Doon University, Dehradun
Entrance Test
Ph.D. Environmental Science
Roll Number
Programme Name
Examination Centre
Date of Examination Signatures of Candidate Name of the Invigilator
Signature of the Invigilator
Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 100
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES
Candidates must read carefully the following instructions before attempting the Question Paper.
(i) Write your Roll Number in the space provided above
(ii) There are TWO PARTS in the Paper. PART I is compulsory. Answer all the 60 Questions in PART-
I.
(iii) In PART II select any Four Sections out of the Seven Sections (Botany, Biotechnology, Chemistry,
Geology, Mathematics, Physics and Zoology) and answer all the 10 Questions in each of the selected
Section.
(iv) Use ONLY BLUE/BLACK Ballpoint Pen to tick the correct option. Do not use Pencil.
(v) Please do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
(vi) Please do not do any rough work on the Answer Sheet.
(vii) Each question carries 1 mark. There will be no negative marking.
(viii) Pages at the end have been provided for rough work.
(ix) All answers must be tick marked directly on the question paper. Mark your answer only inside
the box given against the options as follows.
(a)
(b) √
(c)
(d)
1. The use of anthropoid hazard chemicals like
DDT causes reduction in fish population
because the chemical mimics the effect of
2. The ionizing radiation, which affects the
activities of most of the enzymes is due to
a. Photoemission of electron
b. Interaction of a-particles, b-and g-
rays with enzymes
c. Interaction of electron with body.
d. Interaction of radiation with
tissues.
3. SDS-PAGE of tissue proteins under
denaturation determines the
a. Hydrogen bond breakage
b. Sulfide bridge breakage
c. Subunits of protein
d. None of the above
4. Intake of lead may primarily cause the
damage of
a. Brain
b. Lung
c. Liver
d. Kidney
5. Parallelism among the standard curves can
be determined by one of the following.
a. ANOVA
b. Student‟s-t test
c. Chi square
d. ANCOVA
6. Liquid ammonia can be used in
refrigeration because of its
a. High basicity
b. High dipole moment
c. High heat of vaporization
d. Non-toxic nature
7. The pair of molecules forming strongest
intermolecular hydrogen bonds are
a. H2O and H2
b. HCOOH and CH3COOH
c. CH3COCH3 and CHCl3
d. SiH4 and SiF6
8. Which of these requires quantum nature of
light for their explanation ?
a. Diffraction
b. Polarisation
c. Black body spectrum
d. Interference
9. The mass of 1 mole of electron is equal to
a. 9.1094 × 6.16 × 10–28 g
b. 9.1094 × 10–31 × 6.023 × 1023 kg
c. (9.1094 × 10–31) / 6.023 × 1023
kg
d. (6.023 × 1023) / 6.1094 × 10–28
gm
10. Inversions occur when atmosphere is
a. unstable
b. neutral
c. slightly stable
d. most stable
a. Luteinizing hormone
b. Testosterone
c. Estrogen
d. All of the above
PART I
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Note:
1. Answer all the 60 questions
2. Each Question carries 1 mark
11. Which of the transmutation does not take
place by a-decay ?
a. 238U92 ¾¾® 234Th90
b. 213Bi83 ¾¾® 213Po84
c. 226Ra88 ¾¾® 222Rn86
d. 227Ac89 ¾¾® 223Fr87
12. Which radioactive element is considered
under Indoor pollutants category ?
a. O –16
b. N –13
c. Carbon 14
d. Radon
13. Industries generating hazardous waste are
classified as
a. Brown
b. Green
c. Yellow
d. Red
14. One of the following methods for disposal
of municipal solid waste known to be
scientific is
a. Open land disposal
b. Incerination
c. Landfill method
d. Sanitary landfill method
15. One of the following is not an In situ
conservation for biological resources.
a. Biosphere reserve
b. National Parks
c. Protected areas
d. Breeding under confined areas
16. Solar ponds are used for
a. Salt production
b. Aquaculture
c. Power generation
d. All of the above
17. Biodiesel is produced in India presently
from
a. Calotropis sp
b. Catharanthus sp
c. Jatropha sp
d. Delonix sp
18. Ozone depletion is caused by the increase
in the level of
a. Water vapour
b. Chlorofluro carbon
c. Oxygen
d. Carbon monoxide
19. Thermal power generation in India is
carried out by burning
a. Natural gas
b. Coal
c. Oil
d. All of the above
20. Biogas production is the outcome of
a. Methanogenesis
b. Pyrolysis
c. Methanogenesis and Gasification
d. Gasification
21. Mauna Loa, in Hawaii is famous for
a. Botanical Garden
b. Monitoring sea level rise since
1950
c. Biggest collection of mammals
fossils
d. Continuous monitoring of
atmospheric CO2 since 1957
22. To generate environmental awareness
Paryavaran Vahini Scheme was launched
in
a. 1998
b. 1968
c. 1992
d. 1994
23. General Circulation Model (GCM‟s) are
used to
a. predict climate
b. predict cyclones
c. study ocean currents
d. study temperature on wind
24. Among the following which country has
lowest per capita green house gas emission ?
a. France
b. India
c. China
d. Mexico
25. Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution)
Act 1974, industries are allowed to release
waste in inland water having BOD level
a. 100 mg/l
b. 30 mg/l
c. 150 mg/l
d. 80 mg/l
26. Richael Carsson in her book Silent Spring
has raised concern on
a. Economical & social impacts
b. Deforestation
c. Climate change
d. Impacts of agro-chemicals on
ecological functions
27. The term oligotrophic refers to
a. Higher nutrients in water
b. High aquatic productivity
c. Low nutrients and low
productivity
d. Algal blooms
28. Following initiative under International
efforts made to have household eco-
friendly refrigerators :
a. Kyoto Protocol
b. Basal Convention
c. Montreal Protocol
d. CITES
29. The „mean‟ that stands for relative
importance of different items in a data set is
a. Weighted mean
b. Harmonic mean
c. Arithmetic mean
d. Geometric mean
30. In symmetrical distribution pattern
a. Median, Mean and Mode
coincide
b. Mean & Median coincide
c. Mean & Mode coincide
d. Mode & Median coincide
31. Which statistical device helps in analysing
the co-variation of two or more variables ?
a. Regression
b. Correlation
c. Standard deviation
d. Mean of the variables
32. 7. The pH of a 0.001 M solution of HCl is
a. 2
b. 4
c. 3
d. 1
33. Correct arrangement in order of decreasing
soil particle size
a. Sand, clay, silt
b. Silt, sand, clay
c. Sand, silt, clay
d. Clay, silt, sand
34. Comparing continental and oceanic crust
a. the chemical composition of crust
does not vary.
b. the Fe content in continental crust
is more than that of oceanic crust.
c. the Si and Al content in
continental crust is more than that
of oceanic crust.
d. the Na, Ca, Al content in oceanic
crust is more than that of
continental crust
.35. The size distribution of particles in soil
and sediments generally follow
a. binomial distribution
b. normal distribution
c. linear distribution
d. log-normal distribution
36. Maximum density of water is at
a. 0 °C
b. 100 °C
c. – 4 °C
d. 4 °C
37. The geochemical weathering process can
be viewed as
a. Clay minerals + CO2 Quartz +
Al2O3
b. Primary silicate + CO2 + H2O
clay minerals + cations + HCO–3
+ H4 SiO4 + H+
c. Primary silicate + H2O Al2O3 +
SiO2 + CaO + H+
d. Clay minerals + H2O Fe2O3 +
Al2O3 + SiO2 + CaO
38. Which group of minerals represent
a. Polymorphic transformation
b. Non-substitutional representation
c. Isomorphic substitution
d. Unmixed presence of different non
silicates
39. Garnet is a metamorphic product of
a. Feldspar
b. Quartzite
c. Mica
d. Serpentine
40. Formation of marble can be represented
by
a. CaSiO3 Ca+2
+ SiO3–2
b. CaO + CO2 CaCO3
c. CaCO3 CaO + CO2
d. CaCO3 + SiO2 CaSiO3 + CO2
41. For efficient crop productivity, the level
(kg/ha) of N, P, K in soils should,
respectively be
a. > 300, > 80 and > 360
b. < 50, < 15 and < 120
c. < 100, < 30 and < 180
d. 150, 50 and 240
42. How many sites as potential areas for
biosphere reserves have been identified
by the National MAB Committee for the
Department of Environment ?
a. 13
b. 23
c. 33
d. 43
43. Which one of the following is not a
permitting cryoprotectant ?
a. Glycerol
b. DMSO
c. Sucrose
d. 1, 2 – propanediol
44. The aggregation of all eco systems on the
earth is referred to as
a. Atmosphere
b. Ecosphere
c. Stratosphere
d. Ionosphere
45. Which one of the following is not a
biofertilizer ?
a. Aquatic ferns
b. Blue-green algae
c. Phosphate-Solubilising micro-
organisms
d. Vermicompost
46. Who first used and defined “Ecology” in
1866 ?
a. H. Reiter
b. Haeckel
c. Charles Elton
d. Odum
47. CITES has following schedules in order
of priority to protect animals and plants from
trade :
a. Schedule I, II, III
b. Schedule I, I, III
c. Schedule III, III, I
d. Schedule II, I, III
48. Methamoglobinemia is actually caused
by water pollution containing
a. NO2
b. NO–3
c. NH+4
d. NO–2
49. Environmental Impact Assessment is
mandatory for certain developmental project
under one of the following legislation :
a. The Factories‟ Act
b. Forest Act
c. Environment (Protection) Act
d. Air (Pollution and Control) Act
50. Which one of the following air pollution
control device has highest efficiency in
controlling dust ?
a. Wet Scruber
b. Electrostatic precipitator
c. Venturi Scruber
d. Cyclonic spray scruber
51. Lignite is a low grade coal found in
a. Gujarat
b. Uttar Pradesh
c. Tamil Nadu
d. Karnataka
52. India has huge resources of which nuclear
materials?
a. Uranium
b. Thorium
c. Plutonium
d. Deuterium
53. Pent wash is the effluent produced from
which industry?
a. Tannery
b. Textile
c. Pulp and paper
d. Distillery
54. Which radioactive element is considered
under indoor pollutants category?
a. O-16
b. N - 13
c. Carbon 14
d. Radon
55. A simple and relatively inexpensive film-
flow type of aerobic treatment method is
a. Septic tank
b. Activated sludge process
c. Percolating filter system
d. All of these above
56. Which is the most common gas released
from the landfills
a. Carbon monoxide
b. Methane
c. Hydrogen sulphide
d. Carbon di oxide
57. The water having Calcium concentration
in the range of 60-120 mg/l is considered
as
a. Soft
b. Hard
c. Medium
d. Very hard
58. During composting maximum degradation
and stabilization of organic matter occurs
during which stage?
a. Mesophilic
b. Thermophilic
c. Starting
d. Cooling
59. Septic tank is a most suitable unit for
a. Hospitals
b. Hotels
c. Hostels
d. All of the above
60. Electrostatic precipitators remove
a. Sulphur dioxide
b. Particulate matter
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of them
PART II
Note:
1. Select any THREE SECTIONS out of the following SIX Sections and answer all the 20
questions in each section.
2. All Questions carry equal marks.
Section A: BOTANY
1. You can determine the age of an
oak tree by counting the annual rings
formed by the
a. Primary xylem/apical meristem
b. Secondary phloem/vascular
cambium
c. Dermal tissue/cork cambium
d. Secondary xylem/vascular
cambium
2. Which of the following does not arise from
meristematic activity in a plant?
a. Secondary xylem
b. Tendrils
c. Corms
d. All of these
3. All plants exhibit alternation of generations.
This means their life cycle
a. Includes both haploid and diploid
gametes.
b. Shows only asexual reproduction
c. Has both a multicellular haploid
stage and a multicellular diploid
stage
d. Does not include meiosis
4. All flowering plants (angiosperms)
a. Produce exposed seeds
b. Are nonvascular.
c. Have flagellated sperm.
d. Havefruit.
5. Sort out the branched algae:
a. Oedogonium
b. Spirogyra
c. Zygnema
d. Ectocarpus
6. Callose is a:
a. Disaccharide
b. Monosaccharide
c. Protein
d. Polysaccharide
7. Mutation in which substitution of one amino
acid by another amino acid in codon takes place
is called:
a. Nonsense mutation
b. Missense mutation
c. Frameshift mutation
d. Promoter mutation
8. Transfusion tissue in gymnosperm leaves
are composed of:
a. Tracheids
b. Parenchyma cells
c. Sclerenchyma cells
d. Tracheids and Parenchyma
cells
9. Which of the following mineral deficiency
does not show necrotic symptoms?
a. Boron
b. Iron
c. Chlorine
d. Nitrogen
10. Gymnosperms differ from extinct ferns
because they have:
a. Have Pollen
b. Are woody
c. Have spores
d. Have macrophylls
1. In gram staining safranin acts as:
a. A Primary stain
b. Mordant
c. Counter stain
d. Decoloriser
2. RNA molecule that exhibit catalysis activity are
called:
a. mRNA
b. Ribonuclease
c. Ribozymes
d. Ribonucleotodes
3. The direct method of study of bacteriophage is:
a. Lysogenic conversion
b. Serological testing
c. Electron microscopy
d. Plaque study
4. Which are the most diverse molecules in cell:
a. Proteins
b. Carbohydrate
c. Lipids
d. Mineral salts
5. Which genus of bacteria given below grows best at
70-100 degree C.?
a. Pyrococcus
b. Halobacterium
c. Methanosarcinia
d. Nitrobacter
6. Explant is:
a. Any cut part of the plant
used in tissue culture
b. A plant extract used in
tissue culture
c. A Source of growth
regulator added to media
d. Solidifying agent
7. Haploid plants can be obtained through:
a. Meristem culture
b. Embryo culture
c. Endosperm culture
d. Pollen culture
8. Monoclonal antibodies are usually
produced from:
a. Myeloma
b. Hybridoma
c. Monocytes
d. Adipocyte
9. A segment of DNA that reads from the
same forward and backward is called:
a. lindromic DNA
b. Complementary DNA
c. Plasmid DNA
d. Copy DNA
10. Which one of the following organism is
used for the large scale production of
recombinant
insulin?
a. Plasmodium
b. Rhizobium
c. Agrobacterium
d. E.Coli
Section B: BIOTECHNOLOGY
1. The most malleable metal is
a. Platinum
b. Silver
c. Iron
d. Gold
2. The oil used in the froth floatation process
is
a. Coconut oil
b. Olive oil
c. Kerosene oil
d. Pine oil
3. The number of waves in n x 10th
Bohr's
orbit are
a. n2
b. n
c. n-2
d. n3
4. The mass of one Avogadro number of
helium atom is
a. 1.00 gram
b. 4.00 gram
c. 8.00 gram
d. 4 x 6.02 x 1023
gram
5. The items amenable to detection by soft x-
rays are
a. Contrabands
b. Llead in bullets
c. Narcotics
d. Genuine coins from counterfeit
coins
6. The material which can be deformed
permanently by heat and pressure is called a
a. Thermoplastic
b. Thermoset
c. Chemical compound
d. Polymer
7. The mass number of a nucleus is
a. Always less than its atomic
number
b. The sum of the number of
protons and neutrons present in
the nucleus
c. Always more than the atomic
weight
d. A fraction
8. The inexpensive and commonly used
variety of glass is called soda glass. It is
called so because
a. Was used initially for making
bottles of soda (carbonated
drink)
b. Is made using soda(sodium
carbonate)
c. Was initially used for storing
sodium carbonate
d. Is made using soda lime
9. The gas used in the manufacture of
vanaspati from vegetable oil is
a. Hydrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Nitrogen
d. Carbon dioxide
10. The ionic radii of N3-
, O2-
, F- and Na
+
follows the order
a. N3-
> O2-
> F- > Na
+
b. N3-
> Na+ > O
2- > F
-
c. Na+ > O
2- > N
3- > F
-
d. O2-
> F- > Na
+ > N
3-
Section C: CHEMISTRY
1. The term Orogeny was introduced by
e. Morgan
f. G.K. Gilbert
g. H. Hess
h. Holmes
2. The Tethys disappeared completely during
a. Eocene
b. Middle-Miocene
c. Pliocene
d. Oligocene
3. The final phase of Himalayan Orogeny
occurred
a. 00 million years ago
b. 3.5 million years ago
c. Before formation of Tethys
d. 65 million years ago
4. Oxy-bow lakes are generally associated
with the ---- stage stream.
a. Youth
b. Mature
c. Old
d. In any stage of stream
5. Landscape is a function of structure,
process and stage”, the statement is given
by
a. J-Hutton
b. Penk
c. Davis
d. Plafair
6. Choose among the following the largest
island in the world:
a. Greenland
b. New Guinea
c. Andaman Nicobar
d. Medagaskar
7. What is rift valley
a. It‟s a deep valley formed in between
the mountains
b. It‟s a valley on the sides of which
are huge mountain
c. It‟s a subsidized land leaving a long
and narrow opening
d. None of the above statement suits
for rift valley
8. Run off and erosion would probably be
greatest on a land area that is
a. Flat lying and slightly covered with
vegetation
b. Sloping and barren without any
vegetation
c. Gently sloping and covered with
grass
d. Sloping and contour ploughed
9. What is a Canyon? Is it a
a. Depression between two faults
b. Deep gorge or ravine
c. Feature formed by wind action
d. Rift valley or graben
10. Mountain soils are also termed as
a. Ex- Situ soils
b. Alluvial soil
c. Placer deposits
d. in- Situ soils
Section D: GEOLOGY
1. Two cards are drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. The probability of getting atleast a spade and an ace is
a. 1/34
b. 8/221
c. 1/26
d. 2/51
2. If 𝑎𝑥2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 6 = 0 does not have two distinct real roots, where a 𝜖 R, b 𝜖 R, then the least value of 3a+b is
a. 4
b. -1
c. 1
d. -2
3. If A= 1 −1 11 2 01 3 0
then the value of |adj
A| is equal to
a. 5
b. 0
c. 1
d. 2
4. If 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝛼
2 and 𝑡𝑎𝑛
𝛽
2 are the roots of
equation 8𝑥2 − 26𝑥 + 15 = 0 then cos(α + β) is equal to
a. -627/725
b. 627/725
c. −1
d. 1
5. The rank of the matrix 1 2 3𝜆 2 42 −3 1
is 3 if
a. 𝜆 ≠ 18/11
b. 𝜆 = 18/11
c. 𝜆 = −18/11
d. None of these
6. If 𝑓 𝑥 =𝑠𝑖𝑛3𝑥
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥, where 𝑥 ≠ 𝑛𝜋, then the
range values of f(x) for real values of x is
a. [-1,3]
b. (-∞, −1]
c. (3,+∞)
d. [-1,3)
7. The angles of a right-angled triangle are in AP. The ratio of the in-radius and the perimeter is
a. (2 − 3: 2 3)
b. (1: 8 3 (2 + 3)
c. (2 − 3: 4 3)
d. (2 + 3: 2 3)
8. 𝑑(𝑥2+1)
𝑥2+2 is equal to
a. 2 𝑥2 + 2 + 𝑘
b. 𝑥2 + 2 + 𝑘
c. 1
(𝑥2+2)3/2 + 𝑘
d. −1
(𝑥2+2)3/2+ 𝑘
Section E: MATHEMATICS
9. The determinant
𝑎 𝑎 + 𝑑 𝑎 + 2𝑑𝑎2 (𝑎 + 𝑑)2 (𝑎 + 2𝑑)2
2𝑎 + 3𝑑 2(𝑎 + 𝑑) 2𝑎 + 𝑑 = 0.
Then
a. d=0
b. a+d=0
c. d=0 or a+d =0
d. None of these
10. If f(x) =
1 𝑥 𝑥 + 12𝑥 𝑥(𝑥 − 1) 𝑥(𝑥 + 1)
3𝑥(𝑥 − 1) 𝑥 𝑥 − 1 (𝑥 − 2) 𝑥(𝑥2 − 1)
then f(100) is equal to
a. 0
b. 1
c. 100
d. -100
1. In a gravity-free space, a man of mass M
standing at a height h above the floor
throws a ball of mass m straight down
with a speed u. When the ball reaches the
floor, the distance of the man above the
floor will be
a. (1 +𝑚
𝑀)
b. (2 −𝑚
𝑀)
c. 2h
d. A function of m, M, h and u
2. A rectangular block has a square base
measuring a x a, and its height is h. It
moves with speed v on a smooth
horizontal surface.
a. It will topple if 𝑣 > 2𝑔
b. It will topple if 𝑣 > 2𝑔𝑎
c. It will topple if 𝑣 >
2𝑔𝑎2/
d. It will not topple for any
value of v
3. Two soap bubbles with radii r1 and r2
(r2>r1) come in contact. Their common
surface has a radius of curvature r.
a. 𝑟 =r1+ r2
2
b. 𝑟 =r1 r2
r1− r2
c. 𝑟 =r1 r2
r1+ r2
d. 𝑟 = r1 r2
4. If a beam consisting of 𝛼, 𝛽 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛾
radiations is passed through an electric
field perpendicular to the beam, the
deflections suffered by the components, in
decreasing order, are
a. 𝛼, 𝛽, 𝛾
b. 𝛼, 𝛾, 𝛽
c. 𝛽, 𝛼, 𝛾
d. 𝛽, 𝛾, 𝛼
5. A charge q is placed at the centre of the
line joining two equal charges Q. The
system of the three charges will be in
equilibrium if q is equal to
a. -Q/2
b. -Q/4
c. +Q/4
d. +Q/2
6. In a Young‟s double-slit experiment, the
fringe width is 𝛽. If the entire arrangement
is now placed inside a liquid of refractive
index 𝜇, the fringe width will become
a. 𝜇𝛽
b. 𝛽/𝜇
c. 𝛽/(𝜇 + 1)
d. 𝛽/(𝜇 − 1)
7. In a Young‟s double-slit experiment, the
central bright fringe can be identified
a. as it has greater intensity than
the other bright fringes
b. as it is wider than the other
bright fringes
c. as it is narrower than the other
bright fringes
d. by using white light instead of
monochromatic light
8. When the temperature of a body increases
from𝑡 to 𝑡 + ∆𝑡, its moment of inertia
increases from𝐼 to 𝐼 + ∆𝐼. The coefficient
of linear expansion of the body is 𝛼. The
ratio ∆𝐼
𝐼 is equal to
a. ∆𝑡
𝑡
b. 2∆𝑡
𝑡
c. 𝛼∆𝑡
d. 2𝛼∆𝑡
Section F: PHYSICS
9. During an adiabatic process, the pressure
of a gas is found to be proportional to the
cube its absolute temperature. The ratio 𝐶𝑝
𝐶𝑉= 𝛾 for the gas is
a. 2
b. 3/2
c. 5/3
d. 4/3
10. A system is taken from state A to state B
along two different paths 1 and 2. The heat
absorbed and work done by system along
these two paths are Q1 and Q2, and W1 and
W2 respectively. Then
a. Q1 = Q2
b. W1 =W2
c. Q1-W1= Q2 -W2
d. Q1+W1= Q2 +W2
1. Evolution of man is believed to have taken
place in
a. Central America
b. Australia
c. Asia
d. Africa
2. Which is part of pectoral girdle?
a. Glenoid cavity
b. Sternum
c. Ilium
d. Acetabulum
3. Mitosis is
a. Karyokinesis
b. Cytokinesis
c. Reduction in chromosome number
d. Both a and b
4. Laurer‟s canal is found in
a. Amoeba
b. Paramecium
c. Fasciola
d. Hydra
5. Muramic acid is a constituent of cell walls
in
a. Green algae
b. Bacteria
c. Blue-green algae
d. Both b and c
6. In crocodilia, the teeth are
a. Thecodont
b. Unequal
c. Not used for mastication
d. All of the above
7. Theory proposed by Bridgas is
a. Sex reversal
b. Hormonal control of sex
c. Genic balance
d. Development of gynandromorph
8. Conversion of ATP to ADP releases
a. Energy
b. Enzyme
c. Hormone
d. Electricity
9. Dudesia shows
a. Transverse binary fission
b. Longitudinal binary fission
c. Oblique binary fission
d. No binary fission
10. A man made micro-ecosystem is
a. Plants grown in a pond
b. Crop fields
c. Tank formed naturally in court yard
d. Lake in a forest
Section G: ZOOLOGY
Rough WORK
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