Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. Questions: 120 ç u ksa dh qy … … · question, the same ill...

Question Booklet Series :– ç u i qfLrdk fl j ht %& A

Booklet Code No. :- i qfLrdk dksM l a[ ; k %&

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Candidate must fill the above number correctly, in the OMR Sheet

Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. Questions: 120vuqer l e; % 90 feuVl C o de - D A X O T C S S ( P I ) ç uksa dh dqy l a[ ; k : 120Roll No. : OMR Answer Sheet No. : vuqekad % ________________________ vks-,e-vkj - mkj i f=dk l a[ ; k : _______________________ Name of the Candidate (in capital letters) : _____________________________________________________________ vH; FkÊ dk uke % Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature vH; FkÊ ds gLrkkj _____________________ d k fujhkd ds gLrkkj _____________________

IMPORTANT:– Read the following instructions carefully. Do not mark answers on the question booklet, otherwise you may be debarred from the selection process. 1. Before commencing to answer, check that the Question Booklet has 120 questions. Each Question Booklet will be

in different series (combination of booklet code no. and series). You must write correct Booklet Code No. and Question Booklet Series on your OMR Answer Sheet. Further check that there is no misprinting, overprinting and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming in the question booklet, intimate the same to your room invigilator and take a fresh question booklet. No complaint in this regard shall be entertained at any later stage. IMPORTANT NOTE: The OMR Answer Sheet will be evaluated with a combination of question booklet series and booklet code no. hence you must write correct question booklet series and booklet code no. Any mistake in filling any of them will lead to invalidation of your OMR Answer Sheet. Also in case of non filling of question booklet series and booklet code no. the OMR Answer Sheet will not be evaluated and its sole responsibility lies on the candidate.

2. There shall be negative marking. 1/3 mark will be deducted for wrong answer. Each question carries equal mark. Also refer OMR Sheet for detailed instruction.

3. Ask invigilator to sign on your admit card. If the same is not got signed by you, your candidature shall be liable to be rejected.

4. This is an objective type test in which each objective question is followed by four responses serialled (1) to (4). Your task is to choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet only as per the instructions given and NOT in the Question Booklet.

5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for all your work on the OMR Answer Sheet. The ovals on the OMR Answer Sheet are to be completely filled by Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. ANSWERS ONCE GIVEN CAN NOT BE CHANGED.

6. DO NOT scribble or do rough work or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. DO NOT wrinkle or fold or staple it.

7. Use of Calculators, Slide rules, Mobiles, calculator watches or any such devices and any other study/reference material is NOT allowed inside the examination hall.

8. Rough Work is to be done in the blank space provided in the Question Booklet, not on the OMR Answer Sheet. No other paper will be allowed/provided for rough work.

9. Return the complete Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator on completion of the test. Do not take this Question Booklet or any part thereof or OMR Answer Sheet outside the examination room. Doing so is a punishable offence.

10. Take care that you mark only one answer for each question. If more than one answer is given by you for any question, the same will not be evaluated. Cutting/overwriting the answers are not allowed. Further question paper is bilingual (Hindi/English). In case of any variation in Hindi version, English version will be taken as final for evaluation purposes.

fgUnh esa vuqnsk vfUre i ’B Back cover½ i j fn; k x; k gSA

APTITUDE1. Which number has been approved by Telecom

Commission recently as the single emergency number of India to get all emergency services such as police, ambulance, fire-brigade: (1) 100 (2) 108 (3) 911 (4) 112

1. vHkh gky gh esa VsyhdkWe deh”ku kjk fdl la[;k dks Hkkjr ds ,dy vkikrdky la[;k ds :i esa eatwj fd;k x;k gS ftlls lHkh vkikrdky lsok,a çkIr dh tk lds tSls fd iqfyl] ,Ecqysal] Qk;jfczxsM% (1) 100 (2) 108 (3) 911 (4) 112

2. Consider 63rd National Film Awards, 2015 and match the following: AWARDS AWARDEEA. Best film on social issues 1. Bajrangi Bhaijaan B. Best feature film 2. Masaan C. Best popular film providing 3. Niranayakam wholesome entertainment D. Indira Gandhi Award of best 4. Bahubali debut film of a Director (1) A2, B3, C1, D4 (2) A4, B3, C2, D1 (3) A2, B3, C4, D1 (4) A3, B4, C1, D2

2. 63osa jk’Vªh; fQYe iqjLdkj] 2015 ij fopkj djsa vkSj fuEufyf[kr dks lqesfyr djsa% iqjLdkj iqjLdkj fotsrkA. lkekftd eqíks ij loZJs’B fQYe 1. ctjaxh HkkbZtku B. loZJs’B Qhpj fQYe 2. elku C. lEiw.kZ euksjatu çnku djus okyh 3. fu.kZk;de loZJs’B yksdfç; fQYe

D. funsZ”ku ds fy;s loZJs’B çFke fQYe 4. ckgqcyh gsrq bafnjk xk¡/kh iqjLdkj (1) A2, B3, C1, D4 (2) A4, B3, C2, D1 (3) A2, B3, C4, D1 (4) A3, B4, C1, D2

3. Which of the following Biosphere Reserve of India was recently included in UNESCO’S world network of Biosphere: (1) Sunderban Biosphere Reserve (2) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve (3) Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve (4) Nokrek Biosphere Reserve

3. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk Hkkjrh; thoe.My fjt+oZ vHkh gky gh esa ;wusLdks ¼UNESCO½ ds oSf”od thoe.My usVodZ ds vUrxZr lfEefyr fd;k x;k gS% (1) lqUnjcu thoe.My fjt+oZ (2) uUnk nsoh thoe.My fjt+oZ (3) vxLF;kekyk thoe.My fjt+oZ (4) uksdjsd thoe.My fjt+oZ

4. Recently which country has assumed BRICS Chairmanship from Russia for 2016: (1) China (2) Brazil (3) India (4) South Africa

4. gky gh esa vHkh fdl ns”k us 2016 ds fy;s :l ls BRICS v/;krk dk Hkkj laHkkyk gS% (1) phu (2) czkt+hy (3) Hkkjr (4) nfk.k vfÝdk

5. Who won the 3rd season of Pro-Kabaddi League? (1) Jaipur Pink (2) U Mumba (3) Bengal Warriors (4) Patna Pirates

5. çks&dcìh yhx ds rhljs lhtu dk fotsrk dkSu cuk\ (1) t;iqj fiad (2) ;w eqEck (3) caxky oSfj;lZ (4) iVuk ikbZjsV~l

6. “Exercise Lamitye” is a joint military drill between: (1) India & Seychelles (2) India & Sri Lanka (3) India & Phillipines (4) India & USA

6. ßvH;kl yfefV;sÞ fdlds e/; ,d la;qä Fky lsuk vH;kl gS% (1) Hkkjr ,oa fllfyl (2) Hkkjr ,oa Jhyadk (3) Hkkjr ,oa fQfyfiUl (4) Hkkjr ,oa ;w-,l-,-

7. In the union budget 2016-17, exemption of Rs. ___ for housing loans upto 35 lakhs rupees provided cost of house is not above ____ rupees: (1) Rs. 1,00,000/-, Rs. 50,00,000/- (2) Rs. 50,000/-, Rs. 50,00,000/- (3) Rs. 50,000/-, Rs. 35,00,000/- (4) Rs. 1,00,000/-, Rs. 35,00,000/-

7. la?k ctV 2016-17 esa 35 yk[k #i, rd ds x`g _.k ij Rs. ___ dh NwV feysxh c”krsZ fd x`g dh ykxr Rs. ___ ls vf/kd u gks%

(1) Rs. 1,00,000/-, Rs. 50,00,000/- (2) Rs. 50,000/-, Rs. 50,00,000/- (3) Rs. 50,000/-, Rs. 35,00,000/- (4) Rs. 1,00,000/-, Rs. 35,00,000/-

8. Which one of the following would have highest number of molecules? (1) Ten grams of carbon dioxide (2) Ten grams of oxygen (3) Five grams of Ammonia (4) One gram of hydrogen

8. fuEufyf[kr esa ls lcls T;knk v.kqvksa dh la[;k gksxh\ (1) dkcZu MkbZvkWDlkbM dk nl xzke (2) vkWDlhtu dk nl xzke (3) veksfu;k dk ik¡p xzke (4) gkbZMªkstu dk ,d xzke

9. If x+y : y+z : z+x = 6:7:8 and x+y+z = 14, find z: (1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 10

9. ;fn x+y : y+z : z+x = 6:7:8 ,oa x+y+z = 14, rks z Kkr djsa% (1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 10

(SET-02) PAPER – I [ 6 3 1 3 4 4 ] D03AX6OTCS [ A–1 ]

10. Which one of the following would have occurred if the Earth had not been inclined on its own axis: (1) All the seasons would have been of same duration (2) The seasons would not have changed (3) The summers would have been of longer duration (4) The winters would have been longer duration

10. ;fn i`Foh vius vk ij vkur ugha gksrh rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ?kfVr gksrk% (1) lHkh _rq,a ,d gh le;kof/k dh gksrh (2) _rq,a cnyrh ugha (3) xzh’e T;knk vof/k dk gksrk (4) “khrdky T;knk vof/k dk gksrk

11. If 23a = , then ?a–1a1 =++

(1) (2–√3) (2) (2+√3) (3) (√3/2) (4) √3

11. ;fn 23a = ] rks ?a–1a1 =++

(1) (2–√3) (2) (2+√3) (3) (√3/2) (4) √3

12. Average of a, b, and c is 11; average of c, d and e is 17; average of e and f is 22 and average of e and c is 17. Find out the average of a, b, c, d, e and f:

(1) 3215 (2)

2118 (3)

2116 (4) None of these

12. a, b, ,oa c dk vkSlr 11 gS( c, d, ,oa e dk vkSlr 17 gS( e ,oa f dk vkSlr 22 gS ,oa e ,oa c dk vkSlr 17 gSA a, b, c, d, e ,oa f dk vkSlr D;k gS] Kkr djsa%

(1) 3215 (2)

2118 (3)

2116 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

13. 4 men and 6 women get Rs. 1600/- by doing a piece of work in 5 days, 3 men and 7 women get Rs. 1740/- by doing the same work in 6 days. In how many days 7 men and 6 women can complete the same work getting Rs. 3760/- (1) 6 days (2) 8 days (3) 10 days (4) None of these

13. 4 iq:’k ,oa 6 efgyk,a ,d dk;Z dks 5 fnu esa djds Rs. 1600/- ikrs gSa] 3 iq:’k ,oa 7 efgyk,a mlh dk;Z dks 6 fnu esa djds Rs. 1740/- ikrs gSaA fdrus fnuksa esa 7 iq:’k ,oa 6 efgyk,a mlh dk;Z dks Rs. 3760/- ikdj iwjk dj ldrs gSa% (1) 6 fnu (2) 8 fnu (3) 10 fnu (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

14. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘TRANSPIRATION’ be arranged so that the vowels always come together? (1) 2429500 (2) 1360800 (3) 1627800 (4) None of these

14. fdrus fofHkUu rjhdksa ls “kCn ^TRANSPIRATION* ds vkjksa dks O;ofLFkr fd;k tk ldrk gS rkfd Loj lnSo lkFk esa jgs\

(1) 2429500 (2) 1360800 (3) 1627800 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

DIRECTIONS: Answer the Question based on the following information. The graph given below represents the sales and profit in Rs. Crore of xyz ltd. for five years from 2007–08 to 2011–12. During this period the sales increased from Rs. 150 Crore to 800 Crore. Correspondingly, the net profit increased from Rs. 4.2 Crore to Rs. 15 Crore. Net profit is defined as the excess of sales over total costs.

Sales & Profit of xyz Ltd.

15. The highest percentage of growth in sales, relative to previous years occured in: (1) 2008–09 (2) 2009–10 (3) 2010–11 (4) 2011–12

funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr lwpukvksa ds vk/kkj ij bl ç”u ds mÙkj nsaA uhps fn;s x, xzkQ esa xyz fyfeVsM ds ik¡p o’kks± dk 2007–08 ls 2011–12 dk fcØh ,oa ykHk djksM+ #i;ksa esa çnf”kZr djrk gSA bl dky esa fcØh c<+dj #i, 150 djksM+ ls #i, 800 djksM+ gks xbZA blds lekukUrj “kq) ykHk 4.2 djksM+ ls c<+dj 15 djksM+ gks x;kA “kq) ykHk dks dqy ykxr ij fcØh ds vkf/kD; ds :i esa ifjHkkf’kr fd;k tkrk gSA

xyz fyfeVsM dk fcØh ,oa ykHk

15. xro’kZ ds lkisk fcØh esa o`f) dk loksZPp çfr”kr fdl o’kZ esa gS%

(1) 2008–09 (2) 2009–10 (3) 2010–11 (4) 2011–12


DIRECTIONS: Answer the following question on the basis of the information given below.

i. Trains A and B are travelling on the same route heading towards the same destination. Train B has already covered a distance of 220 km before the train ‘A’ started.

ii. The two trains meet each other after 11 hours after start of train ‘A’

iii. Had the trains been travelling towards each other (from a distance of 220 km) they would have met after one hour.

16. What is the speed of trains ‘B’ in kmph: (1) 100 (2) 180 (3) 116 (4) None of these

funsZ”k% uhps fn;s x, lwpukvksa ds vk/kkj ij fuEufyf[kr ç”u dk mÙkj nsaA i. Vªsu A ,oa B ,d gh jkLrs ij ,d gh xarO; LFkku dh vksj

;k=k dj jgh gSaA Vªsu B igys gh 220 fdyksehVj dh nwjh r; dj pqdh Fkh tc ^A* us vkjEHk fd;kA

ii. Vªsu A ds vkjEHk djus ds 11 ?kaVs ds i”pkr~ nksuksa Vªsusa ,d nwljs ls feyrh gSaA

iii. ;fn nksuksa Vªsusa ,d nwljs dh vksj py jgh gksrh ¼220 fdyksehVj dh nwjh ls½ rks og ,d ?kaVs ds ckn feyrhA

16. fdyksehVj çfr?kaVk esa Vªsu ^B* dh pky D;k gS% (1) 100 (2) 180 (3) 116 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

17. A conical tent is to accommodate 11 persons. Each person must have 4 sq metres of space on the ground and 20 cubic metres of air to breathe. The height of the cone is: (1) 13m (2) 14m (3) 15m (4) None of these

17. ,d “kadq vkdkj dk VsUV 11 O;fä;ksa dks lekfo’V dj ldrk gSA çR;sd O;fä dks Hkwfe ij 4 oxZehVj dk txg ,oa “okl ysus gsrq 20 ?ku ehVj ok;q pkfg,A “kadq dh Å¡pkbZ gS% (1) 13m (2) 14m (3) 15m (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

18. A bag contains 10 mangoes out of which 4 are rotten. Two mangoes are taken out together. If one of them is found to be good, the probability that other is also good is: (1) 1/3 (2) 8/15 (3) 5/18 (4) 2/3

18. ,d FkSys esa 10 vke gSa ftlesa ls 4 lM+s gq, gSaA nks vke ,d lkFk fudkys tkrs gSaA ;fn muesa ls ,d vPNk fudyrk gS] rks nwljs ds Hkh vPNs fudyus dh laHkkfork D;k gksxh\

(1) 1/3 (2) 8/15 (3) 5/18 (4) 2/3

19. A tank is 7 m long and 4 m wide. At what speed should water run through a pipe 5 cm broad and 4 cm deep so that in 6 hour and 18 minutes water level in the tank rises by 4.5 m? (1) 10 km/hr. (2) 12 km/hr. (3) 8 km/hr. (4) None of these

19. ,d Vadh 7 ehVj yEch ,oa 4 ehVj pkSM+h gSA 5 lseh- pkSM+h ,oa 4 lseh- xgjs ikbZi ls fdl xfr esa ikuh dk cgko jguk pkfg, ftlls 6 ?kaVs 18 feuV esa Vadh esa ikuh dk Lrj 4.5 ehVj ls c<+ tk;s\ (1) 10 fdeh-@?kaVk (2) 12 fdeh-@?kaVk (3) 8 fdeh-@?kaVk (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

20. If the total surface area of a cube is 864cm square, find the volume of the cube: (1) 1728 cm3 (2) 1624 cm3

(3) 144 cm3 (4) 1684 cm3

20. ;fn ,d ?ku dk dqy i`’Bh; ks=Qy 864 cm2 gS rks ?ku dk vk;ru gksxk% (1) 1728 cm3 (2) 1624 cm3

(3) 144 cm3 (4) 1684 cm3

21. A solid piece of iron is in the form of a cuboid of dimensions (49cm × 33cm × 24cm) is melted and moulded to form a solid sphere. The radius of the sphere is: (1) 19 cm (2) 21 cm (3) 23 cm (4) 25 cm

21. yksgs dk ,d Bksl VqdM+k tks ?kukHk ds :i esa gS ,oa ftldk vkdkj ¼49 lseh- × 33 lseh- × 24 lseh-½ dks xykdj ,d Bksl xksyk cuk;k tkrk gSA xksys dh f=T;k gS% (1) 19 lseh- (2) 21 lseh- (3) 23 lseh- (4) 25 lseh-

22. The sale price of an article including the sales tax is Rs. 1232. The rate of sales tax is 10%. If the shopkeeper has made a profit of 12%, then the cost price of the article is: (1) ` 900 (2) ` 950 (3) ` 1000 (4) ` 1120

22. foØ; dj lfgr ,d oLrq dk foØ; ewY; #- 1232 gSA foØ; dj dk nj 10% gSA vxj nqdkunkj us 12% dk ykHk dek;k rks oLrq dk ykxr ewY; gSA (1) ` 900 (2) ` 950 (3) ` 1000 (4) ` 1120

23. Enzymes are organic compounds of protein category which: (1) Acts as catalysts in life process (2) Help in the mechanism of supply of oxygen in blood (3) Help to regulate the manner and rate of use of glucose

in body (4) Help in heredity maintenance

23. ,UtkbZEl çksVhu Js.kh dk ,d vkxsZfud dEikmUM gS tks% (1) thou çfØ;k esa ,d mRçsjd ds :i esa dk;Z djrk gS (2) jä esa vkWDlhtu dh vkiwfrZ ds ra= esa lgk;rk djrk gS (3) “kjhj esa Xywdkst ds ç;ksx ds <ax ,oa nj dks fofu;fer djus esa

lgk;rk djrk gS (4) vkuqokaf”kdh j[kj[kko esa lgk;rk djrk gS


DIRECTIONS: (Question no. 24 to 27) Five persons Anil, Babloo, Chintoo, Diwakar and Eshwar (not necessary in this order) live along a North – South road and each one has a tree in front of the house. The trees are of Eucalyptus, Mango, Sheesham, Gulmohar and Neem (not necessary in this order).

The Neem tree is between Gulmohar and Eucalyptus. Chintoo and Diwakar have one house in between. Mango tree is at the North end.

Anil is to the just adjacent left of Diwakar and to the just adjacent South of Eshwar. Sheesham is not just adjacent near to Gulmohar. Eucalyptus tree is not in front of Diwakar’s house.

24. Eucalyptus tree is in front of whose house: (1) Anil’s (2) Babloo’s (3) Chintoo’s (4) Eshwar’s

funsZ”k% ¼ç”u la[;k 24 ls 27½ ik¡p O;fä vfuy] ccyw] fpUVw] fnokdj ,oa bZ”oj ¼vko”;d ugha gS fd blh Øe gksa½ mÙkj ls nfk.k lM+d ds lkFk&lkFk jgrs gSa ,oa çR;sd ds ?kj ds lkeus ,d isM+ gSA ;s isM+ gSa & b;wfDyiVl] vke] “kh”ke] xqyeksgj ,oa uhe ¼vko”;d ugha gS fd blh Øe gksa½A uhe dk isM+ xqyeksgj ,oa b;wfDyiVl ds isM+ ds chp esa gSA fpUVw ,oa fnokdj ds ?kj ds chp esa ,d ?kj gSA vke dk isM+ mÙkjh Nksj ij gSA vfuy fnokdj ds Bhd cxy esa ck,a gS ,oa bZ”oj ds nfk.k Bhd cxy esa gSA “kh”ke dk isM+ xqyeksgj ds Bhd cxy esa ugha gSA b;wfDyiVl dk isM+ fnokdj ds ?kj ds lkeus ugha gSA

24. b;wfDyiVl dk isM+ fdlds ?kj ds lkeus gS% (1) vfuy ds (2) ccyw ds (3) fpUVw ds (4) bZ”oj ds

25. Who has Neem tree in front of his house? (1) Anil (2) Babloo (3) Chintoo (4) Diwakar

25. fdlds ?kj ds lkeus uhe dk isM+ gS% (1) vfuy (2) ccyw (3) fpUVw (4) fnokdj

26. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (1) Eshwar is at North end (2) Gulmohar is in front of Anil’s house (3) Mango tree is at the North end (4) Mango tree is in front of Chintoo’s house

26. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku vlR; gS\ (1) bZ”oj mÙkjh Nksj ij gS (2) xqyeksgj vfuy ds ?kj ds lkeus gS (3) vke dk isM+ mÙkjh Nksj gS (4) vke dk isM+ fpUVw ds ?kj ds lkeus gS

27. Whose house is at south end and which tree is there in front of it: (1) Chintoo – Sheesham (2) Babloo – Eucalyptus (3) Diwakar – Sheesham (4) Eshwar – Gulmohar

27. fdldk ?kj nfk.kh Nksj ij gS ,oa dkSu&lk isM+ mlds lkeus gS% (1) fpUVw & “kh”ke (2) ccyw & b;wfDyiVl (3) fnokdj & “kh”ke (4) bZ”oj & xqyeksgj

28. A boy and a girl together can do a piece of work in 30 days. After working together for 20 days, the boy stops coming to the work and the girl finishes the remaining work in the next 30 days. If instead of boy, the girl stops coming to work after 20 days, then the boy will complete the remaining portion of work in: (1) 15 days (2) 20 days (3) 25 days (4) 35 days

28. ,d yM+dk ,oa ,d yM+dh ,d dk;Z dks ,d lkFk feydj 30 fnuksa esa djrs gSaA ,d lkFk 20 fnuksa rd dk;Z djus ds i”pkr] yM+dk dk;Z ij vkuk cUn dj nsrk gS ,oa yM+dh ckdh cps dk;Z dks vkxkeh 30 fnuksa esa iwjk djrh gSA ;fn yM+ds dh txg yM+dh 20 fnuksa ds i”pkr dke ij vkuk cUn dj nsa] rks dk;Z ds ckdh cps gq, fgLls dks yM+dk fdrus fnu esa iwjk djsxk% (1) 15 fnu (2) 20 fnu (3) 25 fnu (4) 35 fnu

29. An agricultural field is in the form of a rectangle of length 20m and width 14m. A pit 6m long, 3m wide and 2.5m deep is dug in a corner of the field and the earth taken out of the pit is spread uniformly over the remaining area of the field. The level of the field has been raised by? (1) 15.16 cm (2) 16.17 cm (3) 17.18 cm (4) None of these

29. ,d Ñf’k ;ksX; [ksr vk;r :i esa gS ftldh yEckbZ 20m ,oa pkSM+kbZ 14m gSA [ksr ds fdukjs ij ,d x<~<k 6m yEck] 3m pkSM+k ,oa 2.5m xgjk [kksnk tkrk gS ,oa x<~<s ls fudkyh xbZ feV~Vh dks [ksr ds ckdh ks= esa leku :i ls QSyk fn;k tkrk gSA [ksr dk Lrj fdruk c<+ x;k gS\

(1) 15.16 cm (2) 16.17 cm (3) 17.18 cm (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

30. Puneeta borrowed from Reena certain sum for two years at simple interest. Puneeta lent this sum to Venu at the same rate for two years compound interest. At the end of two years she received ` 110 as compound interest but paid ` 100 as simple interest. Find the sum and rate of interest: (1) ` 250, rate 10% per annum (2) ` 250, rate 20% per annum (3) ` 250, rate 25% per annum (4) None of these

30. iquhrk us jhuk ls fuf”pr jde nks o’kks± ds fy, lk/kkj.k C;kt ij m/kkj fy;kA iquhrk us ;gh jde ohuw dks mlh nj ij nks o’kZ ds fy, pØo`f) C;kt ij dtZ fn;kA nks o’kks± ds vUr ij mls 110 #- pØo`f) C;kt ds fy;s feys ysfdu 100 #- lk/kkj.k C;kt dk Hkqxrku fd;kA jde Kkr djsa ,oa C;kt dh nj crk,a% (1) 250 #-] nj 10% çfro’kZ (2) 250 #-] nj 20% çfro’kZ (3) 250 #-] nj 25% çfro’kZ (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha


31. The number of students who took History and Geography among other subjects was?

(1) 66 (2) 65 (3) 63 (4) None of these

31. nwljs fo’k;ksa ds lkFk bfrgkl ,oa Hkwxksy ysus okys fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh la[;k fdruh Fkh\


32. When Rongali bihu is celebrated: (1) In the month of April (2) In the month of December (3) In the month of October (4) In the month of January

32. jksaxkyh fcgw dc vk;ksftr fd;k tkrk gS\ (1) vizSy ds eghus esa (2) fnlacj ds eghus esa (3) vDrwcj ds eghus esa (4) tuojh ds eghus esa

33. In which medium the speed of sound will be maximum? (1) Water (2) Hydrogen Gas (3) Vacuum (4) Copper

33. fdl ek/;e esa /ofu dh xfr vf/kdre gksxh% (1) ty (2) gkbZMªkstu xSl (3) okr (4) rkez

34. 2015 Ramanujan Prize was won by: (1) Manjul Bhargava (2) Sujatha Ramadorai (3) James Maynard (4) Amlendu Krishna

34. 2015 jkekuqtu iqjLdkj fdlds kjk thrk x;k% (1) eatqy HkkxZo (2) lqtkFkk jkeknksjkbZ (3) tsEl ehukMZ (4) veysUnw Ñ’.kk

35. Can courts inquire into validity of the proceedings of Parliament? (1) Yes, any court on grounds of alleged irregularity of

procedure. (2) Yes, High Court of Delhi only on grounds of alleged

irregularity of procedure. (3) Yes, Supreme Court of India on grounds of alleged

irregularity of procedure. (4) No, No courts shall have jurisdiction

35. D;k U;k;ky; laln dh dk;Zokgh dh oS/krk dh tk¡p dj ldrs gSa\ (1) gk¡] fØ;kfof/k dh dfFkr vfu;ferrk ds vk/kkj ij (2) gk¡] fnYyh mPp&U;k;ky; dsoy fØ;kfof/k dh dfFkr vfu;ferrk

ds vk/kkj ij (3) gk¡] Hkkjr dk loksZPp&U;k;ky; fØ;kfof/k dh dfFkr vfu;ferrk

ds vk/kkj ij (4) ugha] U;k;ky;ksa dks dksbZ ks=kf/kdkj çkIr ugha gS

36. One megabyte is: (1) 1048576 Bytes (2) 1068576 Bytes (3) 1058576 Bytes (4) None of these

36. ,d esxkckbZV gS% (1) 1048576 ckbZV~l (2) 1068576 ckbZV~l (3) 1058576 ckbZV~l (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

37. Who among the following were well known for their study on poverty in India: (1) V.M. Dandekar (2) Neel Kanth (3) Raghuram Rajan (4) Both (1) & (2)

37. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdls Hkkjr esa xjhch ij v/;;u ds fy;s HkyhHkk¡fr tkuk tkrk gS% (1) oh-,e- MkaMsdj (2) uhy daB (3) j?kqjke jktu (4) nksuksa (1) ,oa (2)

38. How many squares can be formed by joining the center of the circles by horizontal and vertical lines:

(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) None of these

38. bl o`Ùk ds dsUæ esa cus fcUnqvksa dks kSfrt ,oa yEcor js[kkvksa kjk tksM+rs gq, dqy fdrus oxZ cu ldrs gSa%


39. Select the suitable alternative to satisfy the relationship. Arctic : Antarctic : : Cancer: (1) Disease (2) Capricorn (3) Population (4) Equator

39. lEcU/kksa dks lUrq’V djus okys lgh fodYi dks pqfu,A mÙkj /kzoh; % nfk.k ?kzqoh; % % ddZ&jkf”k% (1) jksx (2) edj (3) tula[;k (4) Hkwe/; js[kk


DIRECTIONS: Study three different positions of the cube given below with numbers 1 to 6 written on its faces and answer the question.

40. The number on the bottom face of figure C is? (1) 6 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) None of these

funsZ”k% 1 ls 6 la[;kvksa kjk buds eq[k ij vafdr fd;s x, ?kuksa ds rhu fofHké fLFkfr;ksa dk v/;;u djsa ,oa ç”u dk mÙkj nsaA

40. fp= C ds ry&eq[k ij la[;k D;k gS\


DIRECTIONS: The question below is followed by two statement I and II. You are to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of mathematics to choose between the possible answers.

A. If the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question but the statement II alone is not sufficient.

B. If the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement I alone is not sufficient.

C. If both statements I and II together are needed to answer the question.

D. If either the statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

E. If you can not get the answer from statement I and II together but need even more data.

41. X, Y and Z are three consecutive odd number (not necessary in this order). What is the sum of these number? I. The difference of Y & Z is 4 II. One third of X is 33

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

funsZ”k% uhps fn;s x, ç”u ds ckn nks dFku I ,oa II fn;s x, gSaA vkidks ;g fu.kZ; ysuk gS fd dFku esa fn;s x, vk¡dM+s ç”u dk mÙkj nsus ds fy;s i;kZIr gSaA vkidks fn;s x, vk¡dM+ksa dk ç;ksx rFkk vius xf.krh; Kku dk ç;ksx laHkkfor mÙkj dks pquus ds fy;s djuk gSA

A. ;fn dFku I vdsys ç”u dk mÙkj nsus fy;s i;kZIr gS ysfdu dFku II vdsys i;kZIr ugha gS

B. ;fn dFku II vdsys ç”u dk mÙkj nsus fy;s i;kZIr gS ysfdu dFku I vdsys i;kZIr ugha gS

C. ;fn nksuksa dFku I ,oa II ç”u dk mÙkj nsus fy;s ,d lkFk vko”;d gSaA

D. ;fn dFku I vdsys ;k dFku II vdsys ç”u dk mÙkj nsus fy;s i;kZIr gSA

E. ;fn vki dFku I ,oa II ls mÙkj ugha çkIr dj ldrs gSa vkSj vkidks vf/kd vk¡dM+ks dh vko”;drk gSA

41. X, Y ,oa Z rhu Øfed fo’ke la[;k,a gSa ¼vko”;d ugha fd og blh Øe esa gks½A bu la[;kvksa dk ;ksx D;k gS\ I. Y ,oa Z dk vUrj 4 gS II. X dk 1/3, 33 gS (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

42. STATEMENT: All boys are girls No girl is a father CONCLUSION: I. All girls are boys II. No boy is a father (1) Only I is true (2) Only II is true (3) Only I and II are true (4) None of them is true

42. dFku% lHkh yM+ds yM+fd;k¡ gSA dksbZ Hkh yM+dh firk ugha gS fu’d’kZ% I. lHkh yM+fd;k¡ yM+ds gSa II. dksbZ Hkh yM+dk firk ugha gS (1) dsoy I lR; gS (2) dsoy II lR; gS (3) dsoy I ,oa II lR; gS (4) buesa ls dksbZ Hkh lR; ugha gS

43. The most likely code for “MUSSOORIE” out of the following is: (1) 2 8 1 1 2 0 6 5 3 (2) 1 5 7 7 2 2 9 8 4 (3) 2 2 7 7 6 6 1 2 3 (4) 5 5 9 9 7 7 1 1 3

43. ßMUSSOORIEÞ dk lokZf/kd mi;qä dksM gksxk%

(1) 2 8 1 1 2 0 6 5 3 (2) 1 5 7 7 2 2 9 8 4 (3) 2 2 7 7 6 6 1 2 3 (4) 5 5 9 9 7 7 1 1 3

44. Given that in a standard code pattern ABCD is coded as EFGH, JKLM is coded as NOPQ then RSTU is coded as: (1) W V Y X (2) Q P U V (3) V W X Y (4) V W Y Y

44. ;fn dwV Hkk’kk dk ,d ekud izfreku gS% ABCD dk dwV EFGH, JKLM dk dwV NOPQ rks RSTU dk dwV gksxk: (1) W V Y X (2) Q P U V (3) V W X Y (4) V W Y Y

DIRECTIONS: In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.

45. 18000, 3600, 720, 144.2, 28.8, 5.76 (1) 5.76 (2) 720 (3) 144.2 (4) 28.8

funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr la[;k Ja[kyk esa ,d la[;k xyr gSA xyr la[;k dks Kkr djsaA

45. 18000, 3600, 720, 144.2, 28.8, 5.76 (1) 5.76 (2) 720 (3) 144.2 (4) 28.8


TECHNICAL (APTITUDE)46. A boy can throw a stone up to a maximum height of

10m. The maximum horizontal distance that the boy can throw the same stone up to will be: (1) 20 √2m (2) 10m (3) 10 √2m (4) 20m

46. ,d yM+dk vf/kd ls vf/kd 10 ehVj ÅapkbZ rd iRFkj Qsad ldrk gSA yM+dk mlh iRFkj dks ftl vf/kdre kSfrt nwjh rd Qsad ldrk gS] og gS%

(1) 20 √2m (2) 10m (3) 10 √2m (4) 20m

47. A bomb of mass 16 kg at rest explodes into two pieces of masses 4kg and 12kg. The velocity of the 12 kg mass is 4ms–1. The kinetic energy of the other mass is: (1) 144 J (2) 288 J (3) 192 J (4) 96 J

47. foJkfUr esa 16 kg nzO;eku ls ;qDr ,d ce 4 kg vkSj 12 kg nzO;ekuksa ds nks VqdM+ksa esa foLQksfVr gksrk gSA 12 kg nzO;eku dk osx 4ms–1 gSA nwljs nzO;eku dh xfrd ÅtkZ gS% (1) 144 J (2) 288 J (3) 192 J (4) 96 J

48. The maximum velocity of a particle, executing simple harmonic motion with an amplitude 7mm, is 4.4 m/s. The period of oscillation is: (1) 0.01 s (2) 10 s (3) 0.1 s (4) None of these

48. ,d d.k tks 7mm vk;ke lfgr ljy gkeksZfud xfr ls fu’ikfnr gks jgk gS] mldk vf/kdre osx 4.4 m/s gSA nksyu dh vof/k gS%

(1) 0.01 s (2) 10 s (3) 0.1 s (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

49. A resistor ‘R’ and 2 µF capacitor in series is connected through a switch to 200V direct supply. Across the capacitor is a neon bulb that lights up at 120V. Calculate the value of R to make the bulb light up 5s after the switch has been closed. (log10 2.5 = 0.4): (1) 1.7 × 105 Ω (2) 2.7 × 106 Ω (3) 3.3 × 107 Ω (4) 1.3 × 104 Ω

49. Js.kh esa ,d izfrjks/kd R rFkk 2 µF la/kkfj= dks ,d fLop ds ek/;e ls 200V dh izR;k vkiwfrZ ds lkFk tksM+k tkrk gSA la/kkfj= ds vkj&ikj ,d fu;ku cYc gS tks 120V ij izdkf”kr gksrk gSA bl cYc ds fLop can gksus ls 5s ckn izdkf”kr gksus ds fy, R ds eku dh x.kuk djsa (log10 2.5 = 0.4): (1) 1.7 × 105 Ω (2) 2.7 × 106 Ω (3) 3.3 × 107 Ω (4) 1.3 × 104 Ω

50. A force where K is a positive constant,

acts on a particle moving in the x–y plane. Starting from the origin, the particle is taken along the positive x–axis to the point (a, 0) and then parallel to the y–axis to the point (a, a). The total work done by the force F on the particle is:

⎟⎟⎠

⎞⎜⎜⎝

⎛+=

∧∧jxiy K–F

(1) –2 Ka2 (2) 2 Ka2 (3) –Ka2 (4) Ka2

50. ,d cy ftlesa K ,d /kukRed fLFkjkad gS] x–y

ry ij pyrs gq, ,d d.k ij fØ;koku gksrk gSA mn~xe ls “kq: djrs gq, bl d.k dks /kukRed x–vk ds lkFk fcanq (a, 0) rd vkSj mlds ckn y–vk ds lekukarj fcanq (a, a) rd ys tk;k tkrk gSA d.k ij cy F kjk fd;k x;k dqy dk;Z gS%

⎟⎟⎠

⎞⎜⎜⎝

⎛+=

∧∧jxiy K–F

(1) –2 Ka2 (2) 2 Ka2

(3) –Ka2 (4) Ka2

51. A convex lens A of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens B of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same axis with a distance d between them. If a parallel beam of light falling on A leaves B as a parallel beam, then d is equal to: (1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm (3) 15 cm (4) Zero

51. mRry ysal A ftldh Qksdy nwjh 20 cm gS vkSj ,d vory ysal B ftldh Qksdy nwjh 5 cm gS dks] muds chp d nwjh ij mlh vk ds lkFk j[kk tkrk gSA ;fn A ij fxjus okyk izdk”k dk ,d lekukarj che] B dks ,d lekukarj che ds :i esa R;kx nsrk gS rks d fuEu ds cjkcj gS%

(1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm (3) 15 cm (4) Zero

52. Two spheres of radii 8 cm and 2 cm are cooling. Their temperatures are 127°C and 527°C respectively. Find the ratio of energy radiated by them in the same time: (1) 0.06 (2) 0.5 (3) 1 (4) 2

52. 8 cm vkSj 2 cm f=T;k ds nks xksyd iz”khfrr dj jgs gSaA muds rkieku Øe”k% 127°C rFkk 527°C gSA mlh le; ds nkSjku muds kjk fofdjf.kr ÅtkZ dk vuqikr Kkr djsa%

(1) 0.06 (2) 0.5 (3) 1 (4) 2

53. The electric field intensity E, due to an electric dipole of moment p, at a point on the equatorial line is: (1) Parallel to the axis of the dipole and opposite to the

direction of the dipole moment p (2) Perpendicular to the axis O the dipole and is directed

away from it (3) Parallel to the dipole moment (4) Perpendicular to the axis of the dipole and is directed

towards it

53. fo|qr ks=h; rhozrk E, vk?kw.kZ p ds ,d fo|qr f/kzqo ds dkj.k Hkwe/;orhZ js[kk esa fdlh fcanq ij gksrh gS% (1) f/kzqo ds lekukarj vkSj f/kzqo vk?kw.kZ p dh fn”kk ds izfrdwy (2) f/kzqo dh vk O ij yacor vkSj bls ;gka ls nwj funsfZ”kr dj

fn;k tkrk gS (3) f/kzqo vk?kw.kZ ds lekukarj (4) f/kzqo dh vk ij yacor vkSj ;g mldh rjQ funsZf”kr gksrh gS


54. Two long conductors, separated by a distance d carry currents I1 and I2 in the same direction. They exert a force F on each other. Now the current in one of them is increased to two times and its direction is reversed. The distance is also increased to 3d. The new value of the force between them is:

(1) –2F (2) 3F (3)

3F2– (4)

3F–

54. nks yacs pkyd ftUgsa nwjh d ls foyx j[kk tkrk gS mlh fn”kk esa /kkjk l1 rFkk l2 ogu djrs gSaA os ,d&nwljs ij cy F Mkyrs gSaA vc muesa ls ,d ds chp dh /kkjk nks xq.kk c<+ tkrh gS vkSj bldh fn”kk myVh gks tkrh gSA nwjh Hkh c<+dj 3d rd igqap tkrh gSA muds chp cy dk u;k eku gS%

(1) –2F (2) 3F (3)

3F2– (4)

3F–

55. The ratio of speed of sound in nitrogen and helium gas at 300 k is:

(1) 72 (2)

71 (3)

53 (4)

56

55. 300 k ij ukbVªkstu vkSj gSfy;e xSl esas /ofu dh pky dk vuqikr gS%

(1) 72 (2)

71 (3)

53 (4)

56

56. 0

2Eµ

has the dimensions (E = electric field and µ0 =

permeability of free space): (1) [M2L3T–2A2] (2) [MLT–4] (3) [ML2A–2T] (4) [M–1L2TA–2]

56. 0

2Eµ

dh foek,a gSa (E = fo|qr ks= rFkk µ0 = eqDr LFky dh

ikjxE;rk½% (1) [M2L3T–2A2] (2) [MLT–4] (3) [ML2A–2T] (4) [M–1L2TA–2]

57. The rate of emission of energy from a star is 2.7×1036Js–1. The rate of loss of mass in the star is: (1) 3×1019 kg s–1 (2) 3×1019 g s–1

(3) 0.3×102 kg s–1 (4) 3×10–6 g s–1

57. uk= ls ÅtkZ ds mRltZu dh nj 2.7×1036JS–1 gSA uk= esas nzO;eku dh kfr dh nj gS%

(1) 3×1019 kg s–1 (2) 3×1019 g s–1

(3) 0.3×102 kg s–1 (4) 3×10–6 g s–1

58. A pure Si crystal has 5×1028 atoms/m3. It is doped by 1 ppm concentration of phosphorous. If the intrinsic carrier concentration is 1.41×1016 m–3, the number of holes will be around: (1) 2×103 m–3 (2) 4×1010 m–3

(3) 4×109 m–3 (4) 2×109 m–3

58. ,d fo”kq) Si fØLVy ds 5×1028 ijek.kq/m3 gSA bls QkLQksjl ds 1 ppm ladsUnz.k kjk Mksfir fd;k tkrk gSA ;fn uSt okgd ladsUnz.k 1.41×1016 m–3 gS rks fNnzksa dh la[;k gksxh yxHkx%

(1) 2×103 m–3 (2) 4×1010 m–3

(3) 4×109 m–3 (4) 2×109 m–3

59. Two thermally insulated vessels 1 and 2 are filled with air at temperatures (T1, T2), volume (V1, V2) and pressure (P1, P2) respectively. If the valve joining the two vessels is opened, the temperature inside the vessel at equilibrium will be: (1) T1, T2 (P1V1 + P2V2) / (P1V1T2 + P2V2T1)

(2) 2

)TT( 21 +

(3) T1, T2 (P1V1 + P2V2) / (P1V1T1 + P2V2T2) (4) None of these

59. rks rkih; n`f’V ls Å’ekjks/kh ik= 1 vkSj 2 dks Øe”k% rkieku (T1, T2), vk;ru (V1, V2) vkSj ncko (P1, P2) ij gok ls Hkjk tkrk gSA ;fn nks ik=ksa dks tksM+us okyk okYo [kksy fn;k tkrk gS rks larqyu ij ik= ds Hkhrj dk rkieku gksxk% (1) T1, T2 (P1V1 + P2V2) / (P1V1T2 + P2V2T1)

(2) 2

)TT( 21 +

(3) T1, T2 (P1V1 + P2V2) / (P1V1T1 + P2V2T2) (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

60. An ideal coil of 10H is connected in series with a resistance of 5Ω and a battery of 5V. 2 second after the connection is made, the current flowing in ampere in the circuit is: (1) (1–e–1) (2) (1–e) (3) e (4) e–1

60. 10H dh ,d vkn”kZ dk;y dks izfrjks/kd 5Ω rFkk 5V dh cSVjh ds lkFk Js.kh esa tksM+k tkrk gSA la;kstu ds 2 lsdaM ds ckn ifjiFk esa izokfgr gksus okyh /kkjk ,sEih;j esa gksxh% (1) (1–e–1) (2) (1–e) (3) e (4) e–1

61. A 50 Hz AC current of rest value of 14 flows through the primary of a transformer. If the mutual inductance between the primary and secondary coils is 1.5H, the rest value of voltage induced in the secondary: (1) 75 V (2) 300 V (3) 250 V (4) None of these

61. VªkalQkeZj dh izkFkfedh ds ek/;e ls ,d 50 Hz AC /kkjk dk fojke 14 dk eku cgrk gSA ;fn izkFkfed vkSj frh;d dk;yksa ds chp ikjLifjd izsjdRo 1.5H gS rks frh;d esa izsfjr oksYVrk dk fojke eku gS%

(1) 75 V (2) 300 V (3) 250 V (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha


62. A red LED emits light at 0.1 W uniformly around it. The amplitude of the electric field of the light at a distance of 1 m from the diode is: (1) 1.73V/m (2) 2.45V/m (3) 5.48V/m (4) None of these

62. ,d yky LED vius bnZfxnZ ,dleku :i ls 0.1W izdk”k mRlftZr djrh gSA Mk;ksM ls 1 m dh nwjh ij izdk”k ds ks= dk vk;ke gS%

(1) 1.73V/m (2) 2.45V/m (3) 5.48V/m (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

63. If a source of power 4kW produces 1020 photons/ second, the radiation belong to a part of spectrum called: (1) X–rays (2) Ultraviolet rays (3) Microwaves (4) γ–rays

63. ;fn 4kW fo|qr dk lzksr 1020 QksVksu@lsdaM mRikfnr djrk gS rks fofdj.k LisDVªe ds ,d fgLls ls lacaf/kr gS tks dgykrk gS% (1) X–rays (2) ijkcSaxuh fdj.ksa (3) lwerjax (4) γ–rays

64. The angle of incidence at which reflected light is totally polarized for reflection from air to glass (refractive index n), is:

(1) sin–1(n) (2) ⎟⎠

⎞⎜⎝

⎛n1 sin 1–

(3) ⎟⎠

⎞⎜⎝

⎛n1 tan 1– (4) tan–1 (n)

64. vkur dks.k ftl ij ijkofrZr izdk”k ok;q ls dkap dks ijkorZu ds fy, iw.kZr% /kzqohd`r gks tkrk gS ¼viorZukad n½

(1) sin–1(n) (2) ⎟⎠

⎞⎜⎝

⎛n1 sin 1–

(3) ⎟⎠

⎞⎜⎝

⎛n1 tan 1– (4) tan–1 (n)

65. The energy of a hydrogen atom in its ground state is –13.6 eV. The energy of the level corresponding to the quantum number n = 5 is: (1) –0.54 eV (2) –5.40 eV (3) –0.85 eV (4) –2.72 eV

65. gkbMªkstu ijek.kq dh bldh fuEure voLFkk esa ÅtkZ gS –13.6 eVA DokUVe la[;k n = 5 ds vuq:ih Lrj dh ÅtkZ gS%

(1) –0.54 eV (2) –5.40 eV (3) –0.85 eV (4) –2.72 eV

66. Which is different from others by units? (1) Phase difference (2) Mechanical equivalent (3) Loudness of sound (4) Poisson’s ratio

66. dkSu ;wfuVksa ds vFkksZa esa nwljksa ls fHkUu gS\ (1) izkoLFkk varj (2) ;kaf=d lerqY; (3) /ofu dh izcyrk (4) Ioklksa dk vuqikr

67. A boat full of iron scrap is floating on water in lake. If all the iron is dropped into water, the level of water: (1) Goes up (2) Remains the same (3) Rises very high (4) None of these

67. ksI; yksgs ls Hkjh gqbZ ,d uko >hy esa ikuh esa rSj jgh gSA ;fn lkjk yksgk ikuh esa Qsad fn;k tkrk gS rks ikuh dk Lrj% (1) c<+ tkrk gS (2) iwoZor jgrk gS (3) cgqr Åapk mB tkrk gS (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

68. The excess pressure across the surface of a soap bubble of radius R (T is surface tension of a soap solution) is:

(1) RT4 (2)

RT8

(3) RT2 (4)

2T

68. f=T;k R ds lkcqu ds cqycqys dh lrg ds vkj&ikj vfrfjDr nkc gS ¼lkcqu ds ?kksy dk i`’B ruko gS T½%

(1) RT4 (2)

RT8

(3) RT2 (4)

2T

69. A block of mass 5 kg is moving horizontally at a speed of 1.5 ms–1. A vertically upward force 5N acts on it for 4s. What will be the distance of the block from the point where the force starts acting? (1) 2m (2) 6m (3) 8m (4) 10m

69. 5 kg nzO;eku dk ,d Cykd 1.5 ms–1 dh xfr ls kSfrt :i ls py jgk gSA Å/okZ/kj Å/oZeq[kh cy 4s ds fy, bl ij fØ;koku gksrk gSA ftl fcanq ij cy fØ;k”khy gksrk gS mlls Cykd dh nwjh D;k gksxh\ (1) 2m (2) 6m (3) 8m (4) 10m

70. When a charged particle of charge e revolves in a circular orbit of radius r with frequency ν then orbital current will be:

(1) 2reπ

ν (2) r4

eπν

(3) (4) None of these

70. tc dksbZ vkos”k e ls vkosf”kr d.k vko`fRr ν ds lkFk f=T;k r dh o`Rrkdkj dkk esa Qsjs yxrk gS rks dkh; /kkjk gksxh%

(1) 2reπ

ν (2) r4

eπν

(3) r2

eπν (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

r2eπν


71. The maximum number of 90° angles between bond pair – bond pair of electrons is observed in: (1) dsp2 hybridization (2) sp3d hybridization (3) dsp3 hybridization (4) sp3d2 hybridization

71. ca/k ;qXe ds chp 90° dks.k dh vf/kdre la[;k & bysDVªksu dk ca/k ;qXe fuEu esa ik;k tkrk gS% (1) dsp2 ladj.k (2) sp3d ladj.k (3) dsp3 ladj.k (4) sp3d2 ladj.k

72. For a particular reversible reaction at temperature T, ∆H and ∆S were found to be both + ve. If Te is the temperature at equilibrium, then reaction would be spontaneous when: (1) Te > T (2) T > Te(3) T = Te(4) None of these

72. ,d rkieku T ij ,d fof”k’V mRØE; vfHkfØ;k ds fy, ∆H rFkk ∆S & nksuksa + ve ik, x,A ;fn lkE;koLFkk ij Te rkieku gS] rks vfHkfØ;k Lor% LQwrZ gksxh tc% (1) Te > T (2) T > Te(3) T = Te(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

73. Uncertainity in position of a minute particle of mass 25g in space is 10–5m. What is the uncertainity in its velocity (in ms–1)? (h = 6.6×10–34 Js) (1) 2.1×10–34

(2) 0.5×10–34

(3) 2.1×10–28

(4) 0.5×10–23

73. varfjk esa 25g nzO;eku ds ,d lwe d.k dh fLFkfr dk vfuf”prrk 10–5m gSA bldh pky (ms–1 esa) esa D;k vfuf”prrk gS\ (h = 6.6×10–34 Js): (1) 2.1×10–34

(2) 0.5×10–34

(3) 2.1×10–28

(4) 0.5×10–23

74. The pKa of a weak acid, HA, is 4.80. The pK of a weak base, BOH, is 4.78. The pH of an aqueous solution of the corresponding salt, BA, will be: (1) 9.58 (2) 4.79 (3) 7.01 (4) 9.22

74. ,d nqcZy vEy HA dk pKa gS 4.80A ,d nqcZy vk/kkj BOH dk pK 4.78 gSA rnuq:ih yo.k BA ds ,d tyh; ?kksy dk pH gksxk%

(1) 9.58 (2) 4.79 (3) 7.01 (4) 9.22

75. In acidic medium is converted to Mn–4MnO 2+. The

quantity of electricity in faraday required to reduce 0.5 mole of to Mn–

4MnO 2+ would be:

(1) 2.5 (2) 5 (3) 1 (4) 0.5

75. vEyh; ek/;e esa dks Mn–4MnO 2+ esa ifjofrZr dj fn;k tkrk gSA

ds 0.5 eksy dks ?kVkdj Mn–4MnO 2+ cukus esa QSjkMs eas fo|qr dh

visfkr ek=k gksxh%

(1) 2.5 (2) 5 (3) 1 (4) 0.5

76. CHCl3 and KOH on heating with a compound form a bad smelling product, compound is: (1) C2H5CN (2) C2H5NC (3) C2H5OH (4) C2H5NH2

76. CHCl3 rFkk KOH ,d fefJr :i esa rkfir djus ij ,d nqxZa/k;qDr mRikn] ;kSfxd dh mRifRr gksrh gS% (1) C2H5CN (2) C2H5NC (3) C2H5OH (4) C2H5NH2

77. The standard reduction potentials of Cu2+ | CU and cU2+ | Cu+ are 0.337 V and 0.153 V, respectively. The standard electrode potential of Cu+ | Cu half cell is: (1) 0.184 V (2) 0.827 V (3) 0.521V (4) None of these

77. Cu2+ | CU rFkk cU2+ | Cu+ ds ekud U;wuhdj.k foHko Øe”k% 0.337 V rFkk 0.153 V gSaA Cu+ | Cu half cell dk ekud bysDVªksM foHko gS% (1) 0.184 V (2) 0.827 V (3) 0.521 V (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

78. The increasing order for the values of e/m (charge/ mass) for electron (e), proton (p), neutron (n) and alpha particle (α) is: (1) e, p, n, α (2) n, p, e, α (3) n, p, α, e (4) n, α, p, e

78. bysDVªksu (e), izksVksu (p), U;wVªksu (n) rFkk ,sYQk d.k (α) ds e/m ¼vkos”k@nzO;eku½ ds ekuksa dk c<+rk gqvk Øe gS%

(1) e, p, n, α (2) n, p, e, α (3) n, p, α, e (4) n, α, p, e


79. Which of the following is not a Lewis acid? (1) CO (2) SiCl4(3) SO3 (4) Zn2+

79. fuEu esa ls dkSu ,d ywbl vEy ugha gS\ (1) CO (2) SiCl4(3) SO3 (4) Zn2+

80. When CO2 is passed through solution of calcium hydroxide, which one of the following compound is precipitated? (1) Ca (HCO3)2 (2) CaO (3) CaCO3 (4) Ca (OH)2

80. tc CO2 dks dSfY”k;e gkbMªkDlkbM ds feJ.k ds chp ls xqtkjk tkrk gS rks fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk feJ voksfir gksrk gS\ (1) Ca (HCO3)2 (2) CaO (3) CaCO3 (4) Ca (OH)2

81. On passing current through two cells connected in series containing solution of AgNO3 and CuSO4, 0.18g of Ag is deposited. The amount of Cu deposited is: (1) 0.6354 g (2) 10.623 g (3) 0.06354 g (4) 0.05295 g

81. Js.kh esa tqM+s gq, ,sls nks lsyksa ds ek/;e ls /kkjk xqtkjus ij ftuesa AgNO3 rFkk CuSO4 ?kksy ekStwn gSa] 0.18g Ag tek gks tkrk gSA tek gq, Cu dh ek=k gS%

(1) 0.6354 g (2) 10.623 g (3) 0.06354 g (4) 0.05295 g

82. A 5.2 molal aqueous solution of methyl alcohol, Ch3OH, is supplied. What is the mole fraction of methyl alcohol in the solution: (1) 0.100 (2) 0.190 (3) 0.086 (4) 0.050

82. feFkkbZy vYdksgy Ch3OH dk ,d 5.2 eksyr tyh; ?kksy dh vkiwfrZ dh tkrh gSA ?kksy esa eSfFky vYdksgy dk eksy fHkUu gS% (1) 0.100 (2) 0.190 (3) 0.086 (4) 0.050

83. Which of the following is a polyamide? (1) Bakelite (2) Terylene (3) Nylon–66 (4) Teflon

83. dkSu&lk ,d ikWyh,ekbZM gS% (1) csdykbZV (2) Vsjsyhu (3) uk;ykWu&66 (4) VsQykWu

84. Bakelite is obtained from phenol by reaction with: (1) HCHO (2) (CH2 OH)2(3) CH3 CHO (4) CH3 CO CH3

84. csdykbZV dks fQukWy ls çkIr djrs gSa fdlds vfHkfØ;k ds lkFk%

(1) HCHO (2) (CH2 OH)2(3) CH3 CHO (4) CH3 CO CH3

85. 4.6 × 1022 atoms of an element weigh 13.8g. The atomic weight of that element is: (1) 290 g (2) 180.6 g (3) 34.4 g (4) None of these

85. ,d rRo ds 4.6 × 1022 ijek.kqvksa dk Hkkj 13.8g gSA ml rRo dk ijek.kq Hkkj gS%

(1) 290 g (2) 180.6 g (3) 34.4 g (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

86. The cannizaro reaction is not given by: (1) Trimethyl acetaldehyde (2) Acetaldehyde (3) Benzaldehyde (4) Formaldehyde

86. fuEu kjk dSfutsjks vfHkfØ;k izkIr ugha gksrh% (1) VªkbeSFkkby ,slhVyMhgkbM (2) ,slhVyMhgkbM (3) cSatyMhgkbM (4) QkeZyMhgkbM

87. A gaseous mixture contains 56 g of N2, 44g of CO2 and 16g of CH4. The total pressure of mixture is 720 mm of Hg. The partial pressure of methane is: (1) 75 atm (2) 160 atm (3) 180 atm (4) 215 atm

87. ,d xSlh feJ.k esa N2 ds 56 g, CO2 ds 44g rFkk CH4 ds 16g gSA feJ.k dh dqy nkc Hg dk 720 mm gSA ehFksu dh vkaf”kd nkc gS%

(1) 75 atm (2) 160 atm (3) 180 atm (4) 215 atm


88. For a reversible reaction: x(g) + 3y (g) 2Z (g); ∆H = –40kJ, the standard entropies of x, y and Z are 60, 40 and 50 JK–1 mol–1 respectively. The temperature at which the above reaction attains equilibrium is about: (1) 400 K (2) 500 K (3) 276 K (4) 373 K

88. mRØe.kh; vfHkfØ;k% x(g) + 3y (g) 2Z (g); ∆H = –40kJ x, y vkSj Z dh ekud ,sUVªkih Øe”k% 60, 40 rFkk 50 JK–1 mol–1 gSA og rkieku ftl ij mDr vfHkfØ;k lkE;koLFkk izkIr dj ysrh gS] yxHkx gS%

(1) 400 K (2) 500 K (3) 276 K (4) 373 K

89. The electronegativity of the following elements increases in the order: (1) C, N, Si, P (2) N, Si, C, P (3) Si, P, C, N (4) P, Si, N, C

89. fuEu rRoksa dh fo|qr _.kkRedrk fuEu Øe esa c<+rh gS% (1) C, N, Si, P (2) N, Si, C, P (3) Si, P, C, N (4) P, Si, N, C

90. Thomas slag is: (1) Calcium silicate (2) Calcium phosphate (3) Tricalcium phosphate and calcium silicate (4) Calcium ammonium phosphate

90. FkkWel /kkrq ey gS% (1) dSfY”k;e flyhdsV (2) dSfY”k;e QLQsV (3) VªkbdSfY”k;e QkLQsV vkSj dSfY”k;e flyhdsV (4) dSfY”k;e ,seksfu;e QkLQsV

91. Which one of the following complexes is an outer orbital complex: (1) [Co(NH3)6]3+

(2) [Mn(CN)6]4–

(3) [Fe(CN)6]4–

(4) [Ni(NH3)6]2+

(Atomic nos. : Mn = 25; Fe = 26; Co = 27; Ni = 28)

91. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk ifjlj ,d ckgjh dkh; ifjlj gS\ (1) [Co(NH3)6]3+

(2) [Mn(CN)6]4–

(3) [Fe(CN)6]4–

(4) [Ni(NH3)6]2+

(Atomic nos. : Mn = 25; Fe = 26; Co = 27; Ni = 28)

92. Copper crystallises in fcc lattice with a unit cell edge of 361 pm. The radius of copper atom is nearly: (1) 181 pm (2) 108 pm (3) 128 pm (4) None of these

92. rkack 361 pm ds ;wfuV lsy Nksj ls ;qDr fcc tkyd esa fØLVyhd`r gks tkrk gSA rkack ijek.kq dh f=T;k gS yxHkx%

(1) 181 pm (2) 108 pm (3) 128 pm (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

93. The reaction 2A+B+C → D+E is found to be first order in A, second in B and zero order in C. What is the effect on the rate of increasing concentration of a, B and C two times: (1) 72 times (2) 8 times (3) 24 times (4) None of these

93. vfHkfØ;k 2A+B+C → D+E, A esa igyk Øe] B esa nwljk Øe vkSj C esa “kwU; Øe eas ikbZ tkrh gSA a, B vkSj C ds ladsUnz.k dks nqxquk djus dk c<+rk gqvk ladsUnz.k dh nj ij D;k izHkko gS\ (1) 72 xq.kk (2) 8 xq.kk (3) 24 xq.kk (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

94. Alkyl syanides undergo stephen reduction to produce: (1) Aldehyde (2) Secondary amine (3) Primary amine (4) Amide

94. ,sYdsykby lkbukbM~l fuEu dh mRifRr djus ds fy, LVhQu y?kwdj.k ls xqtjrs gSa% (1) ,sYMhgkbM (2) frh;d ,sehu (3) izkFkfed ,sehu (4) ,sekbM

95. In Nessler’s reagent the ion present is: (1) Hg I2–

(2) Hg I42–

(3) Hg+

(4) Hg++

95. uSlyj vfHkdeZd esa ekStwn vk;u gS% (1) Hg I2–

(2) Hg I42–

(3) Hg+

(4) Hg++


96. The value of ⎥⎦

⎤⎢⎣

⎡⎟⎠

⎞⎜⎝

⎛+⎟

⎠

⎞⎜⎝

⎛31tan

21tan 1–1– is:

(1) 2π (2) π

(3) 4π (4) None of these

96. ⎥⎦

⎤⎢⎣

⎡⎟⎠

⎞⎜⎝

⎛+⎟

⎠

⎞⎜⎝

⎛31tan

21tan 1–1– dk eku gS%

(1) 2π (2) π

(3) 4π (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

97. The value of λ, for which the lines 4

1Z3y

21–x +

== and

35–Z2–y

34x

=λ

=+ are perpendicular, is:

(1) 6 (2) 1/6 (3) –6 (4) –1/6

97. λ] ftlds fy, js[kk,a 4

1Z3y

21–x +

== rFkk

35–Z2–y

34x

=λ

=+ yacor gSa] dk eku gS%

(1) 6 (2) 1/6 (3) –6 (4) –1/6

98. The sum of a G.P. with common ratio 3 is 364 and last term is 243, then the number of terms is: (1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 10

98. lkekU; vuqikr 3 lfgr ,d G.P. dk ;ksx 364 gS vkSj vafre in 243 gS] rks inksa dh la[;k gS% (1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 10

99. If 1–51–31–2

5.43.22D

nnn

1–r1–r1–r

r γβα= then the value of is

equal to:

∑=

n

1rrD

(1) α + β + γ (2) α.2n + β.3n + γ.4n

(3) 0 (4) α β γ

99. ;fn 1–51–31–2

5.43.22D

nnn

1–r1–r1–r

r γβα= rks dk eku fuEu ds

cjkcj gS%

∑=

n

1rrD

(1) α + β + γ (2) α.2n + β.3n + γ.4n

(3) 0 (4) α β γ

100. If P(n, r) = 1680 and C(n, r) = 70, then 69n + r! is equal to: (1) 128 (2) 576 (3) 256 (4) 625

100. ;fn P(n, r) = 1680 vkSj C(n, r) = 70, rks 69n + r! fuEu ds cjkcj gS%

(1) 128 (2) 576 (3) 256 (4) 625

101. For any vector , the value of

is equal to:

→a

222kajaia ⎟⎟⎠

⎞⎜⎜⎝

⎛×+⎟

⎟⎠

⎞⎜⎜⎝

⎛×+⎟

⎟⎠

⎞⎜⎜⎝

⎛×

∧→∧→∧→

(1) (2) a2 2

a4→ 2→

(3) (4) 2

a→ 2

a3→

101. fdlh Hkh lfn”k ds fy, fuEu ds

cjkcj gS%

→a

222kajaia ⎟⎟⎠

⎞⎜⎜⎝

⎛×+⎟

⎟⎠

⎞⎜⎜⎝

⎛×+⎟

⎟⎠

⎞⎜⎜⎝

⎛×

∧→∧→∧→

(1) (2) 2

a4→ 2

a2→

(3) (4) 2

a→ 2

a3→

102. If x is real, then the value of the expression

3x2x9x14x

2

2

++

++ lies between:

(1) –3 and 3 (2) –4 and 5 (3) –4 and 4 (4) –5 and 4

102. ;fn x okLrfod gS rks vfHkO;fDr 3x2x9x14x

2

2

++

++ dk eku fuEu ds

chp iM+rk gS% (1) –3 ,oa 3 (2) –4 ,oa 5 (3) –4 ,oa 4 (4) –5 ,oa 4

103. Find the ratio in which the line segment joining the points (4, 8, 10) and (6, 10, –8) is divided by the y–z plane: (1) 2:3 (2) 1:2 (3) 1:3 (4) 3:4

103. og vuqikr Kkr djsa ftlesa fcanq (4, 8, 10) rFkk (6, 10, –8) dks tksM+us okyk js[kk [kaM y–z lery ls foHkkftr gS%

(1) 2:3 (2) 1:2 (3) 1:3 (4) 3:4

104. If , then the angle between and is:

|B| |A| |BA|→→→→

==+→A

→B

(1) 0° (2) 60° (3) 90° (4) 120°

104. ;fn gS rks ,oa ds chp dk dks.k gS% |B| |A| |BA|→→→→

==+→A

→B

(1) 0° (2) 60° (3) 90° (4) 120°


105. If ω ≠ 1 is the complex cube root of unity and matrix

ωω

=0

0H , then H70 is equal to:

(1) 0 (2) –H (3) H2 (4) H

105. ;fn ω ≠ 1 ;wfuVh dk fefJr ?kuewy vkSj eSfVªDl ω

ω=

00

H rks

H70 fuEu ds cjkcj gS%

(1) 0 (2) –H (3) H2 (4) H

106. A focus of an ellipse is at the origin. The directrix is

the line x = 4 and the eccentricity is 21 . Then the length

of the semi–major axis is:

(1) 38 (2)

32

(3) 34 (4)

35

106. ,d nh?kZo`Rr dk Qksdl mn~xe ij gSA js[kk x = 4 fu;ark gS vkSj

mRdsUnzrk 21 gSA v)Z&izeq[k vk dh yackbZ gS%

(1) 38 (2)

32

(3) 34 (4)

35

107. x

2

2

2xx35xx

xLim

⎟⎟⎠

⎞⎜⎜⎝

⎛

++

++∞→

(1) e4 (2) e2

(3) e3 (4) None of these

107. x

2

2

2xx35xx

xLim

⎟⎟⎠

⎞⎜⎜⎝

⎛

++

++∞→

gS%

(1) e4 (2) e2

(3) e3 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

108. If A and B are square matrices of size n × n such that A2–B2 = (A–B) (A+B), then which of the following will be always true? (1) A=B (2) AB+BA (3) Either of A or B is a zero matrix (4) None of these

108. ;fn A vkSj B vkdkj n x n ds oxkZdkj eSfVªl ,sls gSa ftlls A2–B2 = (A–B) (A+B) gS rks fuEu esa ls dkSu lnSo lgh gksxk%

(1) A=B (2) AB+BA (3) A vFkok B “kwU; eSfVªDl gS (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

109. If 43)B(P = , P (A ∩ B ∩ C ) =

31 and P ( A ∩ B ∩ C ) =

31 , then P (B ∩ C) is:

(1) 121 (2)

61

(3) 151 (4)

91

109. ;fn 43)B(P = , P (A ∩ B ∩ C ) =

31 rFkk P ( A ∩ B ∩ C ) =

31 rks P (B ∩ C) gS%

(1) 121 (2)

61

(3) 151 (4)

91

110. The function f(x) = log (x + 1x2 + ) is:

(1) Even function (2) Odd function (3) Neither even nor odd (4) Periodic function

110. Qyu f(x) = log (x + 1x2 + ) gS% (1) le Qyu (2) fo’ke Qyu (3) u le u fo’ke (4) vkof/kd Qyu

111. A curve having the condition that the slope of tangent at some point is two times the slope of the straight line joining the same point to the origin of co–ordinates, is a/an: (1) Circle (2) Ellipse (3) Parabola (4) Hyperbola

111. ,d oØ ftldh fLFkfr ;g gS fd fdlh fcanq ij Li”kZ js[kk dk <ky] mlh fcanq dks funsZ”kkadksa ds mn~xe dks tksM+us okyh lh/kh js[kk ds <ky ls nqxquk gS] rks ,slk oØ gS ,d% (1) o`Rr (2) nh?kZo`Rr (3) ijoy; (4) vfrijoy;

112. A particle is moving along the curve x = at2 + bt + c. If ac = b2, then the particle would be moving with uniform: (1) Rotation (2) Velocity (3) Acceleration (4) Retardation

112. ,d d.k oØ x = at2 + bt + c ds lkFk ?kwe jgk gS ;fn ac = b2 gS rks d.k ,dleku------------ls ?kwe jgk gksxk% (1) ?kw.kZu (2) osx (3) Roj.k (4) fjVkMsZ”ku


113. If 2x–4y = 9 and 6x–12y+7 = 0 are common tangents to the circle, then radius of the circle is:

(1) 53 (2)

5617

(3) 32 (4)

5317

113. ;fn 2x–4y = 9 rFkk 6x–12y+7 = 0 o`Rr ds fy, lkekU; Li”kZ js[kk,a gSa rks o`Rr dh f=T;k gS%

(1) 53 (2)

5617

(3) 32 (4)

5317

114. If y = x2emx, where m is a constant, then 3

3

dxyd is equal

to: (1) memx (m2x2+6mx+6) (2) 2m3xems

(3) memx (m2x2+2mx+2) (4) None of these

114. ;fn y = x2emx gS] ftlesa m ,d fLFkjkad gS] rks 3

3

dxyd fuEu ds

cjkcj gS% (1) memx (m2x2+6mx+6) (2) 2m3xems

(3) memx (m2x2+2mx+2) (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

115. tan α + 2tan 2α + 4tan 4α + 8cot 8α is equal to: (1) tan 16α (2) 0 (3) cot α (4) None of these

115. α + 2tan 2α + 4tan 4α + 8cot 8α fuEu ds lerqY; gS% (1) tan 16α (2) 0 (3) cot α (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

116. C0Cr+C1Cr+1 + C2Cr+2 + ... +Cn–rCn is equal to:

(1) r)!(n! r)–(n

! n 2+

(2) r)!(n! r

! n+

(3) r)!–(n! n

(4) None of these

116. C0Cr+C1Cr+1 + C2Cr+2 + ... +Cn–rCn fuEu ds cjkcj gS%

(1) r)!(n! r)–(n

! n 2+

(2) r)!(n! r

! n+

(3) r)!–(n! n

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

117. The value of ⎟⎟⎠

⎞⎜⎜⎝

⎛+⎟

⎟⎠

⎞⎜⎜⎝

⎛+⎟

⎟⎠

⎞⎜⎜⎝

⎛

abc log

cab log

bca log

222 is:

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) ac (4) bc

117. ⎟⎟⎠

⎞⎜⎜⎝

⎛+⎟

⎟⎠

⎞⎜⎜⎝

⎛+⎟

⎟⎠

⎞⎜⎜⎝

⎛

abc log

cab log

bca log

222 dk eku gS%

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) ac (4) bc

118. The coefficient of the middle term in the binomial expansion in powers of x of (1+αx)4 and of (1–αx)6 is the same if α equals:

(1) 53 (2)

310

(3) 10

3– (4) 35–

118. x dh “kfDr;ka (1+αx)4 rFkk (1–αx)6 ds fin foLrkj esa e/; in dk xq.kkad ogh gS ;fn α fuEu ds cjkcj gS%

(1) 53 (2)

310

(3) 10

3– (4) 35–

119. Let P be the point (1, 0) and Q a point on the locus y2 = 8x. The locus of mid point of PQ is: (1) y2 – 4x + 2 = 0 (2) y2 + 4x + 2 = 0 (3) x2 + 4y + 2 = 0 (4) x2 – 4y + 2 = 0

119. eku yhft, fd fcanqiFk y2 = 8x ij P ,d fcanq (1, 0) rFkk Q ,d fcanq gSA PQ ds e/; fcanq dk fcanqiFk gS% (1) y2 – 4x + 2 = 0 (2) y2 + 4x + 2 = 0 (3) x2 + 4y + 2 = 0 (4) x2 – 4y + 2 = 0

120. Let a1, a2, a3 ......... be terms on A.P.. If

qp ,qp

a .... aaa .... aa

2

2

q21

p21≠=

++

++, then

21

6aa equals:

(1) 1141 (2)

27

(3) 72 (4)

4111

120. eku yhft, fd AP ij a1, a2, a3 ......... in gSA ;fn

qp ,qp

a .... aaa .... aa

2

2

q21

p21≠=

++

++ gS rks

21

6aa fuEu ds cjkcj gS%

(1) 1141 (2)

27

(3) 72 (4)

4111


egRoiw.kZ% fuEufyf[kr funsZ'k /;kuiwoZd i<+saA vius ç”uksa ds mÙkj ç”u&iqfLrdk esa u yxk,a vU;Fkk p;u çfØ;k ls vkidh ik=rk oafpr dj nh tk;sxhA 1. viuk mÙkj fy[kuk çkjEHk djus ls igys viuh ç'u iqfLrdk dh Hkyh&Hkk¡fr tk¡p dj ysa] ns[k ysa fd blesa 120 ç'u gSaA çR;sd ç'u iqfLrdk dh fljht fHké

gksxh ¼ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht dk la;kstu½A vkidks OMR mÙkj if=dk ij lgh ç'u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k fy[kuk gSA iqu% ;g Hkh ij[k ysa fd blesa fçafVax laca/kh vFkok vU; fdLe dh dksbZ deh ugha gSA ;fn fdlh çdkj dh dksbZ deh gks rks i;Zoskd dks lwfpr djsa vkSj ç”u&iqfLrdk cnydj ,d u;h iqfLrdk ysaA bl lanHkZ esa fdlh Hkh çdkj dh dksbZ f'kdk;r ij ckn esa dksbZ fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA egRoiw.kZ uksV% vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk vH;FkÊ ds ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ds la;kstu ls ewY;kafdr dh tk;sxhA vr% vkidks vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij lgh ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k fy[kuk pkfg,A buesa ls fdlh ,d esa Hkh xyrh gksus ij vkidh vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk fujLr gks ldrh gSA vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk esa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ugha Hkjus ij vH;FkÊ ds mÙkj if=dk dk ewY;kadu ugha fd;k tk;sxk ftldh ftEesnkjh Lor% vH;FkÊ dh gksxhA

2. xyr mÙkj ds fy, 1/3 _.kkRed vadu gksxkA çR;sd ç”u ds vad leku gSaA foLr`r tkudkjh ds fy, mÙkj i=d dk voyksdu djsaA 3. dk&fujhkd ls vius ços”k&i= ij gLrkkj vo”; djok,aA ;fn vkius gLrkkj ugha djok;k rks vkidh ik=rk jí dj nh tk,xhA 4. ;g ,d oLrqijd fdLe dh ijhkk gS ftlesa çR;sd ç'u ds uhps Øekad (1) ls (4) rd pkj çLrkfor mÙkj fn;s gSaA vkids fopkj esa tks Hkh mÙkj lgh@loZJs"B gS mldks

vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj i= esa fn;s funsZ'k ds vuqlkj fpfUgr dhft,A vius mÙkj ç'u iqfLrdk esa u yxk,A 5. vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij lHkh dk;ks± ds fy, uhys@dkys ckWy Iokb±V isu ls fy[ksaA vks-,e-vkj mÙkj if=dk ij vksoy dks iw.kZ :i ls dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy

Iokb±V isu ls HkjsaA ,d ckj fn, x, mÙkj dks cnyk ugha tk ldrkA 6. mÙkj&i= ij u rks jQ+ dk;Z djsa u gh vkSj fdlh çdkj dk fu'kku vkfn yxk,a ;k bls eksaM+sA 7. dsYdqysVj] LykbM:y] eksckbZy] dsYdqysVj ?kfM+;k¡ ;k bl çdkj dh dksbZ Hkh ;qfä ,oa fdlh Hkh v/;;u@lanHkZ lkexzh vkfn dk ç;ksx ijhkk dk esa oftZr gSA 8. jQ+ dk;Z iqfLrdk esa fdlh Hkh [kkyh LFkku esa fd;k tkuk pkfg,] vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij dksbZ Hkh jQ+ dk;Z u djsaA fdlh vU; dkx+t ij bls djus dh

vuqefr ugha gSA 9. ijhkk dh lekfIr ds i'pkr~ viuh iwjh ç'u&iqfLrdk rFkk mÙkj&if=dk i;Zoskd dks okil dj nsaA ç'u iqfLrdk ;k blds fdlh Hkkx vFkok OMR mÙkj if=dk

dks ijhkk dk ls ckgj ys tkuk oftZr gS ,slk djuk nUMuh; vijk/k gSA 10. gj ,d ç'u ds fy, dsoy ,d gh mÙkj bafxr djsaA ,d ls vf/kd mÙkj nsus ij ç'u dk dksbZ vad ugha fn;k tk,xkA mÙkj esa dksbZ Hkh dfVax ;k vksojjkbZfVax ekU;

ugha gksxhA iqu% ç'u i= fHkk"kh; ¼fgUnh ,oa vaxzsth½ esa gSA fgUnh laLdj.k esa fdlh Hkh fHkérk gksus ij ewY;kadu ds fy, vaxzsth laLdj.k dks vfUre ekuk tk;sxkA dPps dk;Z ds fy,

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Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. Questions: 120 ç u ksa dh qy … … · question, the same ill...

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