B-58, BUDDHA COLONY, PATNA - 800 001 , Mob.: 9334594165 / 66 / 67
XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-8 (PCB ) [ 1 ]
01. Time period T of a simple pendulum may depend
upon mass of the bob m; length of simple
pendulum and ‘g’ the acceleration due to gravity.
Then the value of a, b and c are :
(1)1 1
, 0,2 2
(2)1 1
, 0,2 2
(3)1 1
0, ,2 2
(4)1 1
0, ,2 2
02. The length of the second’s pendulum on the
surface of earth is 1m. The length of second’s
pendulum on the surface of moon, where g is
1th
6 value of earth surface, is :
(1)1
m6
(2) 6m (3)1
m36
(4) 36m
03. When a particle is projected at an angle to the
horizontal, it’s range R and time of flight t1. It
the same projectile is projected with the same
speed at another angle to have the same range
and time of flight t2 then,
(1) 1 22R
t tg
(2) 1 22R
t /tg
(3) 1 22R
t tg
(4) 1 22R
t tg
04. The following four wires are made of the same
material. Which of these will have the largest
extension. When the same tension is applied?
(1) = 1m, D = 1mm
(2) = 2m, d = 2mm(3) = 2m, d = 2mm
(4) = = 0.5m, D = 0.5 mm05. A particle of mass m is attached to M via a
massless string passing through a hole O in the
horizontal table as shown. Mass M is kept
stationary whereas mass m is rotating in a circle
of radius r with angular speed .
mOr
M
(1) Mg = mr2 (2) Mg > mr2
(3) Mg < mr2 (4) Mg mr2
06. If the two vectors ˆ ˆ ˆA 2i 3j 4k
and
ˆ ˆ ˆB i 2j nk
are perpendicular, then the value
of n is :
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 5
07. If the ratio of specific heat of a gas at constant
pressure to that at constant volume is , thechange in internal energy of a mass of a gas,
when the volume changes from V to 2V at
constant pressure P is :
(1)R
1 (2) PV
(3)PV
1 (4)PV
1
08. A particle executes SHM with amplitude 0.2 m
and time period 24 sec. The time require for it
to move from mean position to a point 0.1 m from
the mean position is :
(1) 12 sec (2) 3 sec
(3) 2 sec (4) B sec
09. A mono atomic gas at a pressure p, having a
volume V expands isothermally to a volume 2V
and then adiabatically to a volume 16V. The final
pressure of the gas is 5
3
:
(1) 64 p (2) 32 p (3)p
64(4) 16 p
10. Two particles of masses m1 and m2 are connected
to a rigid massless rod of length r to constitute a
dumb bell which is free to move in the plane.
The moment of inertia of the dumb bell about
an axis perpendicular to the plane passing
through the centre of mass is :
(1)21 2
1 2
m mr
m m (2) (m1 + m2)r2
(3)21 2
1 2
m mr
m m (4) (m1 – m2)r2
[Time : 3 Hours] Full Marks : 720
XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-08 (PCB) - 22.04.2020
B-58, BUDDHA COLONY, PATNA - 800 001 , Mob.: 9334594165 / 66 / 67
XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-8 (PCB ) [ 2 ]
11. A gas is expanded from volume V0 to 2V0 under
three different processes, as shown in the figure.
Process 1 is isobaric process, process 2 is
isothermal and process 3 is adiabatic. Let U1,U2 and U3 be the change in internal energiesof these three processes, then :
(1) U1 > U2 > U3
(2) U2 < U1 < U3
P0
P
VV0 2V0
1
2
3(3) U1 < U2 < U3
(4) U2 < U3 < U1
12. Same force acts on two bodies of different masses
3kg and 5 kg initially at rest. The ratio of time
required to acquire same final velocity is :
(1) 5 : 3 (2) 25 : 9 (3) 9 : 25 (4) 3 : 5
13. A string of length L and mass M is laying on a
horizontal table. A force F is applied at one of its
ends. Tension in the string at a distance y from
the end at which the force applied is :
(1) Zero (2) F
(3) F L y
L
(4)
F L yM
14. A cylindrical piston of mass M slides smoothly
inside a long cylinder closed at one end,
enclosing a certain mass of gas. The cylinder is
kept with its axis horizontal. If the piston is
disturbed from its equilibrium position, it
oscillates simple harmonically period of
oscillation will be :
MAP
h
(1)Mh
T 2PA
(2)MA
T 2Ph
(3)M
T 2PAh
(4) T 2 MPhA
15. A girl jumps down from a moving bus, along the
direction of motion of the bus, tilting slightly
forward. She falls on (a) a sheet of ice (b) a patch
of glue.
(1) In case (a) she falls backward and in case (b)
she falls forward
(2) In both cases (a) and (b) she falls forward
(3) In both cases (a) and (b) she falls backward
(4) In case (a) she falls forward and in case (b)
she falls backward
16. A body is projected horizontally from the top of a
tower with a speed of 20 m/s. After 4 sec the
displacement of the body is :
(1) 40 m (2) 80 m (3) 80 2m (4)80
m2
17. The bulk modulus of rubber is 9.1 × 108 N/m2.
To what depth a rubber ball be taken in a lake
so that its volume is decreased by 0.1%?
(1) 25 m (2) 93 m (3) 200 m (4) 500 m
18. A particle originally at rest at the highest point
of a smooth vertical circle is slightly displaced.
It will leave the circle at a vertical distance ‘h’
below the highest point, such that :
(1) h = R (2)R
h2
h
R
(3)R
h3
(4) h = 2R
19. A particle starting from the origin (0, 0) moves
in straight line in the (x, y) plane. Its coordinates
at a later time are 3, 3 . The path of theparticle makes with the x-axis an angle of :
(1)4
(2)
6
(3)
3
(4) 0°
20. A rectangular film of liquid is extended from
(4 cm × 2 cm) to (5 cm × 4 cm). If the work done
is 3 × 10–4 J, the value of the surface tension of
the liquid is :
(1) 8 N/m (2) 0.250 N/m
(3) 0.125 N/m (4) 0.2 N/m
21. A bullet of mass m moving with velocity v block
strikes a suspended wooden block of mass M. If
the block rises to a height h. The initial velocity
of the block will be :
(1) 2gh (2)M m
ghm
(3) m 2ghm M
(4)M m
2ghM
22. The height vertically above the earth’s surface
at which the acceleration due to gravity becomes
1% of its value at the surface is :
(1) 8R (2) 9R (3) 10R (4) 20R
23. The ratio of velocity of sound in Hydrogen and
oxygen at STP is :
(1) 16 : 1 (2) 8 : 1 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
B-58, BUDDHA COLONY, PATNA - 800 001 , Mob.: 9334594165 / 66 / 67
XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-8 (PCB ) [ 3 ]
24. An ideal gas is taken through the cycle A B C A, as shown in figure. If the net heat suppliedto the gas in the cycle is 5J, the work done by
the gas in the process C A is :
(1) –5 J
(2) –10 J
A
BC
1
2
V(m )3
P(N/m )2
10
(3) –15 J
(4) –20 J
25. A police jeep is chasing with velocity of 45 km/h,
a theif in another jeep moving with velocity
153 km/h. Police fires a bullet with muzzle
velocity of 180 m/s. The velocity with which it will
strike the car of the theif is :
(1) 150 m/s (2) 27 m/s
(3) 450 m/s (4) 250 m/s
26. A satellite of mass m revolves around the earth
of radius R at a height x from its surface. If “g” is
the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of
the earth, the orbital speed of the satellite is :
(1) gR (2)2gR
R x(3)
3gR
R x(4)
gR
g x
27. A body of mass 2kg is thrown up vertically with
kinetic energy of 490 J. If g = 10 m/s2, the
height at which the kinetic energy of the body
becomes half of the original value is :
(1) 50 m (2) 25 m
(3) 12.5 m (4) 19.6 m
28. For a certain mass of gas, the isothermal curves
between P and V at T1 and T2 temperatures are
1 and 2 as shown in figure. Then
(1) T1 = T2
(2) T1 > T2
P
V
12
T1
T2
(3) T2 > T1
(4) Can’t predicted
29. A block is pushed momentarily on a horizontal
surface with initial ve locity ‘v’. If µ is the
coefficient of sliding friction between the block
and surface, the block will come to rest after time.
(1)v
g (2)g
v
(3)
v
g
(4)
g
v
30. When a system is taken from state i to state f
along the path iaf, it is found that Q = 50 cal and
W = 20 cal. Along the path ibf Q = 36 cal. W along
the path ibf is :
(1) 14 cal
(2) 6 cala f
bi
(3) 16 cal
(4) 66 cal
31. In the figure shown, the tension in the
horizontal cord is 30 N. Find the weight of the
body B.
(1) 40 N
(2) 30 N
45°
30N
B
(3) 20 N
(4) 10 N
32. A wooden ball of density is immersed in waterof density to a depth h and then released. Theheight H above the surface of water upto which
the ball will jump out of water is :
(1)h (2)
1 h
(3) h (4) 1 h
33. If 1 = 100 cm, 2 = 90 cm and ve locity ofsound = 396 m/s. The number of beats (in Hz) are:
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 44 (4) 0
34. A marble block of mass 2 kg lying on ice when
given a velocity of 6 m/s is stopped by friction in
10s. Then the coefficient of friction is :
(1) 0.02 (2) 0.03 (3) 0.06 (4) 0.01
35. The equation of a transverse wave is given by
y = 20 sin(0.02x – 2t) where y and x are in cmand t in sec. The wavelength in cm will be :
(1) 50 (2) 200 (3) 5 (4) 100
36. A body cools from 80°C to 70°C in 6 minutes.
Under identical external condition to cool from
60ºC to 50°C, it will take :
(1) < 6 minutes (2) 6 minutes
(3) > 6 minutes (4) None
37. Stationary waves are set up in an air column. If
velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s and frequecny
is 165 Hz, the distance between the nodes is :
(1) 2 m (2) 0.5 m (3) 1 m (4) 4 m
38. Number of beats heard for the super position of
y = a sin 320 t and y = a sin 326 t is :(1) 6 (2) 12
(3) 3 (4) 4
39. Frequency of the first overtone of a closed pipe
of length c is equal to that of the second
overtone of an open pipe of length 0 . Then the
ratio c 0 is equal to :
(1) 1/2 (2) 3
(3) 1 (4) 2
B-58, BUDDHA COLONY, PATNA - 800 001 , Mob.: 9334594165 / 66 / 67
XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-8 (PCB ) [ 4 ]
40. The disc of a siren has n holes and the frequency
of its rotation is 300 rpm. It produces a note of
wavelength 2.4 m, when the velocity of sound in
air is 360 m/s. Then value of n is :
(1) 36 (2) 30 (3) 5 (4) 24
41. If a three block each of mass 4 kg. The table is
smooth, the pulley is light and smooth, the string
is light and inextensible. The tension in the
string connecting B and C is :
C
B
A
(1) 4 g (2) 4g/3 (3) 4g/3 (4) 8g/3
42. A body moving along a straight line with uniform
acceleration ‘a’ it covers a distance S1 in the
first t seconds and a distance S2 in the next t
seconds, a is then given by :
(1)1 2
2
S S
t
(2)
1 2
2
3S S
t
(3)2 1
2
S S
t
(4)
1 2
2
3S S
t
43. A vessel has a height of 50 cm. What is the
maximum distance at which water can fall from
a hole on its side :
(1) 25 cm (2) 40 cm (3) 33.3 cm(4) 50 cm
44. Acceleration due to gravity become g
2
[where g = acceleration due to gravity on the
surface of the earth] at a height equal to :
(1) 4R (2)R
2 1(3)
R
2(4) 2R
45. During an adiabatic process, the cube of the
pressure is found to be the inversely proportional
to the fourth power of the volume. Then the ratio
of specific heat is :
(1) 1 (2) 1.33 (3) 1.67 (4) 1.4
46. A shell of mass 20 kg at rest explodes into two
fragments whose masses are in the ratio 2 : 3.
The smaller fragment moves with a velocity of 6
ms–1. The kinetic energy of larger fragment will
be :
(1) 96 J (2) 216 J (3) 149 J (4) 360 J
47. A 130 m long train is moving in upward direction
with speed 72 km/hr. Another train of 120 m
long is moving in downward direction with speed
of 108 km/hr. The time in which second train
crosses the first train will be :
(1) 5 s (2) 10 s (3) 12 s (4) 15 s
48. A body is projected at an angle of 30° with the
horizontal with momentum P. At its highest
point the magnitude of the momentum is :
(1)3P
2(2)
2P
3(3) P (4)
P
2
49. A body projected with velocity u at projection
angle has horizontal Range R. For the samevelocity and projection angle its range on the
moon surface will be :
(1) 36 R (2)R
36(3)
R
16(4) 6R
50. Two stones having different masses m1 and m2are projected at an angle and (90 – ) with samespeed from same point. The ratio of their
maximum heights is :
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : tan
(3) tan : 1 (4) tan2 : 1
51. Displacement of particles in a string stretched
in the x-direction is represented by y. Among
the following expressions for y, those describing
wave motion are :
(1) Cos kx Sint (2) Cos (kx + t)
(3) k2x2 –2t2 (4) Cos (k2x2 – 2t2)
52. A transverse wave is described by the equation
0x
Y Y Sin2 ft
. The maximum particle
velocity is equal to four times the wave velocity if:
(1)0Y
4
(2) = Y0 (3)
0Y
2
(4) = 2Y0
53. A tuning fork of frequency 480 Hz produced 10
beats per sec when sounded with a vibrating
sonometer string. What must have been the
frequency of string if slight increase in tension
produces fever beats per sec than before :
(1) 460 Hz (2) 470 Hz (3) 480 Hz (4) 490 Hz
54. A stone released with zero velocity from the top
of the tower reaches the ground in 4 sec. The
height of the tower is about :
(1) 40 m (2) 20 m (3) 160 m (4) 80 m
55. A body is projected vertically upwards from the
surface of a planet of radius R with a velocity
equal to half the escape velocity for that planet.
The maximum height attained by the body is :
(1)R
2(2)
R
3(3)
R
4(4)
R
5
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XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-8 (PCB ) [ 5 ]
56. A stone is fastened to one end of a string and is
whirled in a vertical circle of radius R. Find the
minimum speed the stone can have at the
highest point of the circle :
(1) gR (2)2R
g(3)
R
g(4) 2Rg
57. A cylinder of fixed capacity (of 44.8 Ltr) contains
2 moles of He gas at STP. What is the amount of
heat needed to raise the gas temperature by 20°C
[R = 8.31 J mol–1 K–1]:
(1) 996 J (2) 498 J (3) 831 J (4) 374 J
58. A uniform metal chain is placed on a rough table
such that one end of chain hangs down over the
edge of the table. When one-third of its length
hangs over the edge, the chain starts sliding.
Then, the coefficient of static friction is
(1) 3/4 (2) 1/4 (3) 2/3 (4) 1/2
59. A cylinder of radius R and mass M rolls without
slipping down a plane inclined at an angle .Coefficient of friction between the cylinder and
the plane is µ. For what maximum inclination the cylinder rolls without slipping ?
(1)1 4tan
3
(2) = tan–1 [2µ]
(3) = tan–1 [3µ] (4)1 3tan
2
60. If gravitational attraction between two points
masses be given by 1 2n
Gm mF
r . Then period of
a satellite in a circular orbit will be proportional
to :
(1)
(n 1)
2r
(2)
n 1
2r
(3)
n
2r (4) n0
61. The correct IUPAC name of compound
CH –CH –C–CH–CHO3 2||O
|CN
is
(1) 2-cyano-3-oxopentanal
(2) 2-formly-3-oxopentanentitrile
(3) 2-cyano-1, 3-pentanedione
(4) 1, 3-dioxo-2-cyanopentane
62. The molecular formula of diphenyl methane
CH2 is C13H12.
How many structural isomers are possible when
one of the hydrogen is replaced by a chlorine
atom?
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8
63.
NMe3
Z
HH
H
H
O
Above Gauche form is stable when Z is
(1) –CH3 (2) –Et (3) –C–OEt
O||
(4)–Ph
64. Most stable resonating structure of given cation
is
CH2
NH2
O
(1)
CH2
NH2
O
(2)
CH2
NH2
O
(3)
CH2
NH2
(4)
CH2
NH2
O
65. Which of the following is the most stable cation ?
(1)O
CH C=CH3 2 (2)O
CH –CH=C3
(3)O
CH –C3
CH3| (4)
O
CH C–CH3 3
CH3
66. Which of the followoing has highest resonance
energy?
(1)
O
(2)
O
(3)
O
(4)
O
67. Arrange the following radical in their decreasing
order of stability.
(I) (II)
(III)
(1) II > I > III (2) I > II > III
(3) I > III > II (4) II > III > I
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XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-8 (PCB ) [ 6 ]
68.Br2 Na
hv Dry ether(A) (B) product (B) is :
(1) (2) (3) (4)
69. Which of the following has the lowest boiling
point?
(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH3
(2) CH –CH –CH –CH–CH3 2 2 3|CH3
(3)CH –CH–CH–CH3 3
|CH3
|CH3
(4) CH –CH –CH–CH –CH3 2 2 3|CH3
70. Alkene (X) KMnO4
O +
O
OH
alkene (X) is :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
71. Which of the following reactant is more reactive
towards electrophilic additon reaction with HBr
(1)Ph Ph
(2) OCH3
(3)Ph
Ph(4) OCH3
72. The major product of the following reaaction is :
CH –CH –C CH3 2 (i) NaNH /NH ( )2 3 l
(ii) CH –CH –Br2 2
(1) CH3–CH2–C C–CH2–CH3
(2) CH –CH–C CH3 |CH –CH2 3
(3) CH –CH –CH–CH3 2 3|NH2
(4) CH3–CH2–C C–NH2
73. Whcih of the following is aromatic ?
(1)
O||
(2)
O||
(3)
O||
O
(4)
O
74. CH –CH=CH3 2NBS HBr Mg
hv ROOR (A) (B) (C)
product (C) is :
(1) (2)
(3)
CH3|
(4) CH3–CH2–CH2–MgBr
75. Compare Rate of electrophil ic aromatic
substitution Reaction
Cl C–O–CH3 O–C–CH3
(I) (III) (IV)(II)
O||
O||
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) II > I > III > IV
(3) IV > II > III > I (4) IV > II > I > III
76.
O
O O–
O OH O–
x%2+
O OH
O OH
y%
O OH
z%
The correct order of enol contents x, y, z is :
(1) x > y > z (2) z > y > x
(3) y > x > z (4) x > z > y
77. In which pair second ion is more stable than
first.
O
O
O
(I) (II) (III)
OH CH3O O
(IV)
(1) I and II (2) II and III
(3) II and IV (4) III and IV
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XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-8 (PCB ) [ 7 ]
78. The compounds of alkaline earth metals have
the following magnetic nature ?
(1) Diamagnetic (2)Paramagnetic
(3) Ferromagnetic (4)Anti ferromagnetic
79. Compare heat of combustion.
I II III
(1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III
(3) III > I > II (4) II > III > I
80. Decreasing order of Heat of Hydrogenation?
(I) (II) (III)
(1) I > III > II (2) II > I > III
(3) III > I > II (4) II > III > I
81. Elements A, B and C belong to the same period
in the long form of the periodic table. The nature
of the oxides of A, B and C is amphoteric, Basic
and acidic respectively. The correct order of the
atomic numbers of these elements is
(1) C > B > A (2)C > A > B
(3) A > B > C (4)B > A > C
82. For the properties mentioned, the correct trend
for the different species is in
(1) strength as Lewis acid-BCl3 > AlCl3 > GaCl3
(2) inert pair effect-Al > Ga > In
(3) Oxidising property-Al3+ > In3+ > Tl3+
(4) First ionisation enthalpy - B > Tl > Al
83. Which of the following order is wrong ?
(1) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3-Acidic
(2) Li < Be < B < C -1st I.P
(3) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O - Basic
(4) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Cs+ - Ionic radius
84. The correct order of increasing bond length of
C-H, C-O, C-C and C=C is
(1) C-H < C-O < C-C < C=C
(2) C-H < C=C < C–O < C–C
(3) C=C < C–H < C–O < C–C
(4) C–O < C–H < C–C < C=C
85. Out of – –2 3 3 3 2 2N O,SO ,I ,I ,H O,NO and
3N the
linear species are :
(1) 2 3 2NO ,I ,H O (2)
–2 3 3N O,I ,N
(3) – –2 3 3N O,I ,N (4)
–3 3 2N ,I ,SO
86. Which of the following is polar ?
(1) –3I (2)
2–
3CO
(3) XeF4 (4) PF3
87. Molecular orbital electronic configuration for X
ion is 1s2, 1s2, 2s2, 2s2 (2Px2 = 2py2),2Pz2, 2Px1. The ion X is
(1) –2N (2)
2O
(3) 2–2N (4)
2–
2O
88. A mixture of Boron trichloride and hydrogen is
subjected to silent electric discharge to form A
and HCl. A is mixed with NH3 and heated to 200°C
to form B. The formula of B is :
(1) H3BO3 (2)B2O3
(3) B3N3H6 (4)B2H6
89. Product of the following reaction is
4 3 2
Al C D O
(1) Al(OD)3 + CD4 (2)Al(OD)2 + CD4
(3) Al(OD)4 + CD4 (4)Al(OD)3 + CD
90. Consider the oxides B2O3, Al2O3, Ga2O3 and
In2O3. The basic character of these oxides
increases as :
(1) In2O3 < Ga2O3 < Al2O3 < B2O2
(2) Al2O3 < B2O3 < In2O3 < Ga2O3
(3) B2O3 < Al2O3 < Ga2O3 < In2O3
(4) Ga2O3 < B2O3 < In2O3 < Al2O3
91. Among the following substituted silanes the one
which will give rise to cross-linked silicone
polymer on hydrolysis is :
(1) R4Si (2)RSiCl3
(3) R2SiCl2 (4)R3SiCl
92. In silicon dioxide
(1) There are double bonds between silicon and
oxygen atoms
(2) Silicon is bonded to two silicon atoms
(3) Each silicon atom is surrounded by two
oxygen atom and each oxygen atom is bonded
to two silicon atoms
(4) Each silicon atom is surrounded by four
oxygen atoms and each oxygen atom is
bounded to two silicon atom
93. The correct match is :
(1) SnO, PbO-Amphoteric
(2)3B(OH) Basic
(3) PbO2-only acidic
(4) GeO2-Basic
B-58, BUDDHA COLONY, PATNA - 800 001 , Mob.: 9334594165 / 66 / 67
XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-8 (PCB ) [ 8 ]
94. When zeolite is treated with hard water the
hardness is reduced due to exchange of
(1) 2Ca ions of water with Na+ ions
(2) Ca2+ ions of water with H+ ions
(3) Cl– ions of water with OH– ions
(4) 24SO ions of water with OH
– ions
95. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(1) Al reacts with excess of NaOH to give Al(OH)3
(2) NaHCO3 on heating gives Na2CO3
(3) Pure Na-metal dissolves in liq. NH3 to give
blue solutions
(4) NaOH reacts with glass to give sodium
silicates.
96. CO2 + NH3 + H2O X
X + NaCl Y + NH4Cl
2Y Heat Z + H2O + CO2for the above reaction Z is
(1) Na2CO3 (2) (NH4)2CO3
(3) NH4HCO3 (4)NaHCO3
97. Consider the following statement :
I. Cs+ ion is more highly hydrated than other
alkali metal ions.
II. Among the alkali metal Li, Na, K and Rb. Li
has the higher melting point
III. Among the alkali metals only Li form a stable
nitride by direct combination
(1) I and III are correct
(2) II and III are correct
(3) I, II and III are correct
(4) I and II are correct
98. Which of the following statements is/are correct
for H3BO3 ?
I. It has a layer structure in which BO3 units
are joined by hydrogen bonds.
II. It is obtained by treating borax with
concentrated H2SO4
III. It is mainly monobasic acid and a Lewis acid.
IV. It does not act as a proton donor but acts as
an acid by accepting hydroxyl ions
(1) I, II, III (2) II, III, IV
(3) I, III, IV (4) I, II, III, IV
99. Which one of the following arrangements
represents the increasing bond order of the given
species ?
(1) – –2NO O NO NO
(2) – –2O NO NO NO(3) – –2NO NO NO O(4) – –2O NO NO NO
100. Correct order of Dipole moment is
OH
OH
I
Cl CH3Cl CH3
II III
(1) I = II = III (2) III < II < I
(3) I < II < III (4) II < III < I
101. The heats of combustion of carbon and carbon
monoxide are –393.5 and – 283.5 kJ mol–1,
respectively. The heat of formation (in kJ) of
carbon monoxide per mole is :
(1) 676.5 (2) –676.5 (3) –110 (4)110
102. Which of the following compounds possesses the
C-H bond with the lowest bond dissociation
energy ?
(1) Toluene
(2) Benzene
(3) n-Pentane
(4) 2, 2-dimethylpropane
103. Which of the following is the energy of a possible
excited state of hydrogen ?
(1) +13.6 eV (2) –6.8 eV
(3) –3.4 eV (4)+6.8 eV
104. The following reaction is performed at 298 K
2 22NO(g) O (g) 2NO (g)
The standard free energy of formation of NO (g)
is 86.6 kJ/mol at 298 K. What is the standard
free energy of formation of NO2(g) at 298 K ? (Kp= 1.6 × 1012)
(1) R(298) ln (1.6 × 1012) – 86600
(2) 86600 + R(298) ln (1.6 × 1012)
(3) 86600 – 12ln (1.6 10 )
R(298)
(4) 0.5 [2 × 86600 – R(298) ln (1.6 × 1012)]
105. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the
valence electrons of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is
(1) 5, 0, 0, + 1
2(2) 5, 1, 0, +
1
2
(3) 5, 1, 1, + 1
2(4) 5, 0, 1, +
1
2
B-58, BUDDHA COLONY, PATNA - 800 001 , Mob.: 9334594165 / 66 / 67
XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-8 (PCB ) [ 9 ]
106. If Z is a compressibility factor, van der Waal’s
equation at low pressure can be written as
(1) RT
Z 1pb
(2) a
Z 1VRT
(3) pb
Z 1RT
(4)Z = 1 + pb
RT
107. For the estimation of nitrogen, 1.4g of an organic
compound was digested by Kjeldahl’s method and
the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 60 mL of
M
10 sulphuric acid. The unreacted acid required
20 mL of M/10 sodium hydroxide for complete
neutralisation. The percentage of nitrogen in the
compound is :
(1) 6% (2) 10% (3)3% (4) 5%
108. The molarity of a solution obtained by mixing
750 mL of 0.5 (M) HCl with 250 mL of 2(M) HCl
will be
(1) 0.875 M (2)1.00 M
(3) 1.75 M (4)0.0975 M
109. A piston filled with 0.04 mole of an ideal gas
expands irreversibility from 50.0 mL to 375 mL
at a constant temperature of 37.0°C. As it does
so, it absorbs 208 J of heat. The values of q and
W for the process will be
(R = 8.314 J/mol K, ln 7.5 = 2.01)
(1) q = + 208 J, W = –208 J
(2) q = –208 J, W = –208 J
(3) q = –208 J, W = +208 J
(4) q = +208 J, W = +208 J
110. Energy of an electron is given by
2–18
2E 2.178 10 J
n
Wavelength of light required to excite an electron
in an hydrogen atom from level
n = 1 to n = 2 will be
(h = 6.62 × 10–34 Js and c = 3.0 × 108 ms–1)
(1) 1.214 × 10–7 m (2)2.816 × 10–7 m
(3) 6.6500 × 10–7 m (4)8.500 × 10–7 m
111. How many litres of water must be added to
1 L of an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1
to create an aqueous solution with pH of 2 ?
(1) 0.1 L (2)0.9 L
(3) 2.0 L (4)9.0 L
112. The first ionisation potential of Na is
5.1 eV. The value of electron gain enthalpy of
Na+ will be
(1) –2.55 eV (2) –5.1 eV
(3) –10.2 eV (4)+2.55 eV
113. The density of a solution prepared by dissolving
120 g of urea (mol. mass = 60 u) in 1000 g of
water is 1.15 g/mL. The molarity of this solution
is
(1) 0.50 M (2)1.78 M
(3) 1.02 M (4)2.05 M
114. The equilibrium constant (Kc) for the reaction,
N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) at temperature T is 4 ×10–4. The value of Kc for the reaction NO(g)
1
2N2(g) +
1
2O2(g) at the same temperature is
(1) 0.02 (2)2.5 × 102
(3) 4 × 10–4 (4) 50.0
115. The electrons identified by quantum numbers
n and l
(a) n = 4, l = 1 (b) n = 4, l = 0
(c) n = 3, l = 2 (d) n = 3, l = 1
Can be placed in order of increasing energy as
(1) (c) < (d) < (b) < (a) (2) (d) < (b) < (c) < (a)
(3) (b) < (d) < (a) < (c) (4) (a) < (c) < (b) < (d)
116. The pH of a 0.1 molar solution of the acid HQ is
3. The value of the ionisation constant, Ka of
the acid is
(1) 3 × 10–1 (2) 1 × 103
(3) 1 × 106 (4) 1 × 10–5
117. The entropy change involved in the isothermal
reversible expansion of 2 moles of an ideal gas
from a volume of 10 dm3 to a volume of 100 dm3
at 27°C is
(1) 38.3 J mol–1 K–1 (2) 35.8 J mol–1 K–1
(3) 32.3 J mol–1 K–1 (4) 42.3 J mol–1K–1
118. The standard enthalpy of formation of NH3 is –
46.0 kJ mol–1 if the enthalpy of formation of H2from its atoms is –436 kJ mol–1 and that of N2 is
–712 kJ mol–1, the average bond enthalpy of N—
H bond in NH3 is :
(1) –964 kJ mol–1 (2) +352 kJ mol–1
(2) +1056 kJ mol–1 (4) –1102 kJ mol–1
119. Ionisation energy of He+ is 19.6 × 10–18 J atom–1.
The energy of the first stationary state (n = 1) of
Li2+ is
(1) 4.41 × 10–16 J atom–1
(2) –4.41 × 10–17 J atom–1
(3) –2.2 × 10–15 J atom–1
(4) 8.82 × 10–17 J atom–1
B-58, BUDDHA COLONY, PATNA - 800 001 , Mob.: 9334594165 / 66 / 67
XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-8 (PCB ) [ 10 ]
120. For a particular reversible reaction at
temperature T, H and S were found to be both+ ve. If Te is the temperature at equilibrium,the reaction would be spontaneous when
(1) Te > T (2)T > Te
(3) Te is 5 times T (4)T = Te
121. Which of the following is/are primary
meristem(s) ?
(a) Apical meristem
(b) Cork-cambium
(c) Inter-fascicular cambium
(d) Intercalary meristem
(1) a & c (2) b & c
(3) a & d (4) b & d
122. Which one of the following meristems is not
responsible for producing the secondary tissues?
(1) Cork-cambium
(2) Fascicular vascular cambium
(3) Interfascicular cambium
(4) Intercalary meristems
123. Match the following and select the right option.
(a) Tracheids (i) Inner layers of cell
wall have thickening
(b) Vessel (ii) Absent in gymnosperms
(c) Xylem fibres (iii) Radial conduction of
water
(d) Xylem parenchyma (iv)Obliterated central
lumen
(1) (a-ii); (b-i); (c-iv); (d-iii)
(2) (a-i); (b-ii); (c-iv); (d-iii)
(3) (a-i); (b-ii); (c-iii); (d-iv)
(4) (a-i); (b-iv); (c-ii); (d-iii)
124. Which of the following characteristic
differentiates monocot root from a dicot root ?
(1) Radial vascular bundle
(2) Well-developed large pith
(3) Scattered vascular bundles
(4) Xylem exarch
125. The root hairs and trichomes are common in :
(1) Being unicellular
(2) Being multicellular
(3) Being branched
(4) Being epidermal in origin
126. Why diffusion is very important to plants ?
(1) Their is no requirement of energy
(2) It is the only means for gaseous movement
within the plant body
(3) Diffusion rates are affected by the gradient
of concentration
(4) Diffusion is not dependent on a living system
127. Bulk flow can be achieved
(1) Through a positive hydrostatic pressure
gradient
(2) Through a negative hydrostatic pressure
gradient
(3) Either through positive hydrostatic pressure
gradient or negative hydrostatic pressure
gradient
(4) Neither through positive hydrostatic
pressure gradient nor a negative hydrostatic
pressure gradient
128. How many molar teeth are there in the lower
Jaw of human being ?
(1) Three (2) Four
(3) Six (4) Twelve
129. Which one of the following parts of human
intestine is different from the others ?
(1) Caecum (2) Ileum
(3) Colon (4) Rectum
130. Which of the following characters is exclusive
to mammalian respiratory system ?
(1) Presence of nose
(2) Presence of glottis
(3) Respiration by Lungs
(4) None of the above
131. Match the following in regard with the thoracic
chamber and select the right option.
(a) Vertebral column (i) Ventral side
(b) Sternum (ii) Dorsal side
(c) Ribs (iii) Lower side
(d) Diaphragm (iv)Lateral side
(1) (a-ii); (b-i); (c-iv); (d-iii)
(2) (a-ii); (b-i); (c-iii); (d-iv)
(3) (a-i); (b-ii); (c-iv); (d-iii)
(4) (a-iii); (b-i); (c-iv); (d-ii)
132. The partial pressures of oxygen and carbon
dioxide in alveoli respectively are :
(1) 40 and 45 mmHg
(2) 95 and 40 mmHg
(3) 95 and 45 mmHg
(4) 104 and 40 mmHg
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XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-8 (PCB ) [ 11 ]
133. Which of the following is/are helpful in
generation of pressure gradient for expiration
and inspiration ?
(a) Diaphragm
(b) External intercostals
(c) Internal intercostal
(1) a & c (2) b & c (3) only a (4) a, b & c
134. What is the percentage of oxygen, which is carried
in a dissolved state through the plasma ?
(1) 97% (2) 7% (3) 3% (4) 20–25%
135. Lymph compared to tissue fluid contains.
(1) Large amount of nutrients
(2) Large amount of oxygen
(3) Large amount of CO2 and metabolic wastes
(4) Some platelets
136. A person having blood group A possesses.
(1) Antigen A on RBCs and antibody, anti-A in
plasma
(2) Antigen B on RBCs and antibody anti-B in
plasma
(3) Antigen A on RBCs and antibody anti-B in
plasma
(4) Antigen B on RBCs and antibody anti-A in
plasma
137. The ions of which one play a very important role
in clotting of blood.
(1) Calcium ions (2) Magnesium ions
(3) Potassium ions (4) Sodium ions
138. In fishes the heart pumps out :
(1) Oxygenated blood
(2) Deoxygenated blood
(3) Either oxygenated or deoxygenated blood
(4) Oxygenated blood but occasionally
deoxygenated blood
139. Cardiac arrest occurs when :
(1) The heart stops beating
(2) The heart muscle is suddently damaged by
an inadequate blood supply
(3) Either the heart stops beating or the heart
muscle is suddenly damaged by an
inadequate blood supply
(4) The heart is not pumping blood effectively
enough to meet the needs of the body.
140. Which is not correctly matched ?
(1) Structural element — Hydrogen
(2) Found in chlorophyll — Magnesium
(3) Present in ATP — Phosphorous
(4) Activator for RuBisco — Zinc
141. Activity of nitrogenase enzyme depends on :
(1) non-availability of ATP
(2) availability of nitric acid
(3) availability of ATP
(4) non-availability of nitric acid
142. Photosynthesis is important due to :
(a) It is the primary source of all food on earth
(b) It is responsible for the release of oxygen into
the atmosphere
(c) It reduces carbondioxide in the atmosphere
(1) a & c (2) b & c (3) only a (4) a, b & c
143.
400 500 600 700Wavelength of light in
nanometres (nm)
The above diagram showing action spectrum of
photosynthesis superimposed on :
(1) Action spectrum of chlorophyll b
(2) Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a
(3) Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll b
(4) Absorption spectrum of carotenoids
144. The steps of dark reactions are :
(1) Regeneration carboxylation reduction(2) Reduction oxidation hydrogenation(3) Carboxylation reduction regeneration(4) Reduction carboxylation regeneration
145. Which one of the following statements is not true ?
(1) There are two discrete photochemical light
harvesting complexes in green plants
(2) Pigments in light harvesting complexes are
bound to proteins
(3) Each photosystem has all the pigments
forming a light harvesting system called
antennae
(4) These pigments help to make photosynthesis
more efficient by absorbing different
wavelengths of light
146. The number of substrate level phosphorylation
reactions in glycolysis is :
(1) Two (2) One (3) Three (4) Zero
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XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-8 (PCB ) [ 12 ]
147. The complete oxidation of pyruvate by the
stepwise removal of all the hydrogen atoms,
which :
(a) leaving three molecules of CO2
(b) takes place in the matrix of the mitochondria
Which option is true.
(1) Both (a) and (b) are true
(2) Both (a) and (b) are false
(3) (a) is true but (b) is false
(4) (b) is true but (a) is false
148. Match the following and select the right option.
(a) Flame cells (i) Planaria
(b) Nephridia (ii) Earthworm
(c) Malpighian tubule (iii) Prawn
(d) Antennal gland (iv)Cockroach
(1) (a-i); (b-ii); (c-iii); (d-iv)
(2) (a-ii); (b-i); (c-iv); (d-iii)
(3) (a-i); (b-ii); (c-iv); (d-iii)
(4) (a-iii); (b-ii); (c-iv); (d-i)
149. All the following statements are false except
(1) Loop of Henle is very long in majority of
nephrons
(2) Very few nephrons are cortical nephrons
(3) Juxta medullary nephrons are large in
number
(4) Loop of Henle runs deep into the medulla in
some of the nephrons
150. All the following statements are true regarding
vasa recta, except.
(1) It is the part of peritubular capillaries
(2) This is highly elaborated in cortical nephrons
(3) Having ‘U’-shaped structure
(4) Runs parallel to the Henle’s loop
151. What is not involved in the process of urine
formation ?
(1) Reabsorption (2) Secretion
(3) Osmoregulation (4) Glomerular filtration
152. Which one of the following is different from the
others.
(1) The functional unit of contraction
(2) The portion of the myofibril between two
successive ‘z’ lines
(3) A sarcomere
(4) The portion of the myofibril of H zone.
153. What is/are true regarding the globular head of
meromyosin.
(a) This is an active ATPase enzyme
(b) It has binding sites for ATP
(c) It has active sites for actin.
(1) a & c (2) b & c
(3) a, b & c (4) only c
154. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca++ in body
fluid is the characteristic feature of :
(1) Tetany (2) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Myasthenia gravis (4) Osteoporosis
155. Match the following and select the right option.
(a) Saddle joint (i) Between carpal and
metacarpal of thumb
(b) Gliding joint (ii) Between the carpals
(c) Pivot joint (iii) Between atlas and
axis
(d) Hinge joint (iv)Knee joint
(1) (a-ii); (b-i); (c-iii); (d-iv)
(2) (a-i); (b-ii); (c-iii); (d-iv)
(3) (a-i); (b-ii); (c-iv); (d-iii)
(4) (a-iv); (b-ii); (c-iii); (d-i)
156. The cup-shaped structure of pelvic girdle, the
acetabulum in man is formed by :
(1) Ilium ischium and pubis
(2) Ilium, ischium and cotyloid
(3) Ilium and ischium
(4) Ilium and cotyloid
157. Which of the following is incorrectly matched.
(1) Monographs — Contains information of
distribution of plants of a
given area
(2) Flora — Contains the actual account
of habitat
(3) Manuals — Useful in providing
information for identification
of names of species found in
an area
(4) Catalogues — Important taxonomical aid
158. Which one of the following is correctly matched.
(1) Vibrium — Spiral
(2) Bacillus — Comma shaped
(3) Spirillum — Rod shaped
(4) Cocci — Spherical
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XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-8 (PCB ) [ 13 ]
159. Which one of the following groups of spores are
sexual spores of fungi.
(1) Sporangiospores, Ascospores, Basidospores
(2) Basidiospores, Oospores, Ascospores
(3) Ascospores, Zoospores, Conidia
(4) Oospores, Sporangiospores, Basidiospores
160. In ‘Reductionist Biology’ we study living
phenomena.
(1) On molecular basis
(2) On cellular basis
(3) On organ system basis
(4) On organismic basis
161. What do you mean by “Omnis cellula-e cellula”
(1) Cells are structural basis of organisms
(2) Cells are behavioural basis of life
(3) All organisms are composed of cells
(4) new cells are formed from pre existing cells
162. Which one of the following is not correctly
matched.
(1) Inclusion bodies — Reserve material
are stored
(2) Polysome — Translate the mRNA
into proteins
(3) Mesosome — Help in cell wall
formation
(4) Capsule — Glycocalyx in the
form of a loose sheath
163. Which one of the following organelles is not the
part of endomembrane system.
(1) Mitochondria
(2) Golgi apparatus
(3) Lysosomes
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum
164. In cilia and flagella central sheath is connected
to peripheral tubules by means of :
(1) Central microtubules
(2) Interdoublet bridges
(3) Microtubule doublets
(4) Radial spokes
165. Semiautonomic genome system is present in :
(1) Ribosome and Chloroplast
(2) Mitochondria and Chloroplast
(3) Mitochondria and Ribosome
(4) Mitochondria and Golgi body
166. Closely related species were separated in the
artificial system of classification because.
(1) They classified living organisms on the
scientific basis
(2) They were based on natural affinities among
the organisms
(3) They were based on a few characteristics
(4) The vegetative characters are more easily
affected by environment
167. Match the following and select the right option
(a) Chlamydomonas (i) Colonial
(b) Volvox (ii) M i c r o s c o p i c
unicellular
(c) Ulothrix (ii i) Form massive
plant bodies
(d) Kelps (iv)Filamentous
(1) a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii
(2) a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–iii
(3) a–ii, b–i, c–iii, d–iv
(4) a–iii, b–i, c–iv, d–ii
168. Algae are characterised by the
(a) Lack of vascular tissues
(b) Lack of seeds
(c) Lack of embryo
(d) Lack of differentiated plant body
(1) a & b (2) only a
(3) only d (4) a, b, c & d
169. Which one of the following is correctly expressed
regarding funaria.
(1) Capsule and Seta – Sporophyte
(2) Rhizoids, Capsule and Seta– Sporophyte
(3) Leaves, Rhizoids and Seta–Sporophytes
(4) Capsule, Leaves and Main axis-sporophyte
170. In which of the following male and female
gametophytes do not have an independent free
living existence.
(1) Dryopteris (2) Funaria
(3) Cedrus (4) Lycopodium
171. On the basis of organisation of body, which one
of the following is true regarding jelly fish.
(1) The ce lls are arranged as loose ce ll
aggregates
(2) The cells performing the same function are
arranged into tissues
(3) Tissues are grouped together to form organ
(4) Organs have associated to form functional
systems
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XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-8 (PCB ) [ 14 ]
172. Which two statements of the following are true
regarding open type of circulatory system.
(a) The blood is circulated through a series of
vessels
(b) The blood is pumped out of the heart
(c) The cells and tissues are directly bathed in
it
(d) Vessels are of varying diameters.
(1) a & c (2) a & d (3) b & c (4) b & d
173. Match the following and select the right option
(a) Living fossil (i) Bombyx
(b) Silkworm (ii) King crab
(c) Gregarious pest (iii) Culex
(d) Vector (iv)Locust
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv (4) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
174. Which of the following sets of animals share a
four chambered heart.
(1) Amphibians, Reptiles, Birds
(2) Crocodiles, Birds, Mammals
(3) Crocodiles, Lizards Turtles
(4) Lizards, Mammals, Birds
175. Help in secretion and absorption and are found
in the lining of stomach and intestine. Their
nuclei are located at the base. These are the
features of
(1) Ciliated epithilium
(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) squamous epithelium
(4) Cuboidal epithilium
176. Two or more organs together form organ system.
They perform a common function by
(1) Their physical interaction
(2) Their chemical interaction
(3) Their physical and/or chemical interaction
(4) Their enzymatic interaction
177. Cells, tissues, organs and organ systems split
up the work in a way that.
(1) Exhibits division of labour
(2) Contribute to the survival of the body as a
whole
(3) Exhibits division of labour and contribute to
the survival of the body as a whole
(4) Exhibits similar function and contribute to
the survial of the body as a whole
178. In each segment of cockroach, exoskeleton has
hardened plates called.
(1) Arthrodial membrane
(2) Tergites
(3) Sclerites
(4) Sternites
179. All the following are examples of connective
tissue except.
(1) Tendons (2) Ligaments
(3) Muscle (4) Adipose tissue.
180. Main excretory product of cockroach is
(1) Ammonia (2) Urea
(3) Uric acid (4) Guanine
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XI FOUNDATION REVISION - TEST-8 (PCB ) [ 15 ]
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121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
180.
(4)
(1)
(4)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(1)
(1)
(4)
(3)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(2)
(3)
(1)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(4)
(3)
(4)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(1)
(3)
XI - Foundation Revision Test - 8th
PCB - 22.04.2020
(3)
(3)
(4)
(2)
(2)
(1)
(1)
(1)
(4)
(4)
(1)
(3)
(2)
(4)
(2)
(1)
(2)
(4)
(3)
(2)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(1)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(2)
(4)
(4)
(2)
(1)
(2)
(1)
(2)
(4)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1)
(3)
(1)
(3)
(2)
(4)
(1)
(1)
(1)
(1)
(2)
(4)
(4)
(4)
(3)
(1)
(3)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(1)
(1)
(1)
(4)
(2)
(4)
(4)
(2)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(2)
(2)
(4)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(4)
(1)
(4)
(4)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(1)
(2)
(1)
(4)
(3)
(4)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(1)
(1)
(3)
(4)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(3)
(1)
(2)
(1)
(1)
(4)
(2)
(1)
(4)
(4)
(1)
(4)
(2)
(3)
(1)
(4)
(1)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(3)