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Read each question carefully.
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*The real test for KCET will be conducted in two days in Morning & Afternoon Sessions.
VERSION CODE SERIAL NUMBER
*** ******
QUESTION BOOKLET DETAILSMENTION YOUR
CET NUMBER
SUBJECTS MAXIMUM MARKS TOTAL DURATION MAXIMUM TIME FOR ANSWERING DAY & TIMING*
PHYSICS 60 80 MINUTES 70 MINUTES Day-2: 10.30-11.50 am
CHEMISTRY 60 80 MINUTES 70 MINUTES Day-2: 02.30-03.50 pm
MATHEMATICS 60 80 MINUTES 70 MINUTES Day-1: 02.30-03.50 pm
MOCK TEST FOR KMOCK TEST FOR KMOCK TEST FOR KMOCK TEST FOR KMOCK TEST FOR KCETCETCETCETCET-2016-2016-2016-2016-2016
(2)
Mock Test for KCET-2016 Complete Syllabus Test
Choose the correct answer :
1. In case of a complete absorption at normal
incidence of a parallel beam of light of intensity I, the
radiation pressure on the absorbing object is
(1)I
C(2)
2
I
C
(3)2I
C(4)
2
3
I
C
2. A beam of light is incident on a glass surface, at an
angle of incidence 60°. The reflected ray is polarised.
What will be angle of refraction for an angle of
incidence 45°?
(1)1 3
sin2
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
(2)1 3
cos2
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
(3)1 1
sin6
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
(4)1 1
sin3
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
3. The number of photons of wavelength 13.2 Å in 6 J
of energy is
(1) 2 × 1010 (2) 4 × 1016
(3) 6 × 1020 (4) 4 × 1020
4. Total number of electrons present in 90 g ice cube
is
(1) 5 mol (2) 10 mol
(3) 20 mol (4) 50 mol
5. A long magnetic needle of length 2L, magnetic
moment M and dipole-strength m units is broken into
two pieces at the middle. The magnetic moment and
pole-strength of each piece will be
(1) (M/2), m/2 (2) M, m/2
(3) M/2, m (4) M, m
6. Three identical bar magnets each of magnetic
moment M, are placed in the form of an equilateral
triangle with the north pole of one touching the south
pole of other. The net magnetic moment of the
system is:
N S
N
S
N
S
(1) 3 M (2)3
2
M
(3) 3 M (4) Zero
[ PHYSICS]
7. A wire of length L metre carrying a current I ampere
is bent in the form of a circle. Its magnetic moment
will be
(1)4
IL
(2)
2
4
IL
(3)
2 2
4
I L
(4)
2
4
LI
8. A coil of area A = 0.5 m2 is situated in a uniform
magnetic field B = 4.0 Wb/m2 and makes an angle
of 60° with respect to the magnetic field as shown
in figure. The value of the magnetic flux through the
area A would be equal to
A
60
B
n
(1) 2 weber (2) 1 weber
(3) 3 weber (4) (3/2) weber
9. An alternating emf 100 cos 100t volt is connected in
series to a resistance of 10 ohm and inductance
100 mH. What is the phase difference between the
current in the circuit and the emf?
(1) / 4 (2) Zero
(3) (4) / 2
10. An inductor of 10 mH and a capacitor of 16 F are
connected in the circuit as shown in figure. The
frequency of the power supply is equal to the
resonant frequency of the circuit. Which ammeter will
read zero ampere?
10 mH A1
A2
A3
16 F
0sinE E t
(1) A1
(2) A2
(3) A3
(4) None of these
(3)
Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for KCET-2016
11. Using an ac voltmeter, the PD in the electrical line
in a house is read to be 234 volt. If the line
frequency is known to be 50 cycle per second, the
equation for the line voltage is
(1) 165 sin (100 )t (2) 234 sin (100 )t
(3) 331sin (100 )t (4) 440 sin (100 )t
12. A fully charged capacitor has a capacitance C. It is
discharged through a small coil of resistance wire
embedded in a thermally insulated block of specific
heat capacity s and mass m. If the temperature of
the block is raised by T , the potential difference
V across the capacitance is :
(1)ms T
C
(2)
2ms T
C
(3)2mC T
s
(4)
mC T
s
13. Current in arm EB is
A B C
DEF
70V
10 1010
1010
10 10
(1) 2 A
(2) 3 A
(3) 1 A
(4) Zero
14. AB
CD
EF
GH
4
4
444
44
4
4
44
4
Ratio of resistances between AC and AB is
(1)9
7(2)
7
9
(3)5
7(4)
7
5
15. Sixteen resistors each of resistance 16 are
connected as shown in the figure. The net resistance
between A and B is
D C
BA
E F
GH
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 8 (4) 6
16. An electric kettle takes 4 A current at 220 V. How
much time will it take to boil 1 kg of water from
temperature 20°C? The temperature of boiling point
is 100°C.
(1) 12.6 min (2) 4.2 min
(3) 6.3 min (4) 8.4 min
17. The charge Q flowing through a resistance R varies
with time t as Q = at – bt2. The total heat produced
in R is
(1) a3R/6b (2) a3R/3b
(3) a3R/2b (4) a3R/b
18. A heater boils 1 kg of water in time t1 and another
heater boils the same water in time t2. If both the
heaters are connected in parallel, the combination
will boil the water in time
(1) 1 2
1 2
t t
t t (2) 1 2
1 2
t t
t t
(3)
2 2
1 2
1 2
t t
t t
(4)
2 2
1 2
1 2
t t
t t
19. A d.c. voltage with appreciable ripple expressed as
V = V1
+ V2 cos t is applied to a resistor R. The
amount of heat generated per second is given by
(1)
2 2
1 2
2
V V
R
(2)
2 2
1 22
2
V V
R
(3)
2 2
1 22
2
V V
R
(4) None of these
(4)
Mock Test for KCET-2016 Complete Syllabus Test
20. In the circuit shown in the adjoining diagram, the
current through
3 2
9V
2
2 2 2
68 4
2
(1) The 3 resistor is 0.50 A
(2) The 3 resistor is 0.25 A
(3) The 4 resistor is 0.50 A
(4) The 4 resistor is 0.25 A
21. Eleven equal wires each of resistance 4 are joined
to form an incomplete cube. The total resistance
between one end of vacant edge to the other end is
(1) 7/3 (2) 28/5
(3) 10/3 (4) 5/322. A circular ring is made by a wire as shown. Current
3 A is entering at A, then I1 and I
2 are
I2
3 AI1
120º 3 AA
B
(1) 3 A, 1 A (2) 1 A, 4 A
(3) 2 A, 4 A (4) 2 A, 1 A
23. Let be the charge density for a solid sphere of
radius R and total charge Q. For a point P inside
the sphere at a distance r from the centre of the
sphere, the magnitude of electric field is
(1)0
3
r (2)
03
(3)0
3 r
(4) Zero
24. The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by
V = –xy2 – yz2 – zx2. The electric field at that point
is
(1) �3 2
E i z j x y z k z ��
� �
(2) �3 2 2
2 3E i xy z j x k xz ��
� �
(3) � 2 2 22 3E i xy j x y k xz y
��� �
(4) �2 2 22 2 2E y xz i z xy j x yz k
��� �
25. A parallel plate capacitor with air has a capacitance
of 9 pF. The separation between its plates is d, the
space between the plates is now filled with two
dielectrics. One of the dielectric has dielectric
constant K1 = 2 and thickness d/3, while the other
has dielectric constant K2 = 4 and thickness 2d/3,
Capacitance of the capacitor is now
(1) 1.2 pF (2) 30 pF
(3) 27 pF (4) 20.25 pF
26. A spherical drop of capacitance 1 F is broken into
eight drops of equal radius. The capacity of each
small drop is
(1)1
F2 (2)
1F
4
(3)1
F8 (4)
1F
16
27. Net electrical dipole of the arrangement shown
–3q +q
+q +q
a
a a
a
(1)1
2
2
qa⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
(2)1
2
2
qa⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
(3) 2 2 qa (4)2
3
qa
28. Net E
��
at the centre of the arrangement shown is
–2q
+q
a
a
–2q+4q
a
–8q
a
a
+4q a
(1) 2
Kq
a(2) 2
2Kq
a
(3) 2
3Kq
a(4) 2
4Kq
a
(5)
Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for KCET-2016
29. Consider an infinite line charge of linear charge
density ' ' as shown. Then electric field at point P is
P
Q+
+
+
+
+
+
x
x
(1) Zero (2)K
x
(3)2K
x
(4)
2
K
x
30. Each plate of area A and separation d are arranged
as shown net capacitance between A and B is
A
B
(1)0
2
5
A
d
(2)
05
2
A
d
(3)0
3
5
A
d
(4)
05
3
A
d
31. The rest mass of an electron is m0; when it moves
with a velocity v = 0.6c, then its mass is
(1) m0
(2) 0
5
4m
(3) 0
4
5m (4) 2 m
0
32. On the annihilation of a paricle and its antiparticle,
the energy released is E. What is the mass of each
particle?
(1) E/c2 (2) E/(2c2)
(3) E/c (4) E/(2c)
33. A lamp radiates power P0 uniformly in all directions;
the peak value of electric field strength E0 at a
distance r from it is
(1)0
0 2
02
PE
cr
(2)0
0 2
02
PE
cr
(3)0
0 2
04
PE
cr
(4)0
0 2
08
PE
cr
34. A brilliant arc lamp delivers a normal luminous flux
of 100 W to a 10 cm2 absorber. The force due to
radiation pressure is
(1) 3.3 × 10–4 N (2) 16.5 × 10–7 N
(3) 3.3 × 10–6 N (4) 3.3 × 10–7 N
35. The de Broglie wavelength of a neutron at 927°C is
. What will be its wavelength at 27°C?
(1)2
(2)
(3) 2 (4) 436. An accident occurs in a laboratory in which a large
amount of a radioactive material, having a half life of
20 days, becomes embedded in the floor and walls
so that the level of radiation is 32 times the
permissible level. The laboratory can be safely
occupied after
(1) 20 days (2) 32 days
(3) 64 days (4) 100 days
37. If A = B = 1, then in terms of Boolean Algebra
A B equals
(1) A (2) B
(3) A or B (4) A B38. A sinusoidal voltage of r.m.s. value of 200 volt is
connected to the diode and capacitor C in the circuit
shown so that half-wave rectification occurs. The final
potential difference in volt across C is
(1) 500
CR.M.S.
200 Volt
(2) 200
(3) 283
(4) 141
39. In a transistor the base is made very thin and is
lightly doped with an impurity because
(1) To enable the collector to collect 95% of the
holes or electrons coming from the emitter side
(2) To enable the emitter to emit small number of
holes or electrons
(3) To save the transistor from higher current effects
(4) None of these
40. With an a.c. input from 50 Hz power line, the ripple
frequency is
(1) 50 Hz in the d.c. output of half-wave as well as
full-wave rectifier
(2) 100 Hz in the d.c. output of half-wave as well as
full-wave rectifier
(3) 50 Hz in the d.c. output of half-wave and
100 Hz in d.c. outupt of full-wave rectifier
(4) 100 Hz in the d.c. output of half-wave and 50 Hz
in d.c. outupt of full-wave rectifier
(6)
Mock Test for KCET-2016 Complete Syllabus Test
41. The second harmonic of an open pipe is equal to the
third harmonic of a closed organ pipe. The ratio of
their lengths lo : l
c is
(1) 4 : 3 (2) 2 : 3
(3) 5 : 4 (4) 5 : 9
42. The most elastic material among the following is
(1) Wood (2) Rubber
(3) Steel (4) Glass
43. A monoatomic gas undergoes an adiabatic process.
If the temperature is halved. The percentage change
in volume is nearly
(1) 183% (2) 100%
(3) 150% (4) 83%
44. I1 is the moment of inertia of a disc of mass ‘M’ and
radius ‘R’ about an axis passing through its centre
and perpendicular to its plane. I2 is the moment of
inertia of the disc about a tangent in the plane of the
disc. I1/I
2 is equal to
(1)1
5(2)
1
3
(3)2
5(4)
5
4
45. A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an
angle of indence 60°, then deviation produced by the
mirror is
(1) 30° (2) 120°
(3) 60° (4) None of these
46. An ojbect is placed between two plane mirrors if the
images formed are 7, then the angle of inclination
between mirrors is
(1) 15° (2) 30°
(3) 45° (4) 60°
47. A concave mirror of focal length ‘f’ produces ‘n’
times magnified real image of an object, then the
distance of object from mirror is
(1) (n – 1)f (2)1nf
n
(3)1nf
n
(4) (n + 1)f
48. The angle of a glass prism is 60°, minimum
deviation is 40°, then
(1) Refractive index is 60º
40º
(2) The maximum deviation is 100°
(3) The angle of incidence at minimum deviation is
50°
(4) The angle of incidence at minimum deviation is
90°
49. A lens behaves as a converging lens in air and as
a diverging lens in water. The refracive index of
material is
(1) 1 (2) 1.33
(3) > 1.33 (4) < 1.33
50. Effective or equivalent mass of a photon of wavelength
is
(1)h
(2)h
c
(3) 2
h
c
(4)
h
c
51. Which of the following numbers has the least
number of significant zeroes?
(1) 0.00300 (2) 1.73200
(3) 1.001 (4) 001.567320
52. The equation of trajectory of an oblique projectile is
given by y = 3x – 5x2, the horizontal range of the
projectile is
(1) 0.6 m (2) 1.6 m
(3) 0.4 m (4) 1.4 m
53. Two SHMs are given by the equations 1x 5sin t
and 2
x 5(sin t cos t) . The ratio of amplitudes
A1 : A
2 is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 :1
(3) 1: 2 (4) 1 : 2
54. The following graphs show isobaric, isothermic,
isochoric and adiabatic curves. Which one of them
represents an adiabatic process?
P
V
123
4
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 1 (4) 2
55. Which of the following is used to determine the
surface temperature of the sun?
(1) Stefan’s Law
(2) Wien’s displacement Law
(3) Newton’s Law of cooling
(4) Prevost’s theory of Heat exchanges
56. A body cools from 60°C to 30°C in 5 minutes. If the
temperature of the surroundings is 10°C, what will be
its temperature after 5 more minutes?
(1) 15°C (2) 18°C
(3) 10°C (4) 20°C
(7)
Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for KCET-2016
57. A satellite is rotating around the earth in a circular
orbit. What should be the percentage increase in its
velocity so that it escapes the earth’s gravitational
field?
(1) 100% (2) 50%
(3) 41% (4) 63%
58. A car and truck are moving with the same kinetic
energy. The same force acts on them and brings
them to a halt. Which of the following statements is
correct?
(1) Work done by the force on the car is more than
the work done on the truck
(2) Work done by the force on the truck is more
than the work done on the car
(3) Work done by the force on the car as well as
the truck is equal
(4) Work done by the force in both cases is zero
59. Two particles along a wave are separated by a
distance 3
[ =wavelength]. What is the phase
difference between these two particles?
(1) 0 (2)2
3
(3)2
(4)
3
60. Two waves given by y1 = 5 sin (kx – t) and
y2 = 4 sin(kx – t + ), pass through a point in
space. What is the ratio of maximum intensity to
minimum intensity observed at that point?
(1) 5 : 4 (2) 81 : 1
(3) 9 : 1 (4) 27 : 1
[ CHEMISTRY]
1. If 1 ml of water contains 10 drops then number of
molecules in a drop of water is
(1) 6.023 × 1023 molecules
(2) 1.344 × 1018 molecules
(3) 3.346 × 1021 molecules
(4) 4.346 × 1020 molecules
2. One mole of any substance contains 6.022 × 1023
atoms/molecules. Number of molecules of H2SO
4
present in 50 ml of 0.01 M H2SO
4 solution is
(1) 12.044 x 1020 molecules
(2) 6.022 x 1023 molecules
(3) 1 x 1023 molecules
(4) 3.0115 x 1020 molecules
3. The empirical formula and molecular mass of a
compound are CH2O and 180 g respectively. What
will be the molecular formula of the compound?
(1) C9H
18O
9(2) C
2H
4O
2
(3) C6H
12O
6(4) C
12H
22O
11
4. The number of radial nodes and angular nodes for
3p-orbital
(1) 3, 4 (2) 4, 2
(3) 1, 1 (4) 2, 1
5. The pair of ions having same electronic configuration
(1) Cr+3 ; Fe+3 (2) Fe+3; Mn+2
(3) Fe+3 ; Co+3 (4) Sc+3 ; Cr+3
6. Consider the isoelectronic species Na+ ; F– ; O2– and
Mg+2. The correct order of decreasing ionic radii is
(1) Na+ > Mg+2 > O2– > F–
(2) O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg+2
(3) Mg+2 > Na+ > F– > O2-
(4) Na+ > Mg+2 > F– > O2–
7. Which one of the following arrangements represents
the correct order of electron affinity of the given
atomic species?
(1) Cl < F < S < O (2) O < S < F < Cl
(3) S < O < Cl < F (4) F < Cl < O < S
8. Which of the following options represents the correct
order of Bond Energy?
(1) O2
– > O2 > O
2
+ (2) O2
– < O2 < O
2
+
(3) O2
– > O2 < O
2
+ (4) O2
– < O2 > O
2
+
9. Which of the following species has tetrahedral
geometry?
(1) BH4
– (2) NH2
–
(3) CO3
2– (4) H3O+
10. The types of hybridisation of Nitrogen in NO2
+ ; NO3
–
and NH4
+ respectively are expected to be
(1) sp ; sp3 & sp2 (2) sp ; sp2 & sp3
(3) sp2 ; sp & sp3 (4) sp2 ; sp3 & sp
11. Which one of the following pairs is iso-structural?
(1) BrCl3 & BCl
3(2) NO
3
–1 & NH3
(3) NF3 & BF
3(4) BF
4
– & NH4
+
(8)
Mock Test for KCET-2016 Complete Syllabus Test
12. The pair of species with the same bond order is
(1) NO & CN– (2) NO+ & CN–
(3) CN– & CN+ (4) O2
– & CN–
13. Pentagonal bipyramidal structure contains bond
angles of magnitudes
(1) 120° ; 90° ; 180° (2) 120° ; 72° ; 180°
(3) 72° ; 90° ; 120° (4) 72° ; 90° ; 180°
14. The weight of 350 ml of a diatomic gas at 0°C and
2 atm pressure is 1 gram. The weight of one atom
in grams is (N = Avogadro’s number)
(1) 16 N (2)32
N
(3)16
N(4) 32 N
15. The volume of gas is doubled from its original volume.
The specific heat will be
(1) Reduced to half
(2) Be doubled
(3) Remains constant
(4) Increased four times
16. Standard entropies of X2, Y
2 and XY
3 are 60, 40 and
50 J/K respectively for the reaction
2 2 3
1 3X Y XY
2 2 � , H = – 30kJ to be at
equilibrium, the temperature should be
(1) 500 K (2) 750 K
(3) 1000 K (4) 1250 K
17. 40g of NaOH is dissolved in excess of 6.3% by
mass of HNO3 solution of density 1.40 g/cm3. The
heat evolved in kJ for complete neutralization of base
is
(1) 5.73 (2) 57.3
(3) 79.8 (4) 22.8
18. 2 moles PCl5, 1 mole Cl
2 and 1 mole PCl
3 are taken
in 1 L flask. When equilibrium is setup PCl5 is 25%
dissociated into the products then KC is
(1) 4 moles L–1 (2) 1.5 mole L–1
(3) 1 mole L–1 (4) 0.17 mole L–1
19. Decrease in the pressure for the following equilibrium
( ) ( )2 2
H O l H O g� results in the
(i) Formation more H2O (l)
(ii) Formation more H2O (g)
(iii) Increase in boiling point of H2O(l)
(iv) Decrease in boiling point of H2O(l)
(1) (i), (ii) (2) (ii), (iv)
(3) (i), (iii) (4) (i), (iv)
20. The standard potentials (E°) for the half reactions are
as
Zn Zn2+ + 2e– E° = +0.76 V
Fe Fe2+ + 2e– E° = +0.41 V
The emf for the cell reaction
Fe2+ + Zn Zn2+ + Fe is
(1) –0.35 V (2) 0.35 V
(3) 1.17 V (4) –1.17 V
21. At 500 K, equilibrium constant KC for the following
reaction is 5
( ) ( ) ( )2 2
1 1H g I g HI g
2 2+ �
What would be the equilibrium constant KC
for the
reaction?
( ) ( ) ( )2 2
2HI g H g I g+�
(1) 0.04 (2) 0.4
(3) 25 (4) 2.5
22. pH of solution obtained by mixing 100 ml of a
solution of pH = 3 with 400 ml of a solution of
pH = 4 is
(1) 3 – log 2.8 (2) 7 – log 2.8
(3) 4 – log 2.8 (4) 5 – log 2.8
23. In the following reaction. Equivalent weight of H3PO
4
is
3 4 2 4 2H PO NaOH NaH PO H O
(1) 98 (2) 49
(3) 32.6 (4) 24.5
24. When sodium is kept in open air then it is finally
converted into
(1) NaOH (2) Na2CO
3
(3) Na2O (4) Na
2O
2
25. Metal carbonates decompose on heating to give
metal oxide and CO2. Which of the following metal
carbonates is thermally most stable?
(1) MgCO3
(2) CaCO3
(3) SrCO3
(4) BaCO3
26.2 2
High temp NaOH
4 2 O H flame HeatSiCl H O B C
The compound (C) is (B is an oxide)
(1) SiO2
(2) Si
(3) SiC (4) Na2SiO
3
(9)
Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for KCET-2016
27. Which of the following is most stable carbanion?
(1)
CH3
CH – 3
C
CH3
(2)
C H52
CH – 3
C:
CH3
(3)
CH2
(4)
28. Steam distillation is used for separation of _____
(1) Glycerol
(2) Chloroform and aniline
(3) Subtances which are steam volatile and
immiscible in water
(4) A mixture of of hexane and toluene
29.
Cl
Cl
2Br (leq)Dryether
hNa(excess) A B
(1)
Br
Br
(2)
Br
(3)
Br
(4)
Br
30. + CH – CH – CH – Cl3 2
CH3
3
Anhyd
AlClP
Product P is
(1)
CH 3
CH – CH – CH 2 3
(2)
CH 3
CH – C – CH 3 3
(3)
CH – – CH 2 3
CH – CH2 2
(4)
CH 3
CH – – CH 3
CH2
31. The number of linear carbon atoms in divinyl
acetylene is
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 5 (4) 4
32. , IUPAC name is
(1) 5 butyl, 6– methyl heptane
(2) 5 – (1 – methyl ethyl) nonane
(3) 2 – methyl – 3 – butyl heptane
(4) 5 – propyl nonane
33. CH2 = CH – CH = CH – CH
3
3
2
O
Zn/H O products.
Which of the following is the product of this
reaction?
(1) HCHO (2)
CHO
CHO
(3) CH3CHO (4) All of these
34. The total number of isomers (Structural and stereo)
possible for an organic compound with molecular
formula C4H
10O is
(1) 9 (2) 10
(3) 8 (4) 7
35. The most stable compound is
(1) (2)
(3) CH – 3 2
CH (4)
36. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(1) Substitution reaction — + Cl 2
Cl
Fe
(2) Addition reaction —
+ H O 2
H+
OH
(3) Elimination reaction — CH3Cl : CH
2
(4) Rearrangement reaction —
H+
CH = – CH2 3
C
CH3
CH3
CH – – CH3 3
C
OH
(10)
Mock Test for KCET-2016 Complete Syllabus Test
37. If NaCl is dopped with 10–4 mole% of SrCl2, the
concentration of cation vacancies will be
(1) 6.02 × 1022 mole–1
(2) 6.02 × 1015 mole–1
(3) 6.02 × 1017 mole–1
(4) 6.02 × 1014 mole–1
38. Which solution will have least Vapour pressure?
(1) 0.1 M BaCl2
(2) 0.1 M Urea
(3) 0.1 M Na2SO
4(4) 0.1 M Na
3PO
4
39. The osmotic pressure of a 5% (w/v) solution of cane
sugar at 150° C is
(1) 4 atm (2) 3.4 atm
(3) 5.078 atm (4) 2.4 atm
40. The molar conductivity of HCl, NaCl and CH3COONa
are 425; 188; 96 S cm2 mole–1 at 298 K. The molar
conductivity of CH3COOH at the same temperature
is ___ S cm2 mole–1
(1) 333 (2) 451
(3) 325 (4) 550
41. What is the current efficiency of an electrode
position of Cu metal from CuSO4 solution in which
9.80 g Cu is deposited by the passage of 5A current
for 2h _____ ? [Atomic Wt. of Cu = 63.5]
(1) 41.4 (2) 50%
(3) 75% (4) 82.8%
42. The standard emf of a galvanic cell reaction with
n = 2 is found to be 0.295 V at 25°C. The equilibrium
constant of the reaction would be
(1) 2.0 × 1011 (2) 4.0 × 1010
(3) 1.0 × 102 (4) 1.0 × 1010
43. In a zero order reaction for every 10° rise of
temperature, the rate is doubled. If the temperature
is increased from 10°C to 100°C, the rate of
reaction will become
(1) 256 times (2) 512 times
(3) 64 times (4) 128 times
44. If the rate of reaction between 2 reactants A and B
decreases by a factor 4, when the concentration of
reactant B is doubled. Then the order of this reaction
with respect to reactant B is
(1) –1 (2) –2
(3) 1 (4) 2
45. A first order reaction is 75% complete after 32 min.
When was 50% of the reaction completed?
(1) 16 min (2) 8 min
(3) 4 min (4) 32 min
46. What is the slope, if a graph of 0[A]
log[A]
versus time
is plotted for a first order reaction?
(1)K
2.303 (2)
K
2.303
(3)2.303
K (4)
2.303
K
47. Purple of cassius is a/an
(1) Colloidal sol of gold
(2) Colloidal sol of silver
(3) Colloidal sol of platinum
(4) Oxyacid of gold
48. Which of the following is not correct?
(1) Milk is a naturally occuring emulsion
(2) Gold sol is a lyophilic sol
(3) Physical adsorption decreases with rise in
temperature
(4) Chemical adsorption is unilayered
49. X is substance which combines chemically with
impurity assoicated with the ore to form easily
fusible mass ‘Y’. Here X and Y are respectively
(1) Flux ; Slag
(2) Slag ; Flux
(3) Gangue ; Slag
(4) Reductant ; Flux
50. Which of the following electrolytes is least effective
in coagulation of Fe(OH)3 sol?
(1) KBr (2) K2SO
4
(3) K2CrO
4(4) K
4[Fe(CN)
6]
51. In the equation 4M + 8CN– + 2H2O + O
2
4[M(CN)2]– + 4OH–. Identify the metal M.
(1) Cu (2) Fe
(3) Au (4) Zn
52. Which of the following element is present as the
impurity to the maximum extent in the pig iron?
(1) Carbon (2) Silicon
(3) Phosphorus (4) Manganese
53. The tendency of BF3; BCl
3 and BBr
3 to behave as
lewis acid decreases in the sequence
(1) BCl3 > BF
3 > BBr
3(2) BBr
3 > BCl
3 > BF
3
(3) BBr3 > BF
3 > BCl
3(4) BF
3 > BCl
3 > BBr
3
54. Which of the following pairs has the same size?
(1) Fe+2; Ni+2 (2) Zr+4; Ti+4
(3) Zr+4; Hf+4 (4) Zn+2; Hf4+
(11)
Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for KCET-2016
[ MATHEMATICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. If 3 2 1
( )( )
x
x a x b x a x b
. Then 1sin
b
a
⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
(1)3
(2)
6
(3)6
(4)
2
2. The positive integer n for which
2 3 4 102 2 3 2 4 2 ...... 2 2
n n
n
(1) 510 (2) 511
(3) 512 (4) 513
3. If , , are the roots of 3 22 3 4 0x x x , then
the value of 2 2
∑
(1) 7 (2) 5
(3) 3 (4) 0
4. 0 1 2 1...... ___(where represents )
rn n r c
C C C C C C n
(1) 2n (2) n + 1
(3) 2n–1 (4) 0
5. If ( ~ ) (~ )p r pvq is false. Then the truth values
of p, q and r are respectively
(1) F, F and T
(2) T, F and F
(3) T, F and T
(4) F, T and T
6. Let ( ) 121x
x xf x
e
, then f is
(1) An odd function
(2) An even function
(3) Periodic function
(4) None of these
55. Which of the following has highest magnetic
moment?
(1) Ti+3 (2) Sc3+
(3) Mn+2 (4) Zn+2
56. The electronic configuration of gadolinium
(At. No. 64) is
(1) [Xe] 4f3 5d5 6s2 (2) [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2
(3) [Xe] 4f6 5d1 6s2 (4) [Xe] 4f8 5d6 6s2
57. An alkyl chloride (A) on reaction with Mg in dry ether
followed by treatment with ethanol gave 2-methyl
butane. Give the possible structure of A
(1) (CH3)2 C(Cl) CH
2 – CH
3
(2) (CH3)2 CH – CH
2 – CH
2 – Cl
(3) CH3 – CH
2 – CH
2 – CH
2 – CH
2 – X
(4) Both (1) & (2)
58. In the following set of reactions m-bromobenzoic acid
gave a product D. Identify the product D.
Br
COOH
32
2
NHSOCl NaOH
BrB C D
(1)
NH2
COOH
(2)
Br
NH2
(3)
Br
CONH2
(4)
Br
SO NH2 2
59. If one strand of DNA has the sequence ATCGTATG,
the sequence in the complementary strand would be
(1) TAGCTTAC (2) TCACATAC
(3) TAGCATAC (4) TACGATAC
60. Of the following, which one is classified as polyester
polymer?
(1) Bakelite (2) Melamine
(3) Nylon-6, 6 (4) Terylene
(12)
Mock Test for KCET-2016 Complete Syllabus Test
7. The point of concurrency of the lines
(3 1) (2 3) (9 ) 0k x k y k is
(1) (1, 1)
(2) (1, 1)
(3) (3, 4)
(4) ( 2, 1)
8. The difference of slopes of the line represented by
2 2 2 2 22 sec (3 tan ) ( 1 tan ) 0y xy x is
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 8
9. If the equation 2 2 2
2 4 0a x xy y is to represent
a pair of distinct lines. Then a should lie in the
interval
(1) 1 1,2 2
(2)1 1,2 2
⎡ ⎤⎣ ⎦
(3) ( 1, 1) (4) [ 1, 1]
10. If , are the different values of x such that
cos sina x b x c . Then tan2
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
is
(1) a + b (2)b
a
(3) a b (4)a
b
11.2 2
cos 76 cos 16 cos76 cos16
(1)1
2(2) 0
(3)1
4
(4)
34
12. If cos cos cosA B C
a b c and 2 3a , then the
ratio between the area and perimeter of the triangle
is
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 1 : 3
13.3
0
tan sinlimx
x x
x
(1) 2 (2)1
2
(3) 3 (4)1
3
14. If 1( )
1 x
xf x
e
for 0, (0) 0x f , then at
0, ( )x f x is
(1) Continuous
(2) Discontinuous
(3) Not determined
(4) None
15. The number of different straight lines formed by 10
non-collinear points in a plane is _____
(1) 10C2
(2) 10P2
(3) 10 (4) 20
16.
2 3 47
1 1 1.......
log log logn n n
(1)
47
1
log n
(2)
(47)!
1
log n
(3)46!
log n
(4)( 1)
log2
n n
17. A value of x satisfying 150x 35(mod 31) is
(1) 14 (2) 22
(3) 24 (4) 12
18.2
10 3.4n n
k is divisible by 9 for all n N . Then
the least +ve integral value of k is
(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 7
(4) 1
(13)
Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for KCET-2016
19. If A and B are two square matrices, such that
AB = A; BA = B, then A and B are
(1) Idempotent matrix
(2) Diagonal matrix
(3) Scalar matrix
(4) Nilpotent matrix
20. If A is a 3 × 3 matrix and det(3 ) (det )A k A , then
k =
(1) 9 (2) 6
(3) 1 (4) 27
21. If
3
3
3
1 2
2 3 1 3 3 3 ,
2 3 2 1 2 1
x x x x
x x x x xA B
x x x x
then B =
(1) 12 (2) 12
(3) 0 (4) 7
22. If
2cos 1 0
( ) 2cos 12
0 1 2cos
x
f x x x
x
, then df
dx at
2x
is
(1) 2 (2) 2
(3) 1 (4) 8
23. If the matrix 2 2
,3 1
P Q⎡ ⎤
⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦
where P and Q are
symmetric matrix and skew symmetric matrix, then
Q =
(1)
0 5
5 0
⎡ ⎤⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦
(2)
0 51
5 02
⎡ ⎤⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦
(3)
5 0
0 5
⎡ ⎤⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦
(4)
5 01
0 52
⎡ ⎤⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦
24. If ( ) 5, ( ) 3O A O B , then the total number of
different injective functions, is _____
(1) 0
(2)5
3
(3) 5P3
(4) 5C3
25.4
0
log(1 tan ) ______x dx
∫
(1) log24
(2) log 28
(3) log22
(4) log216
26. The area of the parallelogram whose adjacent sides
are 3 2i j k and 3i k is
(1) 10 (2) 10 2
(3) 2 10 (4) 20
27. If the angle between the vectors ( ,3, 7)x and
( , ,4)x x is a.a acute. The range of x is
(1) ( 4, 7) (2) [ 4, 7]
(3) R [ 4, 7] (4) R ( 4, 7)
28. If , ,a b c are unit vectors such that 0a b c
then a b b c c a
(1)32
(2)32
(3) 23
(4) 12
29. If a is a vector then 2 22
a i a j a k
(1) 2a (2) 2
2a
(3) 23a (4) 2
4a
30. A tangent it is drawn to the circle
2 22 2 3 4 0x y x y at the point ‘A’ and it meets
the line 3x y at B(2, 1). Then, AB =
(1) 10 (2) 2
(3) 2 2 (4) 0
(14)
Mock Test for KCET-2016 Complete Syllabus Test
31. If x + y + K = 0 is a tangent to the circle x2 + y2 –
2x – 4y + 3 = 0, then K =
(1) 20 (2) –1, –5
(3) 2 (4) 4
32. The shortest distance from (–2, 14) to the circle
x2 + y2 – 6x – 4y – 12 = 0 is
(1) 8 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 1
33. The length of the intercept made by the circle
x2 + y2 + 10x – 12y – 13 = 0 on Y-axis is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 14
34. (cos , sin ), (sin , cos )A B are two points.
The locus of the centroid of triangle OAB, where ‘O’
is the origin is
(1) x2 + y2 = 3
(2) 9x2 + 9y2 = 2
(3) 2x2 + 2y2 = 9
(4) 3x2 + 3y2 = 2
35. If P is a point on the ellipse 9x2 + 36y2 = 324 whose
foci are S and S1, then PS + PS1 is
(1) 9 (2) 12
(3) 27 (4) 36
36. The equation of the directrix to the parabola
y2 – 2x – 6y – 5 = 0 is
(1) 2x + 15 = 0 (2) x + 5 = 0
(3) 2x + 3 = 0 (4) x + 2 = 0
37. The equation of the normal to the hyperbola
x2 – 4y2 = 5 at (3, –1) is
(1) 4x + 3y – 15 = 0
(2) 4x – 3y – 15 = 0
(3) 4x – 3y + 5 = 0
(4) 4x + 4y + 15 = 0
38. The area of the auxiliary circle of 2x2 + 3y2 = 6 is
(1) 3 (2) 2
(3) (4) 4
39.–1 –1
1 1cos 2cos sin
5 5
⎡ ⎤⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎢ ⎥⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠⎣ ⎦
(1)1
5(2)
2 6
5
(3)1
5 (4)
6
5
40. Sec2 (tan–1 2) + cosec2 (cot–1 3)
(1) 5 (2) 10
(3) 15 (4) 20
41. The general solution of sin2x – 2 cosx + 1
4 = 0 is
(1) 22
n (2)
2n
(3) 23
n (4) None of these
42. The modulus amplitude form of 3 i is
(1)5
26
cis
(2) 26
cis
(3)5
6cis
(4)
6cis
43. If 4
2z
z
, then the greatest value of |z| is
(1) 5
(2) 5 1
(3) 5 1
(4) 1 5
44.....y x x x , then
dy
dx
(1)1
y(2)
1
x
(3)1
2x y (4)1
2 1y
(15)
Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test for KCET-2016
45. The function f(x) = –1
sin (tan )x is not differentiable at
(1) x = 0 (2)6
x
(3)6
x (4)
4x
46. Let f(x) = 1 1cos 2cos 3sin
13x x
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
, then f(0.5)
(1) 0.5
(2) 1
(3) 0
(4) –1
47. If ( ) ( ) ( ) ,f x y f x f y x y R , then f(x) =
(1) 0
(2) f(0)
(3) f(0)
(4) f(x).f(0)
48. If f(x) = f(x) + f(x) + f(x) + ......... and f(0) = 1,
then f(x) =
(1) 2
x
e
(2) ex
(3) e2x
(4) e4x
49. The function y = 2x3 – 3x2 – 12x + 8 has minimum
at x =
(1) –1 (2) 2
(3)1
2 (4)
3
2
50. If the rate of decrease of
2
2 52
xx is twice the
decrease of x, then x =
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1
51. The length of subtangent to x2 + xy + y2 = 7 at
(1, –3) is
(1) 5 (2)1
5
(3)3
5(4) 15
52. The two curves x = y2, xy = a3 cut orthogonally at a
point, then a2 =
(1)1
3(2)
1
2
(3) 2 (4) 3
53. The sides of the greatest rectangle that can be
inscribed in
2 2
2 21
x y
a b are
(1) 2, 2a b (2) ,a b
(3) a, b (4) None of these
54. 3
( 1)
( 1)
x
x edx
x
∫
(1)1
x
e
x (2) 21
x
e
x
(3) 31
x
e
x (4)1
x
xe
x
55. The value of the integral
6
3 9
xdx
x x ∫ is
(1) 2
(2) 1
(3)1
2
(4)3
2
56.
2
2
cos
1x
xdx
e
∫ =
(1) 1 (2) 0
(3) (4)4
(16)
Mock Test for KCET-2016 Complete Syllabus Test
� � �
57. 4
0
1
1dx
x
∫ =
(1)2
(2)
2
(3)2 2
(4) None of these
58. The area bonded by the curves y = x and y = x3 is
(1)1
4(2)
1
6
(3)1
12(4)
1
2
59. The degree of differential equation
3
22 22
2 2
d y dy d yK
dxdx dx
⎡ ⎤⎛ ⎞ ⎢ ⎥⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦
is
(1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 1
60. The solution of (x + y + 1) dy
dx = 1 is
(1) y = (x + 2) + cex
(2) y = –(x + 2) + cex
(3) x = –(y + 2) + cey
(4) x = (y + 2)2 + cey
(17)
MOCK TESTMOCK TESTMOCK TESTMOCK TESTMOCK TEST
forforforforforKKKKKCET - 2016CET - 2016CET - 2016CET - 2016CET - 2016
ANSWERS
Physics
1. (1)
2. (3)
3. (2)
4. (4)
5. (3)
6. (4)
7. (2)
8. (2)
9. (1)
10. (3)
11. (3)
12. (2)
13. (3)
14. (1)
15. (2)
16. (3)
17. (1)
18. (2)
19. (2)
20. (4)
21. (2)
22. (4)
23. (1)
24. (4)
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
25. (3)
26. (1)
27. (3)
28. (3)
29. (3)
30. (2)
31. (2)
32. (2)
33. (2)
34. (4)
35. (3)
36. (4)
37. (3)
38. (3)
39. (1)
40. (3)
41. (1)
42. (3)
43. (1)
44. (3)
45. (3)
46. (3)
47. (3)
48. (3)
49. (4)
50. (2)
51. (4)
52. (1)
53. (3)
54. (4)
55. (2)
56. (2)
57. (3)
58. (3)
59. (2)
60. (2)
(18)
MOCK TESTMOCK TESTMOCK TESTMOCK TESTMOCK TEST
forforforforforKKKKKCET - 2016CET - 2016CET - 2016CET - 2016CET - 2016
ANSWERS
Chemistry
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
1. (3)
2. (4)
3. (3)
4. (3)
5. (2)
6. (2)
7. (2)
8. (2)
9. (1)
10. (2)
11. (4)
12. (2)
13. (4)
14. (3)
15. (3)
16. (2)
17. (1)
18. (2)
19. (2)
20. (2)
21. (1)
22. (3)
23. (1)
24. (2)
25. (4)
26. (4)
27. (4)
28. (3)
29. (3)
30. (2)
31. (4)
32. (2)
33. (4)
34. (3)
35. (4)
36. (4)
37. (3)
38. (4)
39. (3)
40. (1)
41. (4)
42. (4)
43. (2)
44. (2)
45. (1)
46. (2)
47. (1)
48. (2)
49. (1)
50. (1)
51. (3)
52. (1)
53. (2)
54. (3)
55. (3)
56. (2)
57. (4)
58. (2)
59. (3)
60. (4)
(19)
MOCK TEST PAPERMOCK TEST PAPERMOCK TEST PAPERMOCK TEST PAPERMOCK TEST PAPER
forforforforforKKKKKCET - 2016CET - 2016CET - 2016CET - 2016CET - 2016
ANSWERS
Mathematics
1. (3)
2. (4)
3. (1)
4. (1)
5. (2)
6. (2)
7. (3)
8. (2)
9. (1)
10. (2)
11. (4)
12. (1)
13. (2)
14. (1)
15. (1)
16. (2)
17. (3)
18. (1)
19. (1)
20. (4)
21. (1)
22. (1)
23. (2)
24. (1)
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
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