TTaarrggeett:: AAIIIIMMSS--22001177 - Resonance...

®

Academic Session: 2016-17

FFUULLLL SSYYLLLLAABBUUSS TTEESSTT ((FFSSTT)) ((AAIIIIMMSS PPAATTTTEERRNN))

TTaarrggeett:: AAIIIIMMSS--22001177

Please read the last page of this booklet for the instructions.

(Ñi;k funsZ'kksa ds fy;s bl iqfLrdk ds vfUre i`"B dks i<+sA)

RReessoonnaannccee EEdduuvveennttuurreess LLttdd.. CCOORRPPOORRAATTEE OOFFFFIICCEE :: CCGG TToowweerr,, AA--4466 && 5522,, IIPPIIAA,, NNeeaarr CCiittyy MMaallll,, JJhhaallaawwaarr RRooaadd,, KKoottaa ((RRaajj..)) -- 332244000055

PPhh..NNoo.. :: ++9911--774444--33001122222222,, 66663355555555 || TToollll FFrreeee :: 11880000 225588 55555555

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WWeebbssiittee :: wwwwww..rreessoonnaannccee..aacc..iinn || EE--mmaaiill :: ccoonnttaacctt@@rreessoonnaannccee..aacc..iinn || CCIINN:: UU8800330022RRJJ22000077PPLLCC002244002299

DDaattee:: 2288 MMaayy,, 22001177 || DDuurraattiioonn:: 33½½ HHoouurrss || MMaaxx.. MMaarrkkss:: 220000

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CCOOUURRSSEE :: AALLLL IINNDDIIAA TTEESSTT SSEERRIIEESS ((VVIIKKAALLPP)) :: CCLLAASSSS –– XXIIII//XXIIIIII

mailto:[email protected]

http://www.resonance.ac.in/reso/results/jee-main-2014.aspx

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PART�A

SECTION - I

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 40 multiple choice

questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),

(3) and (4) for its answer, out of which Only One

is correct.

1. Angle of prism is A and its one surface is

silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of

incidence 2A on first surface return back through

the same path after suffering reflection at second

silvered surface. Refractive index of the material

of prism is

(1) 2 sin A (2) 2 cos A

(3) 1

2cosA (4) tanA

2. A sphere of mass m is held between two smooth

inclined walls AB and AC. The normal reaction

between wall AB and sphere is :

(1) 15mg

7 (2)

30mg7

(3) 10mg

7 (4)

20mg7

3. An object is thrown horizontally from a point 'A'

from a tower and hits the ground 3s later at B.

The line from �A� to �B� makes an angle of 30º

with the horizontal. The initial velocity of the

object is : (take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 15 3 m/s (2) 15 m/s

(3) 10 3 m/s (4) 25 / 3 m/s

[k.M-I

lh/ks oLrqfu"B izdkj

bl [k.M esa 40 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSaA izR;sd iz'u ds

4 fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa] ftuesa ls flQZ ,d

lgh gSA

1. ,d fizTe dk dks.k A gS ,oa bldh ,d lrg pkanh dh

gSA izdk'k fdj.ksa izFke i`"B ij 2A dks.k ls vkifrr

gksrh gS ,oa nwljs pkanh dh ikWfy'k okyh lrg ls

ijkorZu ds i'pkr mlh iFk dk vuqlj.k djrs gq,

okil ykS vkrh gSA rks fizTe ds inkFkZ dk viorZukad gS%

(1) 2 sin A (2) 2 cos A

(3) 1

2cosA (4) tanA

2. m nzO;eku dk ,d xksyk] nks fpduh ur dks.k okyh

nhokjksa AB rFkk AC ds e/; fLFkr gSA nhokj AB vkSj

xksys ds e/; vfHkYec cy gS :

(1) 15mg

7 (2)

30mg7

(3) 10mg

7 (4)

20mg7

3. ,d oLrq dks VkWoj ds fcUnq �A� ls {kSfrt fn'kk esa Qsadk

tkrk gS vkSj ;g 3s ds ckn tehu ls Vdjkrk gSA A

ls B okyh js[kk {kSfrt ls 30º dk dks.k cukrh gSA oLrq

dk çkjfEHkd osx gS : (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 15 3 m/s (2) 15 m/s

(3) 10 3 m/s (4) 25 / 3 m/s

http://www.resonance.ac.in





4. Pulling force making an angle to the horizontal

is applied on a block of weight W placed ona

horizontal table. If the angle of friction is , then

the magnitude of force required to move the

body is equal to :

(1) W sin

gtan( )

(2)

W coscos( )

(3) W sin

cos( )

(4)

W tansin( )

5. One of the forces acting on a particle is

conservative then which of the following

statement(s) are true about this conservative

force

(1) Its work is non zero when the particle

moves exactly once around any closed

path.

(2) Its work equals the change in the kinetic

energy of the particle

(3) Then that particular force must be constant.

(4) Its work depends on the end points of the

motion, not on the path between.

6. In a simple pendulum, the breaking strength of

the string is double the weight of the bob. The

bob is released from rest when the string is

horizontal. The string breaks when it makes an

angle with the vertical.

(1) = cos 131

(2) = 60º

(3) = cos 132

(4) = 0

7. The centre of mass of a non uniform rod of

length L whose mass per unit length varies as

x2 where k is a constant & x is the distance

of any point on rod from A is (from the same

end)

(1) at the centre of the rod

(2) is closer to B

(3) is closer to A

(4) Insufficient information

4. {kSfrt ry ij fLFkr W Hkkj ds ,d fi.M ij {kSfrt ls

dks.k ij ,d f[kapko cy yxk;k tk jgk gSA ;fn

?k"kZ.k dks.k dk eku gks rks bl fi.M dks xfr esa ykus

ds fy;s vko';d cy dk eku gksxk &

(1) W sin

gtan( )

(2)

W coscos( )

(3) W sin

cos( )

(4)

W tansin( )

5. ;fn d.k ij dk;Zjr cyksa esa ls ,d cy laj{kh gS rks

fuEu esa ls dkSulk@ls dFku bl laj{kh cy ds ckjs esa

lR; gS@gSa \

(1) tc d.k fdlh can iFk ds vuqfn'k Bhd ,d

pDdj iwjk djrk gS rks laj{kh cy }kjk fd;k x;k

dk;Z v'kwU; gksrk gSA

(2) laj{kh cy }kjk fd;k x;k dk;Z d.k dh xfrt

ÅtkZ esa ifjorZu ds cjkcj gksrk gSA

(3) ;g mYysf[kr fo'ks"k cy ges'kk fu;r gh gksuk

pkfg,A

(4) bl laj{kh cy }kjk fd;k x;k dk;Z xfr ds

vfUre fcUnqvksa ij fuHkZj djrk gS iFk ij ughaA

6. lk/kkj.k yksyd esa yxh jLlh xksyd dk nqxuk Hkkj lg

ldrh gSA tc jLlh {kSfrt gS rks xksyd dks fojke ls

NksM+k tkrk gSA tc og Å/oZ ls dks.k cukrk gS rks

jLlh VwV tkrh gSA rks dk eku gksxkA

(1) = cos 131

(2) = 60º

(3) = cos 132

(4) = 0

7. L yEckbZ dh vle:i NM+ ftldh ,dkad yEckbZ dk

nzO;eku lehdj.k x2 ds vuqlkj ifjofrZr gksrk

gS] tgk¡ k fLFkjkad rFkk ,d fljs ls NM+ ij fdlh

fcUnq dh nwjh x gS] rc NM+ ds nzO;eku dsUnz dh mlh

fljs ls nwjh gS &

(1) NM+ ds dsUæ ij gksxk

(2) B ds fudV gksxk

(3) A ds fudV gksxk

(4) lwpuk vi;kZIr gS






8. Find out the moment of inertia of the following

structure (written as ) about axis AB

made of thin uniform rods of mass per unit

length .

(1) 10 3 (2) 13 3

(3) 11 3 (4) 15 3

9. Figure here shown the vertical cross-section of a

vessel filled with a liquid of density . The normal

thrust per unit area on the walls of the vessel at

point. P, as shown, will be

(1) h g (2) H g

(3) (H � h) g (4) (H � h) g cos

10. A particle performs SHM with a time period T

and amplitude a. The magnitude of average

velocity of the particle over the time interval

during which it travels a distance a2

from the

extreme position is

(1) aT

(2) 2aT

(3) 3aT

(4) a

2T

11. The following data are given for a crown glass

prism ; refractive index for blue light nb = 1.521

refractive index for red light nr = 1.510

refractive index for yellow light ny = 1.550

Dispersive power of a parallel glass slab made

of the same material is :

(1) 0.01 (2) 0.02

(3) 0.03 (4) 0

8. fuEu <k¡pk ( fy[kk gS) tks çfr bdkbZ

yEckbZ nzO;eku dh iryh le:i NM+ksa ls cuk gS] dk

AB v{k ds ifjr% tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ Kkr djksA

(1) 10 3 (2) 13 3

(3) 11 3 (4) 15 3

9. fp=k esa fn[kk;sa crZu dks ?kuRo ds nzo ls Hkjk x;k gSaA

nhokj ds P fcUnq ij ,dkad {ks=kQy ij yxus okyk

vfHkyEcor~ cy gksxkA

(1) h g (2) H g

(3) (H � h) g (4) (H � h) g cos

10. ,d d.k T vkorZdky ,oa a vk;ke ls ljy vkoZr xfr

djrk gSA tc d.k viuh pje fLFkfr (extreme

position) ls a/2 nwjh rd igqaprk gS rks bl le;

vUrjky esa ek/; osx dk ifjek.k D;k gksxk &

(1) aT

(2) 2aT

(3) 3aT

(4) a

2T

11. Økmu dk¡p ds fizTe ds fuEu vkadsMs fn;s x;s gS &

uhys izdk'k dk viorZukad nb = 1.521

yky izdk'k dk viorZukad nr = 1.510

ihys izdk'k dk viorZukad ny = 1.550

bl inkFkZ ls cuh lekUrj dk¡p ifV~Vdk dh fo{ksi.k

{kerk gS &

(1) 0.01 (2) 0.02

(3) 0.03 (4) 0






12. A man can swim in still water with a speed of

2 ms�1. If he wants to cross a river of water

current speed 3 ms�1 along shortest possible

path, then in which direction should he swim ?

(1) At an angle 120° to the water current



(4) None of these

13. The figure shows several equipotential lines.

Comparing between points A and B, pick up the

best possible statement

(1) the electric field has a greater magnitude at

point A and is directed to left.


point A and is directed to right.


point B and is directed to left.


point B and is directed to right.

14. Three infinitely long charge sheets are placed as

shown in figure. The electric field at point P is

(1) 0

2 �k

(2)

0

2 �k

(3) 0

4 �k

(4)

0

4 �k

12. ,d O;fDr fLFkj ikuh esa 2 ms�1 dh pky ls rSj ldrk

gSA ;fn og unh dh /kkjk dks pky 3 ms�1 ls U;wure

laHko iFk ds vuqfn'k ikj djuk pkgrk gS rks mls fdl

fn'kk esa rSjuk pkfg, ?

(1) ikuh dh /kkjk ds lkFk 120° ds dks.k ij



(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

13. fp=k esa dbZ lefoHko js[kk;sa fn[kkbZ xbZ gSaA A rFkk B

fcUnqvks dh rqyuk djrs gq;s] lcls mfpr dFku pqfu;sA

(1) fo|qr {ks=k dk fcUnq A ij ifjek.k vf/kd gksxk rFkk

bldh fn'kk cka;h vksj gksxhA

(2) o|qr {ks=k dk fcUnq A ij ifjek.k vf/kd gksxk rFkk

bldh fn'kk nka;h vksj gksxhA

(3) fo|qr {ks=k dk fcUnq B ij ifjek.k vf/kd gksxk

rFkk bldh fn'kk cka;h vksj gksxhA

(4) fo|qr {ks=kdk fcUnq B ij ifjek.k vf/kd gksxk rFkk

bldh fn'kk nka;h vksj gksxhA

14. fp=k esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj rhu vuUr yEckbZ dh vkosf'kr

pknjsa j[kh gSA fcUnq P ij fo|qr {ks=k gksxk

(1) 0

2 �k

(2)

0

2 �k

(3) 0

4 �k

(4)

0

4 �k






15. Maximum height reached by a rocket fired with a

speed equal to 50% of the escape velocity from

earth's surface is :

(1) R/2 (2) 16R/9

(3) R/3 (4) R/8

16. A circuit has a section AB as shown in the fig.

With E = 10V. C1 = 1.0 F, C2 = 2.0 F and the

potential difference VA�VB = 5V. The voltage

across C1 is :

(1) zero (2) 5V

(3) 10V (4) 15V

17. Five bulbs B1 , B2 , B3 and B4 each of rating 60W /

200V and B5 of rating 120W / 400V are

connected as shown in circuit. Total power

consumption by all the bulbs is :

(1) 240 W (2) 270 W

(3) 90 W (4) 180 W

18. In the figure shown the charge on 6F and 12F

capacitors is :

(1) 0, 24 C (2) 0, 0

(3) 24 C, 0 (4) 24 C, 24 C

15. ,d jkWdsV dks i`Foh dh lrg ls iyk;u osx ds 50%

pky ds cjkcj osx ls Qsadk ¼fire fd;k½ tkrk gSA rks

jkWdsV }kjk izkIr iFoh dh lrg ls vf/kdre Å¡pkbZ

gksxh &

(1) R/2 (2) 16R/9 (3) R/3 (4) R/8

16. fp=kkuqlkj ifjiFk dk ,d Hkkx AB gSA E = 10V, C1 =

1.0 F, C2 = 2.0 F vkSj foHkokUrj VA�VB = 5V gSA

C1 ds fljksa ij foHko gSA

(1) 'kwU; (2) 5V

(3) 10V (4) 15V

17. ik¡p cYc B1 , B2 , B3 rFkk B4 çR;sd ij 60W / 200V

vafdr gS rFkk B5 ij 120W / 400V vafdr gSa]

fp=kkuqlkj ifjiFk esa la;ksftr gSA lHkh cYc }kjk {kf;r

'kfDr gksxhA

(1) 240 W (2) 270 W

(3) 90 W (4) 180 W

18. n'kkZ, fp=k esa 6F rFkk 12F la/kkfj=k ij vkos'k gksxk:

(1) 0, 24 C (2) 0, 0

(3) 24 C, 0 (4) 24 C, 24 C






19. Three identical capacitors are given a charge Q

each and they are then allowed to discharge

through resistance R1, R2 and R3. Their charges,

as a function of time shown in the graph below.

The smallest of the three resistance is

(1) R3

(2) R2

(3) R1

(4) Cannot be predicated

20. The negatively and uniformly charged

nonconducting disc as shown, is rotated

clockwise. The direction of the magnetic field at

point A in the plane of the disc is :

(1) into the page (2) out of the page

(3) up (4) down

21. A charged particle moves with a constant

velocity ( � �i j )m/s in a magnetic field

� �B (2i 3k)

T and uniform electric field

� � �E (ai bj ck)

N/C, then (assuming all

quantities in S.I. unit) : (1) a = �3

(2) b = 3

(3) a2 + b2 + c2 = 22

(4) All of these

19. rhu ,dleku la/kkfj=kksa esa izR;sd dks Q vkos'k nsdj

izfrjks/kksa R1, R2 ,oa R3 ds }kjk folftZr fd;k tkrk gSA

bu la/kkfj=k ij vkos'k dk le; ds lkFk ifjorZu fuEu

xzkQ esa iznf'kZr gS U;wure izfrjks/k gS

(1) R3

(2) R2

(3) R1

(4) Kkr ugha fd;k tk ldrk

20. _.kkRed rFkk ,d leku :i ls vkosf'kr ,d dqpkyd

pdrh fp=kkuqlkj nf{k.kkorZ fn'kk esa ?kwe jgh gsA pdrh

ds ry esa fLFkr fcUnq A ij pqEcdh; {ks=k dh fn'kk

gksxh&

(1) ist esa vUnj dh vksj (2) ist ls ckgj dh vksj

(3) Åij (4) uhps

21. ,d vkosf'kr d.k � �B (2i 3k)

T ds pqEcdh; {ks=k

rFkk � � �E (ai bj ck)

N/C ds fo|qr {ks=k esa fu;r osx

( � �i j )m/s ls xfr djrk gSA rc (;g ekfu, fd lHkh

jkf'k;ka S.I. bdkbZ esa gS) :

(1) a = �3

(2) b = 3

(3) a2 + b2 + c2 = 22

(4) mijksDr lHkh






22. In an X-ray tube, electrons accelerated through a

polential difference of 15000 V strike a copper

target. The speed of the emitted X-rays from the

tube is

[e=charge on electron, m=mass of electron,

Z=atomic number of target]

(1) 2 2 1500 e

m (2)

2 1500 e

m

(3) 2 1500Ze

m (4) 3x108 m/s

23. A carnot engine working between 300 K and 600

K has work out put of 800 J per cycle. The

amount of heat and energy supplied to the

engine from source per cycle will be :

(1) 800 J (2) 1600 J

(3) 1200 J (4) 900 J

24. A wire of linear mass density 9 × 10�3 kg /m is

stretched between two rigid supports under a

tension of 360 N. The wire resonates at

frequency 210 Hz. The next higher frequency at

which the same wire resonates is 280 Hz. The

number of loops produced in first case will be -

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4

25. A particle of mass m describes a circle of radius r. The centripetal acceleration of the particle is 4/r2. What will be the magnitude of momentum of the particle?

(1) m

2r

(2) m

2r

(3) m

4r

(4) none

26. A tank is filled with water up to height H. Water is allowed to come out of a hole P in one of the walls at a depth D below the surface of water. Express the horizontal distance x in terms of H and D :

(1) x = D(H D) (2) x = D(H D)

2

(3) x = 2 D(H D) (4) x = 4 D(H D)

22. X-fdj.k ufydk esa] ,d dkWij y{; ls bysDVªkWu 15000

V ij Rofjr gksdj Vdjkrs gSaA y{; ls mRlftZr

X- fdj.kksa dh pky gksxh& [ e=e- dk vkos'k] m=e- dk

nzO;eku] Z=y{; dk ijek.kq Øekad ]

(1) 2 2 1500 e

m (2)

2 1500 e

m

(3) 2 1500Ze

m (4) 3x108 m/s

23. ,d dkuksZV b±tu 300 K o 600 K ds e/; esa dk;Z

djrs gq, cká dk;Z {kerk 800 twy izfr pØ djrk gSA

L=kksr }kjk izfr pØ esa nh xbZ Å"ek o ÅtkZ dh ek=kk

gksxh :

(1) 800 J (2) 1600 J

(3) 1200 J (4) 900 J

24. js[kh; nzO;eku ?kuRo 9 × 10�3 kg /m dk ,d rkj 360

N ruko ds izHkko esa nks n`<+ vk/kkjksa ds e/; [khapk tkrk

gSA rkj 210 Hz vko`fr ij vuqukfnr gksrk gSA vxyh

mPp vko`fr ftl ij ogh rkj vuqukfnr gksrk gS] 280

Hz gSA izFke fLFkfr esa mRiUu ywiksa dh la[;k gksxh �

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4

25. m nzO;eku dk ,d d.k r f=kT;k ds o`r esa xfr'khy gSA

d.k dk vfHkdsUnzh; Roj.k 4/r2 gSaA d.k dk laosx dk

ifjek.k D;k gksxkA

(1) m

2r

(2) m

2r

(3) m

4r

(4) dksbZ ugha

26. fdlh Vadh esa H Å¡pkbZ rd ikuh Hkjk gqvk gSA ikuh ds

ry ls D xgjkbZ ij ,d Nsn P ls ikuh ckgj fudyrk

gSA {kSfrt nwjh x, H vkSj D ds inksa esa gksxh &

(1) x = D(H D) (2) x = D(H D)

2

(3) x = 2 D(H D) (4) x = 4 D(H D)






27. A soap - bubble with a radius �r� is placed on

another bubble with a radius R (figure). Angles between the films at the points of contact will be�

(1) 1200 (2) 300 (3) 450 (4) 900

28. A soap bubble of radius r1 is placed on another

soap bubble of radius r2(r1 < r2)/ The radius R of

the soapy film separating the two bubbles is :

(1) r1 + r2 (2) 2 21 2r r

(3) (r13 + r2

3) (4) 2 1

2 1

r r

r r

29. A simple pendulum is set up in a trolley which moves to the right with an acceleration a on a horizontal plane. Then the thread of the pendulum in the mean position makes an angle with the vertical

(1) tan�1 ag

in the forward direction

(2) tan�1ag

in the backward direction

(3) tan�1ga

in the backward direction

(4) tan�1ga

in the forward direction

30. A particle of mass m is moving horizontally at speed v perpendicular to a uniform rod of length d and mass M = 6m . The rod is hinged at centre O and can freely rotate in horizontal plane about a fixed vertical axis passing through its centre O. The hinge is frictionless.The particle strikes and sticks to the end of the rod. The angular speed of the system just after the collision :

(1) 2v/3d (2) 3v/2d

(3) v/3d (4) 2v/d

27. �r� f=kT;k dk lkcqu dk cqycqyk nwljs R f=kT;k ds

cqycqys ij j[kk gSA (fp=k) lEifdZr fcUnqvksa dh fQYe

ds e/; dks.k gksxk&

(1) 1200 (2) 300 (3) 450 (4) 900

28. r1 f=kT;k dk lkcqu dk cqycqyk nwljs r2 f=kT;k ds lkcqu

ds cqycqys ij j[kk gS (r1 < r2)A nksuksa cqycqyksa dks vyx

djus okyh lkcqu dh fQYe dh f=kT;k R gksxh &

(1) r1 + r2 (2) 2 21 2r r

(3) (r13 + r2

3) (4) 2 1

2 1

r r

r r

29. ,d ljy yksyd dks Vªksyh esa j[kk tkrk gSa tksfd a

Roj.k ls ,d {kSfrt lrg ij nk;ha vksj xfreku gSa rks

e/; fLFfr esa yksyd dk /kkxk Å/okZ/kj ls dks.k curk gSa

(1) tan�1 agvkxs dh fn'kk esa

(2) tan�1 agihNs dh fn'kk esa

(3) tan�1 gaihNs dh fn'kk esa

(4) tan�1 gavkxs dh fn'kk esa

30. ,d nzO;eku m ,d NM+ ds yEcor~ v pky ls {kSfrtr%

xfr dj jgk gSA ,dleku NM+ dh yEckbZ d gS rFkk nzO;eku M = 6m gSA NM+ dks dsUnz O ij fdydhr

fd;k gqvk gS rFkk ;g dsUnz O ls xqtjus okyh Å/okZ/kj

fLFkj v{k ds ifjr% {kSfrt ry esa eqDr :i ls ?kw.kZu

dj ldrh gSA fdydhr fcUnq ?k"kZ.k jfgr gSA d.k

Vdjkrk gS o NM+ ds fljs ls fpid tkrk gSA VDdj ds

Bhd ckn fudk; dh dks.kh; pky gksxh &

(1) 2v/3d (2) 3v/2d (3) v/3d (4) 2v/d






31. A particle of mass m moves along line PC with

velocity u as shown. What is the angular

momentum of the particle about O

(1) muL (2) mul

(3) mur (4) zero

32. A radio station is transmitting the waves of

wavelength 300 m. Radiation capacity of the

transmitter is 10 KW. Find out the number of

photons which are emitting in per unit time :

(1) 1.5 × 1035 (2) 1.5 × 1031

(3) 1.5 × 1029 (4) 1.5 × 1033

33. Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decay

constants 5 and respectively. If initially they

have the same number of nuclei, than the ratio of

the number of nuclei of X1 to that of X2 will be 1e

after a time

(1)

(2) 12

(3) 1

4

(4) e

34. A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive

reactance 20 Ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac

source, of 200 volt, 100 Hz, is connected across

the coil, the current in the coil will be :

(1) 4.0 A (2) 8.0 A

(3) 20

A13

(4) 2.0 A

31. m nzO;eku dk ,d d.k PC js[kk ds vuqfn'k

(fp=kkuqlkj) u osx ls xfr djrk gSA fcUnq O ds ifjr%

d.k dk dks.kh; laosx gSA

(1) muL (2) mul

(3) mur (4) 'kwU;

32. ,d jsfM;ks LVs'ku 300 ehVj rajxnS/;Z okyh rajxsa

izlkfjr dj jgk gS] ;fn VªkalehVj dh fofdj.k {kerk10

KW.gS rks izfr lssd.M+ fosdfjr gksus okyh QksVkWauksa dh

la[;k fdruh gksxh%

(1) 1.5 × 1035 (2) 1.5 × 1031

(3) 1.5 × 1029 (4) 1.5 × 1033

33. nks fofdj.kd inkFkksZa X1 vkSj X2 ds {k; fu;rkad

Øekuqlkj 5 vkSj gSaA ;fn vkjEHk esa muds dsUædksa

dh la[;k,¡ leku gksa rks fdrus le; i'pkr~ X1 vkSj X2

esa cps dsUædksa dk vuqikr 1e

gksxk \

(1)

(2) 12

(3) 1

4

(4) e

34. fdlh dq.Myh dk izfrjks/k 30 vkse gS rFkk 50 gVZ~t

vkofÙk ij izsjdh; izfr?kkr 20 Ohm gSA ;fn dq.Myh

ds nksuksa fljksa ds chp 200 oksYV] 100 gV~Zt dk

izR;korhZ /kkjk dk L=kksr tksM+k tkrk gS] rks /kkjk dk eku

gksxk :

(1) 4.0 A (2) 8.0 A

(3) 20

A13

(4) 2.0 A






35. A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series

with a bulb B and an AC source. Brightness of

the bulb decreases when :

(1) number of turns in the coil is reduced.

(2) a capacitance of reactance XC XL is included

in the same circuit

(3) an iron rod is inserted in the coil

(4) frequency of the AC source is decreased

36. In making an alloy, a substance of specific

gravity s1 and mass m1 is mixed with another

substance of specific gravity s2 and mass m2 ;

then the specific gravity of the alloy is

(1) 1 2

1 2

m m

s s

(2) 1 2

1 2

s s

m m

(3) 1 2

1 2

1 2

m m

m ms s

(4)

1 2

1 2

1 2

m ms s

m m

37. The current in a circuit containing a capacitance

C and a resistance R in series leads over the

applied voltage of frequency 2

by.

(1) tan�1 1CR

(2) tan�1 (CR)

(3) tan�1 1R

(4) cos�1 (CR)

38. The radii of the two columns is U-tube are r1 and

r2. When a liquid of density (angle of contact is

00) is filled in it, the level difference of liquid in

two arms is h. The surface tension of liquid is : (g

= acceleration due to gravity) :

(1) 1 2

2 1

ghr r

2(r r )

(2) 2 1

1 2

gh(r r )

2r r

(3) 2 1

1 2

2(r r )

ghr r

(4)

2 1

gh2(r r )

35. ,d dq.Myh dk Lo&çsjdRo L gSA ;g Js.khØe esa ,d]

fo|qrcYc B rFkk ,d ,-lh- (AC) L=kksr ls tqM+h gSA

bl cYc ds çdk'k dh nhfIr (rhozrk) de gks tk;sxh]

tc :

(1) dq.Myh esa Qsajks dh la[;k de gks tk,A

(2) bl ifjiFk esa ,d la/kkfj=k çfr?kkr XC = XL tksM+

fn;k tk,A

(3) dq.Myh eas yksgs dh ,d NM+ Mky nh tk,A

(4) ,-lh- (AC) L=kksr dh vko`fÙk de gks tk,A

36. fdlh feJ /kkrq ds fuekZ.k esa] nzO;eku m1 o vkisf{kr

?kuRo s1 okys inkFkZ ds lkFk nzO;eku m2 o vkisf{kd

?kuRo s2 dk vU; inkFkZ feyk;k tkrk gS] rks feJ/kkrq

dk vkisf{kr ?kuRo gksxk

(1) 1 2

1 2

m m

s s

(2) 1 2

1 2

s s

m m

(3) 1 2

1 2

1 2

m m

m ms s

(4)

1 2

1 2

1 2

m ms s

m m

37. ,d ifjiFk esa la/kkfj=k C rFkk çfrjks/k R Js.kh esa tqM+s gS

rks blesa çokfgr /kkjk] 2

vko`fr okys vkjksfir foHko

ls fdruh vkxs gSA

(1) tan�1 1CR

(2) tan�1 (CR)

(3) tan�1 1R

(4) cos�1 (CR)

38. U-uyh ds nks LrEHkksa dh f=kT;k,sa Øe'k% r1 rFkk r2 gSA

tc ?kuRo ds nzo (Li'kZ dks.k 00) dks blesa Hkjk tkrk

gS rks blds nzo Lrjksa dh Åpk¡bZ esa vUrj h gSA nzo dk

i`"B ruko gksxk : (g = xq:Ro ds dkj.k Roj.k ) :

(1) 1 2

2 1

ghr r

2(r r )

(2) 2 1

1 2

gh(r r )

2r r

(3) 2 1

1 2

2(r r )

ghr r

(4)

2 1

gh2(r r )






39. A uniformly charged solid sphere of radius R has

potential V0 (measured with respect to ) on its

surface. For this sphere the equipotential

surfaces with potentials 0 0 03V 5V 3V, ,

2 4 4 and 0V

4

have radius R1, R2, R3 and R4 respectively. Then

(1) R1 = 0 and R2 > (R4 � R3)

(2) R1 0 and (R2 � R1) > (R4 � R3)

(3) R1 = 0 and R2 < (R4 � R3)

(4) None of these

40. A particle A has charge +q and particle B has

charge + 4q with each of them having the same

mass m. When allowed to fall from rest through

same electrical potential difference, the ratio of

their speed vA : vB will be :

(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2

(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4

SECTION - II

Reasoning Type

This section contains 20 reasoning type


(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

The following questions consist of two

statements one labelled ASSERTION (A) and

the another labelled REASON (R). Select the

correct answers to these questions from the

codes given below :

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct

explanation of A

(3) A is true but R is false

(4) A and R are false

39. R f=kT;k ds fdlh ,d leku vkosf'kr Bksl xksys ds

i`"B dk foHko V0 gSA ( ds lkis{k ekik x;k)A bl xksys

ds fy;s] 0 0 03V 5V 3V

, ,2 4 4

rFkk 0V

4 foHkoksa okys

lefoHkoh i`"Vksa dh f=kT;k;sa] Øe'k% R1, R2, R3 rFkk R4

gSA rks

(1) R1 = 0 rFkk R2 > (R4 � R3)

(2) R1 0 rFkk (R2 � R1) > (R4 � R3)

(3) R1 = 0 rFkk R2 < (R4 � R3)


40. d.k A dk vkos'k +q ,oa d.k B dk vkos'k + 4q gS rFkk

nksuksa ds nzO;eku leku gSA tc budks fLFkjkoLFkk ls

leku fo+|qr foHkokUrj dh mifLFkfr esa xfr djus ds

fy, NksM+k tkrk gS rks budh pkyksa dk vuqikr vA : vB

gksxk :

(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2

(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4

[k.M- II

dkj.k çdkj

bl [k.M esa 20 dkj.k çdkj ds ç'u gSA çR;sd ç'u ds

4 fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gS, ftuesa ls flQZ ,d

lgh gSA

fuEu iz'uksa esa ls izR;sd esa nks okD; gS] ,d dFku (A)

rFkk nwljk dkj.k (R) uhps fn;s x;s funsZ'kksa ds vk/kkj

ij lgh mÙkj dks igpkfu;sA

(1) A o R nksuksa lR; gS rFkk R A dk lgh

Li"Vhdj.k gSA

(2) A o R nksuksa lR; gsa fdarq R, A dk lgh

Li"Vhdj.k ugha gSaA

(3) A lR; gS fdarq R vlR; gSaA

(4) A o R nksuksa vlR; gSA






41. Assertion : A body can have acceleration even

if its velocity is zero at a given instant of time.

Reason : A body is momentarily at rest when it

reverses its direction of motion.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

42. Assertion :Linear momentum of a body

changes even when it is moving uniformly in a

circle.

Reason :In uniform circular motion velocity

remain constant.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

43. Assertion : A man and a block rest on

smooth horizontal surface. The man holds

a rope which is connected to block. The

man cannot move on the horizontal

surface.

Reason : A man standing at rest on

smooth horizontal surface can start

walking due to absence of frict ion (The

man is only in contact with floor as shown).

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

44. Assertion : A particle is moving in

circular path. The net work done on the

particle is zero.

Reason : For a particle undergoing

uniform circular motion, net force acting

on the particle and velocity of the particle

are not always perpendicular.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

41. dFku : ;fn fdlh {k.k oLrq dk osx ’kwU; gks] rc Hkh oLrq

esa Roj.k gks ldrk gSA

dkj.k : tc oLrq viuh xfr dh fn'kk iyVrh gS] rks

og {k.k Hkj ds fy, fojkekoLFkk esa vkrh gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

42. dFku :oLrq dk js[kh; laosx cnyrk jgrk gS] tcfd

oLrq ,dleku o`Ùkh; xfr djrh gSA

dkj.k : ,dleku o`Ùkh; xfr esa osx fu;r jgrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

43. dFku : ,d O;fä rFkk ,d Cyk Wd fpdus {k S frt

lrg ij g SA O;fä us ,d jLlh dk s idM+k g qvk

g S tk s fd Cyk Wd ls tqM +h g qb Z g SA O;fä {k S frt

lrg ij ugh py ldrk g SA

dkj.k : fpduh {k S frt lrg ij fojke ij [kM+k

,d O;fä ?k"k Z.k dh vuqifLFkfr ds dkj.k pyuk

i zkjEHk dj ldrk g SA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

44. dFku : ,d d.k o `Ùkkdkj iFk es a xfr dj jgk

g SA d.k ij fd;k x;k dqy dk;Z 'k w U; g SA

dkj.k : ,d d.k ,d leku o`Ùkkdkj xfr dj

jgk g S rk s d.k ij dk;Zjr ifj.kkeh cy o d.k

dk o sx ijLij ges'kk yEcor~ ugh gk s ax sA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)






45. dFku % fdlh Å¡pkbzZ ls oLrq dks NksM+us ij ;g Okk;q esa

foLQksfVr gks tkrh gSA bldk nzO;eku dsUnz m/okZ/kj

uhps dh vksj xfr djrk gSA

dkj.k % foLQksV dsoy vkUrfjd cyksa dh izfrfØ;k

Lo:i gksrk gSA cká cy 'kwU; gksrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

46. dFku : tc SHM djus okyk d.k pje fLFkfr ij gksrk

gS rks bldk laosx 'kwU; gksrk gSA

dkj.k : pje fLFkfr ij SHM dj jgs d.k dk osx 'kwU;

gksrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

47. dFku : ,d ijek.k qd nh xbZ ek=kk dh vkn'k Z

xSl ds nkc rFkk vk;ru nk suk s a e s a ifjorZu ,d

lkFk lEHko g S] tcfd xSl dh vkUrfjd Åtk Z

e s a ifjorZu u fd;k tk;s aA

dkj.k : ;fn rkieku ifjofrZr ugh gksrk gS rks nh x;h

ek=kk dh ,d vkn'kZ xSl dh vkUrfjd ÅtkZ fu;r jgrh

gSA ,d bl izdkj dk izØe lEHko gS ftlesa nkc o

vk;ru bl izdkj ls ifjofrZr gksrs gS fd rkieku

fu;r jgrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

48. dFku : izR;sd ek=kd i)fr (system of units)

es a ,d Hkk S frd jkf'k dk la[;kRed eku leku

jgrk g SA

dkj.k : fdlh Hkh ek=kd i)fr es a ,d Hkk S frd

jkf'k dh bdkb Z o la[;kRed eku dk x q.kuQy

fofHkUu ek=kd i}fr;k s a e s a fHkUu gk srk g S

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

45. Assertion : When a body dropped from a

height explodes in mid air, its centre of

mass keeps moving in vertically

downward direction.

Reason : Explosion occur under internal

forces only. External force is zero.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

46. Assertion ; When a particle is at exterme

position performing SHM, its momentum is equal

to zero.

Reason : At extreme position the velocity of

particle performing SHM is equal to zero

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

47. Assertion : I t is possible for both the

pressure and volume of a monoatomic

ideal gas of a given amount to change

simultaneously without causing the

internal energy of the gas to change.

Reason : The internal energy of an ideal

gas of a given amount remains constant if

temperature does not change. It is

possible to have a process in which

pressure and volume are changed such

that temperature remains constant.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

48. Assertion : The numerical value of a physical

quantity remains same in every system of units.

Reason : The product of the numerical value

and unit of a physical quantity differ in different

system of units.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)






49. Assertion : If there exist coulomb

attraction between two bodies, both of

them may not be charged.

Reason : In coulomb attraction two

bodies are oppositely charged.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

50. Assertion : A charged capacitor is

disconnected from a battery. Now if its

plate are separated farther, the potential

energy wil l fall.

Reason : Energy stored in a capacitor is

not equal to the work done in charging it.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

51. Assertion: The force with which one plate

of a pareallel plate capacitor is attracted

towards the other plate is equal to square

of surface density per per unit area.

Reason : The electr ic f ield due to one

charged plate of the capacitor at the

location of the other is equal to surface

density per .

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

52. Assertion : A current carrying wire is placed in

magnetic field , than magnetic force acts on it

Reason : Free electrons and positive ions

are in motion inside any current carrying wire

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

53. Assertion : The true geographic north

direction is found by using a compass needle

Reason : The magnetic meridian of the earth is

along the axis of rotation of the earth

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

49. dFku : ;fn nks fi.Mksa ds eè; dwyke vkd"kZ.k cy

fo|eku gS] rks nksuks fujkosf'kr gks ldrs gSA

dkj.k : dwyke vkd"kZ.k esa nksuks fi.M foijhr vkosf'kr

gksrs gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

50. dFku % ,d vko sf'kr la/kkfj=k dk s c SVjh ls

gVkdj ;fn blds Iy sVk s a ds chp dh nwjh c<+k;h

tk;s rk s fLFkfrt Åtk Z ?kV tkrh g SA

dkj.k % fdlh la/kkfj +=k es a lafpr Åtk Z] mls

vko sf'kr djus es a fd;s x;s dk;Z ds rqY; ugh a

gk srh g SA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

51. dFku % ,d lekUrj IysV la/kkfj=k dh ,d IysV

nwljh IysV dh vk sj ftl cy ls vkdf"k Zr gk srh

g SA mldk eku i zfr izfr {k s=kQy i`"Bh;

vko s'k ?kuRo ds ox Z ds rqY; gk srk g SA

dkj.k % la/kkfj=k dh ,d vko sf'kr IysV ds

dkj.k nwljh IysV ds LFkku ij fo|qr {k s=k

i `"Bh; ?kuRo / ds rqY; gk srk g SA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

52. dFku : ,d /kkjkokgh rkj pqEcdh; {ks=k esas j[kk tkrk

gS rks bl ij pqEcdh; cy yxrk gS

dkj.k: fdlh /kkjkokgh rkj ds vUnj eqDr bysDVWªku o

/kukRed vk;u xfr djrs gaSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

53. dFku: okLrfod HkkSxksfyd mÙkj fn'kk ,d pqEcdh;

lwbZ }kjk +Kkr dh tk ldrh gS+

dkj.k: i`Foh dh pqEcdh; ;kE;ksÙkj i`Foh ds ?kw.kZu

v{k ds vuqfn'k gksrh gS

(1) (2)

(3) (4)






54. Assertion : If a steel core is used in a

transformer in place is soft iron core then

hyesterisis losses are increased

Reason : Steel core is easily magentised but it

is easily not demagnetised by the alternating

magnetic field,

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

55. Assertion : There is no dispersion of light

refracted through a rectangular glass slab.

Reason : Dispersion of light is the phenomenon

of splitting of a beam of white light into its

constituent colours.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

56. Assertion : In spontaneous fission, the energy is

always released.

Reason : Spontaneous fission occurs to lower

the binding energy of reactant nuclei.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

57. Assertion : Though light of a single frequency

(monochromatic light) is incident on a metal, the

kinetic energies of emitted photoelectrons are

not equal.

Reason : The energy of electrons just after they

absorb photons incident on metal surface may

be lost in collision with other atoms in the metal

before the electron is ejected out of the metal.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

58. Assertion: In an e.m. wave magnitude of

magnetic field vector is much smaller than the

magnitude of vector .

Reason: This is because in an e.m. wave

E/B = c = 3 × 108 m / s.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

54. dFku : ;fn VªkUlQkWeZj esa ueZ yksgs dh txg LVhy

ØksM iz;qDr dh tk;s rks 'kSfFkY; gkfu esa o`f) gks ldrh

gSA

dkj.k : izR;korhZ pqEcdh; {kS=k }kjk LVhy ØksM

vklkuh ls pqEcfdr gks tkrh gS fdUrq vklkuh ls

vpqEcfdr ugha gks ikrh

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

55. dFku : ,d vk;rkdkj dkWp dh iV~fVdk ls viofrZr

izdk'k dk fo{ksi.k ugha gksrk gSA

dkj.k : 'osr izdk'k ds iqat dk blds vo;o jaxksa esa

caVus dh ifj?kVuk dks izdk'k dk fo{ksi.k dgrs gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

56. dFku : LomÙksftr fo[kaMu esa ÅtkZ ges'kk fudyrh gSA

dkj.k : LomÙksftr fo[kaMu vfHkfØ;k ukfHkd dh ca/ku

ÅtkZ dks de djus ds fy;s gksrh gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

57. dFku : ,dy vko`fÙk ds çdk'k (,do.khZ çdk'k) ds

/kkfRod lrg ij vkifrr gksus ds mijkUr Hkh mRlftZr

QksVksbysDVªkWuksa dh ÅtkZ,sa leku ugha gksrh gSA

dkj.k : tc QksVkWu /kkfRod lrg ij fxjrs gS rks

bysDVªkWuksa }kjk muds vo'kks"k.k ds mijkUr bysDVªkWuksa ds

/kkrq ls ckgj mRltZu gksus ls igys bysDVªkWuksa dh ÅtkZ

/kkrq esa vU; ijek.kqvksa ds lkFk VDdj esa u"V gksrh gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

58. dFku% fo|qr pqEcdh; rjax esa pqEcdh; {ks=k lfn'k dk

ifjek.k lfn'k dh rqyuk esa cgqr de gksrk gSA

dkj.k% D;ksfd fo|qr pqEcdh; rjax esa E/B=c=3 × 108

m / s.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

59. dFku : iryh fQYesa tSls & lkcqu dk cqycqyk ;k






59. Assertion : Thin films such as soap bubble or

a thin layer of oil on water show beautiful colours

when illuminated by white light.

Reason : It happens due to the interference of

light reflected from the upper surface of the thin

film.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

60. Assertion : Size of the collector is maximum in

a transistor.

Reason : Almost all the carriers generated in

emitter are absorbed by collector.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

ikuh dh lrg ij rsy dh ijr lqUnj jaxksa dks n'kkZrh

gS] tcfd bl ij 'osr izdk'k vkifrr fd;k tkrk gSA

dkj.k : ;g iryh fQYeh dh Åijh lrg ls ijkofrZr

izdk'k ds chp O;frdj.k ds dkj.k gksrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

60. dFku : VªkaftLVj esa laxzkgd dh vkd`fÙk vf/kdre

gksrh gSA

dkj.k : mRltZd esa mRiUu yxHkx lHkh vkos'k okgd

laxzkgd }kjk vo'kksf"kr gksrs gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)



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PART�B Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]

SECTION - I




(3) and (4) for its answer, out of which Only One

is correct.

61. Which of the following does not gives Xe(g) on

hydrolysis :

(1) XeF2

(2) XeF4

(3) XeF6

(4) Both (2) and (3)

62. Which one of the following is not a pseudohalide ?

(1) CNO� (2) RCOO�

(3) OCN� (4) NNN�

63. Concentrated HNO3 reacts with 2 to give :

(1) H (2) HO

(3) HO3 (4) HOO3

64. Concentrated H2SO4 cannot be used to prepare

HBr from NaBr, because it ;

(1) reduces HBr

(2) oxidises HBr

(3) disproportionates HBr

(4) reacts slowly with NaBr

65. Chlorine acts as a bleaching agent only in

presence of :

(1) dry air (2) moisture

(3) sunlight (4) pure oxygen

[k.M- I




lgh gSA

61. fuEu esa ls dkSu tyvi?kfVr gksdj Xe(g) ugha nsrk

gS \

(1) XeF2

(2) XeF4

(3) XeF6

(4) (2) rFkk (3) nksuksa

62. fuEu esa dkSulk vkHkklh ¼Nn~e½ gSykbM ugha gS \

(1) CNO� (2) RCOO�

(3) OCN� (4) NNN�

63. lkUnz HNO32ls fØ;k dj fuEu nsrk gS %

(1) H (2) HO

(3) HO3 (4) HOO3

64. lkUnz H2SO4 dks NaBr ls HBr cukus ds dke esa ugha

ys ldrs gS] D;ksfd ;g

(1) HBr dks vip;u dj nsrk gSA

(2) HBr dks vkWDlhd`r dj nsrk gS

(3) HBr dks fo"kekuqikrhdj.k dj nsrk gS

(4) NaBr ds lkFk /khjs&/khjs vfHkfØ;k djrk gSA

65. Dyksjhu fdldh mifLFkfr esa fojatu dkjd dh rjg

iz;qDr gksrh gSA

(1) 'kq"d ok;q (2) ueh

(3) lw;Z dk izdk'k (4) 'kq) vkWDlhtu






66. The most powerful oxidising agent is :

(1) fluorine (2) chlorine

(3) bromine (4) iodine

67. Which can do glass etching ?

(1) HIO4 (2) HF

(3) HNO3 (4) SIF4

68. Which of the following possess the highest bond

energy ?

(1) F2 (2) Cl2

(3) Br2 (4) I2

69. Electrolysis of aqueous solution of Brine (NaCl)

will not give:

(1) Cl2 (2) O2

(3) NaOH (4) None

70. Which of the following oxy-acid of sulphur has

S�S bond ?

(1) H2S2O7

(2) H2S2O5

(3) H2S2O6

(4) Both (2) and (3)

71. Which of the following can not oxidise H2S into

S ?

(1) SO2

(2) HNO3

(3) H2CO3

(4) All of these

72. The bleaching action of SO2 is due to :

(1) oxidation of SO2

(2) reduction of SO2

(3) disproportionation of SO2

(4) decomposition of SO2

66. izcyre vkWDlhdkjd gS %

(1) ¶yksjhu (2) Dyksjhu

(3) czksehu (4) vk;ksMhu

67. fuEu esa ls fdldk mi;ksx dkWp ij fy[kus ds fy,

fd;k tkrk gSA

(1) HIO4 (2) HF (3) HNO3 (4) SIF4

68. fuEu esa ls dkSu mPpre cU/ku ÅtkZ j[krk gS \

(1) F2 (2) Cl2

(3) Br2 (4) I2

69. czkbu (NaCl) ds tyh; foy;u dk oS|qr vi?kVu djus

ij D;k izkIr ugha gksrk gS&

(1) Cl2 (2) O2

(3) NaOH (4) dksbZ ugha

70. fuEu esa ls lYQj fdl vkWDlh vEy esa S�S ca/k ugha

gksrk \

(1) H2S2O7

(2) H2S2O5

(3) H2S2O6


71. fuEu esa ls dkSu H2S dks S esa vkWDlhd`r ugha dj

ldrk \

(1) SO2

(2) HNO3

(3) H2CO3

(4) mijksDr lHkh

72. SO2 dh fojatu vfHkfØ;k fuEu ds dkj.k gksrh gS :

(1) SO2 dk vkWDlhdj.k

(2) SO2 dk vip;u

(3) SO2 dk fo"kekuqikrhdj.k

(4) SO2 dk fo?kVu






73. In the preparation of sulphuric acid, V2O5 is

used in the reaction, which is

(1) S + O2 SO2

(2) 2SO2 + O2 2SO3

(3) SO2 + H2O H2SO4

(4) N2 + 3H2 2NH3

74. Hypo is used in photography because of its

(1) Reducing behaviour

(2) Oxidising behaviour

(3) Complex forming behaviour

(4) Reaction with light

75. Carbon and silicon belong to (IV) group. The

maximum coordination number of carbon in

commonly occurring compounds is 4, whereas

that of silicon is 6. This is due to

(1) Large size of silicon

(2) More electropositive nature of silicon

(3) Availability of low lying d-orbitals in silicon

(4) Both (1) and (2)

76. Which of the following is the correct statement

for red lead

(1) It is an active form of lead

(2) Its molecular formula is 2 3Pb O

(3) It decomposes into Pb and 2CO

(4) It decomposes into 6XeF and

2O

77. The spin magnetic moment of cobalt in

Hg[Co(SCN)4] is :

(1) 3 (2) 8

(3) 15 (4) 24

73. lY¶;qfjd vEy ds fuekZ.k esa V2O5 fdl vfHkfØ;k esa

dke vkrk gS \

(1) S + O2 SO2

(2) 2SO2 + O2 2SO3

(3) SO2 + H2O H2SO4

(4) N2 + 3H2 2NH3

74. gkbiks dk mi;ksx QksVksxzkQh esa djrs gSa D;ksafd ;g &

(1) vipk;d O;ogkj fn[kkrk gS

(2) vkWDlhdkjd O;ogkj fn[kkrk gS

(3) ladqy fuekZ.k ds dkj.k

(4) izdk'k ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k djrk gS

75. dkcZu rFkk flfydu (IV) lewg ls lEcU/k j[krs gSA

lkekU;r% cuus okys ;ksfxdksa esa dkcZu dh vf/kdre

milgla;ksth la[;k 4 gksrh gS tcfd flfydkWu dh 6

gksrh gS ;g fdlds dkj.k gksrh gS &

(1) flfydkWu ds cMs vkdkj ds dkj.k

(2) flfydkWu dh vf/kd bysDVªkWu /kuh izd`fr ds dkj.k

(3) flfydkWu esa de ÅtkZ ds d-d{dksa dh mifLFkfr ds

dkj.k


76. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku yky ySM ds lgh gS &

(1) ;s ySM dh lfØ; voLFkk gSA

(2) bldk v.kqlw=k 2 3Pb O gksrk gSA

(3) ;s Pb rFkk 2CO esa fo?kfVr gksrk gSA

(4) ;s 6XeF rFkk

2O esa fo?kfVr gksrk gSA

77. Hg[Co(SCN)4] esa dksckWYV dk pØ.k pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ

gS %

(1) 3 (2) 8

(3) 15 (4) 24






78. Which one of the following statements is

incorrect?

(1) In the aluminothermite process, aluminium

acts as reducing agent.

(2) Lead is extracted from its chief ore by both

carbon reduction and self reduction.

(3) Zinc is extracted from its chief ore by

carbon reduction.

(4) In Hall-Heroult process, the electrolyte used

is a molten mixture of alumina, sodium

hydroxide and cryolite.

79. A hydrogen electrode is immersed in a solution

with pH = 0 (HCl). By how much will the potential

(reduction) change if an equivalent amount of

NaOH is added to the solution. (Take H2p = 1

atm) T = 298 K.

(1) increase by 0.41 V

(2) increase by 59 mV

(3) decrease by 0.41 V

(4) None of these

80. Which of the following are correct statements ?

(1) Spontaneous adsorption of gases on solid

surface is an exothermic process as entropy

decreases during adsorption.

(2) Formation of micelles takes place when

temperature is below Kraft Temperature (Tk)

and concentration is above critical micelle

concentration (CMC).

(3) Longer the length of hydrophobic chain,

higher is the value of critical micelle

concentration (CMC).

(4) According to Hardy-Schulze rules the

coagulation (flocculating) value of Fe3+ ion

will be more than Ba2+ or Na+.

78. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gS\

(1) ,yqfeuks rkih; izØe esa ,Y;qfefu;e vipk;d ds

leku O;ogkj djrk gSA

(2) ySM dkcZu vip;u rFkk Lor% vip;u nksuksa ds

}kjk blds eq[; v;Ld ls fu"df"kZr gksrk gSA

(3) ftad dkcZu vip;u }kjk blds eq[; v;Ld ls

fu"df"kZr gksrk gSA

(4) gkWy&gsjkWYM izØe esa iz;qDr oS/kqr vi?kV;

,yqfeuk] lksfM;e gkbMªkWDlkbM rFkk Øk;ksykbV

dk xfyr feJ.k gSA

79. ,d gkbMªkstu bysDVªkWM pH = 0 (HCl) ;qDr ,d

foy;u esa Mwck gqvk gSA fdruk foHko ¼vip;u½ ifjorZu

gksxk ;fn NaOH dh rqY;kad ek=kk dks foy;u esa feykrs

gSA (yhft, H2p = 1 atm) T = 298 K.

(1) 0.41 V ls c<+rk gSA

(2) 59 mV ls c<+rk gSA

(3) 0.41 V ls ?kVrk gSA

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ughaA

80. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku lgh gS\

(1) Bksl lrg ij xSlksa dk Lor% vf/k'kks"k.k ,d

Å"ek{ksih izØe gS] D;ksafd ,UVªkWih vf/k'kks"k.k ds

nkSjku ?kVrh gSA

(2) felsyh dk fuekZ.k gksrk gS tc rki ØkfUrd rki

(Tk) ls de gksrk gS rFkk lkUnzrk ØkfUrd felsy

lkUnzrk (CMC)ls vf/kd gksrh gSA

(3) nzo fojks/kh Ja[kyk dh yEckbZ vf/kd gksus ij

ØkfUrd felsy lkUnzrk (CMC) dk eku Hkh mPp

gksrk gSA

(4) gkMhZ&'kqYts fu;e ds vuqlkj Fe3+ vk;u dk

Ldanu (Å.kZu) eku Ba2+ vFkok Na+ ls vf/kd

gksxkA






81. Decomposition of A follows first order kinetics by

the following equation.

4A(g) B(g) + 2C(g)

If initially, total pressure was 800 mm of Hg and

after 10 minutes it is found to be 650 mm of Hg.

What is half-life of A ? (Assume only A is present

initially)

(1) 10 minutes

(2) 5 minutes

(3) 7.5 minutes

(4) 15 minutes

82. Which of the following will release maximum

amount of energy upon addition of an electron :

(1) Cl (g) (2) F (g)

(3) Na+ (g) (4) K+ (g)

83. For the reaction 2NO + Br2 2NOBr, the

following mechanism has been given

NO + Br2 NOBr2

NOBr2 + NO slow

2NOBr.

Hence, rate law is :

(1) k[NO]2[Br2]

(2) k[NO][Br2]

(3) k[NOBr2][NO]

(4) k[NO][Br2]2

84. What is Hº for complete neutralization of strong

diacidic base A(OH)2 by HNO3 ?

(For strong acid and strong base neutralization

Hº = � 57.1 kJ/mol)

(1) � 57.1 kJ/mol

(2) � 114.2 kJ/mol

(3) 57.1 kJ/mol

(4) 114.2 kJ/mol

81. A dk fo?kVu fuEu lehdj.k }kjk izFke dksfV dh

cyxfrdh dk ikyu djrk gSA

4A(g) B(g) + 2C(g)

;fn izkjEHk esa] dqy nkc 800 mm Hg ik;k x;k rFkk

10 feuV ds i'pkr~ ;g 650 mm Hg ik;k x;kA A dh

v)Z&vk;q D;k gS ? ¼ekuk fd izkjEHk esa dsoy A

mifLFkr gS½

(1) 10 feuV

(2) 5 feuV

(3) 7.5 feuV

(4) 15 feuV

82. ,d bySDVªkWu dks tksM+us ij ÅtkZ dh vf/kdre ek=kk

dkSu eqDr djsxk %

(1) Cl (g) (2) F (g)

(3) Na+ (g) (4) K+ (g)

83. vfHkfØ;k 2NO + Br2 2NOBr ds fy, fuEu

fØ;kfof/k nh xbZ gSA

NO + Br2 NOBr2

NOBr2 + NO /khek

2NOBr.

vr% nj fu;e gSa%

(1) k[NO]2[Br2]

(2) k[NO][Br2]

(3) k[NOBr2][NO]

(4) k[NO][Br2]2

84. izcy f}{kkjdh; vEy A(OH)2 ds HNO3 }kjk

mnklhuhdj.k ds fy, Hº gksxh ?

(izcy vEy o izcy {kkj ds mnklhuhdj.k dh Hº =

� 57.1 kJ/mol)

(1) � 57.1 kJ/mol

(2) � 114.2 kJ/mol

(3) 57.1 kJ/mol

(4) 114.2 kJ/mol






85. For the reaction Br2(g) �2Br(g) , H = 'a' KJ

the correct statement is :

(1) Enthalpy of formation of Br(g) is 'a' KJ

(2) Enthalpy of atomisation of Br(g) is 'a' KJ

(3) Bond enthalpy of Br�Br bond is 'a' KJ

(4) Bond enthalpy of Br�Br bond is 'a' KJ but

enthalpy of atomisation of Br2(g) is not

equal to 'a' KJ

86. Amongst the following the lowest degree of

paramagnetism per mole of the compound at

298 K will be shown by:

(1) MnSO4.4H2O

(2) CuSO4.5H2O

(3) FeSO4.6H2O

(4) NiSO4.6H2O

87. Helium is added to oxygen used by deep sea

divers because :

(1) It is less soluble in blood than nitrogen

under high pressure

(2) It is lighter than nitrogen

(3) It is readily miscible with oxygen

(4) It is less poisonous than nitrogen

88. In the given elimination reaction intermediate is :

KOH,

(1) Carbanion

(2) Carbocation

(3) Carbon free radical

(4) None of these

89. Which of the following compound give methyl

ethyl ketone on oxidation with PCC.

(1) 2-propanol

(2) 2-Butanol

(3) 1-Butanol

(4) Isobutyl alcohol

85. vfHkfØ;k Br2(g) �2Br(g) , H = 'a' KJ ds fy,

lgh dFku gS

(1) Br(g) ds laHkou dh ,UFksYih 'a' KJ gSA

(2) Br(g) ds ijek.oh;dj.k dh ,UFksYih 'a' KJ gSA

(3) Br�Br dh ca/k fo;kstu dh ,UFksYih 'a' KJ gSA

(4) Br�Br dh ca/k fo;kstu dh ,UFksYih 'a' KJ gS ysfdu

Br2(g) ds ijek.oh;dj.k dh ,UFksYih 'a' KJ ugh gSA

86. 298 K ij fuEu esa ls fdl ;kSfxd }kjk çfr eksy

vuqpqEcdRo dh fuEure ek=kk çnf'kZr dh tk,xh \

(1) MnSO4.4H2O

(2) CuSO4.5H2O

(3) FeSO4.6H2O

(4) NiSO4.6H2O

87. xgjs leqnzh xksrk[kksjksa }kjk ghfy;e dks vkWDlhtu ds

lkFk feykdj mi;ksx esa fy;k tkrk gSA D;ksafd %

(1) ;g mPp nkc ij jDr esa ukbVªkstu dh vis{kk de

foys;h gksrh gSaA

(2) ;g ukbVªkstu dh vis{kk gYdh gksrh gSA

(3) ;g vkWDlhtu ds lkFk vklkuh ls feJ.kh; gksrh gSA

(4) ;g ukbVªkstu dh vis{kk de fo"ksyh gksrh gSA

88. nh xbZ foyksiu vfHkfØ;k eas e/;orhZ gS %

KOH,

(1) dkcZ_.kk;u

(2) dkcZ/kuk;u

(3) dkcZu eqDr ewyd


89. fuEu eas ls dkSulk ;kSfxd PCC ds lkFk vkDlhdj.k

ij esfFky,fFky dhVksu nsrk gS \

(1) 2-izksisukWy

(2) 2-C;wVsukWy

(3) 1-C;wVsukWy

(4) vkblksC;wfVy ,YdksgkWy






90. In which of the following reaction CH4 will be

obtained ?

(i) CH3�Mg Br + CH3�CCH

(ii) CH � MgBr + CH 3 2

COOH

COOH

(iii) CH3�MgBr + CH3OH

(iv) CH � MgBr + CH 3 2

C � CH3

C � CH3

||

||O

O

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)

(2) (i), (ii) & (iii) only

(3) (iii) & (iv) only

(4) (i) & (iv) only

91. CH3�CH�CH2�CH3

CH3

+ Br2 h

major product.

(1)

CH3

Br

(2)

CH3

Br

(3)

CH3

Br

(4)

CH3

Br

92. 2 2

HBr

R O

The intermediate involved in the reaction is :

(1) Carbocation

(2) Free radical

(3) Carbanion

(4) Cyclicbrominium ion

90. fuEu esa ls dkSulh vfHkfØ;kvksa esa CH4 izkIr gksrk gS ?

(i) CH3�Mg Br + CH3�CCH

(ii) CH � MgBr + CH 3 2

COOH

COOH

(iii) CH3�MgBr + CH3OH

(iv) CH � MgBr + CH 3 2

C � CH3

C � CH3

||

||O

O

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) ,oa (iv)

(2) (i), (ii) ,oa (iii) dsoy

(3) (iii) ,oa (iv) dsoy

(4) (i) ,oa (iv) dsoy

91. CH3�CH�CH2�CH3

CH3

+ Br2 h

eq[; mRiknA

(1)

CH3

Br

(2)

CH3

Br

(3)

CH3

Br

(4)

CH3

Br

92. 2 2

HBr

R O

mijksDr vfHkfØ;k esa dkSulk e/;orhZ curk gS :

(1) dkcZ/kuk;u

(2) eqDr ewyd

(3) dkcZ_.kk;u

(4) pfØ;czksehfu;e vk;u






93. Ph�CCH (1 mol) HOCl / H

major product.

The correct statement is

(1) Only one mole of HOCl is conssumed in the

reaction.

(2) Two moles of HOCl are conssumed in the

reaction.

(3) Major product is -Monochloro

acetophenone.

(4) Cl� is the nucleophile involved in the

reaction.

94. Addition of one mole of HCl on but-1-en-3-yne

gives mainly ?

(1) 3-chlorobut-1-yne

(2) 3-chlorobut-1-ene

(3) 2-chlorobuta-1,3-diene

(4) 1-chlorobuta-1,3-diene

95. Identify the product of following reaction :

CH3�CH=CH�MgBr 2

2

(1) O /

(2) H / H O

Product

(1) CH3�CH=CH�COOH

(2) CH3�CH2�CH2�OH

(3) CH3�CH2�CH=O

(4)

OHOH||

CH�CH�CH 23

96. The product obtained from the following

sequence of reactions is

(1) propanal

(2) 2-propanol

(3) 1-propanol

(4) propane

93. Ph�CCH (1 mol) HOCl / H

eq[; mRikn] fuEu

esa ls dkSulk dFku lgh gS :

(1) vfHkfØ;k esa HOCl dk dsoy ,d eksy gh iz;qDr

gksrk gSA

(2) vfHkfØ;k esa HOCl ds nks eksy iz;qDr gksrs gSA

(3) vfHkfØ;k esa eq[; mRikn -eksuksDyksjks

,flVksfQuksu gSA

(4) vfHkfØ;k esa iz;qDr gksus okyk ukfHkdLusgh Cl� gSA

94. C;wV-1-bZu-3-vkbu ij 1 eksy HCl dk ;ksx djus ij

izkIr eq[; mRikn gS \

(1) 3-DyksjksC;wV-1-vkbZu

(2) 3-DyksjksC;wV-1-bZu

(3) 2-DyksjksC;wVk-1,3-MkbZbZu

(4) 1-DyksjksC;wVk-1,3-MkbZbZu

95. fuEu vfHkfØ;k dk mRikn gksxk %

CH3�CH=CH�MgBr 2

2

(1) O /

(2) H / H O

mRikn

(1) CH3�CH=CH�COOH

(2) CH3�CH2�CH2�OH

(3) CH3�CH2�CH=O

(4)

OHOH||

CH�CH�CH 23

96. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k vuqØe esa vfUre mRikn gS %

(1) izksisuSy

(2) 2-izksisukWy

(3) 1-izksisukWy

(4) izksisu






97. In which molecule C�N bond length is maximum ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

98. & are except :

(1) diastereomers

(2) Configurational isomers

(3) Stereoisomers

(4) Enantiomers

99. How many isomers of C7H14 have cyclopentane

as parent chain ?

(1) 2 (2) 4

(3) 6 (4) 8

100.

Alcohol A is :

(1) Propan-1-ol

(2) Propan-2-ol

(3) 2-methylpentane-2,4-diol

(4) Butan-2-ol

97. fuEu esa ls dkSuls v.kq esa C�N ca/k yEckbZ vf/kdre gS \

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

98. rFkk ds fy, fdlds

vfrfjDr vU; lHkh lgh gSa %

(1) foofje leko;oh

(2) foU;kfld leko;oh

(3) f=kfoe leko;oh

(4) izfrfCkEc:Ik leko;oh

99. C7H14 ds fdrus leko;oh eq[; Ja[kyk ds :i esa

lkbDyksisUVsu j[krs gaS ?

(1) 2 (2) 4

(3) 6 (4) 8

100.

,YdksgkWy A gS :

(1) izksisu-1-vkWy

(2) izksisu-2-vkWy

(3) 2- esfFkyisUVsu-2,4-MkbZvkWy

(4) C;wVsu-2-vkWy






SECTION - II

Reasoning Type

This section contains 20 reasoning type

quest ions. Each question has 4 choices

(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which

ONLY ONE is correct.





codes given below :

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct

explanation of A



101. Assertion : Among noble gases Xe form most of

the compounds.

Reason : Relative abundance of Xe is least

among all the noble gases.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

102. Assertion : CCl4 does not undergo hydrolysis,

whereas SiCl4 does.

Reason : SiCl4 has higher boiling point that

CCl4.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

[k.M- II

dkj.k çdkj

bl [k.M esa 20 dkj.k çdkj ds ç'u gSA çR;sd ç'u

ds 4 fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gS, ftuesa ls

flQZ ,d lgh gSA




(1) A o R nksuksa lR; gS rFkk R, A dk lgh

Li"Vhdj.k gSA

(2) A o R nksuksa lR; gS fdarq R, A dk lgh

Li"Vhdj.k ugha gSA

(3) A lR; gS fdarq R vlR; gSA


101. dFku : vfØ; xSlksa esa ls vf/kdrj Xe gh ;kSfxd curk

gSA

dkj.k : Xe dh vkisf{kr mifLFkfr lHkh vfØ; xSlksa esa

U;wure gksrh gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

102. dFku : CCl4 dk tyvi?kVu ugha gksrk gS tcfd SiCl4

dk tyvi?kVu gksrk gSA

dkj.k : SiCl4 dk DoFkukad CCl4 dh vis{kk vf/kd gksrk

gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)






103. Assertion : Copper (I) compounds are unstable

in aqueous solutions and undergo

disproportionation.

Reason : Cu2+ (aq) is stable than Cu+ (aq) due

to the much more negative enthalpy of hydration

of Cu2+ (aq.) than Cu+, which more than

compensates for the second ionization enthalpy

of Cu.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

104. Assertion : Lattice of diamond is a double fcc

structure.

Reason : In the crystal lattice of diamond,

carbon atoms adopt fcc arrangement along with

occupancy of 50% tetrahedral holes

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

105. Assertion : According to Kohlrausch law the

molar conductivity of any electrolyte at infinite

dilution is sum of molar conductivities of its ions

Reason : At infinite dilution molar conductivity of

an electrolyte is least.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

106. Assertion : Reactions of electrolytic cell are

reversed of stopped if current supply in galvanic

cell is stoped.

Reason : G is positive for the reaction taking

place in electrolytic cell.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

103. dFku : dkWij(II) ;kSfxd tyh; foy;u esa vLFkk;h gksrs

gS rFkk fo"kekuqikrhdj.k vfHkfØ;k n'kkZrs gSA

dkj.k : Cu2+ (aq), Cu+ (aq) dh rqyuk esa LFkk;h gksrs

gS D;ksafd Cu2+(aq.) dh ty;kstu dh ,UFksYih Cu+ dh

rqyuk esa cgqr vfèkd _.kkRed gksrh gS tks fd Cu dh

f}rh; vk;uu ,UFksYih dh {kfriwfrZ djrh gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

104. dFku : ghjs dk tkyd ,d f}d fcc (double fcc)

lajpuk gSA

dkj.k : ghjs ds fØLVy tkyd esa] dkcZu ijek.kq 50%

prq"Qydh; fNnzksa ds lkFk Qyd dsfUnzr ?ku (fcc)

O;oLFkk ds vuqlkj LFkku ?ksjrs gSaA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

105. dFku : dkWyjkml fu;e ds vuqlkj vuUr ruqrk fdlh

Hkh oS|qr vi?kV~; dh eksyj pkydrk blds vk;uksa dh

eksyj pkydrk dk ;ksx gSA

dkj.k : vuUr ruqrk ij oS|qr vi?kV~; dh eksyj

pkydrk U;wure gksrh gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

106. dFku : oS|qr vi?kVuh; lsy esa /kkjk dk izokg jksd

fn;k tk, rks vfHkfØ;k,a ;k rks :d tkrh gSa ;k foijhr

fn'kk esa pyus yxrh gSA

dkj.k : oS|qr vi?kV~;h lsy esa gksus okyh vfHkfØ;k ds

fy, G /kukRed gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)






107. Assertion : A catalyst increases rate of reaction

by lowering the energy of activation.

Reason : The catalyst-reactant interaction forms

activated adsorbed complex and adsorption is

always exothermic.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

108. Assertion : Every collision between molecules

does not lead to a chemical reaction.

Reason : Only those molecules can react during

collisions which acquire threshold energy level.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

109. Assertion : At the end of electrolysis using

platinum electrodes, an aqueous solution of

CuSO4 turns colourless.

Reason : During the electrolysis CuSO4 ,

changes to Cu(OH)2 during electrolysis.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

110. Assertion : Manganese has a less favourable

electron affinity than its neighbours in either side.

Reason : The magnitude of an elements

electron affinity depends on the elements

valence shell electronic configuration.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

111. Assertion : Adding inert gas to dissociation

equilibrium of N2O4 at constant temperature and

pressure increases the dissociation.

Reason : Due to the addition of inert gas at

constant pressure molar concentration of

reactants and products decreases.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

107. dFku : ,d mRizsjd lfØ;.k dh ÅtkZ dks de djds

vfHkfØ;k dh nj dks c<+krk gSA

dkj.k : mRizsjd&vfHkdkjd vUrj fØ;k lfØ;.k

vf/k'kksf"kr ladqy cukrk gS rFkk vf/k'kks"k.k ges'kk

Å"ek{ksih gksrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

108. dFku : v.kqvksa ds chp izR;sd VDdj ,d jklk;fud

vfHkfØ;k dks iznf'kZr ugha djrh gSA

dkj.k : VDdj ds nkSjku dsoy og v.kq fØ;k dj ldrs

gSa tks nsgyh ÅtkZ Lrj j[krs gSaA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

109. dFku : CuSO4 dk vyh; foy;u dk IysfVue

bysDVªksM dk mi;ksx djds fo|qr vi?kVu djus ij

vUr esa foy;u jaxghu gks tkrk gSA

dkj.k : fo|qr vi?kVu ds nkSjku CuSO4 , Cu(OH)2 esa

cny tkrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

110. dFku : eSXuht vius ikl okys bysDVªkWu rRoksa esa nksuksa

rjQ bysDVªkWu vkcU/ku ds fy, de lgk;d gSA

dkj.k : rRoksa dh bysDVªkWu lEcU/k mtkZ vius lgla;ksth

dks'k esa mifLFkr bysDVªksfud foU;kl ds ifjek.k ij

fuHkZj djrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

111. dFku : fu;r rki rFkk nkc ij vfØ; xSl feykus ij

N2O4 dk fo;kstu vf/kd gksrk gSA

dkj.k : fu;r nkc ij vfØ; xSl feykus ij vfHkdeZdksa

rFkk mRiknksa dh eksyj lkUnzrk de gks tkrh gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)






112. Assertion : When CO2 is continuously bubbled

through lime water a precipitate is formed which

later dissolves.

Reason : Calcium carbonate is initially formed

which reacts further with carbon dioxide to form

calcium bi-carbonate.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

113. Assertion : Generally alkali and alkaline earth

metals form superoxides on reaction with O2.

Reason : The bond order between O�O in

superoxides is 1.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

114. Assertion : Aldehydes are generally more

reactive than Ketones towards nucleophilic

reaction.

Reason : Alkyl groups at Ketone increases

crowding and decreases partial positive charge

at carbonyl group generally.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

115. Assertion : Crotonaldehyde on reaction with

KCN in acidic medium produces four

stereoisomeric products.

Reason : Product of the above reaction has total

2 chiral carbon so, total stereoisomers are four.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

116. Assertion : Reactivity order for aromatic

nucleophilic substitution is Ph-I>Ph-Br>Ph-

Cl>Ph-F.

Reason : Because leaving ability of halogens

decide the rate of aromatic nucleophilic

substitution.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

112. dFku : tc CO2 pwus ds ikuh esa fujUrj cqycqfyr gksrh

gS rks ,d vo{ksi curk gS tks ckn esa ?kqy tkrk gSA

dkj.k : izkjEHk esa dSfY'k;e dkcksZusV curk gS tks vkxs

dkcZuMkbZvkWDlkbM ds lkFk fØ;k djds dSfY'k;e

ckbZdkcksZusV cukrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

113. dFku : lkekU;r% {kkjh; rFkk {kkjh; e`nk /kkrq,a O2 ds

lkFk vfØ;k djds lqij vkWDlkbM cukrs gSaA

dkj.k : lqij vkWDlkbM esa O�O ds e/; dk cU/k Øe

gksrk 1 gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

114. dFku : lkekU;r% ukfHkdLusgh vfHkfØ;k ds izfr

,fYMgkbM dh fØ;k'khyrk dhVksu ls vf/kd gksrh gSA

dkj.k : dhVksu esa mifLFkr ,fYdy lewg f=kfoe ck/kk

c<+krs gSa ,oa dkcksZfuy lewg ij lkekU;r% vkaf'kd

/kukos'k ?kVkrs gSaA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

115. dFku : ØksVksusfYMgkbM vEyh; ek/;e esa KCN ls

vfHkfØ;k djds pkj f=kfoe leko;oh mRikn nsrk gSA

dkj.k : mijksDr vfHkfØ;k ds mRikn esa nks fdjSy dkcZu

gS blfy, ;g pkj f=kfoe leko;oh nsrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

116. dFku : ,sjksesfVd ukfHkdLusgh izfrLFkkiu dh fØ;k'khyrk

Ph-I>Ph-Br>Ph-Cl>Ph-F gksrh gSA

dkj.k : D;ksafd ,sjksesfVd ukfHkdLusgh izfrLFkkiu dh nj

gSykstsu dh fu"dklu {kerk ij fuHkZj djrh gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)






117. Assertion : Phenol gives o- and p-nitrophenol

mainly on nitration with conc. HNO3 and H2SO4

mixture.

Reason : �NO2 group is o/p-directing group.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

118. Assertion : In Fries rearrangement when phenyl

benzoate is heated with AlCl3 , it produces o-& p-

hydroxy benzophenone.

Reason : Oxygen atom present on benzene

nucleus is ortho-para directing group.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

119. Assertion :Toluene undergoes electrophilic

substitution more readily than benzene.

Reason : Toluene gives a mixture of o- and p-

products.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

120. Assertion : Grignard reagent acts as strong

nucleophile on reaction with carbonyl

compounds.

Reason : Carbon magnesium bond has good

ionic character so alkyl group has carbanionic

character, hence behave like nucleophile.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

117. dFku : fQukWy lkUnz HNO3 rFkk H2SO4 ds lkFk o- ,oa

p-ukbVªksfQukWy eq[; :i ls nsrs gSaA

dkj.k : �NO2 lewg o/p-funsZ'kh lewg gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

118. dFku : Ýkbl iquZfoU;kl vfHkfØ;k eas Qsfuy csUtks,V

dks AlCl3 ds lkFk xeZ djus ij vkWFkksZ ,oa iSjk gkbMªkWDlh

csUtksfQuksu izkIr gksrs gSaA

dkj.k : csUthu ds ukfHkd ij mifLFkr vkWDlhtu

ijek.kq vkWFkksZ&iSjk funsZ'kh lewg gksrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

119. dFku : VkWywbZu bysDVªkWuLusgh izfrLFkkiu vfHkfØ;k

csUthu dh rqyuk esa vf/kd rsth ls nsrk gSA

dkj.k : VkWywbZu o- rFkk p- mRiknksa dk feJ.k nsrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

120. dFku : fxzU;kj vfHkdeZd dkcksZfuy ;kSfxdksa ds lkFk

vfHkfØ;k ij izcy ukfHkd Lusgh ds leku O;ogkj

n'kkZrk gSA

dkj.k : dkcZu eSXusf'k;e cU/k vPNs vk;fud y{k.k

j[krk gS blfy, ,fYdy lewg dkcZ_.kk;u y{k.k

j[krk gS] vr% ukfHkdLusgh ds leku O;ogkj n'kkZrs gSaA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)





Toll Free: 1800 258 5555 | CIN: U80302RJ2007PLC024029 MRSFT210517C4-31

PART�C

SECTION-I




(3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY

ONE is correct.

121. Match the following columns

Columns-I Column-II

(A) Sphaerosomes i. RNA synthesis

(B) Peroxisomes ii. Lipid storage

(C) Plasmodesmata iii. Glycolate

metabolism

(D) Nucleolus iv. Transport of

macromolecules

A B C D

(1) ii iii iv i

(2) iii iv i ii

(3) i ii iii iv

(4) iv i ii iii

122. A dihybrid plant on self pollination produce 400

genotypes with 4 types of phenotypes how

many seeds will have genotypes TtRr?

(1) 200 (2) 100

(3) 50 (4) 150

123. Which of the following statements about

photosystem I in chloroplasts are correct ?

(1) Plastocyanin reduces photooxidised P700

in PSI

(2) Plastocyanin reduces photooxidised P680

in PSI

(3) Electrons ejected from P700 in

photosystem I are replaced with electrons

from water.

(4) The calvin cycle occurs only in light.

[k.M-I




lgh gSA

121. LrEHkksa dks lqesfyr dhft,&

LrEHk-I LrEHk-II

(A) LQhjkslkse i. RNA la'ys"k.k

(B) ijkWDlhlkse ii. fyfiM laxzg

(C) IykTeksMsLesVk iii. XykbdksysV mikip;

(D) dsfUnzdk iv. o`gnk.kqvksa dk ifjogu

A B C D

(1) ii iii iv i

(2) iii iv i ii

(3) i ii iii iv

(4) iv i ii iii

122. f}ladj ikniksa ds e/; Loijkx.k djkus ij 4 y{k.k

izk:i ds lkFk 400 thu izk:i izkIr gksus ij fdrus

chtksa dk thu izk:i TtRr gksxk -

(1) 200 (2) 100

(3) 50 (4) 150

123. gfjr yodksa ds izdk'k ra=k 1 ds ckjs esa fuEu esa ls

dkSulk dFku lgh gS

(1) PS-1 esa IykLVkslk;fuu] izdk'kh; vkWDlhÑr

P700 dk vip;u djrk gSA

(2) PS-1 esa IykLVkslk;fuu] izdk'kh; vkWDlhÑr

P600 dk vip;u djrk gSA

(3) izdk'k ra=k-1, P700 ls fu"dkflr bysDVªkWUl dks

ty ls izkIr bysDVªkWUl ds lkFk izfrLFkkfir fd;k

tkrk gSA

(4) dsfYou pØ dsoy izdk'k esa gh gksrk gSA






124. Select the wrong pair

(1) Spike - Sessile flower

(2) Capitulum - flattened axis

(3) Cyathium - Achlamydeous flower

(4) Salvia - Stamens are of similar

sizes

125. Heterospory and independent gametophyte are

present in-

(i) (ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(1) (i) (2) (ii)

(3) (iii) (4) (iv)

126. Munch mass flow hypothesis in which

translocation of food takes place due to

(1) Turgor pressure gradient and transpiration

(2) Transpiration and imbibition

(3) TP gradient and imbibition

(4) Only TP gradient

124. xyr ;qXe pqfu,&

(1) df.k'k - oar foghu iq"i

(2) eq.Md - piVk iq"iklu

(3) lkbfFk;e - ,DysekbfM;l iq"i

(4) lkfYo;k - lHkh iqadsljksa dk vkdkj

leku

125. fo"kechtk.kqdrk rFkk Lora=k ;qXedksn~fHkn~ fdlesa

mifLFkfr gksrs gSA

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(1) (i) (2) (ii)

(3) (iii) (4) (iv)

126. eqUp ekl ¶yks ifjdYiuk esa Hkkstu ds LFkkukUrj.k dk

dkj.k gS&

(1) LQhfr nkc izo.krk rFkk ok"iksRltZu

(2) ok"iksRltZu rFkk vUr% 'kks"k.k

(3) TP izo.krk rFkk vUr%'kks"k.k

(4) dsoy TP ¼LQhfrnkc½ izo.krk






127. Match the column and select the correct option

Column I Column II

(i) Heart wood (a) Living,

photosynthetic,

mechanical

tissue

(ii) Tyloses (b) Pinus

(iii) Cork Cambium (c) Sec. in origin

(iv) Vascular

Cambium

in roots

(d) Sec. phloem

+ periderm

(v) Pycnoxylic wood (e) Phellogen

(vi) Collenchyma (f) Vessels

(vii) Bark (g) Non functional

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii)

(1) d f c e g b a

(2) g f e c b a d

(3) a b c d e f g

(4) b c e a f d g

128. Match the following and choose the correct

combination from the options given below

Column I Column II

(Population interaction) (Examples)

A. Mutualism I. Ticks on dogs

B. Commensalism II. Balanus and

chathamalus

C. Parasitism III. Sparrow and any

seed

D. Competition IV. Epiphyte on a

mango branch

E. Predation V. Orchid ophrys and

bee

A B C D E

(1) II I V IV III

(2) III II I V IV

(3) IV III II I V

(4) V IV I II III

127. LrEHk lqesfyr dhft, o lgh fodYi dk pquko dhft,

Column I Column II

(i) vUr%dk"B (a) thfor izdk'k

la'ys"kh

;kaf=kd Ård

(ii) Vkbyksfll (b) ikbul

(iii) dkWdZ dsfEc;e (c) mRifÙk esa f}rh;d

(iv) ewyksa esa oLdqyj

dsfEc;e

(d) f}rh;d ¶yks;e

+ isfjMeZ

(v) fidukstkbfyd

dk"B

(e) Qsykstu

(vi) LFkwydks.kksrd (f) okfgdk;sa

(vii) Nky (g) fuf"Ø;

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii)

(1) d f c e g b a

(2) g f e c b a d

(3) a b c d e f g

(4) b c e a f d g

128. LrEHkksa dks lqesfyr djrs gq, lgh fodYi dk pquko

dhft, &

LrEHk I LrEHk II

(lef"V vU;ksU; fØ;k) (mnkgj.k)

A. lgksidkfjrk I. dqÙkksa ij fVDl

(Ticks)

B. lgHkksftrk II. csysul o dsUFkkesyl

C. ijthoh III. xkSjS;k o cht

D. izfrLi/kkZ IV. vke dh 'kk[kk ij

vf/kikni

E. ijHk{kh V. vksfdZM vkWQfjl rFkk

e/kqeD[kh

A B C D E

(1) II I V IV III

(2) III II I V IV

(3) IV III II I V

(4) V IV I II III






129. Which of the following statements about cyclic

photophosphorylation is correct?

(1) Cyclic photophosphorylation utilizes excess

ATP.

(2) Cyclic photophosphorylation reduces

NADP+ to NADPH.

(3) Cyclic photophosphorylation occurs in the

cytochrome bf complex and utilizes

electrons from photosystem I.

(4) Cyclic photophosphorylation utilizes

electrons from photosystem II.

130. Which of following is incorrect pair?

(1) Terror of Bengal - Water hyacinth

(2) Algal bloom - Eutrophication

(3) Flocs - Tertiary treatment

(4) FOAM - Friends of archata marsh

131. 3' AAA TGC GCG ATA 5' is the sequence of

nucleotides on a gene; after transcription the

mRNA formed against it and the sequence of

bases in the corresponding binding anticodons

will be

(1) 5' UUU ACG CGC UAU 3' and 3' AAA �

UGC�GCG�AUA 5'

(2) 5' UAU CGC GCA UUU 3' and 3' AUA �

GCG�CGU�AAA 5'

(3) 5' UUU ACC TGU UAU 3' and 3' AAA �

UGG�UAC�AUA 5'

(4) 5' UAU GUT CCA UUU 3' and 3' AUA �

CAU�GGU�AAA 5'

3' AAA TGC GCG ATA 5'

132. When heterorygous red (dominant) flower is

crossed with white flower the progeny would be

Red White

(1) 350 350

(2) 450 250

(3) 380 320

(4) None of these a

129. pØh; QkWLQksfjyhdj.k ds ckjs esa fuEu esa ls dkSulk

dFku lgh gS\

(1) pØh; QkWLQksfjyhdj.k] vR;f/kd ATP dk

mi;ksx djrk gSA

(2) pØh; QkWLQksfjyhdj.k] NADP+ dks NADPH esa

vipf;r djrk gSA

(3) pØh; QkWLQksfjyhdj.k] lkbVksØkse bf dkWEiysDl

esa gksrk gS rFkk izdk'k ra=k-I ds bysDVªkWUl dk

mi;ksx djrk gSA

(4) pØh; QkWLQksfjyhdj.k] izdk'k ra=k-II ds

bysDVªkWUl dk mi;ksx djrk gSA

130. dkSulk lgh ;qXe ugha gSA

(1) cxky dk vkard - tydqEHkh

(2) 'kSoky Cywe - lqiks"k.khdj.k

(3) ¶yksDl - r`rh;d mipkj

(4) FOAM - ÝsUM~l vkWQ vdkZVk ek'kZ

131. 3' AAA TGC GCG ATA 5' ,d thu ij

U;wfDy;ksVkbM~l dk vuqØe gSA ‘bl ij vuqys[ku ds

i'’pkr cus mRNA o lacaf/kr ca/ku ,aVhdksMksUl esa {kkjksa

dk vuqØe gksxk -

(1) 5' UUU ACG CGC UAU 3' rFkk 3' AAA �

UGC�GCG�AUA 5'

(2) 5' UAU CGC GCA UUU 3' rFkk 3' AUA �

GCG�CGU�AAA 5'

(3) 5' UUU ACC TGU UAU 3' rFkk 3' AAA �

UGG�UAC�AUA 5'

(4) 5' UAU GUT CCA UUU 3' rFkk 3' AUA �

CAU�GGU�AAA 5'

132. Tkc fo”"ke;qXeuth yky (izHkkoh) iq"i dks lQsn iq"i ds

lkFk ØkWl djk;k tkrk gS] rks larfr D;k gksxh �

yky lQsn

(1) 350 350

(2) 450 250

(3) 380 320







133. Which pair is correctly matched?

(1) Sacred grooves � Khasi and jaintia hills

in Meghalaya.

(2) Seed bank � In-situ Conservation

(3)Ex situ conservation � Biosphere reserve

(4)Exotic Species in india� Lentana camara &

Mangifera indica.

134. Which of the following statements about the

mechanism of the light�dependent reactions of

photosytheis is correct

(1) Electrons from photosystem I reduce

NADPH

(2) Electrons from photosystem I reduce

pheophytin.

(3) Electrons from NADPH revert photosystem

II back to the ground state.

(4) Ferredoxin-NADP reductase reduces

NADP+ to NADPH.

135. Which of the following sequence correctly

represents the flow of electrones during

photosynthesis

(1) NADPHChlorophyllCalvin cycle

(2) H2ONADPHCalvin cycle

(3) NADPHElelctron transport chainO2

(4) NADPHO2CO2

136. K C A G(5) (5) 5 (2) is the floral formula of:

(1) Sesbania (2) Patoto

(3) Brassica (4) Allium

137. In Nucleosome find out the correct statements

a. Type of histone proteins of octomer are

H2a, H2b, H3 and H4.

b. Linker DNA has size 145A° with 70 bP

c. Nucleosome give beeded appearance to

chromatin like string on a beed

d. 5 nucleosomes are coiled per turn to form

solenoid

e. H1 also takes part in formation of

Nucleosome

(1) a, b, e (2) c, d, e

(3) a, b, c (4) a, c, d

133. dkSulk ;qXe lgh lqesfyr gS&

(1) ifo=k miou � es?kky; esa [kklh rFkk

t;fUr;k fgYl

(2) cht cSad � LoLFkkus laj{k.k

(3) mLFkkus laj{k.k � tSoe.My fjtoZ

(4) Hkkjr esa cká tkfr;k¡ � ys.Vkuk dekjk rFkk

esaftQsjk bf.Mdk

134. izdk'k la'ys"k.k dh izdk'k vfHkfØ;kvksa dh fØ;kfof/k

ds ckjs esa fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku lgh gS

(1) izdk'k ra=k I ds bysDVªksUl] NADPH dk vip;u

djrs gSaA

(2) izdk'k ra=k I ds bysDVªksUl] Qh;ksQk;fVu dk

vip;u djrs gSaA

(3) NADPH ds bysDVªksUl] izdk'k ra=k II dks okil

ewy voLFkk esa ifjofrZr djrs gSaA

(4) QsjsMksfDlu&NADP fjMDVst+] NADP+ dks]

NADPH esa vipf;r djrs gSa

135. fuEu esa ls dkSulk vuqØe izdk'k la'ys"k.k ds nkSjku

bysDVªkWUl ds izokg dks lgh rkSj ij n'kkZrk gS

(1) NADPHDyksjksfQydsfYou pØ

(2) H2ONADPHdsfYou pØ

(3) NADPHbysDVªkWu ifjogu Ja[kykO2

(4) NADPHO2CO2

136. K C A G(5) (5) 5 (2)fdldk iq"i lw=k gS?

(1) flLcsfu;k (2) vkyw

(3) czsfldk (4) ,fy;e

137. U;wfDy;kslkse esa lgh dFkuksa dk NkWfV;sA

a. vkDVksej (v"Vk'kad) dh fgLVksu izksVhUl H2a,

H2b, H3 rFkk H4 gksrh gSA

b. 70 bP ;qDr fyadj DNA 70 dh eki 145A° gksrh

gSA

c. U;wfDy;kslkse ØksesfVu dh Mksjh ij chM~l ds

leku mifLFkfr nsrs gSaA

d. izR;sd Qsjs (turn) esa 5 U;wfDy;kslksEl dq.Mfyr

gksdj lksysukbM cukrs gSaA

e. H1 Hkh U;wfDy;kslkse ds fuekZ.k Hkkx ysrh gSA

(1) a, b, e (2) c, d, e (3) a, b, c (4) a, c, d






138.What are VNTRs

(1) Variable Number of Tandem Repeats

(2) Satellite DNA that show very high degree of

polymorphism.

(3) That are used in DNA finger printing

(4) All of the above

139. The term "Bio-magnification" refers to the

(1) Growth of organism due to food

consumption

(2) Increase in population size

(3) Blowing in up of environmental issues by

man

(4) Increase in the concentration of non-

degradable pollutants as they pass through

food chain

140. Which of the following is a correct match

between crop, variety and resistance to

diseases

Crop Variety Resistance

to diseases

(1) Wheat Himgiri White rust

(2) Brassica Pusa

sadabahar

Black rot

(3) Cowpea Pusa komal Bacterial

blight

(4) Chilli Pusa

swarnim

Chilly

mosaic virus

141. The method of directly injecting a sperm into

ovum, assisted by reproductive technolgy is

called

(1) GIFT (2) ZIFT

(3) ICSI (4) ET

142. During the chewing of food, but before

swallowing the bolus, salivary, gastric and

pancreatic secretions respectively, are

stimulated by -

(1) Acetylecholine, gastrin and histamine.

(2) Acetylecholine, CCK and nitric oxide.

(3) Nitric oxide, VIP and histamine.

(4) VIP, gastrin and somatostatin.

138.VNTRs D;k gSaA

(1) osjh;scy uECj vkWQ VsUMe jhfiV~l

(2) lsVsykbV DNA tks mPp Lrj dh cgq:irk n'kkZrs

gSaA

(3) tks DNA fQaxj fizfVax esa iz;qDr gksrs gSaA

(4) mijksDr lHkh

139. "tSfod vko/kZu" iznf'kZr djrk gSA

(1) Hkkstu ds miHkksx ds dkj.k thoksa dh o`f)

(2) lef"V ds ifj.kke esa o`f)V

(3) euq"; }kjk ok;qe.Myh; eqn~nksa dks c<+kuk

(4) vfuEuhdj.kh; iznw"k.k dh c<+rh gq;h ek=kk [kk|

Ükza[kyk }kjk LFkkukarfjr gksrh gSA

140. fuEufyf[kr esa Qlyksa] fdLesa rFkk jksx ds izfr

izfrjks/kdrk ls lacaf/kr lgh ;qXe dk pquko dhft,&

Qly fdLesa jksxksa ds izfr

izfrjks/kdrk

(1) xsagw¡ fgefxjh 'osr fdV

(2) ljlksa iwlk lnkcgkj Cysd jkWV

(3) yksfc;k iwlk dksey csfDVjh;y

CykbV

(4) fepZ iwlk Lof.kZe fpyh ekst+sd

okbjl

141. og izfØ;k izR;{k :i ls 'kqØk.kq ds v.Ms esa izos'k esa

lgk;d tuu izkS|ksfxdh gS

(1) GIFT (2) ZIFT

(3) ICSI (4) ET

142. Hkkstu dks pckus ds nkSjku ijUrq fuokysa ds fuxj.k ls

iwoZ Øe'k% ykj] vkek'k;h rFkk vkXuk'k;h lzko.kksa dk

míhiu gksrk gSA

(1) ,lksfVydksyhu, xSfLVªu rFkk fgLVkfeu }kjkA

(2) ,lksfVydksyhu, CCK rFkk ukbfVªd vkWDlkbM

}kjkA

(3) ukbfVªd vkWDlkbM, VIP rFkk fgLVksfeu }kjkA

(4) VIP, xSfLVªu rFkk lksesVksLVsfVu }kjkA






143. Which of the following disorders may be

autoimmune in which the produced antibodies,

mimic TSH?

(1) Simple goitre

(2) Grave's disease

(3) Gull's disease

(4) Osteitis fibrosa cystica

144. Generation of potential difference in the

photoreceptor cells is due to

(1) Bleaching of opsin.

(2) Association of retinal and opsin.

(3) Dissociation of the retinal from opsin.

(4) Activation of ganglionic cells

145. Analyse the statements given below and select

the option having correct set of statements.

A. If kidneys fail to excrete excess sodium

from the body, it results edema.

B. Hypernatremia may occur due to hydration,

water deprivation or excessive uptake of

sodium in diet.

C. The respiratory acidosis takes usually due

to hyperventilation.

D. A fall in the level of blood pH inhibits

respiratory centre which cause increase in

the rate and depth of breathing.

Options:

(1) Only A and B are correct.

(2) Only B, C and D are correct

(3) Only B and C are correct

(4) Only B is correct.

146. Mark the second messenger in case of heart in

response to parasympathetic nervous system

(1) cAMP

(2) cGMP

(3) IP3

(4) DAG

143. fuEufyf[kr vkfu;ferrkvksa esa dkSu ,d vkWVksbE;wu gks

ldrk gS ftlesa mRikfnr izfrj{kh TSH dk vuqdj.k

djrs gS?

(1) lkekU; ?ksa?kk

(2) xzsoh dk jksx

(3) xy dk jksx

(4) vkWLVkbfVl Qkbczkslk flfLVdk

144. izdk'k laosnh dksf'kdkvksa eas foHkokUrj mRifÙk dk dkj.k

gSa

(1) vkWfIlu dk fojatuA

(2) jsfVuy rFkk vkWfIlu dk la;ksxA

(3) jsfVuy rFkk vkWfIlu dk fo;ksxA

(4) xqPNh; dksf'kdkvksa dk lafØ;.kA

145. uhps fn; x;s dFkuksa dk fo'ys"k.k dhft, rFkk lgh

dFkuksa ds leqPPk; okys fodYi dk p;u dhft,A

A. ;fn o`Dd Na vf/kD; dks 'kjhj ls ckgj mRlftZr

ugh dj ikrs gS rc bfMek gksrk gSA

B. futZyhdj.k, ty dk fu:) vUrxzZg.k ;k vkgkj

eas vf/kd lksfM;e ds vkf/kD; ls gkbijusVsªfe;k

gksrk gSA

C. 'oluh; vEyrk gkbijosUVhys'ku ds dkj.k gksrk

gSA

D. :f/kj PH ds fxjus ls 'olu dsUæ dk laneu

gksrk gS tks 'oklksPí~okl dh nj rFkk mldh

xgjkbZ dks c<+k nsrk gSA

fodYi

(1) dsoy A rFkk B lgh gSaA

(2) dsoy B, C rFkk D lgh gSaA

(3) dsoy B rFkk C lgh gSaA

(4) dsoy B lgh gSaA

146. ijkuqdEih raf=kdk ra=k ds izR;qÙkj eas ân; esa f}rh;d

lans'kokgd dks fpfUgr dhft,

(1) cAMP

(2) cGMP

(3) IP3

(4) DAG






147. Which one is incorrectly matched about a

typical long bone?

(1) Diaphysis - Shaft or body

(2) Metaphysis - Long cylindrical and

main portion of the

brain

(3) Articular surfaces - Covered by hyaline

cartilage

(4) Epiphyses - The proximal and

distal ends of the

bone

148. Refer to the figure given below and identify the

marked alphabets which represent the sites at

which tubular fluid osmolarity exceeds that of

blood plasma by greatest amount

(1) A and E (2) A, B and C

(3) B and E (4) B, D and E

149. Which of the following hormones do

neurosecretory cells produce?

(1) Antidiuretic hormone

(2) Calcitonin

(3) Growth hormone

(4) Adrenocorticotropic hormone

150. In human beings, tympanic membrane is

composed of connective tissue and covered by

(1) Skin on its outside and mucus membrane

inside

(2) Mucus membrane both on its inside and

outside

(3) Skin both on its outside as well as inside

(4) Mucus membraneon its outside and skin

inside

147. ,d izk:ih yEch vfLFk ds ckjs esa dkSu ,d xyr esy

gS?

(1) Mk,Qkbfll - 'kkW¶V ;k ckWMh

(2) esVkQkbfll - yEch osyukdkj rFkk

vfLFk dk eq[; HkkxA

(3) laf/kry lgr - izHkklh mifLFkr ls <dk

gqvkA

(4) ,ihQkbfll - vfLFk dk izkjafEHkd rFkk

nwjLFk HkkxA

148. uhps fn;s x;s fp=k dk vuqlj.k dhft, rFkk fpfUgr

v{kjksa dh igpku dhft, tks mu LFkkuksa dks iznf'kZr

djrs gSa tgk¡ ufydh; rjy dh ijklj.kh;rk :f/kj

IykTek ls dkQh vf/kd gksrh gSaA

(1) A rFkk E (2) A, B rFk C

(3) B rFk E (4) B, D rFk E

149. fuEUk gkeksZUl esa fdl ,d dks raf=kdk lzkoh dksf'kdk,

cukuh gS?

(1) ew=kyrkjks/kh gkeksZu

(2) dSfYlVksfuu

(3) o`f) gkeksZUl

(4) ,MªhuksdksfVZdksVªkfid gkeksZu

150. euq";ksa esa d.kZiVg f>Yyh la;ksth mÙkd dh cuh gksrh

gSa rFkk vkPNkfnr jgrh gSa&

(1) ckgj dh vksj Ropk rFkk vUnj dh vksj 'ys"e

f>Yyh lsA

(2) ckgj rFkk vUnj nksuksa vksj 'ys"e f>Yyh lsA

(3) ckgj dh vksj Ropk ls rFkk vUnj dh vksj 'ys"e

f>YYkh lsA

(4) ckgj dh vksj 'ys"e f>Yyh rFkk vUnj dh vksj

'ys"e f>YYkh lsA






151. Which one of the following is a wrong matching

of the excretory organ and corresponding

organism?

(1) Annelids - Nephridia

(2) Flatworms - Flame cells

(3) Limulus - Green gland

(4) Amphioxus - Solenocytes

152. Which one statement is wrong?

(1) Compact bone tissue is composed of

repeating structural units called osteons.

(2) The flat bones of the skull, most of the

facial bones and mandible etc. are

examples of membranous bones.

(3) Sesamoid bones develop in certain

tendons where friction, tension or physical

stress are negligible.

(4) The cribriform plate is associated with

ethmoid bone of the skull.

153. "Used hides to protect their body and burried

their dead" belongs to-

(1) Neanderthal man (2) Java man

(3) Cro-magnon man (4) Handy man

154. Which one of the following incorrectly explains

the function of a specific part of nervous system

in regulation of respiration?

(1) Medulla region: respiratory rhythm centre.

(2) Pons region: pneumotaxic centre.

(3) Chemosensitive area near rhythm centre:

Highly sensitive of O2 and H+ ion.

(4) chemo receptor in aortic arch: Sense

change in H+ ion.

155. A is a difficulty in breathing causing wheezing

due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.

One correct option for the blank A is

(1) Emphysema

(2) Asthma

(3) Fibrous of lungs

(4) Bronchitis

151. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ,d mRlthZ vaHk rFkk mlls

lacaf/kr tho/kkjh ds fy, vlR; esy gS?

(1) ,usfyM~l - mRlfxZdk,a

(2) piVs d`fe - Tokyk dksf'kdk,a

(3) fyE;wyl - xzhu xzafFk

(4) ,EQvkWDll - lksysukslkbV~l

152. dkSu lk ,d dFku vlR; gS?

(1) lqxfBr vfLFk vkWfLVvkWu uked lajpukRed

bdkbZ;ksa ls feydj cuh gksrh gSA

(2) [kksiM+h psgjs dh vf/kdk'k vfLFk;kW rFkk esSfUMcYl

dyktkr vfLFkvksa ds mnkgj.k gSA

(3) lhlsek,M vfLFk dqN fuf'pr d.Mjkvksa esa

fodflr gksrh gS tgkW ?k"kZ.k] ruko rFkk HkkSfrd

izfrcy ux.; gksrs gSA

(4) flzchQkeZ IysV [kksiMh ds ,FkkekW,M vfLFk ls

lEcfU/kr gSA

153. loZizFke fdlus Loa; dh lqj{kk ds fy;s >ksiM+h dk

fuekZ.k fd;k rFkk e`r fj'rsnkjksa dks nQukuk izkjEHk

fd;k& (1) fu,.MjFky ekuo (2) tkok ekuo (3) Øks-esXuu ekuo (4) gsUMh ekuo

154. fuEUkfyf[kr es dkSu ,d Lok'kksPNokl ds fu;eu esa

efLr"d ds ,d fof'k"V Hkkx ds dk;Z dh xyr O;k[;k

djrk gS?

(1) esMwyk {ks=k : 'oluh; y; dsUnzA

(2) iksUl {ks=k : U;weksVsfDld dsUnzA

(3) y; dsUnz ds fudV jlk;u laosnh {ks=k : O2 rFkk

H+ vk;u ds fy, vfr laosnhA

(4) /keuh pki dk jlk;u laosnh : H+ vk;u ds

ifjorZu ds fy, laosnh

155. A-czkWdkbZ rFkk czkWfdvksYl esa iznzkg 'oklksPNokl esa

dfBukbZ gSA A ds fy, ,d lgh fodYi gS-

(1) ,EQkblsek

(2) nek

(3) QsQM+ks dh Qkbczksfll

(4) czkWdkbfVl






156. The following are choleretics except:

(1) Bile salts (2) Secretin

(3) Acetylcholine (4) Bile pigments

157. How much O2 is present in one litre of

deoxygenated blood under normal conditions?

(1) 125 ml (2) 250 ml

(3) 50 ml (4) 150 ml

158. The figure given below depicts the mechanism

of breathing. In which one of the given options,

correctly idenfifiens A, B, C and D.

(1) C - Air entering lungs

B - Ribs and sternum returned to original

position

A - Diaphragm relaxed

D - Volume of thorax decreased

(2) C - Air expelled from lungs

B - Ribs and sternum returned to original

position

A - Diaphragm relaxed

D - Volume of thorax decreases

(3) C - Air entering into the lungs

B - Ribs and sternum raised

A - Diaphragm contracted

D - Volume of thoracic cavity increased

(4) C - Ribs and sternum returned to original

position

B - Air entering lungs

A - Diaphragm contracted

D - Volume of thoracic cavity increased

156. fuEufyf[kr esa ls ,d dksfyjsfVd ugh gSA

(1) fiÙkyo.k (2) lhØhVhu

(3) ,lsfVydksyhu (4) fiÙk jaxk,

157. lkekU; n'kkvksa esa ,d yhVj vkDlhtu foghu :f/kj esa

mifLFkr O2 dh ek=kk gS?

(1) 125 ml (2) 250 ml

(3) 50 ml (4) 150 ml

158. uhps fn;k x;k fp=k 'oklksPNokl ds fØ;kfof/k dks

iznf'kZr djrk gSA fn,s x;s fodYiksa esa dkSu lk ,d A,

B, C rFkk D dh lgh igpku djrk gSA

(1) C - QsQM+ks esa ok;q dk izos'kA

B - ilfy;k¡ rFkk LVuZe ewy esaA

A - Mk;kÝke foJkekoLFk esaA

D - d{k dk ?kVk gqvk vk;ru

(2) C - QsQM+ks ls ok;q dk ckgj fudyukA

B - ilfy;k¡ rFkk LVuZe ewy fLFkfr esA

A - Mk;kÝke foJkekoLFk esaA

D - d{k dk ?kVk gqvk vk;ruA

(3) C - QsQM+ks es aok;qq dk izos'kA

B - ilfy;ksa rFkk LVuZe dk mBukA

A - Mk;kÝke ladqfprA

D - o{k xqgk dk ?kVk gqvk vk;r;u

(4) C - ilfy;kW rFkk LVuZe ewy voLFkk esaA

B - QsQM+ks es ok;q dk izos'kA

A - Mk;kÝke ladqfprA

D - o{k xqgk dk c<+k gqvk vk;ruA






159. Which of the following is not a correct

statement?

(1) A heart murmur is an abnormal sound that

either is heard before, between, or after the

normal heart sounds, or may mask the

normal heart sounds.

(2) The first sound "lubb", produced due to

closure of atrioventricular valves is high

pitch, louder and a bit longer than the

second sound.

(3) Cardiac output is the volume of blood

ejected from the right ventricle into the

pulmonary trunk per minute.

(4) Cardiac reserve is the difference between a

person's maximum cardiac output and

cardiac output at rest.

160. The term pallium is used for

(1) Ventrolateral wall of cerebrum

(2) Dorsal wall of cerebrum

(3) Floor of diencephalon

(4) Dorsal wall of mid brain

SECTION-II



questions. Each question has 4 choices (1),

(2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which






codes given below :

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the

correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not

correct explanation of A



159. fuEufyf[kr es dkSu lk ,d lgh dFku ugh gS?

(1) gkVZ eeZj ,d vlkekU; /ofu gS tks ân; /ofu;ksa

ds igys] chp esa vFkok ckn esa lqukbZ nsrh gS ;k

lkekU; ân; /ofu;ksa dks <d ldrh gSA

(2) vkfyUn fuy;h dikVks ds cUn gksus ds dkj.k

mRiUu izFke ân; /ofu] f}rh; ân; /ofu dh

rqyuk esa rst rFkk dqN NksVh gksrh gSA

(3) ân; yfC/k nkfgus fuy; ls Qq¶Qqlh; /keuh esa

izfr feuV fu"dkflr :f/kj dh ek=kk gSA

(4) ân; vo'ks"k ,d O;fDr ds vf/kdre ân; yfC/k

rFkk foJkekoLFkk esa ân; yfC/k dk vUrj gSA

160. iSfy;e 'kCn blds fy, iz;qDr gksrk gS?

(1) izefLr"d dh v/kj ik'oZ nhokj

(2) izefLr"d dh i`"B nhokj

(3) Mk,uflQSykWu dh lgr

(4) e/; efLr"d dh i`"B nhokj

[k.M-II


bl [k.M esa 20 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSaA izR;sd iz'u

ds 4 fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa] ftuesa ls

flQZ ,d lgh gSA




(1) A o R nksuksa lR; gS rFkk R, A dk lgh

Li"Vhdj.k gSA

(2) A o R nksuksa lR; gsa fdarq R, A dk lgh

Li"Vhdj.k ugha gSaA

(3) A lR; gS fdarq R vlR; gSaA







161. Assertion : Magaspore Mother Cell (MMC)

divides mitotically and forms 4 megaspores.

Reason : Megaspore mother cells are diploid

and megaspores are haploid.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

162. Assertion : In Pomegranate juicy placental

hairs are edible

Reason : Pomegranate is a hesperidium type

of fruits

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

163. Assertion : In free central placentation,

placenta is present in the center and ovary is

partitioned.

Reason : Ovules are developed from the

margins of ovary in primerose

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

164. Assertion: Meiotic division results in the

production of haploid cells.

Reason: Recombination nodule activates

during zygotene of meiosis.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

165. Assertion: Multiple phenotypic effect of a gene

is observed in pleiotropic gene.

Reason: It's dominant allele regulates the

inheritance of a part of trait.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

166. Assertion: To counteract the increase in turgor

pressure in plant cells, the cell wall produces an

equal and opposite pressure, i.e. wall pressure.

Reason:When plant cells undergo endosmosis,

they swell but do not burst.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

161. dFku : xq:chtk.kq ekr` dksf'kdk (MMC) lelw=kh :i

ls foHkkftr gksrh gS rFkk pkj xq:chtk.kq cukrh gSA

dkj.k : xq:chtk.kq ekr` dksf'kdk f}xqf.kr gksrh gS vkSj

xq:cht.kq vxqf.kr gksrs gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

162. dFku % vukj esa chtk.Mklu ds jlhys jkse [kkus ;ksX;

gksrs gSaA

dkj.k % vukj ,d gsLisjsfM;e izdkj dk Qy gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

163. dFku % eqä dsUnzh; chtk.MU;kl esa chtk.Mklu dsUnz

esa mifLFkr gksrk gS rFkk v.Mk'k; dks"Bksa esa foHkkftr

gksrk gSA

dkj.k % izkbejkst esa chtk.M v.Mk'k; ds fdukjksa ls

fodflr gksrs gSaA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

164. dFku : v/kZlw=kh foHkktu ds i'pkr~ vxqf.kr dksf'kdk,a

curh gSa

dkj.k : v/kZlw=kh foHkktu ds tkbxksVhu voLFkk esa

iqu;ksZtu ?kqaMh lfØ; gks tkrh gSA

(1) (2) (3) (4)

165. dFku % fIy;ksVªkWfid thu esa ,d thu dk

cgqy{k.kiz:ih izHkko izsf{kr fd;k tkrk gSA

dkj.k % bldk izHkkoh ;qXefodYih ,d fo'ks"kd ds ,d

Hkkx dh oa'kkxfr dk fu;eu djrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

166. dFku % ikni dksf'kdkvksa esa LQhfr nkc esa o`f) dks

jksdus ds fy, dksf'kdk fHkfÙk leku vkSj foijhr nkc

¼vFkkZr~ fHkfÙk nkc½ mRié djrh gSA

dkj.k % var% ijklj.k esa ikni dksf'kdk Qwy tkrh gS

ijUrq QVrh ugha gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)






167. Assertion : In plant tissue culture, somatic

embryos can be induced from any plant cell.

Reason : Any viable plant cell can differentiate

into somatic embryo.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

168. Assertion :. Net primary productivity is the

available biomass for the consumption to

heterotrophs.

Reason : Herbiviores and decomposers can't

survive without NPP.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

169. Assertion : Increasing concentration of CO2

increases rate of photosynthesis in C3 plants.

Reason : High CO2 initiates the closing of

stomata in C3 plants.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

170. Assertion : Fungi are haploids, having

gametophytic body.

Reason : Zygotic meiosis is present in fungi.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

171. Assertion : Some muscles appear reddish and

are called, red muscles.

Reason : Red muscle fibres are highly

vascularised and contain a large number of

mitochondria.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

172. Assertion : Most of the peptide hormones

require secondary messengers for their action.

Reason : Peptide hormones cannot cross the

plasma membrane barrier

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

167. dFku : ikni Ård lao/kZu esa fdlh Hkh ikni dksf'kdk

ls dkf;d Hkzw.k cuk;s tk ldrs gSaA

dkj.k : dksbZ Hkh tuu{ke ikni dksf'kdk dkf;d Hkzw.k

esa foHksfnr gks ldrh gSA

(1) (2) (3) (4)

168. dFku % usV izkFkfed mRikndrk ijiksf"krksa dh [kir ds

fy, miyC/k tSo ek=kk gksrh gSA

dkj.k % 'kkdHk{kh ;k vi?kVd] NPP ds fcuk thfor

ugha jg ldrs gSaA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

169. dFku : CO2 dh c<+rh gqbZ lkUnzrk] C3 ikniksa esa

izdk'kla'ys"k.k dh nj c<+krh gSA

dkj.k : CO2 dh mPp lkanzrk] C3 ikniksa esa jU/kzksa ds

can gksus dks izsfjr djrh gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

170. dFku : dod vxqf.kr gksrs gSa] ftlesa iknidk;

;qXedksn~fHknh; gksrk gSA

dkj.k : dodksa esa tkbxksfVd fe;ksfll ik;h tkrh gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

171. dFku : dqN isf'k;k yky izrhr gksrh gS vkSj yky-

isf'k;k dgykrh gSA

dkj.k : yky is'kh rUrq vR;f/kd laogfur gksrs gS rFkk

muesas <sj lkjs ekbVksdkfMª;k gksrs gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

172. dFku : vf/kdk'k isIVkbM gkeksZu dh fØ;k ds fy,

f}rh;d lans'kogdks dh vko';drk gksrh gS

dkj.k : isIVkbM gkeksZu dksf'kdk dyk vojks/k dks ikj

ugh dj ldrs

(1) (2)

(3) (4)






173. Assertion:Aldosterone helps in the

maintenance of electrolytes, body fluid volume,

osmotic pressure and blood pressure

Reason:Aldosterone acts mainly at the

proximal tubule and stimulates reabsorption of

Na+ and water.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

174. Assertion : Mucosa forms glands in stomach

(gastric glands) and crypt in between the bases

of villi in the intestinal (crypts of Lieberkuhn)

Reason : All these modifications increases the

surface area enormously.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

175. Assertion : During hearing process waves in

perilymph induce ripple in the basilar

membrane.

Reason : Movement of the basilar membrane

bend the hair cells pressing them against the

tectorial membrane.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

176. Assertion : Marasmus is a disorder caused by

deficiency of food or protein energy malnutrition

(PEM) which occurs in infants below one year

of age.

Reason : It is characterized by protruded or pot

belly appearance, blotchy skin, wasted muscles,

anaemia, odema of certain parts.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

177. Assertion : A woman usually does not

conceive during the lactation period.

Reason : The hormone 'prolactin' inhibits the

menstruation

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

173. dFku : ,YMksLVhVkWu os|qr vi?kV;ksa] 'kjhj rjy

vk;ru] ijklj.k nkc rFkk :f/kj nkc lkekU; cuk,

j[kus es lgk;rk djrk gS

dkj.k : ,YMksLVhjku eq[;r: izkFkfed dq.Mfyr ufydk

ij dk;Z djrk gS rFkk Na+ ,oa ty ds iqujko'kks"k.k

dks míhfir djrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

174. dFku : 'ysf"Ekdk vkek'k; esa vkek'k;h xzafUFk rFkk vkar

esa jlkadqjks ds vk/kkj ij njkjs (yhcjdqu dh njkjs)

cukrh gSA

dkj.k : ;s lHkh :ikUrj.k lrg {ks=kQy dks vf/kdkf/kd

c<krs gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

175. dFku : Jo.k fØ;k ds }ksjku isjhfyEQ dh rjaxs

csflyj dyk esa daiu cuus dks izsfjr djrh gS

dkj.k : csflyj dyk dh xfr jkseks dks eksMdj mUgs

VsDVksfj;y dyk ds fo:} dj nsrh gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

176. dFku : eSjsLEkl ,d vfu;ferrk gS tks ,d o"kZ ls

de vk;q ds f'k'kqvksa esa Hkkstu ;k izksVhu ÅtkZ dqiks"k.k

ls gksrk gSA

dkj.k : ;g mHkjs gq, isV, [kqnnjhZ Ropk, is'kh {k;,

jDrkYirk rFkk dqN Hkkxksa esa bfM;k ls vfHkyf{kr gksrk

gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

177. dFku % ,d efgyk nqX/k òko.k ¼ysDVs'ku ihfj;M½ ds

nkSjku lkekU;r;k xHkZorh ugha gksrh gSaA

dkj.k % gkeksZu izksysfDVu egkokjh dks jksdrk gSaA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)






178. Assertion : In India, IUDs like placement of

copper-T is one of most widely accepted

method of contraception.

Reason : Sterilisation procedure in the male is

called orchidectomy

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

179. Assertion : Second infection of the same

pathogen is quickly eliminated.

Reason : Memory B-and T-cells thats are

produced during first attack mount a quick and

vigorous attack on pathogens reentering

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

180. Assertion : Kidney of one person grafted onto

another person is always successful.

Reason : It has rich vascularization.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

PART-D

GENERAL KNOWLEGDE, APTITUDE &

LOGICAL THINKING



questions. Each question has 4 choices (1),

(2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which


181. Which Indian City has been conferred with the

title of the 'Cleanest Tourist Destination' in India

by the Ministry of Tourism?

(1) Gangtok

(2) Jaipur

(3) Shimla

(4) Amritsar

178. dFku % Hkkjr esa] IUDs tSls fd dkWij&T dk LFkkfir

djuk] xHkZjks/ku ¼dUVªklsI'ku½ dk lcls T;knk Lohd`r

rjhdk gSaA

dkj.k % uj esa cU/o;Rdj.k dk rjhdk vkfdZMsDVeh

dgykrk gSaA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

179. dFku % fdlh jksxk.kq ¼isFkkstu½ dk f}rh; laØe.k

'kh?kzrk ls u"V fd;k tkrk gSaA

dkj.k % eseksjh B ,ao T dksf'kdk;sa tks izFke laØe.k ds

nkSjku curh gS ;s nqcjk izos'k okys jksxk.kq ¼isFkkstu½ ij

,d rhoz o izcy vkØe.k djrh gSaA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

180. dFku % ,d O;fDr ds o`Dd dk nwljs O;fDr ds 'kjhj

esa izR;kjksi.k lnSo lQy gksrk gSaA

dkj.k % blesa ?kfu"B jDr ifjlapj.k ¼osLdwysjkbts'ku½

gksrk gSaA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

PART-D

GENERAL KNOWLEGDE, APTITUDE &

LOGICAL THINKING


bl [k.M esa 20 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSaA izR;sd iz'u

ds 4 fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa] ftuesa ls

flQZ ,d lgh gSA

181. i;ZVu ea=kky; }kjk Hkkjr ds dkSuls 'kgj dks 'LoPNre

i;ZVu LFky' ds f[kykc ls lEekfur fd;k x;k gS?

(1) xaxVksd

(2) t;iqj

(3) f'keyk

(4) ve`rlj






182. Metal tools and machines are worshipped

during which of these festivals?

(1) Baisakhi (2) Dhanteras

(3) Vishvakarma Puja (4) Saraswati Puja

183. Which of these national parks in not located in

India?

(1) Sagarmatha (2) Dachigam

(3) Corbett (4) Kanlia

184. With reference to the wild life of India what is

Dugong?

(1) His a desert gazelle

(2) It is a marine mammal

(3) It is a migratory raptor

(4) It is a salt water crocodile

185. "Swachh Bharat Abhiyan" (Clean India Mission)

is a national campaign by the Government of

India. The slogan of this mission is

(1) Clean India - "Nirmal Bharat"

(2) Jaban Soch Waban Shauchalaya

(3) One step towards Cleanliness -"Ek Kadam

Swacchta Ki Aur"

(4) Let's clean

186. Arrange the following in a meaningful sequence

:-

(A) Elephant (B) Cat

(C) Mosquito (D) Tiger

(1) A, B, C, D (2) B, C, A, D

(3) C, B, D, A (4) D, C, A, B

187. Choose the word from the given alternatives,

that belongs to the same group as given below

Ohm : Watt : Volt

(1) Light (2) Electricity

(3) Heat (4) Ampere

188. Select the odd one out

(1) House (2) Cottage

(3) School (4) Palace

182. e'khuh vkSj /kkrq ds midj.kksa dh fuEu esa ls fdl

R;kSgkj ds nkSjku iwtk dh tkrh gS?

(1) cSlk[kh (2) /kursjl

(3) fo'odekZ iwTkk (4) ljLorh iwtk

183. fuEu esa ls dkSulk jk"Vh; m|ku Hkkjr esa ugha gS?

(1) lkxjekFkk (2) Mfpxke

(3) dkWcsZV (4) dkUgk

184. Hkkjrh; oU; thou ds lanHkZ esa Mwxksax (Dugong) D;k

gS?

(1) ;g jsfxLrkuh fpadkjsa gS

(2) ;g leqæh Lruik;h gSA

(3) ;g izoklh jSIVj gSA

(4) ;g [kkjs ikuh dk exjePN gSA

185. "LoPN Hkkjr vfHk;ku" ,d jk"Vªh; Lrj ij Hkkjr

ljdkj }kjk pyk;k x;k vfHk;ku gSA bl vfHk;ku dk

vkn'kZ okD; D;k gSA

(1) fuEkZy Hkjr

(2) tgk¡ lksp ogk¡ 'kkSpky;

(3) ,d dne LoPNrk dh vksj

(4) vkvks lQkbZ djsa

186. fuEufyf[kr dks lokZf/kd mi;qDr Øe esa O;ofLFkr

dhft;sa

(A) gkFkh (B) fcYyh

(C) ePNj (D) ck?k

(1) A, B, C, D (2) B, C, A, D

(3) C, B, D, A (4) D, C, A, B

187. fn;s x, fodYiksa esa ls og 'kCn pqfu;s ftldk uhps

fn;s x, lewg ls lEcU/k gksa

(1) izdk'k (2) fo|qr

(3) Å"ek (4) ,Eih;j

188. fuEu esa ls vlaxr 'kCn pqfu;sa

(1) izdk'k (2) dqfV;k

(3) fo+|ky; (4) egy






189. Starting from a point, a person walked

12mNorth, he turned right and walked 10 m, he

again turned right and walked 12 m, then he

turned left and walked 5 m. How far is he now

from the starting point

(1) 10 m (2) 5m

(3) 15 m (4) 20 m

190. Vijay's position is 14th from upwards in a class

of 43 students. What will be his position from

downwards?

(1) 28th (2) 29th

(3) 30th (4) 31st

Directions : (191 to 193) Find the missing term :

191. 111, 114, 120, 123, 129, ?

(1) 148 (2) 145

(3) 141 (4) 135

192. AZ, DW, GT, JQ, ?

(1) OP (2) PQ

(3) MN (4) NM

193.

(1) 72 (2) 18

(3) 9 (4) 19

194. If in any code language NATIONAL is written

as MZGRLMZO than how is JAIPUR written in

that language

(1) QRZKFI (2) QZRKFI

(3) QZRFKI (4) QZRIFK

195. The year that will have the same calender as

that of the year 1995.

(1) 2002 (2) 2005

(3) 2006 (4) 2001

189. ,d O;fDr fdlh fcUnq ls pyuk vkjEHk djrk gS rFkk

mÙkj fn'kk esa 12m pyrk gS fQj og nk;sa eqM+dj 10

m, pyrk gS og iqu% nk;sa eqM+dj 12 m, pyrk gS]

fQj og ck;sa eqM+dj 5 m pyrk gSA vc og izkjfEHkd

fcUnq ls fdruh nwjh ij gSA

(1) 10 m (2) 5m

(3) 15 m (4) 20 m

190. 43 Nk=kksaa dh ,d d{kk es fot; dh fLFkfr Åij ls 14

oha gSA uhps vksj ls mldh fLFkfr D;k gksxh

(1) 28th (2) 29th

(3) 30th (4) 31st

funsZ'k : (191 ls 193) ds iz'uksa eas yqIr in dks crkb,

191. 111, 114, 120, 123, 129, ?

(1) 148 (2) 145

(3) 141 (4) 135

192. AZ, DW, GT, JQ, ?

(1) OP (2) PQ

(3) MN (4) NM

193.

(1) 72 (2) 18

(3) 9 (4) 19

194. ;fn fdlh lkadsfrd Hkk"kk NATIONAL dks

MZGRLMZO dh rjg fy[kk tkrk gS rc mlh rjg

JAIPUR dks fdl rjg fy[kk tk;sxk

(1) QRZKFI (2) QZRKFI

(3) QZRFKI (4) QZRIFK

195. og dkSu lk o"kZ gS ftlesa 1995 ds leku dSys.Mj

fn;k x;k gSA

(1) 2002 (2) 2005

(3) 2006 (4) 2001






Directions : (196 to 197) A cube is painted on

all sides. Three adjacent sides are painted

red. Two of the remaining sides are painted

green and one is painted yellow. The cube is

then cut into eight small cubes :

196. How many cubes are painted red on two sides?

(1) 0 (2) 1

(3) 2 (4) 3

197. How many cubes are painted red on one side?

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4

Directions : (198) Select a figure from the four

alternatives, which when placed in the blank

space of figure (X) would complete the pattern.

198.

(1) (2) (3) (4)(X)

?

Directions : (199) A sheet has been folded in the

manner as shown in X, Y and Z respectively

and punched. You have to choose from the

alternatives how it will look when unfolded.

199. X ZY

(1) (2) (3) (4)

funsZ'k: (196 to 197) ,d ?ku dh lHkh Hkqtkvksa dks

isUV fd;k x;k gSA rhu layXu Hkqtkvksa dks yky ls

jaxk x;k gSA 'ks"k nks Hkqtk,a dks gjs jax ls jaxk x;k gS

vkSj ,d dks ihys jax ls jaxk x;k gS vkSj rc ?ku ds

NksVs NksV 8 ?kukdkj VqdMsa+ dkWVs x;s gSA:

196. nksuksa rjQ yky ls jaxs gq, fdrus ?ku ds VqdMsa gS?

(1) 0 (2) 1

(3) 2 (4) 3

197. ,d rjQ ls yky jax ls jaxs x;s ?ku ds fdrus VqdMs+

gSa

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4

funsZ'k: (198) fn;s x;s pkj fodYiksa es ls ml ,d fp=k dk

p;u dhft, ftls fp=k (X) ds [kkyh Hkkx esa j[kus ij

mldk izk:i iw.kZ gks tk;sxkA

198.

(1) (2) (3) (4)(X)

?

funs'k : (199) ,d 'khV dks n'kkZ, x;s vkÑfr d vuqlkj

Øe'k X, Y rFkk Z dks eksM+k x;k gSA vkSj iap fd;k

x;k gSA tc ;g [kqyus dh fLFkfr esa gks rc ;g fdl

izdkj ls fn[ksxk ,sls fodYi dk p;u vkidks djuk

gSA

199. X ZY

(1) (2) (3) (4)






Directions : (200) Figures 1� and 2 are related

in a particular manner. Establish the same

relationship between figures 3 and 4 by

choosing a figure from amongst the five

alternatives, which would replace the question

mark in figure (4).

200. : : ?::

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

funsZ'k : (200) vkÑfr 1� rFkk 2 fdlh fo'ks"k rjg ls

lEc) gSaA ik¡p fodYiksa eas ls vkÑfr p;fur djs tks

3 oas 4 oas vkÑfr ds chp ds lecU/k LFkkfir djrk gksA

ftls iz'uokpd fpUg ls vkÑfr (4) dks n'kkZ;k x;k

gSA

200. : : ?::

(1) (2)

(3) (4)



Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

Ñi;k bu funsZ'kksa dks /;ku ls i<+saA vkidks 5 feuV fo'ks"k :i ls bl dke ds fy, fn;s x;s gSaA

1. Immediately fill the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

1.ijh{kk iqfLrdk ds bl i`"B ij vko';d fooj.k uhys@dkys ckWy

IokbaV isu ls rRdky HkjsaA isfUly dk iz;ksx fcYdqy oftZr gSA

2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.

2. mÙkj i=k bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk ds vUnj j[kk gSA tc vkidks ijh{kk

iqfLrdk [kksyus dks dgk tk, rks mÙkj i=k fudky dj

lko/kkuhiwoZd fooj.k HkjsaA

3. The test is of 3½ hours duration. 3. ijh{kk dh vof/k 3½ ?kaVs gSA

4. The Test Booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 200.

4.bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk esa 200 iz'u gSA vf/kdre vad 200 gSA

5. This Question Paper contains 200 (60 Physics, 60 Chemistry, 60 Biology & 20 General Knowledge) questions according to new pattern of AIIMS.

5. ;g iqfLrdk vkidk iz'u i=k gSA ftlesa AIIMS ds iSVuZ ds

vuqlkj 200 (60 Physics, 60 Chemistry, 60 Biology & 20

General Knowledge) iz'u gSaA

6. For each question, you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one third (–1/3) mark will be awarded.

6. [k.M–I ds izR;sd iz'u ds fy,] ;fn vkius flQZ mfpr mRrjokys

cqYys dks gh dkyk fd;k gS rks vkidks 1 vad fn;s tk,axsA ;fn

fdlh Hkh cqYys dks dkyk ugha fd;k gS rks 'kwU; vad fn;k tk,xkA

xyr mRrj ds cqYys dks dkyk djus ij _.kkRed ,d frgkbZ

(–1/3) vad fn;k tk,xkA

7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instructions 6 above.

7.çR;sd iz'u dk dsoy ,d gh lgh mÙkj gSA ,d ls vf/kd mÙkj

nsus ij mls xyr mÙkj ekuk tk;sxk vkSj mijksDr funsZ'k 6 ds

vuqlkj vad dkV fy;s tk;saxsA

Filling the Top-half of the ORS : Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS.

Do not use Gel / Ink / Felt pen as it might smudge the ORS.

vksvkj,l (ORS) ds Åijh&vk/ks fgLls dk Hkjko :

ORS dks Hkjus ds fy, dsoy dkys ck¡y iSu dk mi;ksx dhft,A

8. Write your Roll no. in the boxes given at the top left corner of your ORS with black ball point pen. Also, darken the corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also fill your roll no on the back side of your ORS in the space provided (if the ORS is both side printed).

8. ORS ds lcls Åij cka;s dksus esa fn, x, ck¡Dl esa viuk jksy

uEcj dkys ck¡y ikbUV ls fyf[k, rFkk laxr xksys Hkh dsoy dkys

isu ls Hkfj;sA ORS ds ihNs dh rjQ Hkh viuk jksy uEcj fyf[k,

(;fn ORS nksuksa rjQ Nih gqbZ gSA).

9. Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper and darken the corresponding bubble with Black ball point pen.

9. ORS ij viuk isij dksM fyf[k, rFkk laxr xksyksa dks dkys ck¡y

isu ls dkys dhft,A

10. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code correctly and properly, then his/her marks will not be displayed.

10 ;fn fo|kFkhZ viuk jksy uEcj rFkk isij dksM lgh vkSj mfpr

rjhds ugha Hkjrk gS rc mldk ifj.kke jksd fy;k tkosxkA

11.Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled bubble, you are advised to be extremely careful while darken the bubble corresponding to your answer.

11. pawfd isu ls Hkjs x, xksys feVkuk vkSj lq/kkjuk laHko ugha gS

blfy, vki lko/kkuh iwoZd vius mÙkj ds xksyksa dks HkjsaA

12.Neither try to erase / rub / scratch the option nor make the Cross (X) mark on the option once filled. Do not scribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray marks or whitener anywhere on the ORS.

12.fodYi dks u feVk,a@u Ldzsp djsa vkSj u gh xyr (X) fpUg dks

HkjsaA ORS dks dkVs u gh QkMs u gh xUnk ugha djsa rFkk dksbZ Hkh

fu'kku ;k lQsnh ORS ij ugha yxk,aA

13.If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the bubbled data in your ORS, the bubbled data will be taken as final.

13. ;fn ORS esa fdlh izdkj dh fy[ks x, vkadMksa rFkk xksys fd, vkadMksa

esa fojks/kkHkkl gS rks xksys fd, vkadMksa dks gh lgh ekuk tkosxkA

FFUULLLL SSYYLLLLAABBUUSS TTEESSTT ((FFSSTT)) ((AAIIIIMMSS PPAATTTTEERRNN))

CCOOUURRSSEE:: AALLLL IINNDDIIAA TTEESSTT SSEERRIIEESS ((VVIIKKAALLPP)) :: CCLLAASSSS –– XXIIII//XXIIIIII

CCOODDEE -- 4 DDAATTEE :: 2288--0055--22001177

Name of the Candidate (ijh{kkFkhZ dk uke) :

I have read all the instructions and shall abide by them eSaus lHkh funsZ'kksa dk i<+ fy;k gS vkSj eSa mudk

vo'; ikyu d:¡xk@d:¡xhA

...................................... Signature of the Candidate

ijh{kkFkhZ ds gLrk{kj

Roll Number (jksy uEcj) :

I have verified all the information filled by the candidate. ijh{kkFkhZ }kjk Hkjh xbZ lkjh tkudkjh dks eSusa

tk¡p fy;k gSA

...................................... Signature of the Invigilator

ijh{kd ds gLrk{kj

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