EAST CENTRAL RAILWAY (Operating Department) Question bank (objective type) for promotional exam. (From Gr. ‘C’ to Gr. B’) Syllabus for LDCE of 30% for AOM/ATM Gr.-B, Published on 25.07.2018 by GM(P)/ECR/HJP PAPER-I 150 marks PROFESSIONAL SUBJECT (1) General (a) Hairarchial set up and line of control of operating department at the Divisional, Zonal and Railway Board level. (2) TRAFFIC ,TRAIN AND POWER CONTROL ORGANISATION: * Objectives and functional set-up of control offices. * Functions of control organization pertaining to Train Ordering, punctuality, Maintenance of Operating statistics, Wagon & Loco Stock Management, Blocks (Engg.,TRD etc.) Management, Management during Accident & unusual Situations/Circumstances & Disaster Management. * Duties and responsibilities of Chief controllers, Dy.Chief controllers, Sectional Controllers. * TNCs, Recorders and their Co-ordination with Lobbies, Station & yards. * Freight Train Operation (FTO) & Freight Train Ordering Principles with without Co-ordination with Crew Lobbies. * Special instructions during abnormal conditions of working and during emergencies like Cyclone, civil Disturbances, Accidents etc. * Daily performance reporting from Stations/Yards/Sheds to Area sub-control, Area sub-control to Divisional control office and from Divisional control office to Zonal Control office and from Zonal control office to Railway board. * Basic and important documents/registers maintained in control office and their basis. * Periodical performance reporting and analysis of operating performance along with compilation of statistical data. * Power control organization- Engine and Crew scheduling. * Factors affecting wagon & Engine utilization and methods of improvements.
Transcript
EAST CENTRAL RAILWAY(Operating Department)
Question bank (objective type) for promotional exam. (From Gr. ‘C’ to Gr. B’)
Syllabus for LDCE of 30% for AOM/ATM Gr.-B, Published on 25.07.2018 by GM(P)/ECR/HJP
PAPER-I 150 marks
PROFESSIONAL SUBJECT
(1) General (a) Hairarchial set up and line of control of operating department at the Divisional,
Zonal and Railway Board level.(2) TRAFFIC ,TRAIN AND POWER CONTROL ORGANISATION:
* Objectives and functional set-up of control offices.* Functions of control organization pertaining to Train Ordering, punctuality, Maintenance of
Operating statistics, Wagon & Loco Stock Management, Blocks (Engg.,TRD etc.) Management, Management during Accident & unusual Situations/Circumstances & Disaster Management.
* Duties and responsibilities of Chief controllers, Dy.Chief controllers, Sectional Controllers.* TNCs, Recorders and their Co-ordination with Lobbies, Station & yards.* Freight Train Operation (FTO) & Freight Train Ordering Principles with without Co-ordination
with Crew Lobbies.* Special instructions during abnormal conditions of working and during emergencies like Cyclone,
civil Disturbances, Accidents etc.* Daily performance reporting from Stations/Yards/Sheds to Area sub-control, Area sub-control to
Divisional control office and from Divisional control office to Zonal Control office and from Zonal control office to Railway board.
* Basic and important documents/registers maintained in control office and their basis.* Periodical performance reporting and analysis of operating performance along with compilation
of statistical data.* Power control organization- Engine and Crew scheduling.* Factors affecting wagon & Engine utilization and methods of improvements.* Working pertaining to issue of caution orders from nominated and notice stations.*
Liaisons/Co-ordination with control Establishment of other departments like Engg., TRD, Traction Control, Signaling Control etc.
(3)FREIGHT TRAIN OPERATIONS:
*Functioning of crew and guard lobbies.
*Integrated Lobbies.
*Shunting operations in yards or road side stations.
*Working of Marshalling Yards & Transhipment Points.
* Cause of yard and section congestion and remedial strategies.*
All Indian marshalling order and Railway-wise Marshalling orders- Principles and Producers.*
Rules regarding carriage of explosives and other general goods.*
*Indent Allotment and supply of Freight stock at stations.
*Wagon stock management for loading and unloading operations.
*Imposition of Operating Restrictions on wagon loading and acceptance of wagon indents.
*Observance of civil ban and carriage of contraband goods etc.
*Important documents/registers maintained in yards & at stations.
*Familiarity with G&SR, Accident manual, Operating manual, Block working manual, Red Tariff, IR act 1989 etc.
*Crew Management.
*Engine utilization aspects requiring special attention:- (i) Engine crew and train crew schedule.(ii) Rules regarding outstation and home station rest etc to ensure observation of 10 hour rule or rules applicable from time to time.(iii) Movement of dead locomotives.(iv) Management of maintenance schedule of locomotives.(v) Shed and traffic outage of locomotives.
* Wagon turn round time (WTR) & factors affecting optimum utilization of the wagon fleet and methods of improvement:-(i) Running of unit trains and formation of captive Rakes.(ii) Block train operation.(iii) Nominated day loading.(iv) Rationalization scheme of movement of Freight Traffic for avoiding
congestion by specific routes. (v) Merry-Go-Round (MGR) system.(vi) Engine on- load (EOL) system.(vii) Mini rake system.
* Supervision and control over movement of special type of stock, ODC consignments.*
Maximum moving dimensions.* Wagon Census.* Uses of computer :-
(i) Freight operations information system (FOIS).(ii) Coaching operations information system (COIS).(iii) Rake management system (RMS).(iv) Terminal management system (TMS).(v) Computerized Train Charting.
* Relevant rules and important policy guidelines.* C&W examination for intensive, Round Trips, Premium and close circuit rakes.* Sickness and TXR Repair Depots including POH & ROH Depots and their functions.* Supply of Coaches/Wagons to C&W shops for POH and special repairs.* Working of travelling traffic cranes for handling heavy consignments at intermediate stations.* Detaching of Stick wagons at en-route Stations and their repair and clearance.* Inter change transactions- junction returns of inter railway inter change traffic.* Weightment of rakes.* MIL RAIL.* Permissible Axle Loads & Heavy Haul Operations.* ‘Payload’ to ‘Tare’ Ratio of Wagons.(4) OPERATING STATISTICS* Definition, meaning and methods of compilation of the Fundamental and
Derived units.
* Analysis of the Operating Statistics.* Important Operating Efficiency indices, their meaning and uses.* Operating Ratio.(5) GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
It would contain questions on subject of interest as well as importance. Question should be based as to test the knowledge of candidates, which they would acquired general observation /reading without a specific study or detailed knowledge of text books. The paper should also contain question on topic of national importance, achievements of Railways as also questions which will test the awareness of the candidates to development and are taking place.
A few questions on official language policy and official language rules will also be included in the paper of general knowledge.
PAPER-II 150 marks
PROFESSIONAL SUBJECT
(1) WORKING OF TRAINS GENERALLY AND GENERAL AND SUSBSIDIARY RULES
* Responsibility and function of engine crew before starting and while on run during abnormal/unusual situations.
* Responsibility and function of guard/Asst. guard before starting and while on run and abnormal/unusual situations.
* Role and responsibility of Station Staff in working trains.* Various systems of working of trains and conditions for granting LC.* Classification of stations, standards of interlocking, Signaling systems equipment & their working.* Stations working rules and block working.* Level crossings.* Line capacity and measures for augmenting it MAUQ, Token less working,
Book, Vehicle Guidance, Driver’s ticket, Brake power certificate etc.* Rules regarding Marshalling of vehicles on Passenger, Mixes, and Freight trains.* Vacuum Brake & Air Brake systems along with continuity test.* Precautions to be taken on Ghat sections.
(2) PASSENGER TRAINS OPERATION* General principles and methodology of Time Tabling of passenger trains.* Consultative machinery for revision of Time Table at Divisional, Zonal and Rly.
Board level.* Publication of Working Time Tables, Public Time Tables, Sheet Time Tables.* Punctuality of Passenger carrying trains.* Factors affecting punctuality of passenger carrying trains and methods of
improving the punctuality.* Augmentation of trains loads for meeting traffic requirements.* Running of Tourists Coaches, Special carriages and special trains,* Planning & Running of Holiday specials, Mela specials, Tourist specials etc.* Introduction of new trains extension of trains run, Introduction of through and
sectional coaches,* Preparation of engine links and Driver/Guards links and Rake links.* Commuter services operations.(3) ACCIDENTS AND SAFETY ORGANISATION
* Accidents, Types and their classification, causes and their prevention.* Functioning of Railway Safety Organization.* Chief commissioner of Railway Safety and his functions.* Rules of reporting accidents.* Accident Relief Medical Equipment (ARMEs) & Accident Relief Trains (ARTs).* Role and responsibilities of various officials and Departments during Accidents.* Responsibility of the Control Organization, Station Masters and Traffic Staff
on the affected sections.* Accidents enquiries and DAR action against staff held responsible for the
accidents.* Review and analysis of accidents for taking corrective measures.* Disaster Management & implementations of high level committee’s report on disaster management on
Indian railways.(4) ACCIDENTS PREVENTION* Psycho analysis in case of accidents attributed to human failure.* Improved mechanized aids to prevent human error like:
(i) Improved signaling and inter-locking arrangement,(ii) SMs central and inter cabin control over route.(iii) Track circuit and axle counters.(iv) Routes relay inter-locking.(v) Automatic cab warning system and automatic braking system.
* Refresher courses, safety camps and safety campaigns.(5) PLANNING ON THE RAILWAYS* Set up and functions of planning Wing on IR.* Corporate plan and annual plan.(6) FINANCIAL & ESTABLISHMENT RULES
ESTABLISHMENT RULES: PERSONAL MANAGEMENT:
* Organization of the personal department in the railways. The objectives of the personal department functions and policies of the personal department. Role of the personal officer in headquarters and on the division.
* Classification of services, Recruitment to different services Group ‘A’ to ‘D’ recruitment of Artisan staff-special. Reservation in railway services, Rules of the railway service Commissions in recruitment, Recruitment other than through usual channels, Promotion policy and methods.
* Personal Supervision leadership styles, formal and informal leadership, leadership qualities, different leadership styles. Domestic or participative leadership style. Advantage of participation, Joint council of management, Negotiating machinery scheme, Zonal and divisional corporate groups.
* Inspection of loco sheds, C&W depots, Stations & Engineering offices.(7) LABOUR RELATIONS AND WELFARE, UNION AND THEIR RULES* Important recognized trade union in railways, Role of unrecognized unions and methods of
dealing with them. * Industrial disputes and the legislative frame works, Causes of industrial disputes,
Basis remedies, The industrial disputes Act- 1947, Strike, Lock- out lay- offs, handling of grievances at Divisions and in the Headquarters, Handling of Grievances by labour enforcement officers.
* The Hours of employment regulations (HOER), Overtime, Job- analysis and its techniques.* The Factories Act, Special rules for workshop staff in the railways.* The workmen compensation Act, Ex-gratia payment, Incentive bonus scheme.* Pass rules.* Retirement benefits under the provident fund and pension scheme,
Final settlement.* Welfare for the whole family of railway men, Concept and practice obtaining on
the railways.
(8) FINANCIAL RULES* Parliamentary control over railway finance- public accountability, Canons of
financial propriety.* Financial planning and budgeting, Budgetary and financial reviews- appropriation accounts. * Rules of Allocation, Classification of expenditure, control over expenditure-Responsibility,
Accounting, Performance Budgeting, Exchequer general financial results of working. * Works program- financial justification of works surveys preparation of estimate- Capital budget
control over capital expenditure productivity test.* Financial control over store expenditure- Purchases and stores procedure, Inventory control and
A.B.C.* Financial and coast control in railway workshop.* Rules and procedure relating to tenders and contracts for execution of
procurement of stores* Procedure for processing and finalizing the Audit Objection and Drafting.* Delegation of powers.* Losses, Frauds and embezzlements
(9) RECOMMENDED READINZG (FINANCIAL RULES)* Indian railways general code Vol. I (Chapter III, IX and XVII).* Indian railways general code Vol. II (Chapter III, IX and XVII).* Indian railway code for account Depts. Pt. (Chapter VIII).* Indian railways administration introduction first edition chapter II, VII & VIII.* Indian railways finance introduction first edition chapter II, VII &* Indian railway code for the engineering Depts. Chapter- II to V, IX to XIV.* Indian railway code for the store Depts. Excluding chapter XV to XXX & XXXX.* Report of the task force on budgetary accounting and management practice * Rlys. - First and second report. * Report by the committee on technique of financial appraisal of railway project.* Indian railway code for mechanical Depts. Chapter VIII to XII.
Series-IMultiple Choice Questions
1. What is the main duty of Train controller a. Observe train operation from station to station
b. Manage crossing & precedence for train at station
c. A & B both
d. None of these.
2. Who prepare master chart in control office
a. Chief train controller
b. train controller
c. Sr. operating manager
d. Assistant operating manager.
3. What measures taken before giving train ordering
a. availability of load
b. availability of engine
c. availability of running staff
d. all of these
4. What is the better path for goods train generally
a. ahead last mail exp train on this direction
b. behind last mail exp train on this direction
c. a & b both
d. none of these
5 Which statement is right about punctuality.
a. punctuality is different of mail exp} passenger train/ suburban train
b. punctuality is made mail exp/ passenger suburban together
c. a & b wrong
d. only b is wrong
6 Which factor effect punctuality
a. late birthing of train
b. late signal off
c. giving late starting authority
d. all of these
7. What effect show of a train running late for his time and start before his schedule time interval?
a. to remain punctuality of train
b. reduce cost of operating
c. image of railway is better
d. other train punctuality have no effect
e. all of these
8. What is the net tone kilometer
a. loaded goods weight in wagon
b. wagon km in loaded condition
c. net tone km increase due to long journey of the train
d. all of these
9. What is true about WTR
a. wagon is easily available for loading
b. goods train run in high speed
c. feasible for good congestion
d. all of these
10. What is engine turn round
a. when engine is out for home shed
b. when engine work his operating work
c. after completing operating work engine return to home shed
d. all of these
11. Marshalling yard dividing in how many part
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
12. What is the shufe of hump yard
a. like camel dromedary
b. like fish tail
c. like back of tortoise
d. all of these
13. What type of yard have natural gradient
a. flat yard
b. hump yard
c. gravity yard
d. all of these
14. According to yard, marshalling yard divided in
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five
15 . What is yard congestion
a. reducing daily work of yard
b. obstruction occurred on daily yard work
c. a & b both
d. in this train movement is stopped
16. What is the symptom of yard congestion
a. yard balance is greater than its capacity
b. load stability in mid stations
c. wagon congestion in yard very delay
d. all of these
17. Who made software of control office application
a. CRIS
b. railway board
c. RDSO
d. CCRS.
18. Who is authorize to operate control office application [COA}
a. operations manager
b. train controller
c. key functional of sister department in CRIS
d. all of these
19. What is the full form of FOIS
a. freight operations information system
b. freight operating invoice system
c. freight operation integrated system
d. all is wrong
20. What is the benefit of FOIS
a. correct train information given
b. eases operation of goods train
c. better system for wagon allocation
d. all of these are correct.
21. What is the interchange point?
a. station where two railway meet
b. junction where two railway meet
c. railway administration decide
d. all are correct.
22. What is dual control
a. where working railway TXR check the trail
b. where working and user railway’s TXR check the train
c. where wagon check is the DWI TXR
d. all are wrong
23. What effect taken by control office for punctuality of train
a. doing better crossing of train
b. reporting of train in time
c. giving right connection
d. all of these
24. what is the duty of train controller
a. observe train operation
b. giving time equal to stations
c. take care for roster of running staff
d. all of these
25. What is true about train ordering
a. this is only for goods train
b. planning of only goods train
c. this is decided that train running in time and which path
d. all of these
26. What factor effect speed of goods train
a. stabling train at road side station
b. improve maximum caution order
c. failure of equipment
d. all of these
27. What is the method of getting speed of goods train
a. charting method
b. statistical method
c. a & b both wrong
d. a & b both correct
28. full form of NTKM
a. net tone km
b. gross tone km
c. new tone km
d. all of these
29. What data fill up by area reporting centre
a. demand of wagon indent
b. punctuality
c. yard shunting work
d. a & c both
30. Who is authorized to announce train accident is a disaster
a. GM
b. AGM
c. CSO
d. all of these
31. What is the percentage of officer who move for accident sight during accident
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 70%
d. 80%
32. Who is the president of national disaster management authority
a. President of India
b. Prime Minister
c. Home minister
d. none of these
33. What is the base of zonal railway disaster management plan
a. DMP ACT 2005
b. DMP ACT 2007
c. DMP ACT 2009
d. DMP ACT 2010
34. In which month railway disaster plan published
a. January
b. February
c. March
d. April
35. What is the duty of chief train controller during accident
a. inform the concern officers
b. vacant line of nearest affected station
c. inform nearest divisional & zonal railway
d. all of the above
36. In which trains ART given precedence during running towards accident sight
a. only goods train
b. all trains
c. only passenger train
d. all above is wrong
37. What is the target time of ART
a. day -45 minutes, night -60 minutes
b. day – 60 minutes, night -75 minutes
c. day – 30 minutes, night - 45 minutes
d. a & b both correct
38. What is the hooter code while demand of only medical van
a. one long two short
b. three long
c. three short
d. two short one long
39. What is the duty of train running staff during cyclone
a. stop the train on safe place
b. open the window & doors of the passengers train
c. open the doors of goods train
d. only a & c are correct
40. Which train give permission to run during engineering block
a. all passenger trains
b. all goods train
c. material train
d. no train allow to run
41. Which trains give permission to run during power block
a. only electric engine trains
b. only diesel engine train
c. steam engine
d. b & c both
42. What is the duty of loco pilot while his train entered in block section during power block
a. store the train immediately
b. inform the station
c. protect the train
d. all of these
43. What is the duty of train controller during power block
a. inform the concerned station master with private number
b. ensure no train entered in related block section
c. give permission to electric engine to run cautiously
d. only a & b
44. What is the train running procedure after knowing about fault section in OHE
a. no train allow to run in affected section
b. in double line section on other line allow the train to run with caution under of control during day and 30 kmph during night
c. informed the TPC and run train with his guidance
d. all of these
45. What is the duty of train controller
a. coordinate with concerned division for smooth train working
b. move discipline during absence of CTNL
c. supply take with priority for loading to stations
d. all of these
46. wagon utilization work in which theory
a. no priority given to any particular goods for loading & running
b. booking of goods theory is first command first yes
c. give priority only when nationalized mater
d. all of these
47. What is the measurement method of track during accident
a. if cause of accident known than measurement of track both side 50 meters where derailment occurred
b. if cause not known then measure the track 50 meters ahead & 90 meters back
c. a & b both wrong
d. a & b both correct
48. What is true about ART
a. ART will not detained for guard
b. ART given priority on all trains after returning from accident sight.
c. maximum speed of 140 tone ART is 100 kmph
d. a & c both wrong
49. who give permission for mock drill of ART and ARMU
a. DRM-SR DMO
b. SR DSO – DRM
c. SR DCM – SR DSO
d. all of these wrong
50. Accident is divided in how many part
a. four
b. five
c. sixteen
d. ten
51. integrated lobby is a lobby of
a. LP/ALP lobby
b. guard lobby
c. combined lobby of LP/ALP & guard
d. loco lobby
52. the lobby supervisors can take forecast of a train running from the Dy. Controller/ Sec. controller along with details regarding
a. name and signing in of crew and guard
b. loco particulars
c. C & W exam.
d. ALL
53. which of these are thoroughly monitor by the lobby and remedial measures taken
a. pre departure detention to the crew
b. crew hours balancing
c. rescheduling of loco and yard detentions
d. all
54. which one is the aim of a lobby
a. reducing engine detention
b. reducing crew detention
c. both
d. reducing power supply
55. crew management system enrolled in
a. 2007
b. 2005
c. 2010
d. 2014
56. CMS is a device feature for management and interactions from a central location by
a. ICMS
b. SIMRAN
c. SFOORTI
d. CRIS
57. KIOSK is related to a. CMS
b. RMS
c. TMS
d. PAM
58. Block back is required in single line TAS when shunting is performed upto
a. home signal
b. SLB/Adv. Starter
c. outer signal
d. beyond outer signal
59. maximum speed of shunting of inflammable & explosives are
a. 15 kmph
b. 8 kmph
c. 5 kmph
d. 2.5 kmph
60. impact speed of shunting of one box wagon
a. 15 kmph
b. 8 kmph
c. 5 kmph
d. 2.5 kmph
61. which fixed signal can be used for shunting purposed
a. outer
b. home
c. starter
d. last stop signal
62. marshalling yards are classified in category
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. six
63. it is a line on which the turnouts to other lines are arranged
a. gathering line
b. transfer line
c. transshipment line
d. shunting neck
64. king point is found in
a. engine escape line
b. sorting line
c. transshipment yard
d. weighment line
65. jack point is the
a. first pair of points
b. second pair of points
c. third pair of points
d. fourth pair of points
66. Retarders are used in
a. hump yard
b. engine escape line
c. weighment line
d. transshipment line
67. in transshipment line, transshipment of consignment is alone either for the purpose of
a. commercial
b. C & W
c. both
d. None
68. Normal composition and marshalling order and link of passenger trains are issued by
a. SR. DOM
b. CFTM
c. PCOM
d. Rly. Board
69. Which is one of the cause of a section congestion
a. poor maintenance of engine and rolling stock
b. late start
c. bad controlling
d. all
70. Which one of these are not the symptoms of Sec. congestion
a. crossing of trains
b. detention to trains at signals
c. frequent late start of trains
d. heavy detentions to inward wagons
71. Marshaling yard is the yard where dealing of wagons per month in BG is more then
a. 5000
b. 10000
c. 20000
d. 50000
72. Which one of these are the remedies of yard congestion
a. Accident or unusual happenings
b. diversion of traffic
c. detention to trains to signals
d. detention of inward trains
73. Which one of these are not a quality of marshalling of a train
a. ensure trains safety
b. increase line capacity
c. provide operational expediency
d. maximize customer convenience
74. How many coaches can be attached rear of SLR including one inspection carriage
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
75. How many four wheeled wagons can be attached behind the rear SLR, addition to one inspection carriage
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
76. How many dead locomotive can be attached with superfast train
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. Nil
77. How many wagons of dangerous goods can be attached with a goods train
a. two
b. three
c. five
d. none
78. How many wagons of dangerous good can be attached with mixed train
a. two
b. three
c. five
d. none
79. How many wagons of dangerous goods can be attached with passenger carrying trains
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. none
80. What is the speed of shunting of the wagons of dangerous goods
a. 5 kmph
b. 8 kmph
c. 15 kmph
d. 2.5 kmph
81. How many wagons are required to attach to isolate the engine and gaseous wagons
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
82. preferential traffic order laid down by the central govt. [rly. Board] under Sec. of 1989
a. 14
b. 71
c. 124
d. 171
83. In preferential traffic order traffic is classified into categories
a. two
b. four
c. five
d. six
84. “MILRAIL” is classified in preferential traffic order
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. M
85. Traffic offered for distance of more than…………km will have preference over other traffic within the same classification and priority
a. 200 km
b. 500 km
c. 800 km
d. 1000 km
86. according to which section no priority/preference will be given to booking and transportation of goods. It will be done on “first come first serve” basis.
a. Sec. 66
b. Sec. 70
c. Sec. 71d. Sec. 92
87. Validity of preference traffic order published by central govt. in gazette is
a. six months
b. one year
c. two years
d. five years
88. Which one of the view is required to keep in mind before preparing a consolidated stock report
a. preferential traffic order
b. ban & restrictions
c. date of registration
d. all
89. At the time of allotment of wagons which one should not keep in view
a. bans and restriction
b. high profitable consignment
c. return date of wagons
d. date of registration
90. What procedure is not required for the booking of contraband goods
a. permit/license is required
b. permit should accompany the consignment
c. RPF/GRP should accompany the consignment
d. consignment should be kept under lock
91. intoxicating drugs are defined as “INTOXICATING” by
a. DRM
b. GM
c. RLY Board
d. govt.
92. For the booking of dangerous goods following instructions shall be followed
a. packing conditions are compulsory
b. prepayment of freight is compulsory
c. pictorial labels should be pasted on package
d. all
93. wagon demand registration fee for a rake in BG is
a. 15000
b. 12000
c. 5000
d. 25000
94. wagon registration fee is not exempted to the card holders of
a. diamond
b. platinum
c. gold
d. silver
95. wagon registration fee not collected from
a. booking house hold goods in kit wagon
b. Rly stores booked by Rly. Official
c. certain traffic exempted by Rly. Administration keeping in view competition from road transport
d. all
96. classification of stations are found in which chapter of GR & SR
a. 1st
b. 5th
c. 6th
d. 8th
97. How many appendices are available in GR & SR
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
98. How many system of working are applicable to ECR.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. six
99. Station section is available in which class of station
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. all
100. WTR is measured in ………………..unit.?
a. percent
b. day
c. rupees
d. kilometer
101. What does WTR show?
a. utilization of wagons
b. utilization of locomotives
c. utilization of staffs
d. none of the above.
102. When did wagon investment scheme implemented in Indian Railways?
a. year 2000
b. year 2005
c. year 2008
d. year 2015
103. What are the special feature of unit trains?
a. no shunting in route
b. there is only one consigner
c. there is only one consignee
d. all above
104. Which PSU use MGR trains in large Scale?
a. NTPC
b. NHPC
c. FCI
d. IOC
105. Which wagons are mainly use in MGR trains?
a. flat
b. open
c. hoppers
d. not specified
106. Which trains has special feature of “built in motive power”?
a. integral trains
b. MGR trains
c. unit trains
d. none of the above
107. Who is authorized for determination of engine outage on railway board level ?
a. MRS
b. MT
c. DS
d. none of the above
108. Engine utilization can enhanced by
a. giving proper training to LP
b. increasing through running
c. correction in time-table
d. all above
109. How many dead locomotives can be attached in goods trains?
a. one
b. two
c. three.
d. no certain number
110. How many dead locomotives can be attached in passenger trains?
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. no certain number
111. Loco outage can be prepared as
a. service wise
b. shed wise
c. traction wise
d. all of the above
112. Who is final authority to give order of operation of “C” Class ODC?
a. CRB
b. CRS
c. PCOM
d. none of these
113. When does “C” Class ODC run?
a. in day time only
b. in night time on special order
c. both in day and night time
d. none of the above
114. power of OHE must be switch off when gross clearance between ODC of OHE become
a. less than 300 MM
b. less than 340 mm
c. less than 350 mm
d. not specified
115. during ODC operation at the time of line clear which alphabet is used with trains number?
a. X
b. Y
c. O
d.R
116. For POH of WAG9 loco prescribed running km is ……………..
a. 20 lakh km
b. 24 lakh km
c. 30 lakh km
d. 35 lakh km
117. For IOH of WAP7 loco prescribed running km is …………
a. 5 lakh km
b. 10 lakh km
c. 12 lakh km
d. 15 lakh km
118. What is axle load of WAP6 Loco?
a. 16
b. 17
c. 18.9
d. 25
119. What is axle load of WAG9H loco?
a. 20
b. 20.5
c. 25
d. 25.5
120. For IOH of WAG9H loco prescribed running km is …………..
a. 10 lakh km
b. 12 lakh km
c. 15 lakh km
d. 20 lakh km
121. For POH of 3- ph – WAP7 loco prescribed running km is
a. 20 lakh km
b. 24 lakh km
c. 30 lakh km
d. 32 lakh km
122. for POH of 3 phase coaching locomotives prescribed time is
a. 5 years – 6 month
b. 6 year – 6 month
c. 7 years – 6 month
d. 9 year – 6 month
123. For POH of WAG9H prescribed time is
a. 10 years 6 month
b. 12 years – 6 month
c. 15 years – 6 month
d. 16 year – 6 month
124. In Indian railway wagon census has been done
a. every year
b. every second year
c. every fifth year
d. not certain time
125. Loco pilot should given how many rest of 22 hrs? a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
126. Loco pilot should given how many rest of 30 hrs?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
127. WTR can be reduced by adopting
a. high hauling power locomotives
b. good quality of rolling stock
c. highly trained staffs.
d. all of the above
128. What is minimum stipulated block period of PQRS?
a. 1 hrs
b. 2 hrs
c. 3 hrs
d. 4 hrs
129. Operating statistics is sign improvement
a. Efficiency
b. Disability
c. welfare
d. undeclared intone
130. Operating statistics is mirror of
a. work efficiency
b. improvement
c. welfare
d. none of these
131. A statistics is technic of
a. science
b. social since
c. analysis
d. home science
132. Statistics is measurement of
a. develop
b. tradition
c. work efficiency
d. NTKM
133. Statistics sign trend and
a. tendency
b. experience
c. experiment
d. simplify
134. Statistics is done simplification of
a. spectrum
b. video
c. data
d. software
135. Unit of primary unit of time
a. hours
b. month
c. day, year
d. none of these
136. Unit of weight in primary unit
a. kg
b. quintal
c. tone
d. none of these
137. What is unit of distance in primary unit
a. kilo letter
b. meter
c. km
d. none of these
138. What is unit of service in primary unit in railway
a. no of train
b. vehicle, wagons
c. engine
d. none of these
139. Primary unit jointly multiply called a
a. divertive unit
b. primary unit
c. fundamental unit
d. unit
140. What is unit of fundamental unit of wagon
a. day
b. night
c. mid night
d. mid day
141. What is unit of engine in fundamental unit
a. night
b. mid night
c. day
d. whole night
142. The unit of train in fundamental unit
a. km
b. mile
c. mile stone
d. engine load
143. To check in sign of operating ratio
a. financial condition
b. financial justification
c. financial charge
d. none
144. To Indicate total operation ratio in total income of
a. whole expenditure
b. total income
c. total expense in operation
d. capital
145. The unit of wagon in derivative unit
a. wagon km / wagon day
b. wagon km
c. wagon expression
d. only wagon day
146. Net tone is be derivative unit
a. NT KM
b. GT KM
c. KT KM
d. per wagon km
147. Gross tone is in Derivative unit
a. GT KM
b. T KM
c. NT KM
d. per wagon hour
148. A wagon km/ wagon day is more effective as a
a. number
b. numeric
c. improvement of wagon
d. none
149. Where find in NTKM
a. for wagon
b. for wagon way bill
c. for engine km
d. none
150. How many divide in statistics unit
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 8
151. Statistics is methodology of collection permutation & analysis of data of use
a. Science
b. Arts
c. Commerce
d. literature
152. Statistics is science of
a. Analysis & improvement
b. improvement & analysis
c. non collection data
d. data logger
153. What is finding in financial & economic statistics as a forecast of
a. Expenditure
b. income
c. antes
d. properties
154. In a finding in transport statistics
a. quantity & transport
b. efficiency of operation
c. income
d. expenses
155. In a finding in commercial statistics
a. passenger traffic
b. freight
c. average working capital
d. non working capital
156. In a finding in administrative statistics
a. stone of staff & station
b. only halt station
c. no of station
d. none of these
157. statistics is help in deciding to
a. all matter
b. only in subject
c. policy matter
d. none of these
158. Statistics in utilized co-ordination of different type of element as method
a. reading
b. study
c. working
d. trends
159. The department participated in movement of MIL- RAIL with railway
a. PG department
b. rural development
c. civil aviation department
d. ministry of defense
160. Who is authorized to grant permission for movement of MIL RAIL
a. Colonel
b. brigadier
c. QMG
d. SM
161. The consignment becomes in caring of mil rail
a. Rail traffic
b. food & grain
c. military consignment
d. none of these
162. Where is head quarter of quarter master general
a. Mumbai
b. Bang lore
c. New Delhi
d. Lucknow
163. If movement of train to military special given to path on priority running for battle field
a. as a goods train
b. as a mail/express
c. top priority
d. none of these
164. How many siding charge pay by party of the total cost for construction siding
a. 5 %
b. 3 %
c. 4 ½%
d.6 %
165. Where given to application regarding private siding
a. PCCM
b. PCEE
c. PCOM
d. GM
166. Who is authorized to give NOC in zonal railway regarding private siding
a. PCOM
b. PCE
c. AGM
d. PCCM
167. Party done commitment what duration to given to traffic with railway in agreement with railway board/ zonal railway
a. 15 years
b. 25 years
c. 10 years
d. 5 years
168. Railway given discount in freight {honor} of siding
a. 15%
b. 20%
c. 10%
d. none of these
169. who is authorized to given discount to the honor of siding
a. DRM
b. SR. DOM
c. CFTM
d.SR. DCM
170. Rail transport clearance certificate taken honor of siding of the issued NOC certificate by zonal railway
a. railway council
b. railway board
c. MR
d. zonal railway
171. Who is nodal officer in crossing to traffic and siding to seen in railway board level
a. EDCE {G}
b. EDVT
c. EDDOL
d. ED {stare}
172. Who is nodal officer in zonal railway regarding in increasing of traffic & siding
a. CFTM
b. CCM {FM}
c. CCM {Claim}
d. CCM
173. What is formula to find siding charge
a. average trip time {in minute} x engine hours cost -60
b. engine hours cost x total income -60
c. engine run round x total expensed -100
d. none of these
174. Train examination of class circuit rake where
a. minimum “A” category CC rake based depot
b. on any TXR point
c. train examination in any yard
d. none of these
175. The rake should be given image nomenclature & in entered regarding breaking/ loss of CC rake
a. FIRE
b. FOIS
c. PAM
d. FRAS
176. Marking & defacing of wagon ROH/ POH will be done at only CC RAKE
a. work shop
b. in any depot
c. based depot
d. yard
177. A CC rake base depot at mughal sarai
a. “B” category
b. “C” category
c. “A” category
d. special depot
178. Who is monitor of CC rake in zonal railway mechanical department
a. CME {DISEL}
b. CME {POWER}
c. CRSE
d. PCSO
179. What is validity of of CC rake
a. 6000 km/ 30 days
b. 7500 km/35 days
c. 12+3 days
d. none
180. What is BPC color of CC Rake
a. green
b. yellow
c. light green
d. pink
181. What is color A BPC premium rake
a. green
b. light green
c. pink
d. yellow
182. What is validity of BPC premium rake
a. 12 days
b. 12+3 days
c. 15 days
d. 13+2 days
183. What is brake power percentage in BPC of CC rake
a. 95%
b. 90%
c. 100%
d.85%
184. What is brake power percentage in BPC of end to end rake {intensive rake}
a. 90%
b. 95%
c. 100%
d.80%
185. Box N HL CC rake examination will be based in ECR
a. PEH
b. MGS
c. BRWD
d. NRPA
186. The examination of point of BRN is based on DHN division in ECRAILWAY
a. BRWD
b. PEH
c. GMO
d. DHN
187. Where is examination point of BCN in ECRAILWAY
a. GHZ
b. GMO
c. NRPA
d. DNR
188. What is brake power percentage in BPC of premium rake
a. 95%
b. 100%
c. 90%
d.80%
189. What is speed of python rake in ECRAILWAY
a.50 KMPH
b. 55 KMPH
c. 60 KMPH
d. 100KMPH
190. What is speed of sumo rake
a. 55 KMPH
b. 60 KMPH
c. 90 KMPH
d. 140 KMPH
191. A name of BPC while movement of the long hall train
a. joint BPC
b. Cover BPC
c. lump sump BPC
d. GDR
192. How many no of train attach with in long haul train
a. one
b. three
c. two
d. four
193. In the operation of long haul train havier than
a. 7500 tone
b. 6500 tone
c. 10000 tone
d. 9000 tone
194. A validity of intensive rake
a. 12+3 days
b. 35 days
c. from originating station to designation station
d. none
195. What is validity of BLC rake
a. 6000 km/30 days
b. 9000 km/ 35 days
c. 4500 km
d. point to point
196. The first POH of box n wagon is carried out a interval of
a. 6 years
b. 5 years
c. 3 years
d. 10 years
197. In Which duration ROH is carried out a interval of
a. 18 month
b. 24 months
c. 350 days
d. 2 years
198. What is brake power percentage in BPC of the passenger train
a. 95%
b. 85%
c. 100%
d. 90%
199. A color of BPC for premium rake vacuume brake
a. green
b. yellow
c. pink
d. none of these
200. How many MR presser in engine
a. 7-8 kg
b. 10-12 kg
c. 9-11 kg
d. 8-10 kg
201. How many air presser drop by loco pilot & guard. In during continuity truest
a. one kg
b. two kg
c. one point five kg
d. 5 kg
202. A find auto safe system is in
a. vacuume brake
b. air brake
c. air vaccume brake
d. special vaccume brake
203. A condoning limit in IRS coach in flat tyre
a. 60 MM.
b. 50 MM
c. 75 MM
d. 55 MM
204. What is validity of BPC in the case of BOBYN
a. 6000 km/30 days
b. 7500 km/ 35 days
c. 9000 km / 35 days
d. 4500 km
205. A GDR prepped by loco pilot & guard when load stable in more than duration
a. 18 hrs
b. 48 hrs
c. 24 hrs
d. 60 hrs
206. a duration of IOH of any wagon in generally
a. 6 months
b. 9 months
c. 12 months
d. 18 months
207. What duration ROH special type howly wagon
a. 18 months
b. 16 months
c. 24 months
d. 32 months
208. What is shunting speed of damage vehicle/ wagon
a. 10 KMPH
b. 15 KMPH
c. 08 KMPH
d. 20 KMPH
209. How many caring capacity of SLR of LHB coach
a. 8 tone
b. 8 tone
c. 4 tone
d. as per CC
210. How many duration in interval of POH wagon in generally
a. 18 months
b. 24 months
c. 36 months
d. 48 months
211. How many weight list make in the case of weightment of rake
a.2 copy
b. one copy
c. 4 copy
d. 5 copy
212. What is provision of weightment of rake
a. train passing through to weighing line with speed below 8 kmph
b. stop & start in weight line
c. 2” stop & start in weighing line
d. weightment each wagon separately
213. How many find a speed of the train that instrument is by leaser light
a. speed trail
b. anemometer
c. speed gun
d. gun speed
214. How many fix in panel video with nano chips in
a. RRI
b. PI
c. SSI
d. rudimentary interlocking
215. To find result weighment of rekes are
a. gross weight & freight
b. only net weight
c. to check our loading
d. none of these
216. Who is authorized office to given fix target of intruding to every PCOM
a. GM
b. MT
c. DWI
d. CRB
217. The main advantage of inter zonal inter change
a. to find take our & made our of goods train
b. to find fix target of goods train operation
c. to find knowledge of work efficiency
d. none of these
218. When any goods train in any connecting zonal railway called the scenario below goods train take over & more than made over the goods train inter change
a. credit balance
b. debit balance
c. over equalization
d. fixed balance
219. When any goods train in any connecting zonal railway that more than take over & below made over that science called is
a. credit balance
b. debit balance
c. under equalization
d. fixed balance
220. In the case every zonal railway earn more income comparison of expenditure that is called to in inter railway lability
a. credit balance
b. debit balance
c. over balance
d. under balance
221. A fixation of liability by director wagon inter change that is called to
a. railway liability
b. railway liability competition
c. inter railway liability
d. authorized earing
222. SFOORTI app. Is lunching by Indian railway for real time information for
a. freight operation
b. passenger train operation
c. mix train operation
d. ODC
223. SAT SANG app. Is lunch by Indian railway for help make in
a. time table
b. working time table
c. public grievance
d. public complain
224. NIWARN portal is lunched by Indian railway for
a. staff grievance
b. on line staff grievance
c. for general complain
d. none of these
225. ERR geration in system of Indian ralway
a. CMS
b. RMS
c. TMS
d. FMS
226. Whose system controller & balance to rake
a. RMS
b. TMS
c. SIMS
d. FRAS
227. PAM is part of concerning system
a. COIS
b. FOIS
c. CMS
d. COR
228. ICMS is part of system
a. FOIS
b. COIS
c. CRIS
d. CMS
229. Computerized train charting is preparing on system for control office
a. CRIS
b. COA
c. COR
d. Control system
230. Computerized TSR is part of control chart upper system
a. COA
b. COIS
c. PTT
d. WTT
231. A maximum distance permission of booking in Indian railway for mini rake
a. 200 km
b. 400 km
c. 600 km
d. 100 km
232. A term & condition for loading in minimum wagon in mini rake
a. 10 wagons
b. 20 wagons
c. 30 wagons
d. 15 wagons
233. A pit occupation is given in
a. COIS
b. ICMS
c. ISMC
d. CIT
234. CARDEX is part of system
a. COIS
b. CIB
c. CTS
d. CRMS
235. Inter change of goods train is part of system
a. FOIS
b. COIS
c. CRIS
d. FMS
236. Crew and guard is doing sign on and sign off duty in system
a. CMS
b. FOIS
c. CFI
d. FRAS
237. FNR means is given in ERR
a. freight name & record
b. freight record
c. freight not record
d. freight not record
238. Damrage charge & penal damrage charge in calculate in system
a. TMS
b. FMS
c. FRAS
d. none of these
239. All particular & record of accident engine find in system
a. SS
b. SIMS
c. TCAS
d. TDS
240. A bank account link between railway and party for the purpose of system named as
a. E. train system
b. E. payment system
c. E. registration system
d. E. banking
241. Control office application is part of
a. CRIS
b. COIS
c. FRT
d. TMS
242. Master chart is base of arranging path of
a. newly train
b. T/18 train
c. vande bharat
d. T/20 train
243. Whose color show in control chart preparing by COA regarding Engineering block
a. green
b. red
c. yellow
d. blue
244. Whose color charting of pilot engine in computerized charging
a. red
b. green
c. black
d. blue
245. A time feeding of time in loading/unloading of goods train
a. TMS
b. CMS
c. SMS
d. RMS
246. Who is sanctioning authority of “C” Class ODC
a. PCOM
b. CSO
c. CRS
d. GM
247. What is the speed of ‘B’ Class ODC IN BG
a. 25 KMPH
b. 40 KMPH
c. 15 KMPH
d. 35 KMPH
248. A personally controlling in observing division in route of ODC
a. SR. DOM
b. CHC [GOODS]
c. CHC [PUNTUALITY]
d. SR. DSO
249. Supervisor and control over of movement special type of stock & ODC
a. CHC [GOODS]
b. CHC [PUNTUALITY]
c. SR. DOM
d.SR. DME
250. Who is authorize for done computerized control charting
a.CHC [GOODS]
b. CHC [PUNTUALITY]
c. Section controller
d. AOM
251. Pay load of wagons indicate to
a. gross weight
b. net weight
c. axle load
d. heavy load
252. Engine holding & wagon holding indicate in concerning system in division
a. FOIS
b. COIS
c. FRAS
d.FMS
253. In pipe lines of goods train is showing in advance this system
a. CRIS
b. FOIS
c. PFT
d. AFTO
254. How many speed of ‘A’ class ODC
a. 40 KMPH
b. 60 KMPH
c. sectional speed
d. 25 KMPH
255. What do you mean by yard congestion
a. length of yard is shorten
b. numbers of wagons in yard is deceased
c. numbers of wagons in yard is increased
d. maximum numbers of employes in yard in sick or absent
256. What is the causes of yard congestion
a. loss engine available
b. excess numbers of engine available
c. surplus staff
d. none of these
257. Which of the following is not the causes of yard congestion
a. Accident in yard
b. less avability of crew
c. working of yard master is not good
d. excess avability of engine
258. Which of the following is net the causes of yard congestion
a. less engine
b. signal failure
c. shortage of shunting engine
d. avability of surplus crew
259. Which of the following register is maintained in control office
a. caution order register
b. train signal register
c. stock report register
d. ban & restrictions register
260. Where is emergency control working
a. divisional control office
b. zonal control office
c. yard office
d. at station
261. Which of the following is connected with working of emergency control
a. only accident matters
b. accident and working of all mail & express trains
c. working of goods train
d. none of these
262. morning forecast is issued by the which office
a. emergency control
b. central control
c. divisional control
d. office of weather department
263. What is the information available in morning forecast
a. weather position for next 24 hrs
b. accident report
c. planning of today for inter change of goods train, loading unloading etc.
d. none of these
264. What is FATO
a. it is a charge sheet issued for controller
b. factor affecting trains operations
c. total income of zone
d. none of these
265. Which is notice stations
a. stations in automatic signaling section
b. SPL class stations
c. that stations where caution order is served for all trains crews guard
d. none of these
266. What is WTR
a. running of total km of wagon
b. ROH/POH due of a wagon
c. wagon turn round of a wagon
d. none of these
267. Wagon turn round is calculated in term of
a. tone
b. km
c. days
d. hours
268. What effects should be done for reducing of WTR
a. loading/ unloading working on time
b. running of wagon slowly
c. less goods train made over in inter charge
d. none of these
269. What is divisional wagon balance shows
a. income of division
b. expenditure of division
c. working of division
d. none of these
270. Information of notice stations is given in
a. G & SR
b. Operating manual
c. Accident manual
d. WTT
271. In control office test room working under which department
a. operating
b. commercial
c. engineering’s
d. S & T
272. Controller of electric engine is called
a. DPC
b. TPC
c. TLC
d. none of these
273. What is T/A-409
a. caution order
b. NIL caution order
c. reminder caution order
d. none of these
274. Controller of diesel engine is called
a. TPC
b. TLC
c. DPC
d. none of these
275. What is the information in stock report
a. staff position
b. cash position
c. stock position
d. none of these
276. Reminder caution order is not used for which train?
a. Suburban train
b. weekly train
c. mail train
d. super fast
277. speed of train while entering in to dock platform?
a. 10kmph
b. 15 kmph
c. 8 kmph
d. 20 kmph
278. Speed of petrol spl or search light spl train?
a. 20 kmph
b. 40 kmph
c. 30 kmph
d. 50 kmph
279. What is the validity period of block competency certificate?
a. 6 months
b. 1 year
c. 2 years
d. 3 years
280. how many dead loco can be attached to a passengers train
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
281. What is the max no of locomotive that can be attached to a goods train
a. three
b. two
c. one
d. four
282. Speed of last vehicle no. train while running through a station during day is
a. 20 kmph
b. 40 kmph
c. dead stop
d. booked speed
283. Speed of last vehicle train while running through a station during night is
a. 20 kmph
b. 40 kmph
c. dead stop
d. booked speed
284. Speed of last vehicle train while running through a block section during night is
a. booked speed
b. 40 kmph
c. 80 kmph
d. 20 kmph
285. When a driver sounding engine whistle as OOO what does it mean
a. fouling mark jam
b. train out of control
c. signal light is extinguished
d. alarm chain pulled
286. when token is lost by driver what will be the whistle code
a. 0___0
b. 00
c. ___0___
d. 00____
287. Driver sounding engine whistle as “____ _____ ______”, what does it mean
a. train out of control
b. brake failed
c. fouling mark not cleared
d. fouling mark cleared
288. Speed of DMT when engine pushing but brake-van not leading
a. 10 kmph
b. 8 kmph
c. 25 kmph
d. 15 kmph
289. what form will be given to driver to receive a train on obstructed line
a. T-409
b. T-369{3b}
c. T-511
d. T-509
290. What is the max speed for shunting
a. 30 kmph
b. 15 kmph
c. 25 kmph
d. 5 kmph
291. What is the max speed of shunting dangerous goods vehicle
a. 5 kmph
b. 2.5 kmph
c. 8 kmph
d. 10 kmph
292. impact speed for shunting of one box wagon
a. 5 kmph
b. 1 kmph
c. 2.5 kmph
d. 15 kmph
293. Impact speed for shunting of five group of box wagons
a. 1 kmph
b. 5 kmph
c. 2.25 kmph
d. 2.5 kmph
294. What form will be given to send an ART into occupied block-section
a. T/A-602
b. T/B-602
c. T-609
d. T-409
295. How many system of working are in Indian railways
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
296. Warner, Home, Starter are the minimum signal of which class station
a. CLASS-B
b. CLASS -C
c. CLASS- A
d. CLASS-D
297. undefined section is found In which class station
a. B
b. C
c. A
d. Spl. Class
298. what is the minimum distance between two automatic signals
a. 1000 mtrs
b. 960 mtrs
c. 1200 mtrs
d. 670 mtrs
299. What is the distance between caution board and speed board
a. 1200 mtrs
b. 1230 mtrs
c. 1170 mtrs
d. 1400 mtrs
300. What is the distance between stop board and speed restriction zone
a. 1200 mtrs
b. 1170 mtrs
c. 1230 mtrs
d. 30 mtrs
301. Who issue a working time table
a. CSO
b. PCPO
c. PCOM
d. DRM
302. Who fix up maximum permissible speed
a. CRS
b. PCOM
c. CSO
d. CPTM
303. Which signal has no signal overlap distance
a. Home
b. Outer
c. Calling On
d. Whistle Board
304. Driver passing signal at –“ON” what calss of accident is it
a. Averted collision
b. collision
c. breach of block rule
d. indicative accident
305. What is the block overlap distance of multiple aspect signal in C- class station
a. 180 mtr
b. 120 mtrs
c. 400 mtr
d. 600 mtr
306. Which portion of a station is protected by a catch siding
a. block section
b. station section
c. block overlap
d. station limit
307. which portion of a station is protected by a slip siding
a. block section
b. station section
c. block overlap
d. station limit
308. IBP is a station of which class
a. A-CLASS
b. B-CLASS
c. C- CLASS
d. D-CLASS
309. What is the normal aspect of automatic signal
a. RED
b. GREEN
c. YELLOW
d. DOUBLE YELLOW
310. in case of serious accident who performs enquiry
a. CSO
b. GM
c. RLY.MINISTER
d. CRS
311. Among the following, which is related with the rly track
a. Flat tyre
b. sharp flange
c. buckling
d. hot axle
312. which among the following is not a consequential train accident
a. Collision
b. fire
c. derailment
d. averted collisions
313. the turning out time of MRT spl at double exist point
a. 25 mts
b. 15 mts
c. 30 mts
d. 45 mts
314. turning out time of BD spl during day
a. 30 mts
b. 40 mts
c. 45 mts
d. 60 mts
315. turning out time of BD spl during night
a. 45 mts
b. 50 mts
c. 40 mts
d. 30 mts
316. the violation of which rule is called BREACH of BLOCK RULES
a. GR-8.01
b. 9.01
c. 5.19
d. 2.11
317. Cap sizement is the term is related to which among the following
a. OHE mast
b. track
c. points of cross over
d. rolling stock
318. Calling on signal is classified under which category
a. permissive
b. duplicating
c. subsidiary
d. co-acting
319. Which signal cannot be placed below a 1st stop signal
a. shunt signal
b. calling on signal
c. warner signal
d. co-acting
320. which among the following is fog signal register
a. OP/T-24
b. OP/T 124
c. OP/T-91
d. OP/T-2
321. Which among the following is signal failure register
a. OP/T -24
b. SI-24
c. T-351
d. OP/T-124
322. Which among the following is caution register
a. T-409
b. T-351
c. OP/T91
d. SI-24
323. Record foil of T-409 is preserved for what period
a. 12 months
b. 6 months
c. 3 months
d. 30 days
324. When a train Is running without tail lamp, what beats will be given to next station
a. 000000
b. 000000-0
c. 000000-00
d. 000000-000
325. Which beat will be given when any abnormality is found in train
a. 000000
b. 000000-0
c. 000000-00
d. 000000-000
326. Which beat will be given in case of train parting
a. 000000
b. 000000-0
c. 000000-00
d. 000000-000
327. When 0000000000000000[16] beats is given
a. Obstruction
b. accident
c. testing
d. hot axle
328. Where a traffic gate will be located
a. within stn. Limit
b. within stn. Section
c. within stop signals
d. outside stn. Section
329. The SWR for electric traction is incorporated in which appendix of SWR
a. appendix-A
b. appendix-B
c. appendix-G
d. appendix-D
330. NWWN button of a panel is used for what purpose
a. point setting
b. reversing
c. point normalizing
d. crack handling
331. RWWN button of a panel is used for what purpose
a. point setting
b. point reversing
c. point normalizing
d. crack handling
332. how many safety chains are required to stable a load of roller bearing fitted wagons
a. 2 chains
b. 1 chain for each 15 wagons
c. 1 chains for 6 wagons
d. 3 chains for entire load
333. Which colour is used to block a line in line block register
a. blue
b. red
c. green
d. black
334. under the permission of which authority a train may run without guard in emergency
a. COM
b. DRM
c. CFTM
d. SR. DOM
335. S & T [T/351] has replaced which form of the following
a. SI-24
b. OP/S-4
c. SI-4
d. SI-124
336. Which form among the following is not an authority to proceed
a. T-1525
b. T/C-912
c. T/A-912
d. T-C-1425
337. Which among the following is brake power certificate
a. M/V-5
b. OP/S-2
c. T-1518
d. T-410
338. Which among the following is never issued to a driver
a. T/B-409
b. T/B-912
c. T/B-602
d. T/B-1425
339. Which form is used for train examination advice
a. T-341
b. MECH V-5
c. T-431
d. T-314
340. Micro lock & genesis is the components of which kind of interlocking
a. tappet
b. detector
c. RRI
d. SSI
341. When curve swich provided, what will be the speed of train over loop line
a. 15 kmph
b. 50kmph
c. 30 kmph
d. booked speed
342. What is the speed of train on M/L in std. II interlocking
a. 50 kmph
b. 110 kmph
c. 140 kmph
d. 160 kmph
343. Kopke siding is otherwise called as
a. slip siding
b. catch siding
c. transshipment siding
d. weighment siding
344. Goods warning board is provided at stn. Where the speed of the trains is more than
a. 50 kmph
b. 75 kmph
c. 100 kmph
d. none
345. Warner signal may be provided where the speed of the train will be more than
a. 50 kmph
b. 75 kmph
c. 100 kmph
d. none
346. RWL board is provided at a distance form LC gate
a. 250 m
b. 500 m
c. 600 m
d. 1000 m
347. Which one of these are well wagons
a. BWS
b. BWH
c. BFU
d. All
348. Height guage should be located at a minimum distance of………….. m from LC gate posts
a. 5 m
b. 8 m
c. 15 m
d. 30m
349. Department enquiry is ordered by
a. DRM
b. SR. SUPERSOR
c. CSO
d. GM
350. A fog signal man carry detonators
a. 10
b. 20
c. 24
d. 30
351. when points are set for main line during the night point indicator will show
a. RED LIGHT
b. GREEN LIGHT
c. WHITE LIGHT
d. YELLOW LIGHT
352. When points are set for loop line during the night point indicator will show
a. RED LIGHT
b. GREEN LIGHT
c. WHITE LIGHT
d. YELLOW LIGHT
353. When trap point is close it will show during night
a. RED LIGHT
b. GREEN LIGHT
c. WHITE LIGHT
d. YELLOW LIGHT
354. Length of overlapping sec in C class multiple aspect
a. 400 m
b. 180 m
c. 120 m
d. none
355. first aid box provided in B.van of passenger trains is
a. Personal Equipment of guard
b. B.van equipment
c. both of above
d. none of these
356. Scott’s formula for calculating line capacity is
a. 1440 x K T+t b. 1440 –Ƹ [TP+t] x K
Tg+tc. 1440 x K T+T1+2t d. none
357. Line capacity can be increased to increase the
a. Efficiency factor
b. Decrease running time
c. Decrease operational time
d. all
358. Critical block sec is the sec
a. Where train runs with full efficiency
b. Where trains run to makeup the time
c. Where slowest train takes maximum running time
d. Where fastest train takes minimum running time
359. Operating ratio is normally calculated as
a. Gross earning x 100 total work expenses b. Effective wagons runs no. of wagon loaded daily +loaded wagons receive daily c. total work expenses x100 Gross earnings d. none
360. Fly shunting will take place in
a. Hump yard
b. gravity yard
c. flat yard
d. all
361. Hand shunting is performed at speed not exceeding
a. 15 kmph
b. 10 kmph
c. 8 kmph
d. 5 kmph
362. the use of block instrument shall be governed by special instructions to be issued with the prior approval by
a. Rly. Board
b. CRS
c. CSO
d. PCOM
363. Isolation shall be provided at an interlocked station when the speed is
a. 50 kmph
b. 75 kmph
c. more than 50 kmph
d. more than 100 kmph
364. ISMD must be attached always
a. next to trains eng.
b. in rear
c. in middle
d. any where
365. Time taken for the cancellation of route in the panel working is
a. 50 sec
b. 90 sec
c. 120 sec
d. 150 sec
366. Which one is true in context of RO-RO
a. less transit time
b. reduced wear and tear
c. less pollution
d. all
367. fire in station is classified under
a. B
b. A
c. Q
d. R
368. Each hooter will blow for a time of
a. 20 sec
b. 30 sec
c. 45 sec
d. 60 sec
369. maximum time limit for settle of accident enquiry is
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 120 days
370. There are how many chapters in general and subsidiary rule books of E.C.R
a. 15
b. 20
c. 18
d. 16
371. There are how many chapters in accident manual of E.C.R
a. 10
b. 8
c. 6
d. 11
372. there are how many appendices available in GR & SR of E.C.R
a. 2
b. 5
c. 6
d. 10
373. advance authority to pass defective signal is
a. T/369 [1]
b. T/369 [3B]
c. T/1525
d. T/A 409
374. NIL caution order is issued in which form
a. T/409
b. T/A 409
c. T/B 409
d. T 509
375. Motor trolley permit in issued in which form
a. T/1525
b. T/1518
c. T/1425
d. T/912
376. The level crossing gates are classified in how many categories
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
377. the provision regarding station working rule has been provided in G.R. NO.
a.5.06
b. 4.60
c. 4.61
d. 4.40
378. Guard and loco pilot’s equipment have been described in which general rule
a. 4.19
b. 4.27
c. 4.28
d. 4.29
379. while working in block minimum distance to be maintained between track machine and tower wagon in how much
a. 250 m
b. 200 m
c. 500 m
d. 100 m
380. Where in the head quater of north central railway
a. prayajraj
b. varanasi
c. lucknow
d. Kanpur
381. who is member traffic, railway board
a. Girish Pillai
b. S.K. Mohanty
c. V.K. Yadav
d. none of these
382. Type of duty pass in issued to C.R.B and board member
a. Gold pass
b. diamond pass
c. platinum pass
d. silver pass
383. Industrial dispute act was passed in which year initially
a. 1947
b. 1948
c. 1949
d. 1989
384. Workmen compensation act was passed in which year initially
a. 1923
b. 1903
c. 1801
d. 1971
385. which of the following is not a type of electric locomotive
a.WAP 5
b. WAG 5
c. WDG 4
d. WAG 9
386. India’s first train-18 was manufactured in the coach factory situated in which state
a. Uttar Pradesh
b. Tamil Nadu
c. Punjab
d. none of these
387. National academy of Indian railway is situated in which state
a. Maharashtra
b. Gujrat
c. Delhi
d. Punjab
388. National railway transport institute is situated in which city
a. Ahmedabad
b. Gandinagar
c. Vadodara
d. Delhi
389. Indian railway institute of transport management is in which city
a. Lucknow
b. Gazipur
c. Vadodara
d. Delhi
390. Hooter will be sounded how many times in case only A.R.T is required in accident
a. one Long two short
b. three long three short
c. four short
d. three long
391. Which types of accidents have been classified under classification A
a. Collision
b. fire in trair
c. derailment
d. averted collision
392. Railway claim tribunal in not situated in which of the following city
a. Patna
b. Ranchi
c. Gorakhpur
d. Dhanbad
393. Who is the general manager of east central railway
a. L.C. Trivedi
b. P.K. Mishra
c. C. S. Trivedi
d. C.L. Trivedi
394. East central railway’s spread is not which of the following state
a. Madhya Pradesh
b. Chhatisgarh
c. Jharkhand
d. Uttar Pradesh
395. Where is modern coach factory situated
a. Raebareli
b. Amethi
c. Lucknow
d. Perambur
396. Where is the 18th new zone of rly. Is going to be established
a. Vishkhapattnam
b. Vijaywada
c. Mangaluru
d. Ranchi
397. RWL board is situated from the LC gate
a. 1200 m
b. 1000 m
c. 600 m
d. 250m
398. how many coach can be attached in mail express train rear SLR
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. none
399. SPAD is classified under accident
a. G
b. H
c. I
d. J
400. Minimum exgratia payment is
a. 500
b. 5000
c. 15000
d. 50000
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE[401 TO 500]
401. Who was the first woman chief justice of India? a. LEELA SETH
b. AMRITA KAUR
c. SAROJANI NAIDU
d. RITA FARIA
402. How many centimeters are there in one inch?
a. 2.25
b. 2.54
c. 2.65
d. 2.70
403. World environment date is celebrated on?
a. 03 JANUARY
b. 08 MARCH
c. 5 JUNE
d. 8 AUGUST
404. First industrial revolution was in?
a. America
b. England
c. Germany
d. Russia
405. Which schedule of Indian constitution is related to environment?
a. third
b. fourth
c. sixth
d. seventh
406. Chilka Jheel is situated in?
a. Orrisa
b. Karnatak
c. Jharkhand
d. Kerla
407. Who was the prime minister of India during 1990 to 1991?
a. V.P. SINGH
b. Chandra Shekhar
c. Charan Singh
d. Rajeev Gandhi
408. Who was the first miss world of India?
a. RITA FARIA
b. ANNA GEORGE
c. ANITA SINGH
d. SUMAN KAUR
409. The first use of mobile phone in India was in?
a. 1985
b. 1990
c. 1995
d. 1997
410. Which one is not Indian union territory?
a. CHANDIGARH
b. LAKHSHADWEEP
c. DELHI
d. HARYANA
411. Which state has no Legislative council?
a. BIHAR
b. MAHARASTRA
c. GURAT
d. KARNATAKA
412. Which river does not flow towards west?
a. SABERMATI
b. GODAVARI
c. NARMADA
d. TAPTI
413. Which planet is the biggest in area?
a. MERCURY
b. SATURN
c. JUPITAR
d. MARS
414. Which country’s currency is not Doller?
a. SINGAPUR
b. NEWZELAND
c. AMERICA
d. ENGLAND
415. Which country in not a part of SAARC COUNTRIES?
a. BHUTAN
b. NEPAL
c. BURMA
d. LANKA
416. CHINESE TRAVELLAR Fahiyan came in India in?
a. 399 AD
b. 425 AD
c. 480 AD
d. 520 AD
417. Non cooperation movement started in?
a. 1917
b. 1918
c. 1919
d. 1920
418. Which disease is caused by protozoa?
a. Small pox
b. Cholera
c. Maleria
d. all above
419. Who got Bharat Ratna in 1997?
a. ABDUL KALAM
b. ARUNA ASIF ALI
c. GULJARI LAL NANDA
d. ALL ABOVE
420. Line of cancer passes through?
a. GUJRAT
b. BIHAR
c. TAMILNADU
d. KERLA
421. Who signed first on Indian constitution?
a. Dr. RAJENDRA PRASAD
b. JAWAHAR LAL NEHRU
c. BHIM RAO AMBEDKER
d. MAHATMA GANDHI
422. Which part of Indian constitution is related to fundamental right?
a. part 2
b. part 3
c. part 5
d. part 7
423. The directive principal of Indian constitution was borrowed from?
a. AMERICA
b. ENGLAND
c. IRELAND
d. FRANCE
424. First amendment in Indian constitution was in?
a. 1951
b. 1953
c. 1955
d. 1960
425. Malayalam language is spoken in?
a. Tamilnadu
b. kerla
c. Andhra Pradesh
d. Telangala
426. Jammu is situated in the bank of which river?
a. RAVI
b. TAWI
c. GANGA
d. GODAVARI
427. What is the width of meter guage of railway line?
a. 01 meter
b. 1.25 meter
c. 1.50 meter
d. 1.75 meter
428. Who was the founder of Sikh religion?
a. GURU ARJUNDEV
b. GURU NANAK DEV
c. GURU BANDA BAHADUR
d. NON OF THESE
429. Vishakha Pattanam seaport in situated in?
a. TAMILNADU
b. KERLA
c. ANDHRA PRADESH
d. KARNATAKA
430. How many planets are there in Solar system?
a. 06
b. 07
c. 08
d. 10
431. Who was the chairman of constituent assemble ?
a. DR. RAJENDRA PRASAD
b. JAWAHAR LAL NEHRU
c. BHIM RAO AMBEDKER
d. MAHATMA GANDHI
432. GOA got independence from purtageese in?
a. 1960
b. 1962
c. 1964
d. 1968
433. The war of Plassey was in?
a. 1755
b. 1757
c. 1760
d. 1790
434. The last Mughal emperor died in?
a. DELHI
b. RANGOON
c. KOLKATA
d. BURMA
435. Which is the biggest among north east states?
a. ARUNACHAL PRADESH
b. MANIPUR
c. MUZORAM
d. SIKKEM
436. The writer of patriotic Song ‘ye mere Watan ke logon’ was written by?
a. PRADEEP
b. NAUSHAD
c. SANTOSH ANAND
d. NONE OF THESE
437. Naga land became the state of India in?
a. 1960
b. 1963
c. 1965
d. 1970
438. Chief election commissioner is appointed by?
a. PRESIDENT
b. PRIME MINISTER
c. CHIEF JUSTICE
d. SPEAKER OF LOKSABHA
439. The wire of heater is made of?
a. COPPER
b. ALLUMINIUM
c. NICROME
d. BRONZE
440. Who played the role of Gandhi in film Gandhi?
a. Robert fillip
b. Ben Kingsley
c. Richard Atanbaro
d. none of above
441. SATYA SODHAK SAMAJ was founded by?
a. BHIM RAO AMBEDKER
b. MAHATMA FULLEY
c. BALAJEE BAJRAO
d. SWAMI VEVKANAND
442. Which train runs between Jammu to Kanya Kumari?
a. HIMGIRI EX.
b. DEECCAN EX.
c. HIMSAGAR EX
d. PURVANCHAL EX
443. The famous drama ‘Sakuntala’ was written by?
a. TULSI DAS
b. KALIDAS
c. VALMIKI
d. RAVINDRA NATH TAGORE
444. International women’s day is celebrated on?
a. 8 march
b. 05 April
c. 20 June
d. 15 July
445. Which metal was used first by ancient people?
a. People
b. Copper
c. Gold
d. Silver
446. Who was the last governor general of India?
a. C. RAJGOPALA CHARI
b. V. CHANDRA SHEKHAR
c. R. CHANDRAN
d. NONE OF ABOVE
447. Which state touches the Boundary of Bangladesh by three sides?
a. SIKKAM
b. MANIPAL
c. MIZORAM
d. TRIPURA
448. Which state’s boundary touches the boundaries of china, Nepal and Bhutan?
a. MANIPAL
b. MIZORAM
c. SIKKIM
d. NAGALAND
449. Which state is the biggest by area wise?
a. MADHYA PRADESH
b. RAJESTHAN
c. MAHARASTRA
d. BIHAR
450. Nilgiri hills are in?
a. KERLA
b. KARNATAKA
c. TAMILNADU
d. ANDRHRA PRADESH
451. Where is national defiance academy situated?
a. Ranchi
b. Masouri
c. Dehradun
d. Haridwar
452. How many players are there in hockey game?
a. 08
b. 10
c. 11
d. 12
453. Which city is famous for cultivation of grapes?
a. Nasik
b. Nagpur
c. Jammu
d. Nanital
454. Who was the founder of Indian muslim league?
a. Muhhamad Ali Jinna
b. Aga khan
c. Abdul gaffer Khan
d. Mokin Khan
455. Who is the writer of world famous book ‘Das capital’?
a. Lio Tolstoy
b. Churlse Hopkins
c. Karl Marks
d. Willium Word Worth
456. Which is the national game of Japan?
a. Judo
b. Swimming
c. Boxing
d. Weight lifting
457. Where is bandipur national park situated?
a. Tamilnadu
b. Karnatak
c. Keral
d. Jharkhand
458. Devis cup is related to which game ?
a. Lon tennis
b. Foot ball
c. Volley ball
d. Kabbadi
459. Nepolian was citizen of which country?
a. Germany
b. Russia
c. Ammerica
d. France
460. Whose son was Aurangajeb?
a. Akabar
b. Babar
c. Shahjahan
d. Humayun
461. Which gas is found in Gobar gas?
a. Buetan
b. Nitraogen
c. Mithen
d. Carbondioxide
462. Who made fort of agra?
a. Babar
b. Aurangajeb
c. Akbar
d. Shahjahan
463. Who was founder of Gupta Danasty?
a. Chandragupt
b. Srigupt
c. Samudragupt
d. None of these
464. From which date Indian financial year starts?
a. 01 January
b. 01 march
c. 01 April
d. 01 May
465. What is the chemical name of ordinary salt?
a. sodium Choloride
b. Calcium Carbonate
c. Potassium Choloride
d. None of these
466. Who appoints the justices of supreme carts ?
a. Prime minister
b. President
c. Chief justice
d. None of these
467. The intensity of Earth quake is measured by?
a. Anemometer
b. Seismograph
c. Pantograph
d. Hectometer
468. In which country first Asian game was held ?
a. Pakistan
b. Bangladesh
c. India
d. Bhutan
469. Jama Masjid was build by ?
a. Akbar
b. Shahjahan
c. Humayun
d. Aurangjeb
470. Who was the first lady chief minister of India?
a. Sarojani niedu
b. Abha redid
c. Sucheta kriplani
d. Kusum ben
471. Who was the first Indian player to score century in cricket?
a. Sunil gavaskar
b. Kapil dev
c. Lala amaranth
d. Vishwanath
472. What is the purest form of gold?
a. 20 karat
b. 18 karat
c. 22 karat
d. 24 karat
473. How many players are there in basket ball game in each side ?
a. five
b. seven
c. eight
d. ten
474. How is the father of economics?
a. Adam Smith
b. Copernicus
c. Karl Marks
d. Willium Jonan
475. Where is railway staff college situated?
a. Kanpur
b. Barauda
c. Lucknow
d. Chennai
476. Who was the first rail minister of India?
a. Aasif ali
b. Fakruddin Ali Ahmad
c. Lalit Narayan Mishra
d. None of above
477. In which session of congress the demand of Purna Swaraj was placed?
a. Surat session
b. Lucknow session
c. Lahore session
d. Delhi session
478. Which company provides cell one mobile services?
a. IDEA
b. BSNL
c. RELIANCE
d. VODA
479. Who wrote the book the idia of justice?
a. Salman Rusdi
b. Jhumpa Lahri
c. Amartya sen
d. Sukumar Sen
480. When was famous Gandhi Irvin pact signed?
a. 1945
b. 1935
c. 1942
d. 1931
481. Bihu is the folk dance of which state?
a. Bihar
b. Gujrat
c. Assam
d. Rajsthan
482. Which is the coldest planet of solar systems?
a. Uranus
b. Pluto
c. Jupital
d. Neptune
483. What is the duration of International hockey match?
a. 50 minute
b. 60 minute
c. 70 minute
d. 90 minute
484. What is the capital of pak occupied Kashmir [pok]?
a. Lahore
b. Muzaffarabad
c. Rawalpindi
d. None
485. Who was the first Indian lady to win Olympic medal?
a. Karnam Malleshwari
b. Deepa Melta
c. Sanju Nehwal
d. None of above
486. Area wise which is the biggest state of India?
a. Rajesthan
b. Maharashtra
c. Bihar
d. Gujrat
487. Who was the first lady ambassador of India?
a. Ashapurna Devi
b. Amrita Patel
c. Vijya Laxmi Pandit
d. Sucheta Kriplani
488. Who was the first Indian to get nobel prize?
a. Mother Teresa
b. Amartya Sen
c. Hargovind Khurana
d. Ravindra Nath Tagore
489. Who is the author of famous book Buddha charitam?
a. Ashwaghosh
b. Shivanand
c. Vishnu Sharma
d. Banbhatt
490. Where is the headquarter of world health organization?
a. Rome
b. Geneva
c. Londan
d. Jakarta
491. Who was the father of Russian evolution?
a. Marks
b. Lenin
c. Pulto
d. Worgis
492. Who manufacture Miraj fighter plane?
a. Chaina
b. America
c. France
d. Germany
493. Which state co-operated in establishing Durgapur steel plant?
a. Britain
b. America
c. Russia
d. Japan
494. Where is civil aviation training centre situated?
a. Lucknow
b. Allahabad
c. Kanpur
d. Gaziabad
495. Which element is abundantly found in sea water?
a. Magnesium
b. Zine
c. Sodium
d. Potassium
496. Who is the director of film Chennai express?
a. Rohit Shetty
b. Shahrukh Khan
c. Arbaj Khan
d. Prakash Jha
497. Which is the best good conductor of electricity?
a. Iron
b. Copper
c. Gold
d. Silver
498. When was first general election held in India?
a. 1950
b. 1951
c. 1952
d. 1955
499. Which is equivalent to one horse power?
a. 720 watt
b. 735 watt
c. 746 watt
d. 750 watt
500. What is the boiling point of water on Kelvin scale?
1. The special instructions approved of or prescribed by CRS is-
a) Approved special instruction .
b) Special instruction.
c) None.
2. The “off” position of last of signal is an authority to proceed on-
a) Double line under absolute block system.
b) Double line under Automatic block system.
c) None.
3. Token / Tablet is an example of authority to proceed on-
a) Double line Stations.
b) Single Line Stations .
c) None.
4. “D” class station is an example of –
a) Non-block station .
b) Block station.
c) None.
5. “C”-class station is an example of –
a) Non-block station.
b) Block station .
c) None.
6. IBP is an unmanned-
a) C class station .
b) B class station.
c) None.
7. Which one of the following is a train-
a) Motor trolley .
b) Light engine.
c) None.
8. General Rules are framed by-
a) Railway Board.
b) PCOM.
c) CSO.
9. SR is issued by-
a) PCOM.
b) CSO
c) CRS
10. The line ordinarily used for running trains through and between stations is-
a) Main line .
b) Loop line.
c) By pass line.
11. Trap indicator is a-
a) Means of isolation.
b) Appliance fitted with trap points .
c) None.
12. Trap point is a-
a) Means of isolation.
b) Appliance fitted with trap points.
c) None.
13. point indicator is a-
a) Signal.
b) Means of isolation.
c) Appliance fitted with points.
14. The classification of each station in a division is given in-
a) Working time table .
b) Public time table.
c) Operating Manual.
15. The Guard should keep his equipment in a -
a) Brief Case.
b) Box.
c) Bag
16. The VTO is provided at 180 metres from a nominated location where from it is to be seen by SM at station with-
a) MACL .
b) TALQ
c) None.
17. In foggy weather, It is not necessary to place detonators to indicate location of a stop signal to the loco pilot at stations where-
a) Double distant signals are provided .
b) Single distant signals are provided.
c) None.
18. During foggy weather in multiple aspect signalling, where single distant signal is provided the two detonators at the distance of 270 and 10 metres to be placed sort of-
a) First Stop signal .
b) Starter signal.
c) Last stop Signal.
19. The maximum speed of a train in absolute block system during fog will be-
a) 60 kmph.
b) 30 kmph
c) None .
20. How many parts of Station Detonators Register (Fog Signal Register) are -
a) Three.
b) Two.
c) Four .
21. The fog signal post is provided at 270 metres from the first stop signal of a station with
a) Single distant signals
b) Double distant signals.
c) Combined signals.
22. The standard time is transmitted daily to all stations at-
a) 08:00 hrs.
b) 16:00 hrs.
c) 12:00 hrs.
23. If the electric headlight of an engine becomes defective in route, the maximum speed of the train will be-
a) 30 kmph.
b) 40 kmph.
c) 60 kmph.
24. The loco pilot while approaching a level crossing gate will blow-
a) Intermittent whistle.
b) Long whistle.
c) Short whistle.
25. The loco pilot will blow Three long whistle if
a) Fouling mark is not clear.
b) The train is out of control.
c) Signal is defective.
26. “One long two short” whistle will be blown by the loco pilot when-
a) Signal are lowered but light extinguished or signal is drooping.
b) The train is out of control.
c) Token is missed.
27. The loco pilot will blow “two short” whistle when-
a) Trains got part.
b) Wrong authority to proceed received.
c) All right signal not exchanged by station staff.
28. The whistle code for “train is out of control” is-
a) Four short .
b) Three short .
c) Two short ,One long.
29. The whistle code for “train cannot proceed on account of accident” is-
a) Three short.
b) Four short.
c) Five short.
30. The Passenger carrying train may run without guard with the order of-
a) Sr. DOM
b) PCOM
c) Never be allowed to run .
31. The Goods train may run without brake van in extreme emergency when specific orders are given by-
a) Sr. DOM .
b) PCOM.
c) CSO.
32. How many dead locomotive may be attached in a goods train-
a) One .
b) Two.
c) None.
33. Gujhandi – Gurpa section is declared as a-
a) Flat section.
b) GHAT section.
c) Neutral section.
34. The standard length of Platform is –
a) 600 m
b) 400 m
c) 700 m
35. The speed of a train while entering Dock Platform is limited to-
a) 10 Kmph.
b) 08 kmph.
c) 05 kmph.
36. The speed of a trains over non-interlocked facing points shall not exceed-
a) 16 Kmph.
b) 15 Kmph.
c) 08 kmph.
The record foils of the Caution Order shall be preserved for a period of-
a) Twelve months after its issue.
b) Six months after its issue.
c) Three months after its issue.
38. The Form No. for “NIL Caution Order” is-
a) T/B-409.
b) T/A-409
c) None.
39. The Form No. for “Reminder Caution Order” is-
a) T/B-409.
b) T/A-409.
c) None.
40. The Form No. for “Advance Authority to pass defective signals” is-
a) T/369(1) .
b) T/509.
c) T/512.
41. The Form No. for “Authority to pass signals in ON or defective position” is-
a) T/369(3b).
b) T/D 602
c) T/806
42. The Form No. for “Authority for Temporary Single line working on double line section” is-
a) T/C602.
b) T/D602 .
c) T/E 602.
43. The Standard length of Loop line is-
a) 600 meters.
b) 750 meters.
c) 586 meters.
44. “Splashing of grease around the roller bearing axle box” is the symptom of-
a) Hot Axle.
b) Seizure of roller bearing .
c) None.
45. “Whistling noise” is the symptom of-
a) Hot Axle .
b) Skidding of wheels
c) None.
46. “Strong smell of heated oil and waste” is the symptom of
a) Hot Axle .
b) Skidding of wheels
c) None.
47. “Skidding of wheels” is the symptom of-
a) Seizure of roller bearing .
b) Hot Axle.
c) None.
48. When a train is within station limits, the Guard shall be under the orders of the-
a) Loco Pilot.
b) Station Master.
c) None.
49. The personal equipment of Guards should contain-
a) 03 Hand Signal flags
b) 02 Hand Signal flags
c) 04 Hand Signal flags
50. Each Guard shall have with him while on duty with his train, how many pairs of such spectacles as he is required to wear under medical advice.
a) One pair.
b) Three pair.
c) Two pair .
51. Adequate distance means the distance sufficient to ensure-
a) Security.
b) Safety.
c) Punctuality.
52. How many wooden wedges are kept in the Brake Van equipment of Coaching trains-
a) 01.
b) 02.
c) 03.
53. PCOM is authorised officer to issue-
a) Subsidiary rules .
b) General rules.
c) None.
54. The authority given to the Driver of a train ,under the system of working, to enter the block section with his train is –
a) Shunting Order.
b) Authority to work.
c) Authority to proceed .
55. Block forward may be done only on-
a) Double line .
b) Single line.
c) Both on Single and on Double line.
56. Block back may be done on-
a) Only on Double line.
b) Only on Single line.
c) Both on Single and on Double line.
57. The portion of the running line between two block station on to which no running train may enter until Line Clear has been obtained from the station of other end, is-
a) Block Section .
b) Station Section.
c) Station Limit.
58. Generally the advance block section commences from home signal at-
a) C class station .
b) B class station.
c) A class station.
59. At “B” class station the advance block section commences from the-
a) Last stop signal.
b) Home signal.
c) Routing Signal.
60. The “A” class station is provided in which type of signalling territory-
a) Two aspect.
b) Multiple aspect.
c) None.The minimum distance of block overlap in two aspect is-
a) 400 metres .
b) 580 meters.
c) 180 meters.
62. The minimum distance of a block overlap in multiple aspect is
a) 180 metres.
b) 400 meters.
c) None.
63. The minimum adequate distance of signal overlap in multiple aspect is
a) 180 meters.
b) 400 meters.
c) 120 metres .
64. The minimum adequate distance of signal overlap in two aspect is-
a) 180 metres.
b) 120 metres.
c) 400 meters.
65. The block overlap at “C” classes station is always-
a) 180 meters.
b) 120 meters.
c) 400 metres .
66. Day means the time from-
a) Sunrise to sunset .
b) 06:00 hrs to 18:00 hrs.
c) 09:00 hrs to 17:00 hrs.
67. The mark at which the infringement of fixed standard dimensions occurs where two lines cross for join one another is-
a) CSR.
b) Fouling Mark .
c) CAL
68. The fixed stop signal of a station which controls the entry of trains into next block station is-
a) First Stop signal.
b) Repeating signal.
c) Last stop signal .
69. The How many Fire Extinguishers are kept in the Brake Van of coaching trains?
a) 01.
b) 02
c) 03.
70. When the trap is “open” the trap indicator shows-
a) Red light by night.
b) Red target by day.
c) Both.
71. When the points are set for a straight line, the point indicator shows-
a) white light by night .
b) white target by day.
c) Both.
72. When the tracp is closed the Trap indicator shows-
a) Green .
b) White.
c) Red.
When the points are set for turnout / crossover, the point indicator shows
a) Green .
b) White.
c) Red.
74. The train, which has started under and authority to proceed and has not completed its journey is-
a) Moving train.
b) Running train .
c) None.
75. The instructions issued from time to time by the authorised officer in respect to particular cases for special circumstances are-
a) Special instructions.
b) Approved special instruction.
c) Authorised instruction.
76. The movement of a vehicle or vehicles with or without an engine or of any engine or any other self-propelled vehicle, for the purpose of attaching, detaching or transfer is-
a) Shunting .
b) Marshalling.
c) Moving
77. The line governed by one or more signals, used by a train when entering or leaving a station or when passing through a station or between stations is-
a) Sectional Line.
b) Running Line.
c) Clear Line.
78. Any place on a line of railway at which traffic is dealt with, is-
a) Station .
b) Halt.
c) Gang Hut.
79. Those stations from where the Driver must obtain an authority to proceed under the system of working to enter the block section with his train are-
a) Block Section.
b) Non- block station.
c) Block stations .
80. Those stations, which are stopping places and situated between two consecutive block stations, and do not form the boundary of any block section are-
a) Non-Block station .
b) Block Section.
c) Non- block station.
81. The form No. for “Authority to receive a train on an obstructed line” is-
a) T/ 509 .
b) T/A 912.
c) T/B 912
82. The form number for “Authority to start from a non-signalled line” is-
a) T/512.
b) T/A 912
c) T/511.
83. The form number for “Authority start from a line with common starter signal” is-
a) T/512.
b) T/369(3b)
c) T/409
84. The form number for “Authority to proceed for relief engine train in to an obstructed block section” is-
a) T/409
b) T/509
c) T/A 602 .
85. Form T/B 602 is an authority for-
a) Opening communication during total introduction of communication on single line .
b) Shunting order.
c) Authority to start from a line with common starter signal.
86. Written permission given by guard to the driver to proceed to next station from mid-section is-
a) T/F602
b) T/G602
c) T/609
87. The form number for Shunting order is-
a) T/806 .
b) T/409.
c) T/1410.
88. The form number for “train intact arrival register” is-
a) T/1410.
b) T/1525.
c) T/1518.
89. How many copies of form T/509 are prepared -
a) 01
b) 02
c) 03
90. How may copies of form T/602 are prepared-
a) 01.
b) 02
c) 03.
91. How many copies of form T/369(3b) are prepared-
a) 01.
b) 02.
c) 03.
92. How many copies of form T/806 are prepared-
a) 01.
b) 02.
c) 03.
93. The form used as Motor Trolley permit is-
a) T/1525 .
b) T/1410.
c) T/1518.
94. The form used as Trolley/Lorry/OHE Ladder Trolley notice is-
a) T/1518 .
b) T/1525.
c) T/1410.
95. Form No. ECR 4 Yellow is used as-
a) Advice of work to be undertaken within station limits involving total block of a line.
b) Advice of work to be undertaken outside station limits involving total block of a line.
c) Advice of work to be undertaken within or outside station limits involving restriction of speed.
96. Form No. ECR 4A Red is used as-
a) Advice of work to be undertaken within station limits involving total block of a line.
b) Advice of work to be undertaken outside station limits involving total block of a line.
c) Advice of work to be undertaken within or outside station limits involving restriction of speed.
97. Form No. ECR 5 White is used as-
a) Advice of work to be undertaken within station limits involving total block of a line.
b) Advice of work to be undertaken outside station limits involving total block of a line.
c) Advice of work to be undertaken within or outside station limits involving restriction of speed.
98. Form No. S&T(T/351) is used as-
a) Reconnection and Disconnection Notice.
b) Train Examination Advice/Report.
c) Motor trolley permit.
99. A Short section of insulated and dead overhead equipment which separates the area fed by adjacent sub-stations or feeding post is-
a) Neutral Section .
b) Isolated Section.
c) Faulty Section.
100. The Blocking of a section of line to electric traffic only is-
a) Power Block .
b) Block Line.
c) Traffic Block.
101. The Blocking of a section of line to all traffic is-
a) Power Block.
b) Traffic Block .
c) None.
102. The zone, lying within 2 metres of any live equipment of OHE is-
a) Electric zone.
b) Live equipment.
c) Danger zone .
103. Form for imposition of block by TRD for outside station limits is-
a) E-TR-D-1.
b) E-TR-D-2.
c) E-TR-D-3.
104. Form for imposition of block by TRD for within station limits is-
a) E-TR-D-1.
b) E-TR-D-2 .
c) E-TR-D-3.
105. Form for imposition of speed restriction by TRDS is-
a) E-TR-D-1.
b) E-TR-D-2.
c) E-TR-D-3.
106. Out-lying siding are termed as-
a) “DK” class station.
b) “C” class station.
c) “B” class station.
107. The electrical circuit provided to detect the presence of a vehicle on a portion of track is called-
a) Track Circuit .
b) Axle counter.
c) BPAC.
108. Night means the time from-
a) Sunset to Sunrise .
b) 06:00 hrs. to 16:00 hrs.
c) 08:00 hrs. to 18:00 hrs.
109. The signalling arrangement in which each signal displays at any one time either of two aspects is-
a) Two aspect signalling .
b) Multiple aspect signalling.
c) None.
110. The signalling arrangement in which signals display at any one time any one of the three or more aspects is-
a) Two aspect signalling.
b) Multiple aspect signalling .
c) None.
111. The Level crossing gates which are located within the outer most stop signals in either direction of a block station are termed as-
a) Traffic gates .
b) Engineering gates.
c) None.
112. The level crossing gates other than traffic gates are termed as-
a) Traffic gates.
b) Engineering gates.
c) None
113. Any station which cannot be worked solely under ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’ or ‘D’ class conditions, is termed as-
a) Special class Station .
b) Block station
c) Non- Block station.
114. The block station where Line Clear may not be given for a train unless the line on which it is intended to receive the train is clear for at least 400 metres beyond the Home signal, or upto the Starter is termed as-
a) ‘B’ Class station.
b) 'A' Class station .
c) None.
115. The block station where Line Clear may be given for a train before the line has been cleared for the reception of the train within the station section is termed as-
a) 'B' class station .
b) 'A' Class station.
c) None.
116. The block huts, where line clear may not be given for a train, unless the whole of the last preceding train has passed complete at least 400 metres beyond the Home Signal and is continuing its journey is termed as-
a) ‘C’ class station .
b) 'B' class station .
c) 'A' Class station.
117. An engine running by itself is termed as-
a) Pilot engine.
b) Light engine .
c) None.
118. An engine which works a train, ordinary or special over some section of railway is termed as-
a) Train engine .
b) Pilot engine.
c) None.
119. An engine which runs by itself in advance of and to Pilot a special or ordinary train is termed as-
a) Pilot engine .
b) Shunting engine.
c) None.
120. An engine sent to relieve another engine which has broken down is termed as-
a) Pilot engine.
b) Light engine..
c) Relief engine .
121. How many rubber washer contained in the equipment of guard-
a) 03.
b) 02
c) 01
122. How many hand signal flags contained in the equipment of guard-
a. 03 (Red-02,Green-01).
b. 02 (Red-01,Green-01).
c. 04 (Red-02,Green-02).
123. How many detachable LV board contained in the equipment of guard-
a. 01 LV board
b. 02 LV board
c. 03 LV board
124. How many flashing tail lamp contained in the equipment of guard-
a. 01.
b. 02
c. 03
125. How many detonators contained in the equipment of guard-
a. 10 detonators.
b. 12 detonators.
c. 08 detonators.
126. How many resetting key for LHB coach contained in the equipment of guard-
a. 01 resetting key.
b. 02 resetting key
c. 03 resetting key
127. Whose equipment includes a cross belt and a whistle-
a. Goods Guard.
b. Guard of passenger carrying trains.
c. Sr. Goods Guard.
128. What is the normal life of detonators-
a. 05 years.
b. 07 years.
c. 10 years.
129. What is the maximum life of detonators-
a. 08 years.
b. 07 years.
c. 10 years.
130. What is the full form of VTO-
a. Visibility test object.
b. Visual test object.
c. None.
131. What is the full form of MACL-
a. Multiple aspect clear light.
b. Multiple aspect colour light.
c. None.
132. What is the full form of MAUQ-
a. Multiple aspect upper quadrant.
b. Multitask aspect upper quadrant.
c. None.
133. What is the full form of TACL-
a. Two aspect colour light.
b. Two aspect clear light.
c. None.
134. What is the full form of TALQ-
a. Three aspect lower quadrant.
b. Two aspect lower quadrant.
c. None.
135. What is the full form of SWR-
a. Station working rule.
b. Station works rule.
c. None.
136. How many dead Loco can be attached with a train-
a. 01.
b. 02.
c. 03.
137. In case of passenger carrying train where the dead locomotive can be accommodated to attach-
a. Anywhere in train.
b. Next to train engine.
c. Cannot be attached.
138. By whom will the dead locomotive be escorted-
a. Person not lower than assistant loco pilot.
b. Person not lower than Goods Guard.
c. None.
139. What will be the speed of a material train when the engine is pushing and the brake van is leading in a straight line-
a. 25 kmph.
b. 15kmph.
c. 05 kmph.
140. What will be the normal speed of a material train when the engine is pushing and the break van is leading where gradient is steeper than 1 in 150-
a. 10 kmph.
b. 15 kmph
c. 08 kmph
141. During working of material train when brake van is leading and engine is pushing, where the Guard will travel -
a. In leading brake Van.
b. In engine.
c. Pilot in advance.
142. How many track machines will be allowed to work in a block section-
a. maximum four.
b. Maximum three.
c. maximum five .
143. What will be the minimum distance between the Track Machine and the Tower Wagon during work in block-
a. 200 metres.
b. 150 meters.
c. 100 meters.
144. What will be the minimum distance between the material train and the track machine during working in block-
a. 100 meters.
b. 400 meters.
c. 500 metres.
145. How many detonators are contained in a case of detonators-
a. 10.
b. 08.
c. 12.
146. In foggy weather, how the all right signal shall be exchanged-
a. By waving green hand flag.
b. By waving green hand light .
c. None.
147. How the all right signals shall be exchanged in EMU between Guard and Loco pilot-
a. By ringing Bell.
b. Through Walkie-Talkie.
c. None.
148. Will the guard of air conditioned guard compartment of Rajdhani and other trains acknowledge the all right signal of station staff-
a. No .
b. Yes.
c. Must
149. When a train has been kept a standing at the first stop signal without an apparent cause, after how much time the driver cell sound one continuous long whistle to warn guard-
a. 15 minutes .
b. 05 minutes.
c. 10 minutes.
150. When a train has been kept a standing at the first stop signal, after how much time the guard shall proceed to protect the rear of the train-
a. 15 minutes .
b. 05 minutes.
c. 10 minutes.
151. What is the prescribed whistle code for "before starting engine for a train from station" -
a. Two short and one long.
b. Three short.
c. One long one short whistle.
152. The "WL" whistle board shall be provided at how much distance on the approach of manned/ unmanned level crossing -
a. 600 metres.
b. 800 metres.
c. 500 metres.
153. The RWL whistle board shall be provided at how much distance from a level crossing in either direction-
a. 500 metres.
b. 250 metres.
c. 400 metres
154. What will be the colour of whistle board-
a. Yellow.
b. Red.
c. White.
155. How many copies of form T/609 are prepared-
a. 01
b. 02.
c. 03
156. How many copies of form T/369(1) are prepared-
a. 01.
b. 02.
c. 03.
157. Who issues special instructions? –
a. Chief Safety Officer.
b. Principal Chief Operations Manager/ Authorised Officer.
c. None of the above.
158. How many chapters there are in GR and SR book-
a. 18.
b. 15.
c. 17
159. Which among the following is not a means of isolation-
a. Sand hump
b. Derailing switch.
c. Clamp.
d.
160. Which block station is of both manned and unmanned-
a. ‘C’ class station.
b. ‘B’ class station.
c. ‘A’ class station
161. What are the minimum equipment of fixed signals at ‘A’ class station –
a. Warner Home and starter.
b. Distant , Home and Starter.
c. Outer and Home.
162. What are the minimum equipment of fixed signals at ‘C’ class station equipped with two aspect signals-
a. Warner, Home, Starter and Adv. Starter.
b. Warner and Home.
c. None of the above.
163. What are the minimum equipment of fixed signals at ‘C’ class station equipped with multiple aspect signals -
a. Distant and home .
b. Distant, Home , Starter and Adv. Starter.
c. None of the above.
164.What are the minimum equipment of fixed signal at ‘B’ class station on double line equipped with two aspect signals-
a. Outer ,Home and Starter
b. Distant, Home , Starter and Adv. Starter.
c. Outer and Home.
165.What are the minimum equipment of fixed signals at ‘B’ class station on double line with multiple aspect signals-
a. Distant, Home and Starter .
b. Distant and Home.
c. Outer and Home.
166.What are the minimum equipment of fixed signals at ‘B’ class station on single line equipped with two aspect signals-
a. Outer and home.
b. Outer , Home and Starter.
c. None of the above.
167.What are the minimum equipment of fixed signals at ‘B’ class station on single line equipped with multiple aspect signals-
a. Distant and home and starter.
b. Distant and Home.
c. None of the above.
168.Station section must be provided on-
a. A class station,
b. B class station ,
c. C class station.
169. Overlapping section may be provided on-
a. A class station,
b. B class station,
c. C class station .
170.Undefined section may be provided on -
a. A class station ,
b. B class station,
c. C class station.
171.The point indicator is provided with-
a. only green light /target,
b. only white light/ target,
c. Both a & b.
172. The Trap indicator is provided with-
a. only red light/ target ,
b. only green light /target,
c. Both i & ii.
173.The axle counter is provided –
a. on line ,
b. in the panel room,
c. at the cabin of the station.
174.The portion of railway , which is under the control of a station master and situated between the outer most signals of the station is-
a. Station limit
b. Station section,
c. Overlapping section.
175.Which one of the following is a non-block station?
a. A class station,
b. B class station,
c. D class station .
176.The full form of BSLB is-
a. Block Section Limit Board,
b. Board of Station limit at B class station,
c. Block shunting limit Board
177.The BSLB may be provided on which class of station-
a. ‘B’ class station on single line equipped with two aspect signals.
b. ‘B’ class station on double line equipped withmultiple aspect signals .
c. B’ class station on single line equipped with multiple aspect signals..
178.At B’ class station on double line equipped with MACL/MAUQ, where first point is trailing or where, no point exists in approaching direction, which among the following will be provided to demark the block section and station section-
a. BSLB,
b. SLB,
c. Passenger warning Board.
179.The full form of SLB is-
a. Section Limit Board,
b. Shunting Limit Board ,
c. Both a &b .
180.The electrical device which , when provided at two given points on the track, proves by counting axles in and out, whether the section of the track between the said two points is clear or occupied, is -
a. Track Circuit,
b. Axle Counter ,
c. Circuit Breaker.
181.What shall be the authority to proceed at ‘B’ class station on single line where Tokenless Block Instrument is provided-
a. The ‘Off’ aspect of Home signal,
b. The ‘Off’ aspect of First Stop Signal,
c. The ‘Off’ aspect of Last Stop Signal .
182.What shall be the authority to proceed at ‘B’ class station on single line where Token Block Instrument is provided-
a. The ‘Off’ aspect of Home signal,
b. The ‘Off’ aspect of First Stop Signal,
c. Token or Tablet .
183.Who among the following is not a railway official-
a. PCOM.
b. CSO.
c. CRS .
184.Which one of the following is not a train-
a. Engine.
b. Tower Wagon.
c. Neither I nor ii .
185.IBP is an unmanned station-
a. ‘D’ class.
b. ‘C’ class.
c. Spl. class.
186.The speed allowed in Std-iv interlocking is upto-
i. 100kmph. ii. 110 kmph. iii. 140 kmph. iv. 160 kmph .
187.The isolation is not compulsory in-
a. Std-I interlocking,
b. Std-II interlocking,
c. Std-III interlocking.
188.The Whistle Code for “Alarm Chain pulling”-
a. One long Two short.
b. Two short, one long.
c. Three short.
189.How many System of working there are in Indian railway-
a. 05.
b. 06
c. 08.
190. The whistle code for “Train parting” is-
a. One long Two short
b. One long, One short, One long, One short .
c. Two Short.
191. The train intended for the carriage of passengers , animals and goods is-
a. Material Train
b. Mixed Train.
c. Passenger carrying Train.
192.An arrangement of signals, points and other appliances, operated from a panel or lever frame, so interconnected by mechanical locking or electrical locking or both that their operation must take place in proper sequence to ensure safety is-
a. Interlocking.
b. Isolation.
c. Connection
Including Engine crew, how many authorised persons may travel in the engine -
a. 04.
b. 05
c. 03.
194.Excluding Guard, how many authorised persons may travel in the brake van of Coaching trains-
a. 05.
b. 04
c. 03.
195.Excluding Guard, how many authorised persons may travel in the brake van of Goods trains-
a. 05 .
b. 04
c. 03.
196. The form No. for “ Authority to pass Automatic/Semi Automatic/Manually Operated/Gate signals” is-
a. T/B912.
b. T/A912 .
c. T/C912.
197.The form No. for “Authority to proceed without line clear on Automatic Block Signalling Section” is-
a. T/B912.
b. T/A912 . c. T/C912.
198.The form No. for “Authority to proceed for Relief Engine/Train into an Automatic Block Signalling Section” is-
a. T/B912 .
b. T/A912 .
c. T/C912.
199.The form No. for “Authority to proceed on Automatic Block System during prolong failure of signals” is
a. T/B912 .
b. T/D912 .
c. T/C912.
200.How many copies of form T/B409 are prepared-
a. 02 copies .
b. 03 copies.
c. 04 copies.
Answers is in bold.
Series-III
1- ,Q vks vkbZ ,l dh izfdz;k esa lq/kkj djus esa enn djrk gS\¼d½ ;kstuk ¼[k½ fuxjkuh ¼x½ fu.kZ; ysus ¼?k½ mijksDr lHkh
1. FOIS helps to improve the process of ?(a) Planning (b) Monitoring (c) decision making (d) All of the above.
¼?k½ mijksDr lHkh8. Coaching Maintenance Module (CMM) is handled by ?
(a) Operating Department (b) Mechanical Department (c) Store Department (d) All of the above. 9- fj;y Vkbe baQkWesZ’ku flLVe ¼vkjVhvkbZ,l½ fMokbl esa LFkkfir fd;k x;k gS \
¼d½ yksdks ¼[k½ LVs’ku ¼x½ leikj QkVd ¼?k½ mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugh
9. FOIS helps to improve the process of ?(a) Planning (b) Monitoring (c) Decision making (d) All of the above.
13. Punctuality Analysis and Monitoring (PAM) is ?(a)Monitoring Punctuality of all passenger Carrying Trains over Indian Railway at all level.(b) Capturing train running timings and delays with its detention details. Based on data captured from such sources.(c) System generates various type of analytical and critical reports at all levels.(d) All of the above.
14. Coaching Operation Information System (COIS) captures events on?(a)Coaches/Rakes(b) Generates Reports for Management of Coaching Stock(c) Data input predominantly at Station/Coaching Yard level(d) All of the above.
15- VfeZuy izca/ku iz.kkyh ls lacaf/kr \¼d½ okf.kfT;d foHkkx ¼[k½ vkWijsfVax foHkkx ¼x½ okf.kfT;d vkSj vkWijsfVax foHkkx nksuksa ¼?k½ mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugh
15. Terminal Management System (TMS) pertaining to ?(a)Commercial Department (b) Operating Department (c) Both Operating & Commercial Department (d) None of the above.
16- le;≤ ij okf.kfT;d vf/klwpuk ds vuqlkj CC+8+2T/CC+6+2T ls Hkjh gqbZ oSxuksa dks ukekafdr ekxksZa ij Hkkjh Vªsuksa ds :i esa ekuk tk,xk] tSls \¼d½ lweks ¼[k½ ik;Fku ¼x½ dzSd ¼?k½ mijksDr lHkh
16. The wagons loaded with CC+8+2T/CC+6+2T as per commercial notification from time to time, will be treated as heavy trains on nominated routes nomenclature as ?(a)SUMO (b) Python (c) Crack (d) All of the above.
17- Hkkjh nkSM+us okyh jsyxkM+h ¼25@Vh ,Dly½ ds ekeys esa] ;fn yksM 100@Vh ls vf/kd vkSj 102@Vh ls de gS\¼d½ yksM lek;ksftr@vuyksM fd;k tk,xk¼[k½ vfrfjDr yksM oSxu dks vyx dj fn;k tk,xk¼x½ ,d izfrcaf/kr xfr ls jsd dks pykus ds fy, mijksDr lHkh 30 fdeh@?kaVk ls vf/kd ugh¼?k½ mijksDr lHkh
17. In the case of running of heavy haul train (25axle), if load is detected more than 100 T and less than 102 T ?(a)Load will be adjusted/Unloaded(b) Excess load wagon will be detached(c) Run the rake at a restricted speed not exceeding 30 KMPH(d) All of the above.
vkSj mij dh vuqefr ugh gS] tks mijkSDr mns’; ds fy, dks;yk] ftIle vkfn tSls ekulwu dh vof/k ls ikuh dks vo’kksf”kr djrs gS \¼d½ 01 twu ls 31 vxLr ¼[k½ 15 twu ls 15 vxLr ¼x½ 15 twu ls 31 vxLr ¼?k½ mijksDr es ls dksbZ ugh
19. CC+6+2 loading and above is not permitted during monsoon period for those commodities, which absorb water such as coal, gypsum etc. Monsoon period for above purpose is form ?(a)1st Jun to 31st Aug (b) 15th Jun to 15th Aug (c) 15th Jun to 31st Aug (d) None of the above.
20- bZlhvkj ij Hkkjh /kqjh ekWxksZa dh lwph esa mfYyf[kr gS \¼d½ ihVhVh ¼[k½ MCywVhVh ¼x½ ,lMCywvkj
¼?k½mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugh20. List of heavy axle load routes on ECR is mentioned in ?
(a)PTT (b) WTT (c) SWR (d) None of the above.21- ckWDl,u lhlh vkSj fizfe;e jsd dh bZlhvkj ijh{kk esa fd;k tk jgk gS \
23. BPC validity for CC rakes based at PEH & OBRA will be ?(a)7500 KM/35 days (whichever is earlier) (b) 6000 KM/30 days (whichever is earlier)
(c) 5500 KM/25 days(whichever is earlier) (d) None of the above.24- ewy LVs’ku ij izhfe;e ,;j czsd jsd ¼ckWDl,u] chlh,u] chvkj,u] ckWcju
vkfn½ dh czsd ikoj dk izfr’kr gksxk \¼d½ 90 ¼[k½ 95 ¼x½ 100 ¼?k½ mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugh
24. Percentage of brake power of premium Air Brake rakes (BOXN, BCN, BRN, BOBRN etc) at originating station will be ?(a)90 (b) 95 (c) 100 (d) None of the above.
25- ewy LVs’ku ij Dykst lfdZV ,;j czsd LVkWd dh czsd ikoj dk izfr’kr gksxk \¼d½ 90 ¼[k½ 95 ¼x½ 100 ¼?k½ mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugh
25. Percentage of brake power of close circuit air brake stock at originating station will be ?(a)90 (b) 95 (c) 100 (d) None of the above.
26- ewy LVs’ku ij daVsuj jsd ¼ch,ylh, ,o ach,ylhch½ dh czsd ikoj dk izfr’kr gksxk \¼d½ 90 ¼[k½ 95 ¼x½ 100 ¼?k½ mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugh
26. Percentage of brake power of Container rakes (BLCA & BLCB) at originating station will be ?(a)90 (b) 95 (c) 100 (d) None of the above.
¼x½ jsd us fu/kkZfjr fdyksehVj ;k fnuksa dks iwjk dj fy;k gSA
¼?k½ mijksDr lHkh27. The BPC of Close Circuit Air Brake stock will became invalid if ?
(a)Rake is not running in nominated circuit(b) Rake is stabled more than 04 hours at examination station(c) Rake has completed either stipulated kms or days(d) All of the above.
33. What is full from of SIMS ?(a) Safety information management system (b) short information message system (c) Safety information message System (d) None of these
34- lk/kkj.k ,oa lgk;d fu;e ds psIVj V esa D;k gS \¼d½ LVs’ku dk fu;e ,oa dk;Zpkyu ¼[k½ lk/kkj.k xkfM+;ksa dk lapkyu¼x½ Lopkfyr CykWd flLVe ¼?k½ buesa ls dksbZ ughaA
34. What is item belongs in chapter V G&SR ?(a) Control and working of stations (b) Working of train generally (c) Automatic Block Systeam (d) None of these
41. What is the validity of close circuit rake ?(a) 7500 KM/35 days which ever is earlier (b) 6000 KM/30 days whichever is earlier(c) 5000 KM/35 days which ever is earlier (d) None of these
43. What is releasing time of brake system in air brake pass. train twin pipe brake system ?(a) 03 Minute (b) 02 Minute (c) 05 Minute (d) None of these
44- ,;j czsd ekyxkM+h esa 40 oSxu ls de ;k vf/kd esa jhyht le; D;k gS \¼d½ 02 feuV ¼[k½ 03 feuV ¼x½ 04 feuV ¼?k½ 05 feuV
44. What is releasing time in air brake goods train less than 40 Wagons or more than 40 wagons ?(a) 02 minute (b) 03 minute (c) 04 minute (d) 05 minute
45- ekyxkM+h ds izheh;e jsd esa izkjafHkd LVs’ku ls czsdikoj gksuk pkfg, \¼d½ 100% ¼[k½ 95% ¼x½ 90% ¼?k½ buesa ls dksbZ ughaA
45. Brake power of premium train of goods train at originating station ?(a) 100% (b) 95% (c) 90% (d) None of these
61. Which station is not for turn round examination ?(a) SEE (b) BJU (c) MFP (d) SHC
62- jkfyax bu jkfyax vkmV lksuiqj eaMy esa dgkW gksrk gS \¼d½ cjkSuh ¼[k½ gkthiqj ¼x½ eqtQQ~jiqj ¼?k½ fn?kokjk
62. In which station rolling in – rolling out in SEE division ?(a) BJU (b) HJP (c) MFP (d) DGA
63- dEI;qVjkbTM Vªsu pkfVZx esa jkt/kkuh dks fdl jax esa ns[kk tkrk gS \¼d½ yky ¼[k½ Cyw ¼x½ gjk ¼?k½ buesa ls dksbZ ugh
63. In which colour Rajdhani seen in computerized train charting ?(a) Red (b) Blue (c) Green (d) None of these
64- dEI;qVjkbTM Vªsu pkfVZx esa lokjh xkM+h dks fdl jax esa ns[kk tkrk gS \¼d½ yky ¼[k½ Cyw ¼x½ gjk ¼?k½ buesa ls dksbZ ugh
64. In which colour Passenger train seen in computerized train charting ?(a) Red (b) Blue (c) Green (d) None of these
65- 100 Vu ls 102 Vu ds chp 25 Vu out okys yksM okys xkM+h dh xfr vf/kd ugh gksxk \¼d½ 30 fdeh izfr ?kaVk ls vf/kd ¼[k½ 40 fdeh izfr ?kaVk ls vf/kd ¼x½ 20 fdeh izfr ?kaVk ls vf/kd ¼?k½ buesa ls dksbZ ughA
65. In between 100 Tone to 102 tone, speed of 25 tone load train is not more than ?(a) More than 30 kmph (b) More than 40 kmph (c) More than 20 kmph (d) None of these
74. ICMS PAM report not found ?(a) NLT basis (b) Detention (c) Right time terminating (d) Stock report
75- ;qfVyhVh ike esa fuEu esa ugh gksrk gS \¼d½ foyEcu dksM ¼[k½ vkb lh LVs’ku ekLVj ¼gS.M vksoj@Vsd vksoj½¼x½ eSuqvy vkb lh fjiksZfVax fyLV ¼?k½ eaMy okj ih ih
75. Utility PAM is not found in following ?(a) Detention code (b) I/C station master (Hand over/taken over(c) Manual I C reporting list (d) Division wise PP
76- vkb lh ,e ,l fuEu esa ,d ls lEcaf/kr ugh gS \¼d½ MqIyhdsV Vªsu ¼[k½ Vªsu okbt tksuy lkjka’k
¼x½ jfuax LVkQ iksft’ku ¼?k½ xyr isfMax LVsVl76. One of these not related in OPRS ?
(a) Duplicate train (b) Train wise Zonal summary(c) Running staff position (d) Wrong pending status
77- fuEu esa ls dkSu vkb lh ,e ,l eksM;wy esa ik;k tkrk gS \¼d½ fjLVªhD’ku fMVsy ¼[k½ fjLVªhD’ku cqysfVu ¼x½ jsd dk eqcesaV
¼?k½ lh vks , ,DlsI’ku lkjka’k77. ICMS module is found in which of the following ?
(a) Restriction details (b) Restriction bulletin (c) Movement of rake (d COA exception summary
