

B. Scala media C. Auditory ossiclesD. Oval windowE. Basilar membrane

7. Which one of the component of the auditory system performs amplification of sound stimuli? A. Stria vascularisB. Scala media C. Auditory ossiclesD. Oval windowE. Basilar membrane

8. In an experiment on an animal electric activivty of spiral ganglion neurons is registered. It allows to analyze afferent impulsation from certain receptors. What receptors are these?A. Maculae B. Corti’s organC. Cemicircular canalsD. VestibularE. Vestibular and Corti’s organ

9. In an experiment on an animal the middle part of the internal ear helix on the right is ruined. The violation of perception of what sounds will it result in?A. High-frequency B. Low-frequencyC. Medium-frequencyD. High- and low-frequencyE. Violations will not be present

10. Under the action of an irritant an animal’s neurons activity of the spiral ganglion increased. What irritant was it? A. LightB. SoundC. RotationD. Touch to the skinE. Muscle strain

Answers: 1-E, 2-A, 3-A, 4-A, 5-A, 6-A, 7-C, 8-B, 9-C, 10-B.

Module III. Theme: “Investigation of the hearing and equilibrium analyzers physiological properties.”

Variant 2.

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1. With the help of a tuning fork the perception of sounds of a patient was examined. When the tuning fork was placed near the external ear the patient didn’t hear the sound of the tuning fork by his right ear. When the legs of the tuning fork were placed on a mastoid bone the patient heard a sound. With the affection of what part of the auditory sensory system is it connected? A. Cochlear nerve B. Inferior colliculus tectiC. Internal earD. Middle earE. Medial geniculate body

2. According to the data of audiometry a patient has got the imperception of the sounds of medium frequency. The damage of what organ can be the reason for it?A. Cochlear nucleiB. Middle part of helixC. Spiral ganglionD. Quadrigeminal plateE. Lateral geniculate bodies

3. Sound intensity is measured in - A. DioptersB. DaltonsC. TorrsD. DecibelsE. Pounds

4. The primary auditory cortex is located in the -A. Limbic systemB. Posterior part of the occipital lobeC. Posterior part of the parietal lobeD. Postcentral gyrusE. Superior part of the temporal lobe

5. The basilar membrane of the cochlea - A. is unaffected by movement of fluid in the scala vestibuli B. Covers the oval window and the round windowC. Vibrates in a pattern determined by the form of the traveling wave in the fluids in the cochleaD. Is under tensionE. Vibrates when the body is subjected to linear acceleration

6. Which of the following are incorrectly paired?A. Loudness of sound : amplitude of sound wave

B. Pitch of sound : frequency of sound waveC. timbre (quality) of sound : harmonic vibrationsD. Loudness of sound : frequency of impulses in an auditory nerve fiberE. loudness of sound : point of greatest displacement of the basilar membrane

7. Sound localization - A. Depends in part on the difference between the quality of a sound coming from in front of an individual and of a sound coming from behind the individual B. Depends in part on the more rapid arrival of sound at the ea on the side nearest the soundC. Depends in part on neurons that only respond maximally when impulses reaching them from the 2 ears are separated by a fixed intervalD. Depends in part on the fact that the sound is louder on the side nearest the soundE. All are correct

8. Which of the following are correctly paired? A. Tympanic membrane : manubrium of malleusB. Scala tympani : round windowC. Foot plate of stapes : oval windowD. Helicotrema : apex of cochleaE. All are correct

9. Which of the following functions represents in the superior temporal cortex? A. Speech productionB. VisionC. Motor function D. Somatic sensationE. Hearing

10. Auditory hair cells and taste receptor cells are alike in which of the following ways? A. Both release neurotransmitter when stimulatedB. Both can regenerate when damagedC. Both respond to a stimulus by opening K+ selective channelsD. Both have very high resting membrane potentialsE. All are correct

Answers: 1-D, 2-B, 3-D, 4-E, 5-C, 6-E, 7-E, 8-E, 9-E, 10-A.

Module III. Theme: “Investigation of the hearing and equilibrium analyzers physiological properties.”

Variant 3.1. When a person slowly rotates toward the right,

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A. The stereocilia on the hair cells in the right horizontal semicircular canal bend away from the kinociliumB. Both the left and right eyes deviate toward the leftC. The hair cells in the left horizontal semicircular canal become depolarizedD. The visual image on the retina becomes unfocusedE. The endolymph in the left and right horizontal semicircular canals moves in opposite directions

2. The otolith organs (utricle and saccule) are responsible forA. Producing the vestibular-ocular reflexB. Detecting the position of the head in spaceC. Producing rotary nystagmusD. Detecting angular accelerationE. Producing the stretch reflex

3. Which of the following will occur in a girl who suddenly stops spinning after several seconds of spinning to the left? A. The hair cells in the right semicircular canal will depolarizeB. Her eyes will move slowly to the rightC. When asked to point to a target, the girl will point to the right of the targetD. The cupula in the right semicircular canal will move away from the utricleE. The objects in the visual field will appear to be spinning to the right

4. Nistagmus as a sign of motor disease is most likely connected with injury of this component of the CNS…A. Posterior cerebellumB. Vestibular apparatus C. Cerebral cortexD. Reticular formationE. Basal ganglia

5. Postrotatory nystagmus is caused by- A. Continued movement of perilymph over hair cells that have their processes embedded in the tectorial membraneB. Continued movement of aqueous humor over the ciliary body in the eyeC. Continued movement of cerebrospinal fluid over the parts of the brain stem that contain the vestibular nucleiD. Continued movement of endolymph in the semicircular canals, with consequent bending of the cupula and stimulation of hair cellsE. A disease process affecting the midbrain

6. In the ear, hair cells - A. Are innervated by the olivocochlear bundleB. Are found in the maculas of the saccule and utricleC. Are found in the cristae of the semicircular canals D. All above-listed E. Neither

7. Which of the following contribute to the sense of orientation in space? A. Visual cuesB. Input from touch and pressure receptors on the feetC. Input from receptors in jointsD. All above-listed E. Neither

8. The direction of nystagmus is vertical when a subject is rotated - A. After warm water is put in one earB. With the head tipped backwardC. With the head tipped forwardD. After cold water is put in both earsE. None are correct

9. Which of the following component of the motor control system is affected if a patient has a nystagmus? A. Motor cortexB. Subthalamic nucleusC. Posterior parietal lobeD. Vestibular nucleusE. Sensory cortex

10. The bones of the middle ear primarily responsible for …A. Amplifying the sound waves reaching the earB. Detecting the presence of a sound stimulusC. Locating the source of a soundD. Discriminating among different frequencies of soundE. Adapting to a prolonged monotonous sound

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Module III. Theme: “Investigation of the hearing and equilibrium analyzers physiological properties.”

Variant 4.

1. The variation in auditory threshold as a function of frequency (the minimum audibility curve) is related most to the properties of the… A. Outer earB. Auditory canalC. Middle earD. Tympanic membraneE. Basilar membrane

2. Which one of the following statements about the colon is correct? A. Absorption of Na+ in the colon is under hormonal (aldosteron) control B. Bile acids enhance absorption of water from the colonC. Net absorption of HCO3

- occurs in the colonD. Net absorption of K+ occurs in the colonE. The luminal potential in the colon is positive

3. Vitamins synthesized by intestinal bacteria and absorbed in significant quantities include…A. Vitamin B6

B. Vitamin K C. ThiamineD. RiboflavinE. Folic acid

4. Which of the following sugars is absorbed from the small intestine by facilitated diffusion?A. GlucoseB. GalactoseC. Fructose D. SucroseE. Lactose

5. Bicarbonate absorption from the upper small intestine is closely coupled with…A. Na-glucose absorptionB. Neutral NaCl absorptionC. Na+/H+ exchange D. Electrogenic Na+ absorptionE. Na-vitamin B12 absorption 6. Which one of the following statements best describes water and electrolyte absorption in the gastrointestinal tract? A. Most water and electrolytes derive from the oral intake of fluids

B. The small and large intestines have similar absorptive capacitiesC. Net secretion of K+ occurs from the ileumD. Osmotic equilibration of chime occurs in the duodenumE. Cholera toxin inhibits sodium-coupled nutrient transport

7. Short-chain fatty acid absorbtion occurs almost exclusively from the … A. StomachB. Duodenum C. Jejunum D. IleumE. Colon

8. Which one of the following statements about medium-chain fatty acids is correct?A. They are more water-soluble than long-chain fatty acidsB. Within the enterocyte, they are used for triglyceride resynthesis C. They are packaged into chylomicronsD. They are transported in the lymphE. They require emulsification prior to enterocyte uptake

9. The transport protein responsible for entry of glucose into the intestinal enterocyte is called … A. Glut-2 B. Glut-5C. SGLT 1D. SGLT 2E. SGLT 5

10. Micelle formation is necessary for absorbtion of …A. Bile salts B. IronC. CholesterolD. AlcoholE. B vitamins

Answers: 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-C, 5-C, 6-D, 7-E, 8-A, 9-C, 10-C.

Module III.

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Theme: “Highest nervous activity (HNA). Physiological basis of the behaviour.”Variant 1.

1. It is necessary for a researcher to develop a conditioned reflex of a dog as soon as possible. On the basis of what unconditioned reflex is it possible to develop a conditioned one?A. OrientativeB. FoodC. SexualD. DefenseE. Myotatic

2. Rage behaviour can be - A. Produced by stimulation of the midbrainB. Produced by stimulation of the amygdaloid nucleiC. Increased by administration of male hormonesD. Produced by stimulation of the hypothalamusE. All above-listed

3. The following would be expected to reduce maternal behavior - A. Lesions of the cingulated cortex, hypophysectomyB. Lesions of the mediobasal hypothalamusC. Lesions of the amygdaloid nucleiD. OvariectomyE. None are correct

4. Which of the following are part of the limbic system?A. The red nucleiB. The amygdaloid nuclei and the cingulated cortexC. The posterior commisureD. The superior temporal gyrusE. None are correct

5. The functions of the limbic system include -A. OlfactionB. expression of rage and fearC. Regulation of sexual behaviorD. All above-listedE. None are correct 6. Cholinergic neurons are found in the brain in - A. The basal gangliaB. The neocortexC. The spinal cordD. The hypothalamusE. All above-listed

7. L-Dopa is of benefit in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease because it increases the dopamine content of the tubero-infundibular dopaminergic neurons.A. Both the statement and the explanation are true and they are relatedB. Both the statement and the explanation are true but they are unrelatedC. the statement is true but the explanation is falseD. The statement is false but the explanation is trueE. The statement is false but the explanation is true

8. The Klüver-Bucy syndrome is characterized by decreased emotional expression, loss of fear, excessive oral behavior, and increase in sexual activity. These characteristics of the Klüver-Bucy syndrome are produced by bilateral lesions of theA. HippocampusB. AmygdalaC. Ventral hypothalamusD. Corpus callosumE. Cingulate gyrus

9. A loud sound during a conditional reflex activity caused its inhibition. What kind of inhibition is it? A. ExternalB. DifferentialC. Being lateD. Beyond maximumE. Extinction

10. During a long drought a river drought a river dried up. For some time animals continued to come to the place of watering, but then stopped coming. What kind of inhibition of conditioned reflexes caused the change in animals’ behaviour?A. ExternalB. DifferentialC. Being lateD. Beyond maximumE. Extinction

Answers: 1-D, 2-E, 3-A, 4-B, 5-D, 6-E, 7-B, 8-B, 9-A, 10-E.

Module III. Theme: “Highest nervous activity (HNA). Physiological basis of the behaviour.”

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Variant 2.1. Women with a congenital adrenocortical enzyme defect that causes large amounts of androgens to be secreted have somewhat more masculine behaviour than normal women because the androgens act on the brain during fetal development. A. Both the statement and the explanation are true and they are relatedB. Both the statement and the explanation are true but they are unrelatedC. the statement is true but the explanation is falseD. The statement is false but the explanation is trueE. The statement is false but the explanation is true

2. The antipsychotic activity of the major tranquilizers parallels their ability to block serotonin receptors because the serotonergic neural systems in the brain are concerned among other things with normal mental function. A. Both the statement and the explanation are true and they are relatedB. Both the statement and the explanation are true but they are unrelatedC. the statement is true but the explanation is falseD. The statement is false but the explanation is trueE. The statement is false but the explanation is true

3. “Sham rage” is sometimes seen in patients after encephalitis or brain surgery because these conditions can damage pathways from the neocortex to the limbic system.A. Both the statement and the explanation are true and they are relatedB. Both the statement and the explanation are true but they are unrelatedC. the statement is true but the explanation is falseD. The statement is false but the explanation is trueE. The statement is false but the explanation is true

4. Which one of the following responses is primary integrated in hypothalamus and limbic system?A. Tonic neck reflexesB. Withdrawal reflexesC. Emotional responsesD. Optical righting reflexesE. None are correct

5. Which of the following are characteristic of conditioned reflex?A. Failure to form conditioned reflexes when the conditioned and unconditioned stimulus are separated by more than 2 minutesB. Disappearance of the conditioned reflex if it is not reinforced from time to time

C. Rapid formation of conditioned reflexes when the conditioned stimulus is pleasant for the animalC. All above-listedD. None are correct

6. Discriminative conditioning can be used to - A. Obliterate undesirable conditioned reflexesB. Determine thresholds for sensory discrimination, produce the experimental neurosisC. Study the mechanism of focused attentionD. Produce relaxation and lowering of blood pressureE. None are correct

7. Choose the substance that is most important for cholesterol absorption from the intestine…A. Intrinsic factor B. FerritinC. Bile saltsD. Vitamin DE. Trypsin

8. Which one of the following statements about the process of vitamin B12 absorption is correct? A. In humans, intrinsic factor is secreted from chief of the gastric glandB. Vitamin B12 binds preferentially to intrinsic factor in the stomachC. In adults, vitamin B12 absorption occurs along the length of the small intestineD. Absorption may be reduced in a patient with pancreatic insufficiencyE. Absorption occurs via passive diffusion into the enterocyte

9. As compared to long-chain fatty acids, medium-chain fatty acids… A. Are also packaged as chylomicronsB. Can be used as a source of calories in patients with malabsorptive diseaseC. Are less water-solubleD. Are also returned to the circulation via the lymphE. Are more abundant in the diet

10. In contrast to secretory diarrhea, osmotic diarrheaA. Is characterized by an increase in stool osmolarityB. Is the result of increased crypt cell secretionC. Is the result of decreased electroneutral sodium absorptionD. Is caused by bacterial toxinsE. Occurs only in the colonAnswers: 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C, 5-C, 6-B, 7-C, 8-D, 9-B, 10-A.

Module III. Theme: “Highest nervous activity (HNA). Physiological basis of the behaviour.”

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Variant 3.

1. Glucose absorption is increased to the greatest degree by – A. Injection of insulin B. Drinking isotonic salineC. Drinking a solution containing fructoseD. Injection of glucagonE. Drugs that inhibit Na+-K+ ATPase

2. In which of the following is the absorbtion of water greatest?A. EsophagusB. StomachC. DuodenumD. JejunumE. Colon

3. Drugs and toxins that increase the cyclic AMP content of the intestinal mucosa cause diarrhea because they…A. Increase peristalsis in the small intestine B. Increase peristalsis in the colonC. Inhibit K+ absorption in the crypts of LieberkiihnD. Increase secretion of Cl- into the intestinal lumenE. Increase absorption of Na+ in the small intestine

4. The following processes are involved in the absorption of the products of digestion from the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract to the blood…A. Facilitated diffusionB. Secondary active transportC. DiffusionD. Active transportE. All of them

5. Ca++ absorption is increased by …A. Oxalates in the dietB. 1,25-dihydroxycholecaciferol and hypocalcemiaC. HypokalemiaD. HypercalcemiaE. Neither 6. Vitamin B12 is absorbed primarily in the … A. Stomach

B. Duodenum C. JejunumD. IleumE. Colon

7. Which one of the following statements best describes water and electrolyte absorption in the GI tract? A. Most water and electrolytes come from ingested fluids B. The small intestine and colon have similar absorptive capacitiesC. Osmotic equilibration of chyme occurs in the stomachD. The majority of absorption occurs in the jejunumE. Water absorption is independent of Na+ absorption

8. Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis can occur with excess fluid loss from the…A. StomachB. Ileum C. Colon D. Pancreas E. Liver

9. The major mechanism for absorption of Na+ from the small intestine is… A. Na+-H+ exchange B. Cotransport with K+

C. Electrogenic transportD. Neutral NaCl absorptionE. Solvent drag

10. Dietary fat, after being processed, is extruded from the mucosal cells of the gastrointestinal tract into the lymphatic ducts in the form of …A. MonoglyceridesB. Diglycerides C. Triglycerides D. Chylomicrons E. Free fatty acids

Answers: 1-B, 2-D, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B, 6-D, 7-D, 8-C, 9-D, 10-D.

Module III. Theme: “Highest nervous activity (HNA). Physiological basis of the behaviour.”

Variant 4.

Page 61: Tests MOD3

1. An aphasia is most likely to be associated with a lesion ofa. The hippocampusb. The temporal lobec. The parietal lobed. The limbic systeme. The reticular activating system

2. Which one of the following statements about the colon is correct? A. Absorption of Na+ in the colon is under hormonal (aldosteron) control B. Bile acids enhance absorption of water from the colonC. Net absorption of HCO3

- occurs in the colonD. Net absorption of K+ occurs in the colonE. The luminal potential in the colon is positive

3. Vitamins synthesized by intestinal bacteria and absorbed in significant quantities include…A. Vitamin B6

B. Vitamin K C. ThiamineD. RiboflavinE. Folic acid

4. Which of the following sugars is absorbed from the small intestine by facilitated diffusion?A. GlucoseB. GalactoseC. Fructose D. SucroseE. Lactose

5. Bicarbonate absorption from the upper small intestine is closely coupled with…A. Na-glucose absorptionB. Neutral NaCl absorptionC. Na+/H+ exchange D. Electrogenic Na+ absorptionE. Na-vitamin B12 absorption 6. Which one of the following statements best describes water and electrolyte absorption in the gastrointestinal tract? A. Most water and electrolytes derive from the oral intake of fluids

B. The small and large intestines have similar absorptive capacitiesC. Net secretion of K+ occurs from the ileumD. Osmotic equilibration of chime occurs in the duodenumE. Cholera toxin inhibits sodium-coupled nutrient transport

7. Short-chain fatty acid absorbtion occurs almost exclusively from the … A. StomachB. Duodenum C. Jejunum D. IleumE. Colon

8. Which one of the following statements about medium-chain fatty acids is correct?A. They are more water-soluble than long-chain fatty acidsB. Within the enterocyte, they are used for triglyceride resynthesis C. They are packaged into chylomicronsD. They are transported in the lymphE. They require emulsification prior to enterocyte uptake

9. The transport protein responsible for entry of glucose into the intestinal enterocyte is called … A. Glut-2 B. Glut-5C. SGLT 1D. SGLT 2E. SGLT 5

10. Micelle formation is necessary for absorbtion of …A. Bile salts B. IronC. CholesterolD. AlcoholE. B vitamins

Answers: 1-B, 2-A, 3-E, 4-C, 5-C, 6-D, 7-E, 8-A, 9-C, 10-C.

Module III. Theme: “Types of the human highest nervous activity (HNA).”

Variant 1.

Page 62: Tests MOD3

1. During an examination it was determined that a patient had a strong balanced inert type of higher nervous activity according to Pavlov. What temperament according to Hippocrate does this type correspond to? A. Melancholic B. SanguineC. CholericD. PhlegmaticE. Hysterical

2. Physiological research determined: a person has a good ability to adapt quickly to a new situational, good memory, emotional stability, high capacity for work. What type of temperament do these signs belong to?A. SanguineB. CholericC. MelancholicD. PhlegmaticE. Phlegmatic with the elements of melancholic

3. An aphasia is most likely to be associated with a lesion ofA. The hippocampusB. The temporal lobeC. The parietal lobeD. The limbic systemE. The reticular activating system

4. During an examination of a sick old man a motor aphasia was detected. Where is the area of cerebral affection?A. In the precentral gyrus B. In the Herschl’s gyrusC. In the angular gyrusD. In the postcentral gyrusE. On the Broca’s center

5. During an examination of a sick old man a sensory aphasia was detected. What area of cerebral cortex is damaged?A. Wernicke’s centreB. Postcentral gyrusC. Angular gyrusD. Broca’s centreE. precentral gyrus 6. Which of the following functions represents in the cortical Broca’s area? A. Speech productionB. Vision

C. Motor function D. Somatic sensationE. Hearing

7. A lesion of Wernicke’s area (the posterior end of the superior temporal gyrus) in the categorical hemisphere causes patients to -A. Speak in a slow, halting voiceB. Be unable to comprehend written words and talk rapidly but make a little senseC. Have the déjà vu phenomenonD. Lose short-term memoryE. All above-listed

8. In a right-handed individual, the right cerebral hemisphere is better than the left at- A. language functionsB. Recognition of objects, identification of musical themesC. understanding printed wordsD. control of voluntary motor functionE. None are correct

9. Which of the following are incorrectly paired? A. Lesion of the inferior parietal lobule of the representational hemisphere : unilateral inattention and neglectB. Loss of cholinergic neurons in the nucleus basalis of Meynert and related areas of the forebrain : loss of recent memoryC. Lesions of mamillary bodies : loss of recent memoryD. Lesion of the angular gyrus in the categorical hemisphere : nonfluent aphasiaE. Lesion of Broca’s area in the categorical hemisphere : automatic words

10. The representational hemisphere is - A. The right cerebral hemisphere in most right-handed individualsB. The left cerebral hemisphere in most left-handled individualsC. The part of the brain concerned with language functionsD. the site of lesions in most patients with aphasiaE. Morphologically identical to the opposite nonrepresentational hemisphere

Answers: 1-A, 2-A, 3-B, 4-E, 5-A, 6-A, 7-B, 8-B, 9-D, 10-B.

Module III. Theme: “Types of the human highest nervous activity (HNA).”

Variant 2.

Page 63: Tests MOD3

1. The macrolid antibiotic erythromycin is associated with gastrointestinal disturbance related to increased motility. The antibiotic works by binding to receptors on nerves and smooth muscle that recognize the gastrointestinal hormone … A. Gastrin B. MotilinC. SecretinD. CholecystokininE. Enteroglucagon

2. The motitlity pattern primarily responsible for the propulsion of chime along the small intestine is …A. The migrating motor complex (MMC) B. Peristaltic wavesC. Myogenic wavesD. HaustrationsE. Segmentation

3. After taking 100ml of 25% concentrated solution of magnesium sulphate there will be a lot of fluid excrements. Why?A. Because the work of the bowels is inhibited B. Because the secretion of gastric juice is stimulatedC. Because osmolarity is increased in the bowelsD. Because the secretion of hormones of the duodenum is stimulatedE. Because osmolarity decreases

4. Na+- dependent transport is responsible for the absorption of all of the following EXCEPT…A. Vitamin E B. Amino acidsC. GlucoseD. Bile saltsE. Dipeptides

5. Choose the substance that is most important for iron absorption from the intestine…A. Intrinsic factor B. FerritinC. Bile saltsD. Vitamin DE. Trypsin 6. Choose the substance that is most important for Ca++ absorption from the intestine…

A. Intrinsic factor B. FerritinC. Bile saltsD. Vitamin DE. Trypsin

7. Choose the substance that is most important for cholesterol absorption from the intestine…A. Intrinsic factor B. FerritinC. Bile saltsD. Vitamin DE. Trypsin

8. Which one of the following statements about the process of vitamin B12 absorption is correct? A. In humans, intrinsic factor is secreted from chief of the gastric glandB. Vitamin B12 binds preferentially to intrinsic factor in the stomachC. In adults, vitamin B12 absorption occurs along the length of the small intestineD. Absorption may be reduced in a patient with pancreatic insufficiencyE. Absorption occurs via passive diffusion into the enterocyte

9. As compared to long-chain fatty acids, medium-chain fatty acids… A. Are also packaged as chylomicronsB. Can be used as a source of calories in patients with malabsorptive diseaseC. Are less water-solubleD. Are also returned to the circulation via the lymphE. Are more abundant in the diet

10. In contrast to secretory diarrhea, osmotic diarrheaA. Is characterized by an increase in stool osmolarityB. Is the result of increased crypt cell secretionC. Is the result of decreased electroneutral sodium absorptionD. Is caused by bacterial toxinsE. Occurs only in the colon

Answers: 1-B, 2-E, 3-C, 4-A, 5-B, 6-D, 7-C, 8-D, 9-B, 10-A.

Module III. Theme: “Types of the human highest nervous activity (HNA).”

Variant 3.

Page 64: Tests MOD3

1. Glucose absorption is increased to the greatest degree by – A. Injection of insulin B. Drinking isotonic salineC. Drinking a solution containing fructoseD. Injection of glucagonE. Drugs that inhibit Na+-K+ ATPase

2. In which of the following is the absorbtion of water greatest?A. EsophagusB. StomachC. DuodenumD. JejunumE. Colon

3. Drugs and toxins that increase the cyclic AMP content of the intestinal mucosa cause diarrhea because they…A. Increase peristalsis in the small intestine B. Increase peristalsis in the colonC. Inhibit K+ absorption in the crypts of LieberkiihnD. Increase secretion of Cl- into the intestinal lumenE. Increase absorption of Na+ in the small intestine

4. The following processes are involved in the absorption of the products of digestion from the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract to the blood…A. Facilitated diffusionB. Secondary active transportC. DiffusionD. Active transportE. All of them

5. Ca++ absorption is increased by …A. Oxalates in the dietB. 1,25-dihydroxycholecaciferol and hypocalcemiaC. HypokalemiaD. HypercalcemiaE. Neither 6. Vitamin B12 is absorbed primarily in the … A. Stomach

B. Duodenum C. JejunumD. IleumE. Colon

7. Which one of the following statements best describes water and electrolyte absorption in the GI tract? A. Most water and electrolytes come from ingested fluids B. The small intestine and colon have similar absorptive capacitiesC. Osmotic equilibration of chyme occurs in the stomachD. The majority of absorption occurs in the jejunumE. Water absorption is independent of Na+ absorption

8. Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis can occur with excess fluid loss from the…A. StomachB. Ileum C. Colon D. Pancreas E. Liver

9. The major mechanism for absorption of Na+ from the small intestine is… A. Na+-H+ exchange B. Cotransport with K+

C. Electrogenic transportD. Neutral NaCl absorptionE. Solvent drag

10. Dietary fat, after being processed, is extruded from the mucosal cells of the gastrointestinal tract into the lymphatic ducts in the form of …A. MonoglyceridesB. Diglycerides C. Triglycerides D. Chylomicrons E. Free fatty acids

Answers: 1-B, 2-D, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B, 6-D, 7-D, 8-C, 9-D, 10-D.

Module III. Theme: “Types of the human highest nervous activity (HNA).”

Variant 4.

Page 65: Tests MOD3

1. Gas within the colon is primarily derived from which one of the following sources? A. CO2 liberated by the interaction of HCO3

- and H+

B. Diffusion from the bloodC. Fermentation of undigested oligosaccharides by bacteriaD. Swallowed atmospheric air E. Air pockets within foodstuffs

2. Which one of the following statements about the colon is correct? A. Absorption of Na+ in the colon is under hormonal (aldosteron) control B. Bile acids enhance absorption of water from the colonC. Net absorption of HCO3

- occurs in the colonD. Net absorption of K+ occurs in the colonE. The luminal potential in the colon is positive

3. Vitamins synthesized by intestinal bacteria and absorbed in significant quantities include…A. Vitamin B6

B. Vitamin K C. ThiamineD. RiboflavinE. Folic acid

4. Which of the following sugars is absorbed from the small intestine by facilitated diffusion?A. GlucoseB. GalactoseC. Fructose D. SucroseE. Lactose

5. Bicarbonate absorption from the upper small intestine is closely coupled with…A. Na-glucose absorptionB. Neutral NaCl absorptionC. Na+/H+ exchange D. Electrogenic Na+ absorptionE. Na-vitamin B12 absorption 6. Which one of the following statements best describes water and electrolyte absorption in the gastrointestinal tract?

A. Most water and electrolytes derive from the oral intake of fluidsB. The small and large intestines have similar absorptive capacitiesC. Net secretion of K+ occurs from the ileumD. Osmotic equilibration of chime occurs in the duodenumE. Cholera toxin inhibits sodium-coupled nutrient transport

7. Short-chain fatty acid absorbtion occurs almost exclusively from the … A. StomachB. Duodenum C. Jejunum D. IleumE. Colon

8. Which one of the following statements about medium-chain fatty acids is correct?A. They are more water-soluble than long-chain fatty acidsB. Within the enterocyte, they are used for triglyceride resynthesis C. They are packaged into chylomicronsD. They are transported in the lymphE. They require emulsification prior to enterocyte uptake

9. The transport protein responsible for entry of glucose into the intestinal enterocyte is called … A. Glut-2 B. Glut-5C. SGLT 1D. SGLT 2E. SGLT 5

10. Micelle formation is necessary for absorbtion of …A. Bile salts B. IronC. CholesterolD. AlcoholE. B vitamins

Answers: 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-C, 5-C, 6-D, 7-E, 8-A, 9-C, 10-C.

Module III. Theme: “Memory mechanisms. Physiological role of peptides in memory regulation”.

Variant 1.

Page 66: Tests MOD3

1. A disturbance of the long-term memory mechanisms is most likely to be associated with a lesion ofA. The hippocampusB. The temporal lobeC. The parietal lobeD. The limbic systemE. The reticular activating system

2. Physiological research determined: a person has a good ability to adapt quickly to a new situational, good memory, emotional stability, high capacity for work. What type of temperament do these signs belong to?A. SanguineB. CholericC. MelancholicD. PhlegmaticE. Phlegmatic with the elements of melancholic

3. An aphasia is most likely to be associated with a lesion ofa. The hippocampusb. The temporal lobec. The parietal lobed. The limbic systeme. The reticular activating system

4. During an examination of a sick old man a motor aphasia was detected. Where is the area of cerebral affection?A. In the precentral gyrus B. In the Herschl’s gyrusC. In the angular gyrusD. In the postcentral gyrusE. On the Broca’s center

5. During an examination of a sick old man a sensory aphasia was detected. What area of cerebral cortex is damaged?A. Wernicke’s centreB. Postcentral gyrusC. Angular gyrusD. Broca’s centreE. precentral gyrus 6. Which of the following functions represents in the cortical Broca’s area? A. Speech productionB. VisionC. Motor function D. Somatic sensation

E. Hearing

7. A lesion of Wernicke’s area (the posterior end of the superior temporal gyrus) in the categorical hemisphere causes patients to -A. Speak in a slow, halting voiceB. Be unable to comprehend written words and talk rapidly but make a little senseC. Have the déjà vu phenomenonD. Lose short-term memoryE. All above-listed

8. In a right-handed individual, the right cerebral hemisphere is better than the left at- A. language functionsB. Recognition of objects, identification of musical themesC. understanding printed wordsD. control of voluntary motor functionE. None are correct

9. Which of the following are incorrectly paired? A. Lesion of the inferior parietal lobule of the representational hemisphere : unilateral inattention and neglectB. Loss of cholinergic neurons in the nucleus basalis of Meynert and related areas of the forebrain : loss of recent memoryC. Lesions of mamillary bodies : loss of recent memoryD. Lesion of the angular gyrus in the categorical hemisphere : nonfluent aphasiaE. Lesion of Broca’s area in the categorical hemisphere : automatic words

10. The representational hemisphere is - A. The right cerebral hemisphere in most right-handed individualsB. The left cerebral hemisphere in most left-handled individualsC. The part of the brain concerned with language functionsD. the site of lesions in most patients with aphasiaE. Morphologically identical to the opposite nonrepresentational hemisphere

Answers: 1-A, 2-A, 3-B, 4-E, 5-A, 6-A, 7-B, 8-B, 9-D, 10-B.

Module III. Theme: “Memory mechanisms. Physiological role of peptides in memory regulation”.

Variant 2.

Page 67: Tests MOD3

1. The macrolid antibiotic erythromycin is associated with gastrointestinal disturbance related to increased motility. The antibiotic works by binding to receptors on nerves and smooth muscle that recognize the gastrointestinal hormone … A. Gastrin B. MotilinC. SecretinD. CholecystokininE. Enteroglucagon

2. The motitlity pattern primarily responsible for the propulsion of chime along the small intestine is …A. The migrating motor complex (MMC) B. Peristaltic wavesC. Myogenic wavesD. HaustrationsE. Segmentation

3. After taking 100ml of 25% concentrated solution of magnesium sulphate there will be a lot of fluid excrements. Why?A. Because the work of the bowels is inhibited B. Because the secretion of gastric juice is stimulatedC. Because osmolarity is increased in the bowelsD. Because the secretion of hormones of the duodenum is stimulatedE. Because osmolarity decreases

4. Na+- dependent transport is responsible for the absorption of all of the following EXCEPT…A. Vitamin E B. Amino acidsC. GlucoseD. Bile saltsE. Dipeptides

5. Choose the substance that is most important for iron absorption from the intestine…A. Intrinsic factor B. FerritinC. Bile saltsD. Vitamin DE. Trypsin 6. Choose the substance that is most important for Ca++ absorption from the intestine…

A. Intrinsic factor B. FerritinC. Bile saltsD. Vitamin DE. Trypsin

7. Choose the substance that is most important for cholesterol absorption from the intestine…A. Intrinsic factor B. FerritinC. Bile saltsD. Vitamin DE. Trypsin

8. Which one of the following statements about the process of vitamin B12 absorption is correct? A. In humans, intrinsic factor is secreted from chief of the gastric glandB. Vitamin B12 binds preferentially to intrinsic factor in the stomachC. In adults, vitamin B12 absorption occurs along the length of the small intestineD. Absorption may be reduced in a patient with pancreatic insufficiencyE. Absorption occurs via passive diffusion into the enterocyte

9. As compared to long-chain fatty acids, medium-chain fatty acids… A. Are also packaged as chylomicronsB. Can be used as a source of calories in patients with malabsorptive diseaseC. Are less water-solubleD. Are also returned to the circulation via the lymphE. Are more abundant in the diet

10. In contrast to secretory diarrhea, osmotic diarrheaA. Is characterized by an increase in stool osmolarityB. Is the result of increased crypt cell secretionC. Is the result of decreased electroneutral sodium absorptionD. Is caused by bacterial toxinsE. Occurs only in the colon

Answers: 1-B, 2-E, 3-C, 4-A, 5-B, 6-D, 7-C, 8-D, 9-B, 10-A.

Module III. Theme: “Memory mechanisms. Physiological role of peptides in memory regulation”.

Variant 3.

Page 68: Tests MOD3

1. Glucose absorption is increased to the greatest degree by – A. Injection of insulin B. Drinking isotonic salineC. Drinking a solution containing fructoseD. Injection of glucagonE. Drugs that inhibit Na+-K+ ATPase

2. In which of the following is the absorbtion of water greatest?A. EsophagusB. StomachC. DuodenumD. JejunumE. Colon

3. Drugs and toxins that increase the cyclic AMP content of the intestinal mucosa cause diarrhea because they…A. Increase peristalsis in the small intestine B. Increase peristalsis in the colonC. Inhibit K+ absorption in the crypts of LieberkiihnD. Increase secretion of Cl- into the intestinal lumenE. Increase absorption of Na+ in the small intestine

4. The following processes are involved in the absorption of the products of digestion from the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract to the blood…A. Facilitated diffusionB. Secondary active transportC. DiffusionD. Active transportE. All of them

5. Ca++ absorption is increased by …A. Oxalates in the dietB. 1,25-dihydroxycholecaciferol and hypocalcemiaC. HypokalemiaD. HypercalcemiaE. Neither 6. Vitamin B12 is absorbed primarily in the … A. Stomach

B. Duodenum C. JejunumD. IleumE. Colon

7. Which one of the following statements best describes water and electrolyte absorption in the GI tract? A. Most water and electrolytes come from ingested fluids B. The small intestine and colon have similar absorptive capacitiesC. Osmotic equilibration of chyme occurs in the stomachD. The majority of absorption occurs in the jejunumE. Water absorption is independent of Na+ absorption

8. Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis can occur with excess fluid loss from the…A. StomachB. Ileum C. Colon D. Pancreas E. Liver

9. The major mechanism for absorption of Na+ from the small intestine is… A. Na+-H+ exchange B. Cotransport with K+

C. Electrogenic transportD. Neutral NaCl absorptionE. Solvent drag

10. Dietary fat, after being processed, is extruded from the mucosal cells of the gastrointestinal tract into the lymphatic ducts in the form of …A. MonoglyceridesB. Diglycerides C. Triglycerides D. Chylomicrons E. Free fatty acids

Answers: 1-B, 2-D, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B, 6-D, 7-D, 8-C, 9-D, 10-D.

Module III. Theme: “Memory mechanisms. Physiological role of peptides in memory regulation”.

Variant 4.

Page 69: Tests MOD3

1. Gas within the colon is primarily derived from which one of the following sources? A. CO2 liberated by the interaction of HCO3

- and H+

B. Diffusion from the bloodC. Fermentation of undigested oligosaccharides by bacteriaD. Swallowed atmospheric air E. Air pockets within foodstuffs

2. Which one of the following statements about the colon is correct? A. Absorption of Na+ in the colon is under hormonal (aldosteron) control B. Bile acids enhance absorption of water from the colonC. Net absorption of HCO3

- occurs in the colonD. Net absorption of K+ occurs in the colonE. The luminal potential in the colon is positive

3. Vitamins synthesized by intestinal bacteria and absorbed in significant quantities include…A. Vitamin B6

B. Vitamin K C. ThiamineD. RiboflavinE. Folic acid

4. Which of the following sugars is absorbed from the small intestine by facilitated diffusion?A. GlucoseB. GalactoseC. Fructose D. SucroseE. Lactose

5. Bicarbonate absorption from the upper small intestine is closely coupled with…A. Na-glucose absorptionB. Neutral NaCl absorptionC. Na+/H+ exchange D. Electrogenic Na+ absorptionE. Na-vitamin B12 absorption 6. Which one of the following statements best describes water and electrolyte absorption in the gastrointestinal tract?

A. Most water and electrolytes derive from the oral intake of fluidsB. The small and large intestines have similar absorptive capacitiesC. Net secretion of K+ occurs from the ileumD. Osmotic equilibration of chime occurs in the duodenumE. Cholera toxin inhibits sodium-coupled nutrient transport

7. Short-chain fatty acid absorbtion occurs almost exclusively from the … A. StomachB. Duodenum C. Jejunum D. IleumE. Colon

8. Which one of the following statements about medium-chain fatty acids is correct?A. They are more water-soluble than long-chain fatty acidsB. Within the enterocyte, they are used for triglyceride resynthesis C. They are packaged into chylomicronsD. They are transported in the lymphE. They require emulsification prior to enterocyte uptake

9. The transport protein responsible for entry of glucose into the intestinal enterocyte is called … A. Glut-2 B. Glut-5C. SGLT 1D. SGLT 2E. SGLT 5

10. Micelle formation is necessary for absorbtion of …A. Bile salts B. IronC. CholesterolD. AlcoholE. B vitamins

Answers: 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-C, 5-C, 6-D, 7-E, 8-A, 9-C, 10-C.

Module III. Theme: “Working activity and it’s regimes. Adaptation to physical activity”.

Variant 1.1. During an examination it was determined that a patient had a strong balanced inert type of

higher nervous activity according to Pavlov.

Page 70: Tests MOD3

What temperament according to Hippocrate does this type correspond to? A. Melancholic B. SanguineC. CholericD. PhlegmaticE. Hysterical

2. Physiological research determined: a person has a good ability to adapt quickly to a new situational, good memory, emotional stability, high capacity for work. What type of temperament do these signs belong to?A. SanguineB. CholericC. MelancholicD. PhlegmaticE. Phlegmatic with the elements of melancholic

3. An aphasia is most likely to be associated with a lesion ofa. The hippocampusb. The temporal lobec. The parietal lobed. The limbic systeme. The reticular activating system

4. During an examination of a sick old man a motor aphasia was detected. Where is the area of cerebral affection?A. In the precentral gyrus B. In the Herschl’s gyrusC. In the angular gyrusD. In the postcentral gyrusE. On the Broca’s center

5. During an examination of a sick old man a sensory aphasia was detected. What area of cerebral cortex is damaged?A. Wernicke’s centreB. Postcentral gyrusC. Angular gyrusD. Broca’s centreE. precentral gyrus 6. Which of the following functions represents in the cortical Broca’s area? A. Speech productionB. VisionC. Motor function

D. Somatic sensationE. Hearing

7. A lesion of Wernicke’s area (the posterior end of the superior temporal gyrus) in the categorical hemisphere causes patients to -A. Speak in a slow, halting voiceB. Be unable to comprehend written words and talk rapidly but make a little senseC. Have the déjà vu phenomenonD. Lose short-term memoryE. All above-listed

8. In a right-handed individual, the right cerebral hemisphere is better than the left at- A. language functionsB. Recognition of objects, identification of musical themesC. understanding printed wordsD. control of voluntary motor functionE. None are correct

9. Which of the following are incorrectly paired? A. Lesion of the inferior parietal lobule of the representational hemisphere : unilateral inattention and neglectB. Loss of cholinergic neurons in the nucleus basalis of Meynert and related areas of the forebrain : loss of recent memoryC. Lesions of mamillary bodies : loss of recent memoryD. Lesion of the angular gyrus in the categorical hemisphere : nonfluent aphasiaE. Lesion of Broca’s area in the categorical hemisphere : automatic words

10. The representational hemisphere is - A. The right cerebral hemisphere in most right-handed individualsB. The left cerebral hemisphere in most left-handled individualsC. The part of the brain concerned with language functionsD. the site of lesions in most patients with aphasiaE. Morphologically identical to the opposite nonrepresentational hemisphere

Answers: 1-A, 2-A, 3-B, 4-E, 5-A, 6-A, 7-B, 8-B, 9-D, 10-B.

Module III. Theme: “Working activity and it’s regimes. Adaptation to physical activity”.

Variant 2.

Page 71: Tests MOD3

1. The macrolid antibiotic erythromycin is associated with gastrointestinal disturbance related to increased motility. The antibiotic works by binding to receptors on nerves and smooth muscle that recognize the gastrointestinal hormone … A. Gastrin B. MotilinC. SecretinD. CholecystokininE. Enteroglucagon

2. The motitlity pattern primarily responsible for the propulsion of chime along the small intestine is …A. The migrating motor complex (MMC) B. Peristaltic wavesC. Myogenic wavesD. HaustrationsE. Segmentation

3. After taking 100ml of 25% concentrated solution of magnesium sulphate there will be a lot of fluid excrements. Why?A. Because the work of the bowels is inhibited B. Because the secretion of gastric juice is stimulatedC. Because osmolarity is increased in the bowelsD. Because the secretion of hormones of the duodenum is stimulatedE. Because osmolarity decreases

4. Na+- dependent transport is responsible for the absorption of all of the following EXCEPT…A. Vitamin E B. Amino acidsC. GlucoseD. Bile saltsE. Dipeptides

5. Choose the substance that is most important for iron absorption from the intestine…A. Intrinsic factor B. FerritinC. Bile saltsD. Vitamin DE. Trypsin 6. Choose the substance that is most important for Ca++ absorption from the intestine…

A. Intrinsic factor B. FerritinC. Bile saltsD. Vitamin DE. Trypsin

7. Choose the substance that is most important for cholesterol absorption from the intestine…A. Intrinsic factor B. FerritinC. Bile saltsD. Vitamin DE. Trypsin

8. Which one of the following statements about the process of vitamin B12 absorption is correct? A. In humans, intrinsic factor is secreted from chief of the gastric glandB. Vitamin B12 binds preferentially to intrinsic factor in the stomachC. In adults, vitamin B12 absorption occurs along the length of the small intestineD. Absorption may be reduced in a patient with pancreatic insufficiencyE. Absorption occurs via passive diffusion into the enterocyte

9. As compared to long-chain fatty acids, medium-chain fatty acids… A. Are also packaged as chylomicronsB. Can be used as a source of calories in patients with malabsorptive diseaseC. Are less water-solubleD. Are also returned to the circulation via the lymphE. Are more abundant in the diet

10. In contrast to secretory diarrhea, osmotic diarrheaA. Is characterized by an increase in stool osmolarityB. Is the result of increased crypt cell secretionC. Is the result of decreased electroneutral sodium absorptionD. Is caused by bacterial toxinsE. Occurs only in the colon

Answers: 1-B, 2-E, 3-C, 4-A, 5-B, 6-D, 7-C, 8-D, 9-B, 10-A.

Module III. Theme: “Working activity and it’s regimes. Adaptation to physical activity”.

Variant 3.

Page 72: Tests MOD3

1. Glucose absorption is increased to the greatest degree by – A. Injection of insulin B. Drinking isotonic salineC. Drinking a solution containing fructoseD. Injection of glucagonE. Drugs that inhibit Na+-K+ ATPase

2. In which of the following is the absorbtion of water greatest?A. EsophagusB. StomachC. DuodenumD. JejunumE. Colon

3. Drugs and toxins that increase the cyclic AMP content of the intestinal mucosa cause diarrhea because they…A. Increase peristalsis in the small intestine B. Increase peristalsis in the colonC. Inhibit K+ absorption in the crypts of LieberkiihnD. Increase secretion of Cl- into the intestinal lumenE. Increase absorption of Na+ in the small intestine

4. The following processes are involved in the absorption of the products of digestion from the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract to the blood…A. Facilitated diffusionB. Secondary active transportC. DiffusionD. Active transportE. All of them

5. Ca++ absorption is increased by …A. Oxalates in the dietB. 1,25-dihydroxycholecaciferol and hypocalcemiaC. HypokalemiaD. HypercalcemiaE. Neither 6. Vitamin B12 is absorbed primarily in the … A. Stomach

B. Duodenum C. JejunumD. IleumE. Colon

7. Which one of the following statements best describes water and electrolyte absorption in the GI tract? A. Most water and electrolytes come from ingested fluids B. The small intestine and colon have similar absorptive capacitiesC. Osmotic equilibration of chyme occurs in the stomachD. The majority of absorption occurs in the jejunumE. Water absorption is independent of Na+ absorption

8. Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis can occur with excess fluid loss from the…A. StomachB. Ileum C. Colon D. Pancreas E. Liver

9. The major mechanism for absorption of Na+ from the small intestine is… A. Na+-H+ exchange B. Cotransport with K+

C. Electrogenic transportD. Neutral NaCl absorptionE. Solvent drag

10. Dietary fat, after being processed, is extruded from the mucosal cells of the gastrointestinal tract into the lymphatic ducts in the form of …A. MonoglyceridesB. Diglycerides C. Triglycerides D. Chylomicrons E. Free fatty acids

Answers: 1-B, 2-D, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B, 6-D, 7-D, 8-C, 9-D, 10-D.

Module III. Theme: “Working activity and it’s regimes. Adaptation to physical activity”.

Variant 4.

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1. Gas within the colon is primarily derived from which one of the following sources? A. CO2 liberated by the interaction of HCO3

- and H+

B. Diffusion from the bloodC. Fermentation of undigested oligosaccharides by bacteriaD. Swallowed atmospheric air E. Air pockets within foodstuffs

2. Which one of the following statements about the colon is correct? A. Absorption of Na+ in the colon is under hormonal (aldosteron) control B. Bile acids enhance absorption of water from the colonC. Net absorption of HCO3

- occurs in the colonD. Net absorption of K+ occurs in the colonE. The luminal potential in the colon is positive

3. Vitamins synthesized by intestinal bacteria and absorbed in significant quantities include…A. Vitamin B6

B. Vitamin K C. ThiamineD. RiboflavinE. Folic acid

4. Which of the following sugars is absorbed from the small intestine by facilitated diffusion?A. GlucoseB. GalactoseC. Fructose D. SucroseE. Lactose

5. Bicarbonate absorption from the upper small intestine is closely coupled with…A. Na-glucose absorptionB. Neutral NaCl absorptionC. Na+/H+ exchange D. Electrogenic Na+ absorptionE. Na-vitamin B12 absorption 6. Which one of the following statements best describes water and electrolyte absorption in the gastrointestinal tract?

A. Most water and electrolytes derive from the oral intake of fluidsB. The small and large intestines have similar absorptive capacitiesC. Net secretion of K+ occurs from the ileumD. Osmotic equilibration of chime occurs in the duodenumE. Cholera toxin inhibits sodium-coupled nutrient transport

7. Short-chain fatty acid absorbtion occurs almost exclusively from the … A. StomachB. Duodenum C. Jejunum D. IleumE. Colon

8. Which one of the following statements about medium-chain fatty acids is correct?A. They are more water-soluble than long-chain fatty acidsB. Within the enterocyte, they are used for triglyceride resynthesis C. They are packaged into chylomicronsD. They are transported in the lymphE. They require emulsification prior to enterocyte uptake

9. The transport protein responsible for entry of glucose into the intestinal enterocyte is called … A. Glut-2 B. Glut-5C. SGLT 1D. SGLT 2E. SGLT 5

10. Micelle formation is necessary for absorbtion of …A. Bile salts B. IronC. CholesterolD. AlcoholE. B vitamins

Answers: 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-C, 5-C, 6-D, 7-E, 8-A, 9-C, 10-C.

Module III. Theme: “Sleeping and it’s biological role”.

Variant 1.

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1. True statements about the initial stages of a normal sleep period include which of the following? A. Sleep is initiated by a decrease in the activity of the ascending reticular activating systemB. The first EEG sign of sleep is an increase in the amplitude of the EEG wavesC. Both of themD. NeitherE. All above-listed

2. Which of the following conditions is most closely related to slow-wave sleep?A. DreamingB. AtoniaC. Bed wettingD. High-frequency EEG wavesE. Irregular heart rates

3. Correct statements regarding rapid eye movement (REM) sleep include which of the following?A. It is the first state of sleep entered when a person falls asleepB. It is accompanied by loss of skeletal muscle toneC. It is characterized by a slow but steady heart rateD. It occurs more often in adults than in childrenE. It lasts longer than periods of slow-wave sleep

4. The delta rhythm appearing on an EEG has which of the following characteristics?A. It produces 8 to 12 waves per secondB. It disappears when a patient’s eyes openC. It is replaced by slower, larger waves during REM sleepD. It represents activity that is most pronounced in the frontal region of the brainE. It is associated with deep sleep

5. Hypoventilation normally occurs duringA. PregnancyB. SleepC. ExerciseD. All are correctE. None

6. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of a high arterial PCO2?A. Increased metabolic activityB. Increased alveolar dead spaceC. Depressed medullary respiratory centers caused by sleeping or barbiturate drugs D. Alveolar capillary blockE. Increased alveolar ventilation

7. A person with hypothyroidism would exhibitA. TachycardiaB. Increased metabolic rateC. Heat intoleranceD. SleepinessE. Decreased body mass index

8. Secretion of growth hormone is stimulated bya. Increased plasma glucose levelsb. Deep sleepc. Free fatty acidsd. Somatostatine. Hyperglycemia

9. The graph below demonstrates diurnal variation in the plasma level of

A. ThyroxineB. InsulinC. Parathyroid hormoneD. CortisolE. Estrogen

10. A man of 60 slept after brain hemorrhage for a long time. The damage of what structures caused such state? A. Substantia nigra B. HippocampusC. Nuclei of cranial nervesD. Cortex of large hemispheresE. Reticular formation

Answers: 1-B, 2-C, 3-B, 4-E, 5-B, 6-C, 7-D, 8-B, 9-D, 10-E.

Module III. Theme: “Sleeping and it’s biological role”.

Variant 2.

1. Which of the following is most closely related to rapid eye movement (REM) sleep? A. Bed-wetting

B. Sleepwalking

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C. High-frequency EEG waves, total inhibition of α-motoneurons, irregular heart rates and breathing patternsD. All are correctE. None are correct

2. In which of the following do the waves of the EEG have the lowest frequency?A. Alpha rhythmB. Beta rhythmC. Delta rhythmD. Theta rhythmE. Sleep spindles

3. What the main frequency of theta-rhythm?A. 0,5-4 Hz B. 4-7 HzC. 8-13 HzD. 18-30 HzE. None are correct

4. What the main frequency of delta-rhythm?A. 0,5-4 Hz B. 4-7 HzC. 8-13 HzD. 18-30 HzE. None are correct

5. What the main frequency of alpha-rhythm?A. 0,5-4 Hz B. 4-7 HzC. 8-13 HzD. 18-30 HzE. None are correct 6. Which of the following EEG-rhythm is registered during paradox-phase of a sleep? A. Alpha rhythmB. Beta rhythmC. Delta rhythmD. Theta rhythmE. Sleep spindles

7. Dreaming sleep - A. Is associated with large slow waves in the EEGB. Is associated with increased muscle toneC. Does not occur in old ageD. Is associated with a decrease in blood pressureE. None are correct

8. The following would tend to produce slow-wave sleep - A. A decrease in the number of impulses reaching the ascending reticular systemB. Injection of tryptophan, an amino acid that increases the serotonin level in the brainC. Stimulation of the basal forebrain in the region of the diagonal band D. All are correctE. None are correct

9. Stimulation of the following brain areas can produce sleep - A. The posteriorB. The medullary reticular formation near the nucleus of the tractus solitariusC. The preoptic areaD. All are correctE. none are correct

10. In which of the following do the waves of the EEG have the highest frequency?A. Alpha rhythmB. Beta rhythmC. Delta rhythmD. Theta rhythmE. Sleep spindles

Answers: 1-C, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A, 5-C, 6-B, 7-E, 8-D, 9-D, 10-E.

Module III. Theme: “Sleeping and it’s biological role”.

Variant 3.

1. The EEG record in figure bellow is characteristic of - A. Deep sleep

B. A learning response produced by a painful stimulusC. REM sleep

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D. A psychomotor seizureE. Petit mal epilepsy

2. The electrical records in figure bellow are characteristic of - A. Deep sleepB. Grand mal epilepsyC. REM sleepD. A psychomotor seizureE. Petit mal epilepsy

3. Drugs and toxins that increase the cyclic AMP content of the intestinal mucosa cause diarrhea because they…A. Increase peristalsis in the small intestine B. Increase peristalsis in the colonC. Inhibit K+ absorption in the crypts of LieberkiihnD. Increase secretion of Cl- into the intestinal lumenE. Increase absorption of Na+ in the small intestine

4. The following processes are involved in the absorption of the products of digestion from the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract to the blood…A. Facilitated diffusionB. Secondary active transportC. DiffusionD. Active transportE. All of them

5. Ca++ absorption is increased by …A. Oxalates in the dietB. 1,25-dihydroxycholecaciferol and hypocalcemiaC. HypokalemiaD. HypercalcemiaE. Neither

6. Vitamin B12 is absorbed primarily in the … A. Stomach B. Duodenum C. JejunumD. IleumE. Colon

7. Which one of the following statements best describes water and electrolyte absorption in the GI tract? A. Most water and electrolytes come from ingested fluids B. The small intestine and colon have similar absorptive capacitiesC. Osmotic equilibration of chyme occurs in the stomachD. The majority of absorption occurs in the jejunumE. Water absorption is independent of Na+ absorption

8. Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis can occur with excess fluid loss from the…A. StomachB. Ileum C. Colon D. Pancreas E. Liver

9. The major mechanism for absorption of Na+ from the small intestine is… A. Na+-H+ exchange B. Cotransport with K+

C. Electrogenic transportD. Neutral NaCl absorptionE. Solvent drag

10. Dietary fat, after being processed, is extruded from the mucosal cells of the gastrointestinal tract into the lymphatic ducts in the form of …A. MonoglyceridesB. Diglycerides C. Triglycerides D. Chylomicrons E. Free fatty acidsAnswers: 1-E, 2-C, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B, 6-D, 7-D, 8-C, 9-D, 10-D.

Module III. Theme: “Sleeping and it’s biological role”.

Variant 4.

1. Gas within the colon is primarily derived from which one of the following sources? A. CO2 liberated by the interaction of HCO3

- and H+

B. Diffusion from the bloodC. Fermentation of undigested oligosaccharides by bacteriaD. Swallowed atmospheric air

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E. Air pockets within foodstuffs

2. Which one of the following statements about the colon is correct? A. Absorption of Na+ in the colon is under hormonal (aldosteron) control B. Bile acids enhance absorption of water from the colonC. Net absorption of HCO3

- occurs in the colonD. Net absorption of K+ occurs in the colonE. The luminal potential in the colon is positive

3. Vitamins synthesized by intestinal bacteria and absorbed in significant quantities include…A. Vitamin B6

B. Vitamin K C. ThiamineD. RiboflavinE. Folic acid

4. Which of the following sugars is absorbed from the small intestine by facilitated diffusion?A. GlucoseB. GalactoseC. Fructose D. SucroseE. Lactose

5. Bicarbonate absorption from the upper small intestine is closely coupled with…A. Na-glucose absorptionB. Neutral NaCl absorptionC. Na+/H+ exchange D. Electrogenic Na+ absorptionE. Na-vitamin B12 absorption 6. Which one of the following statements best describes water and electrolyte absorption in the gastrointestinal tract? A. Most water and electrolytes derive from the oral intake of fluidsB. The small and large intestines have similar absorptive capacitiesC. Net secretion of K+ occurs from the ileum

D. Osmotic equilibration of chime occurs in the duodenumE. Cholera toxin inhibits sodium-coupled nutrient transport

7. Short-chain fatty acid absorbtion occurs almost exclusively from the … A. StomachB. Duodenum C. Jejunum D. IleumE. Colon

8. Which one of the following statements about medium-chain fatty acids is correct?A. They are more water-soluble than long-chain fatty acidsB. Within the enterocyte, they are used for triglyceride resynthesis C. They are packaged into chylomicronsD. They are transported in the lymphE. They require emulsification prior to enterocyte uptake

9. The transport protein responsible for entry of glucose into the intestinal enterocyte is called … A. Glut-2 B. Glut-5C. SGLT 1D. SGLT 2E. SGLT 5

10. Micelle formation is necessary for absorbtion of …A. Bile salts B. IronC. CholesterolD. AlcoholE. B vitamins

Answers: 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-C, 5-C, 6-D, 7-E, 8-A, 9-C, 10-C.


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