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Page-1 KUKATPALLY CENTRE: # 22-97, Plot No.1, Opp. Patel Kunta Huda Park, Vijaynagar Colony, Hyderabad - 500 072. Ph.: 040-64601123 MIYAPUR CENTRE: Above Sai Motors Maruthi Showroom, Allwyn X Road, Miyapur, Hyderabad. INTERNAL TEST SECOND YEAR 2018-20 REVISION FULL TEST-1 Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 300 Instructions to the Candidates I. This Test Booklet consists of 75 questions. Use Blue/Black ball Point Pen only for writing particulars and bubbling of OMR. II. Each subject (Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics) have 25 Questions. Total 75 Questions 20 multiple Choice Questions, 5 Numerical value Questions. III. Each subject have 20 Questions in Part–I and 5 Questions in Part–II like below table: Multiple Choice Questions Numerical Value Questions Mathematics 01 – 20 Mathematics 21 – 25 Physics 26 – 45 Physics 46 – 50 Chemistry 51 – 70 Chemistry 71 – 75 III. Attempt all questions. IV. Use of calculator/logarithmic table is not permitted. Don’t write / mark your answers in this question booklet. If you mark the answers in question booklet, you will not be allowed to continue the exam. NAME: ENROLLMENT NO.:
Transcript

Page-1

KUKATPALLY CENTRE: # 22-97, Plot No.1, Opp. Patel Kunta Huda Park, Vijaynagar Colony, Hyderabad - 500 072. Ph.: 040-64601123 MIYAPUR CENTRE: Above Sai Motors Maruthi Showroom, Allwyn X Road, Miyapur, Hyderabad.

INTERNAL TEST

SECOND YEAR 2018-20

REVISION FULL TEST-1

Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 300

Instructions to the Candidates I. This Test Booklet consists of 75 questions.

Use Blue/Black ball Point Pen only for writing particulars and bubbling of OMR.

II. Each subject (Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics) have 25 Questions. Total 75 Questions

20 multiple Choice Questions, 5 Numerical value Questions.

III. Each subject have 20 Questions in Part–I and 5 Questions in Part–II like below table:

Multiple Choice Questions Numerical Value Questions

Mathematics 01 – 20 Mathematics 21 – 25

Physics 26 – 45 Physics 46 – 50

Chemistry 51 – 70

Chemistry 71 – 75

III. Attempt all questions.

IV. Use of calculator/logarithmic table is not permitted.

Don’t write / mark your answers in this question booklet. If you mark the answers in question booklet, you will not be allowed to continue the exam.

NAME:

ENROLLMENT NO.:

Page-2

KUKATPALLY CENTRE: # 22-97, Plot No.1, Opp. Patel Kunta Huda Park, Vijaynagar Colony, Hyderabad - 500 072. Ph.: 040-64601123 MIYAPUR CENTRE: Above Sai Motors Maruthi Showroom, Allwyn X Road, Miyapur, Hyderabad.

Multiple Choice Questions (01–20):

1. If 2

3 21

dxI ,

2x 9x 12x 4

then

(A) 1 1

I2 2 (B)

1 1I

26 (C)

1 1I

2 2 6 (D)

1 1I

3 2 2

2. In a ABC, if two sides b and c and an angle B are given.

Statement–1 : Let b = 5 cm, c = 3 cm and B 60 . Total number of possible triangles are 2. Statement–2 : If c sinB < b < c and B is an acute angle, then there are two possible values of C . (A) Statement–1 is true, statment–2 is true but statement–1 is not the correct explanation for statement–2 (B) Statement–1 is true, statement–2 is false (C) Statement–1 is false, statement–2 is true (D) Both statements are true, and statement–1 is the true explanation of statement–2

3. If n 2 3 n0 1 2 3 n1 x C C x C x C x .... C x , then the value of n

0 1 2 nC 3C 5C ..... 1 2n 1 C is

(A) nn 1 2 (B) 0 (C) n 11 2n 2 (D) n1 n 2

4. Consider a system of equations ax + by = 0, cx + dy = 0, where a,b, c, d 0, 1 .

Statement–1 : The probability that system of equations has a solution is 1.

Statement–2 : The probability that the system of equations has a unique solution is 3

8.

(A) Statement–1 is true, statement–2 is true but statement–1 is not the correct explanation for statement–2 (B) Statement–1 is true, statement–2 is false (C) Statement–1 is false, statement–2 is true (D) Both statements are true, and statement–1 is the true explanation of statement–2 5. The mean and variance of a binomial variable X are 2 and 1 respectively. Then, the probability that X takes

values greater than 1 is

(A) 15

16 (B)

11

16 (C)

5

16 (D)

1

16

6. If

1 1 2

A 0 2 1

1 0 2

and 3A aA I bA I , where a, b are integers and I is a 3 × 3 unit matrix then value of

a b is equal to

(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7

7. Let p 31

x sin x x , x 0f x x

0, x 0

then complete set of values of p for which f x is continuous at x = 0 is

(A) 2, (B) 3, (C) 4, (D) 2,

8. The statement p q p q q is

(A) tautology (B) contradiction (C) open statement (D) neither tautology nor contradiction

9. Number of solutions of the equation x

2

0

6 t 1 ln t dt 5 x , x R 0 is

(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 3

Page-3

KUKATPALLY CENTRE: # 22-97, Plot No.1, Opp. Patel Kunta Huda Park, Vijaynagar Colony, Hyderabad - 500 072. Ph.: 040-64601123 MIYAPUR CENTRE: Above Sai Motors Maruthi Showroom, Allwyn X Road, Miyapur, Hyderabad.

10. The range of value of ‘p’ so that both the roots of the equation 2p 5 x 2px p 4 0 are positive,

one is less than 2 and other is lying between 2 and 3, is

(A) 49

, 244

(B) 5, (C) 49, 4 ,

4

(D) none of these

11. The solution of 5 dyy x y x 0

dx is

(A) 54x 1 x

C4 5 y

(B)

45x 1 xC

5 4 y

(C) 5 4x x

Cy 4

(D) none of these

12. 1 1 1 1sin sin100 cos cos100 tan tan100 cot cot100 equals to

(A) 100 31 (B) 100 32 (C) 200 63 (D) none of these

13. Let I be the set of positive integers. R is a relation on the set I given by 2

aR a, b I I : log

b

is a

non–negative integer}, then R is (A) neither symmetric, not transitive but reflexive (B) reflexive, transitive but not symmetric (C) neither reflexive, non transitive but symmetric (D) equivalence relation 14. If lines 3x + 2y = 10 and –3x + 2y = 10 are tangents at the extremities of latus rectum of an ellipse whose

centre is origin, then the length of latus rectum of ellipse is

(A) 16

3 (B) 3 5 (C) 4 5 (D)

100

27

15. If

227 / 2

9 / 2

cosecx cot xcosec x 1dx cosecx cot x C

11cosecx cot x

(where C is constant of integration and N ), then is

(A) 5 (B) 7

2 (C) 10 (D) 7

16. Let f(x) be a function continuous on [1, 2] and differentiable on (1, 2) satisfying

f 1 2, f 2 3 and f x 1 x 1, 2 . Define x

1

g x f t dt x 1, 2 , then the greatest value of

g(x) on [1, 2] is

(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 5

2 (D)

3

2

17. Maximum area of a parallelogram inscribed in a triangle ABC is (given A is also one of the vertex of

parallelogram) equal to (where symbols of have their usual meaning in ABC )

(A) bc

sin A8

(B) bc

sinA2

(C) bc

sinA4

(D) bc

sin A3

18. The plane 4 x y z is rotated through 90 about its line of intersection with the plane 2 4 x y z

and equation in new position is 0 Ax By Cz D where A,B,C are least positive integers and 0D

then

(A) 10 D (B) 20 ABC (C) 0 A B C D (D) 10 A B C 19. 7 balls (distinct) are to the placed in 7 boxes (distinct) and 4 of the balls can not fit into 2 small boxes. The

number of ways of arranging one ball in each of the boxes is (A) 380 (B) 1740 (C) 720 (D) 205

Page-4

KUKATPALLY CENTRE: # 22-97, Plot No.1, Opp. Patel Kunta Huda Park, Vijaynagar Colony, Hyderabad - 500 072. Ph.: 040-64601123 MIYAPUR CENTRE: Above Sai Motors Maruthi Showroom, Allwyn X Road, Miyapur, Hyderabad.

20. The value of 2 2

n 2

n

1 n n 2

is equal to

(A) 5

4 (B) 1 (C)

5

16 (D)

1

4

Numerical Value Type Questions (21–25): 21. If the reflection of the parabola 2y 4 x 1 in the line x y 2 is the curve 2Ax By x , then the value

of A B is

22. If a 2, b 3 and c 4

then 2 2 2

a b b c c a 12K , K, N

then minimum value of

is equal to

23. If z 1 w 4

2 and 2,z 4 w 1

then the value of

max minz w z w is

24. Find the area enclosed by the solution set of x y 2. where represent greatest integer function

of x.

25. A variable line ax + by +c = 0, where a, b, c are in A.P., is normal to a circle 2 2x y , which is

orthogonal to circle 2 2x y 4x 4y 1 0 . The value of is equal to

Multiple Choice Questions (26–45): 26. A spherical portion has been removed from a solid sphere

having a charge distributed uniformly in its volume as shown in figure. The electric field inside the empty space is (A) zero everywhere (B) non zero and uniform (C) non uniform (D) zero only at its center

27. Find the equivalent capacitance between A and B.

[Assume each conducting plate is have same dimensions

and neglect the thickness of the plate, 0A7 F

d

, where A

is area of plates and A >>d] (A) 7 F (B) 11 F

(C) 12 F (D) 15 F 28. In the potentiometer arrangement (figure), the driving cell A

has emf and internal resistance r. The emf of the cell B to be rechecked has emf / 2 and internal resistance 2r. The potentiometer wire CD is 100 cm long. If balance is obtained the length CJ l is

(A) 50 cml (B) 50 cml >

(C) 50 cml < (D) Balance cannot be obtained

Page-5

KUKATPALLY CENTRE: # 22-97, Plot No.1, Opp. Patel Kunta Huda Park, Vijaynagar Colony, Hyderabad - 500 072. Ph.: 040-64601123 MIYAPUR CENTRE: Above Sai Motors Maruthi Showroom, Allwyn X Road, Miyapur, Hyderabad.

29. A current carrying wire is placed in the grooves of an insulating semicircular disc of radius ‘R’, as shown in figure. The current enters at point A and leaves from point B. Determine the magnetic field at point D.

(A) 0 i

8 R 3

(B) 0 i

4 R 3

(C) 03 i

4 R

(D) none of these

30. The magnetic field in a region is given by 0

x ˆB B 1 ka

. A square loop of edge length d is placed with its

edge along the x–and y–axes. The loop is moved with a constant velocity 0ˆv v i

. The emf induced in the

loop is

(A) 2

0 0v B d

a (B)

30 0

2

v B d

a (C) 0 0v B d (D) zero

31. In the circuit shown in figure, CX 100 , LX 200 and

R 100 . The effective current through the source is

(A) 2 A (B) 2 2 A

(C) 0.5 A (D) 0.4 A 32. A convex lens of focal length 20 cm and another plano

convex lens of focal length 40 cm are placed co–axially (see figure). The plano convex lens is silvered on plane surface. What should be the distance d (in cm) so that final image of the object ‘O’ is formed on O itself ?

(A) 10 cm (B) 40 cm (C) 20 cm (D) 80 cm 33. In YDSE, find the thickness of a glass slab 1.5 which should be placed before the upper slit S1 so

that the central maximum now lies at a point where 5th bright fringe was lying earlier (before inserting the slab). Wavelength of light used is 5000 Å .

(A) 65 10 m (B) 63 10 m (C) 610 10 m (D) 55 10 m

34. If an X–ray tube operates at the voltage of 10 kV, find the ratio of the de Broglie wavelength of the incident

electrons to the shortest wavelength of X–rays produced. The specific charge of electron is 111.8 10 C kg .

(A) 1 (B) 0.1 (C) 1.8 (D) 1.2 35. There are n number of radioactive nuclei in a sample that undergoes beta decay. If from the sample, n

number of particles are emitted very 2 s, then half–life of nuclei is

(A) n / 2 (B) 0.693 2n /n (C) 0.693 ln 2n /n (D) 0.693 n /n

36. The permeability of material is 0.9998. It is (A) diamagnetic (B) paramagnetic (C) Ferro magnetic (D) anti ferro magnetic 37. The period of small oscillations of a magnet at a place is 4 sec. When it is magnetized further so that the

pole strength becomes 4 times, the period will be (A) 1/2 sec (B) 1 sec (C) 2 sec (D) 4 sec 38. The resistance of a dipole in forward biased condition is 10

ohm and infinity in the reverse biased condition. The current in the circuit is (A) 0.2 A (B) 0.12 A (C) 0.25 A (D) 0.15 A

Page-6

KUKATPALLY CENTRE: # 22-97, Plot No.1, Opp. Patel Kunta Huda Park, Vijaynagar Colony, Hyderabad - 500 072. Ph.: 040-64601123 MIYAPUR CENTRE: Above Sai Motors Maruthi Showroom, Allwyn X Road, Miyapur, Hyderabad.

39. In the figure shown the equivalent resistance between A and B is (A) 3 ohm (B) 4.5 ohm (C) 9 ohm (D) 18 ohm

40. The process of translating the information contained by the low base band signal to high frequencies is

called (A) Detection (B) Modulation (C) Amplification (D) Demodulation 41. An eye can distinguish between two points of an object if they are separated by more than 0.22 mm when

the object is placed at 25 cm from the eye. The object is now seen by a compound microscope having a 20 D objective separated by a distance of 20 cm. The final image is formed at 25 cm from the eye. What is the minimum separation between two points of the object which can now be distinguished ?

(A) 0.01 mm (B) 0.02 mm (C) 0.03 mm (D) 0.04 mm 42. An unpolarised beam of light is incident on a group of four polarizing sheets, which are arranged in such a

way that the characteristic direction of each polarizing sheet makes an angle of 30° with that of the preceding sheet. What fraction of light is transmitted ?

(A) 1

2 (B)

3

128 (C)

27

64 (D)

27

128

43. The first diffraction minima due to a single slit diffraction is at 30 for a light of wavelength 5000 Å .

The width of the slit is (A) 5 × 10–5 cm (B) 41.0 10 cm (C) 52.5 10 cm (D) 51.25 10 cm

44. A dip circle is kept in the vertical plane, that plane. Makes an angle of 37° with the Magnetic meridian.

Then the reading of the dip circle (angle of dip) in that vertical plane is 53°. Now the dip circle is rotated

and kept in the Magnetic meridian then the reading of the dip circle (angle of dip) is 3

tan374

(A) 1tan 3 / 5 (B) 1cot 3 / 5 (C) 1cot 16 /15 (D) 1cot 15 /16

45. A 2 kg object attached to a spring moves without friction and is driven by an external force given by

F 3sin 2 t newton. The force constant of the spring is 20 Nm–1. The amplitude of the motion is

(A) 7.09 cm (B) 5.09 cm (C) 6.09 cm (D) 4.09 cm Numerical Value Questions (46–50):

46. Heat 3

Q RT2

is supplied to 4 moles of an ideal diatomic gas at temperature T, which remains constant.

Number of moles of the gas dissolved into atom is 47. A ring of radius r made of wire of density is rotated about

a stationary vertical axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to the plane of the ring as shown in the figure. Determine the angular velocity (in rad/s) of ring at which the ring breaks. The wire breaks at tensible stress . Ignore gravity. Take / 4 and r 1m .

48. A horizontal force F = 14 N acts at the centre of mass of a

sphere of mass m = 1 kg. If the sphere rolls without sliding, find the frictional force (in N).

Page-7

KUKATPALLY CENTRE: # 22-97, Plot No.1, Opp. Patel Kunta Huda Park, Vijaynagar Colony, Hyderabad - 500 072. Ph.: 040-64601123 MIYAPUR CENTRE: Above Sai Motors Maruthi Showroom, Allwyn X Road, Miyapur, Hyderabad.

49. A bullet is fired on a fixed target. It penetrates inside the target through distance d = 3.75 cm and then stops, mass of the bullet is m = 1 kg and of the target is M = 4 kg. Now an identical bullet moving with the same velocity is fired on the identical target which is placed at rest on a frictionless horizontal surface. Then find the distance (in cm) to which the bullet will penetrate inside the target ?

50. Two sound sources are moving away from a stationary observer in opposite directions with velocities V1

and V2 (V1 > V2). The frequency of both the sources is 900 Hz. V1 and V2 are both quite less than speed of sound, V = 300 m/s. Find the value of (V1 – V2) so that beat frequency observed by observer is 9 Hz. (in m/s)

Multiple Choice Questions (51–70): 51. The standard enthalpy of formation of NH3 is –46.0 kJ mol–1. If the enthalpy of formation of H2 from its

atoms is –436 kJ mol–1 and that of N2 is –712 kJ mol–1, the average bond enthalpy of N–H bond in NH3 is (A) –964 kJ mol–1 (B) +352 kJ mol–1 (C) + 1056 kJ mol–1 (D) –1102 kJ mol–1

52. Increased concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere is responsible for (A) green house effect (B) Acid rain (C) Lack of photosynthesis (D) Death of aquatic organisms 53. BOD value of pure water is (A) less than 5ppm (B) 10 ppm (C) zero (D) greater than 17ppm 54. Separation of substances by column chromatography is based on (A) selective adsorption (B) selective absorption (C) Difference in the vapour pressure of the compound (D) different in their chemical nature 55. Which one of the following has an optical isomer ?

(A) 2

3 2Zn en NH

(B) 3

3Co en

(C) 3

2 4Co H O en

(D) 2

2Zn en

(en = ethylenediamine) 56. Calculate pH of a solution containing 0.1 mol of CH3COOH, 0.2 mol of CH3COONa & 0.05 ml of NaOH in

1Lt. ( Kap of CH3COOH = 4.74)

(A) 4.74 (B) 5.04 (C) 5.44 (D) 5.20 57. Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin ? (A) vitamin O (B) vitamin A (C) vitamin C (D) vitamin K 58. During estimation of nitrogen present in an organic compound by kjeldahl’s method. The ammonia evolved

from 0.5 gr of the compound in Kjeldahl’s estimation of nitrogen, neutralized 10 mL of 1M H2SO4. Find out the percentage of nitrogen in the compound.

(A) 44% (B) 56% (C) 64% (D) 36% 59. For which one of the following properties of halogens, the sequence F > Cl > Br > I holds good? (A) Boiling point (B) Electron affinity (C) Electronegativity (D) Atomic radius

Page-8

KUKATPALLY CENTRE: # 22-97, Plot No.1, Opp. Patel Kunta Huda Park, Vijaynagar Colony, Hyderabad - 500 072. Ph.: 040-64601123 MIYAPUR CENTRE: Above Sai Motors Maruthi Showroom, Allwyn X Road, Miyapur, Hyderabad.

60. Product is

(A) – lactone (B) hemiacetal (C) – lactide (D) epoxide

61. Which of the following statement is not correct? (A) The value of Henry’s constant KH is greater for gases with higher solubility (B) The value of molal depression constant depends on the nature of solvent (C) Relative lowering of vapour pressure is a dimension less quantity (D) The value of Henry’s constant, KH increases with increase in temperature 62. The products formed by reaction between H2S & Fluorine are (A) SF4 & HF (B) SF6 & HF (C) SF6, S & HF (D) SF2 & HF

63. For the process H2O (1 bar, 373k) H2O(g) (1 bar, 373k), the thermodynamic parameters are

(A) G = –ve, S = +ve (B) G = 0, S = +ve

(C) G = 0, S = –ve (D) G = +ve, s = 0 64. Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by Van Arkel process? (A) Ag and Au (B) Ni & Fe (C) Ga & In (D) Zn & Ti 65. Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide is a (A) ester of glycerol (B) anionic detergent (C) cationic detergent (D) soap 66. For which of the following solution there is maximum difference between the observed and calculated

colligative properties? (A) Toluene + Benzene (B) Carbon disulphide + Benzene (C) Benzoic acid + Benzene (D) Chlorobenzene + Benzene 67. The compound that causes general antidepressant action on the central nervous system belongs to the

class of (A) analgesics (B) tranquillizers (C) narcotic analgesics (D) antihistamines 68. The standard electrode potential of two half reactions are given below:

2 o

3 2 o

Mn Mn; E 0.42 V

Mn Mn ; E 0.82 V

If Mn2+, Mn3+ and Mn are kept together (A) the concentration of Mn3+ will increase (B) the concentration of Mn3+ will decrease (C) the mass of Mn will increase (D) the concentration of Mn2+ will decrease

69. 2 2CO g Cl g COCl g

Equal moles of CO, Cl2 and COCl2 gases are present at the above equilibrium which exists at 6 atm and at a certain temperature. What is the value of Kp in atm unit?

(A) 2 (B) 1

2 (C)

1

4 (D) 4

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KUKATPALLY CENTRE: # 22-97, Plot No.1, Opp. Patel Kunta Huda Park, Vijaynagar Colony, Hyderabad - 500 072. Ph.: 040-64601123 MIYAPUR CENTRE: Above Sai Motors Maruthi Showroom, Allwyn X Road, Miyapur, Hyderabad.

70. Two ice cubes are pressed over each other and unite to form one cube. Which force is responsible for holding them together?

(A)Vander Waals force (B) Covalent attraction (C) Hydrogen bond formation (D) Dipole - dipole attraction

Numerical Value Type Questions (71–75): 71. In how many of the given compounds, Kjeldahl’s method cannot be used for estimation of nitrogen ?

6 5 2 6 5 6 5 6 5 3

O||

C H CONH , Pyridine, C H N N C H , C H NH C CH ,

NO2

,

NH2

72. Consider the following set of reactions :

4 3Z LiAlH X LiF AlF

2 2X H O Y H

2 2 3 2X O B O H O

Find the total number of atoms present in one molecule of X.

73. The total number of and particles emitted in the nuclear reaction 238 21492 82U Pb is

74. Number of compounds which liberate ammonia on reaction with 4NH Cl ?

75. How many compounds will give positive iodoform test but negative Tollen’s test ?

Space for rough work


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