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BIOSCI 101

THE UNIVERSITY OF AUCKLAND

FIRST SEMESTER, 2010

Campus: City

BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES

Essential Biology:

From Genomes to Organisms

(Time Allowed: TWO hours)

INSTRUCTIONS

Multiple Choice Questions:

Multiple Choice Questions:

Use the Teleform Sheet.

Use pencilsonly. Shade the rectangle completely.

Do not cross out mistakes. ERASE them completely.

Complete family name, rst name, initial and ID Number. Do not

complete your stream. Fill spaces from left to right.

Your code is 26039039.Check this is correct on your teleform.

Failure to enter the version code or other details correctly will

mean your MCQ cannot be marked.

Short Answers: Print your name and I.D. at the top of EVERY ANSWER PAGE

Record your answers in spaces provided.

All questions must be attempted.

Exam Format: (Total marks = 100)

ALL QUESTIONS MUST BE ATTEMPTED.

Multiple Choice Questions:

Section A: Evolution 20 marks

Section B: Biochemistry 25 marks

Short Answers:

Section C: Evolution 30 marks

Section D: Biochemistry 25 marks

Turn in the teleform answer sheet and short answer sheets (Sections C & D)

Retain your Multiple Choice question pages (sections A & B)

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SECTION A EVOLUTION

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS(20 marks)

(Recommended time 30 minutes)

Choose the CORRECT answer from the alternatives provided.

Question 1: What is the most important missingevidence or observation in Darwins theory

of 1859?

1. The source of genetic variation.

2. Evidence that some organisms became extinct.

3. Observation that competition exists in populations.

4. Observation that variation is common in populations.

5. Evidence of the overproduction of offspring.

Question 2: Even in Darwins time, the blending hypothesis was incompatible with

observed facts. If the blending hypothesis were true, then what should one

expect to observe over the course of generations?

1. Genetic polymorphisms should increase.

2. Members of a breeding population should become more uniform in

phenotype.

3. Genetic variation should increase.

4. Phenotypic polymorphisms should increase.

5. Neutral variation should decrease.

The following information is required to answer questions 3 and 4.

A large population of laboratory animals has been allowed to breed randomly

for a number of generations. After several generations, 36% of the animals

display a recessive trait (aa), the same percentage as at the beginning of the

breeding program. The rest of the animals show the dominant phenotype, with

heterozygotes indistinguishable from the homozygous dominants.

Question 3: What is the estimated frequency of allele ain the gene pool? 1. 0.80

2. 0.18

3. 0.60

4. 0.40

5. 0.70

Question 4: What proportion of the population is probably heterozygous (Aa)for this trait?

1. 0.72

2. 0.48

3. 0.364. 0.60

5. 0.18

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Question 5: In modern terminology, diversity is understood to be a result of genetic

variation. Sources of variation for evolution include all of the following

EXCEPT:

1. mistakes in DNA replication.

2. translocations and mistakes in meiosis.3. mistakes in translation of structural genes.

4. recombination at fertilisation.

5. recombination by crossing over in meiosis.

Question 6: The following important concepts of population genetics are due to random

events or chance EXCEPT:

1. sexual recombination.

2. the bottleneck effect.

3. mutation.

4. the founder effect.5. natural selection.

Question 7: Which of the following is one important evolutionary feature of the diploid

condition?

1. Diploid organisms are more likely to clone successfully than haploid

organisms.

2. The DNA in diploid cells is more resistant to mutation than the DNA in

haploid cells.

3. Diploid organisms express less of their genetic variability than haploid

organisms.

4. Recombination can only occur in diploid organisms.

5. An extra set of genes facilitates the inheritance of characteristics acquired

by the previous generation.

Question 8: When we say that an individual organism has a greater tness than another

individual, we specically mean that the organism:

1. utilises resources more efciently than other species occupying similar

niches.

2. competes for resources more successfully than others of its species.

3. mates more frequently than others of its species.

4. lives longer than others of its species.5. leaves more viable offspring than others of its species.

Question 9: Adult male vervet monkeys have red penises and blue scrotums. Males use their

colourful genitalia in dominance displays, when they compete with each other

for access to females. The colouration of the male genitalia is best explained as

the result of ________, and specically of ________.

1. natural selection; intersexual selection

2. natural selection; stabilising selection

3. sexual selection; disruptive selection

4. disruptive selection; intrasexual selection5. sexual selection; intrasexual selection

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Question 10: A procient engineer can easily design skeletal structures that are more

functional than those currently found in the forelimbs of such diverse mammals

as horses, whales, and bats. The reason the actual forelimbs of these mammals

do not seem to be optimally arranged is because:

1. though we may not consider the t between the current skeletal

arrangements and their functions excellent, we should not doubt

that natural selection ultimately produces the best design.

2. natural selection is generally limited to modifying structures that were

present in previous generations and in previous species.

3. natural selection operates in ways that are beyond the capability of the

human mind to comprehend.

4. natural selection has not had sufcient time to create the optimal design

in each case, but will do so given enough time.

5. in many cases, phenotype is not merely determined by genotype, but by

the environment as well.

Question 11: Which of the following is NOTconsidered an intrinsic isolating mechanism?

1. gametic incompatibility

2. ecological isolation

3. geographic isolation

4. timing of courtship display

5. sterile offspring

Question 12: Which of the following MUSToccur during a period of geographic isolation

in order for two sibling species to remain genetically distinct following their

geographic reunion in the same home range?1. postzygotic barriers

2. ecological isolation

3. reproductive isolation

4. prezygotic barriers

5. temporal isolation

Question 13: Theoretically, the production of sterile mules by interbreeding between female

horses and male donkeys should:

1. result in the extinction of one of the two parental species.

2. cause convergent evolution.

3. reinforce prezygotic and postzygotic barriers between horses and

donkeys.

4. weaken the intrinsic reproductive barriers between horses and donkeys.

5. eventually result in the formation of a single species from the two

parental species.

Question 14: A dening characteristic of allopatric speciation is:

1. articial selection.

2. the appearance of new species in the midst of old ones.

3. asexually reproducing populations.

4. large populations.5. geographic isolation.

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Question 15: The Galapagos archipelago appeared about 2 million years ago, when

submerged volcanoes (seamounts) rose above the oceans surface. A single

hypothetical colonisation event introduced a species of nch to one island in the

distant past. Today, several islands in the archipelago contain unique species of

nches. What must have happened following the initial colonisation event to

account for the current situation?

(i) cladogenesis

(ii) anagenesis

(iii) allopatric speciation

(iv) adaptive radiation

1. (i), (iii), and (iv)

2. (ii) and (iii)

3. (ii), (iii), and (iv)

4. (i) and (iv)

5. (i) and (iii)

Question 16: A rapid method of speciation that has been important in the history of owering

plants is:

1. genetic drift.

2. behavioural isolation.

3. polyploidy.

4. a mutation in the gene controlling the timing of owering.

5. paedomorphosis.

Question 17: Which of the following is a way that allopolyploidy can most directly cause

speciation?

1. It can improve success in island habitats.2. It can change the mating behaviour of animals.

3. It can generate geographic barriers.

4. It can overcome hybrid sterility.

5. It can produce heterochrony.

Question 18: According to the concept of punctuated equilibrium:

1. a new species accumulates most of its unique features as it comes into

existence.

2. given enough time, most existing species will branch gradually into new

species.3. evolution of new species features long periods during which changes are

occurring, interspersed with short periods of equilibrium or stasis.

4. natural selection is unimportant as a mechanism of evolution.

5. transitional fossils, intermediate between newer species and their parent

species, should be abundant.

Question 19: The origin of a new plant species by hybridisation coupled with nondisjunction

is an example of:

1. autopolyploidy.

2. allopatric speciation.

3. sympatric speciation.

4. habitat selection.

5. heterochrony.

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Question 20: Which of the following statements represents the best explanation for the

observation that the nuclear DNA of wolves and domestic dogs has a very high

degree of homology?

1. Dogs and wolves are both members of the family Canidae.

2. Dogs and wolves are similar because of convergent evolution.

3. Dogs and wolves belong to the same order.4. Dogs and wolves shared a common ancestor very recently.

5. Dogs and wolves have very similar morphologies.

Question 21: Which of the following statements is NOTcharacteristic of catabolic reactions?

1. They are divergent processes in which a few precursors form a wide

variety of polymeric products.

2. Glycolysis is an example of a catabolic pathway.

3. They often involve hydrolysis of macromolecules.

4. They often produce NADH or FADH2.

5. They serve to generate energy.

Question 22: Which of the following would yield the most energy per gram when oxidised?

1. glycogen

2. glucose

3. protein

4. fat

5. starch

Question 23: The phosphorylation of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate:

1. is an exergonic reaction not coupled to any other reaction.2. is not an endergonic reaction.

3. is an exergonic reaction that is coupled to the endergonic hydrolysis of

ATP.

4. is so strongly exergonic that it does not require a catalyst.

5. is an endergonic reaction that takes place because it is coupled to the

exergonic hydrolysis of ATP.

Question 24: Which of the following produces the most ATP when glucose (C6H

12O

6) is

completely oxidised to carbon dioxide (CO2) and water?

1. glycolysis

2. oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA3. citric acid cycle

4. oxidative phosphorylation

5. fermentation

SECTION B BIOCHEMISTRY

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(25 marks)

(Recommended time 30 minutes)

Choose the CORRECT answer from the alternatives provided.

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Question 25: Which process in eukaryotic cells will proceed normally whether oxygen (O2)

is present or absent?

1. electron transport

2. chemiosmosis

3. oxidative phosphorylation4. glycolysis

5. the citric acid cycle

Question 26: Glucokinase:

1. has a low Km for glucose and, hence, is important in the phosphorylation

of glucose in the starved state.

2. catalyses the phosphorylation of glucose to form glucose 6-phosphate in

the liver.

3. catalyses a readily reversible reaction.

4. catalyses the conversion of ADP to ATP.5. is widely distributed and occurs in most mammalian tissues.

Question 27: Which type of enzyme is involved in phosphorylation reactions?

1. carboxylase

2. phosphatase

3. isomerase

4. dehydrogenase

5. kinase

Question 28: All of the following statements about NAD+ are true EXCEPT:

1. NAD+ is reduced to NADH during both glycolysis and the Krebs cycle.

2. NAD+ can receive electrons for use in oxidative phosphorylation.

3. NAD+ is reduced by the action of dehydrogenases.

4. NAD+has more chemical energy than NADH.

5. In the absence of NAD+ , glycolysis cannot function.

Question 29: The reactions of glycolysis occur in which of the following eukaryotic cell

compartments?

1. Nucleus, cytoplasm and mitochondria.

2. cytoplasm

3. nucleus4. Both cytoplasm and mitochondria.

5. mitochondrion

Question 30: During glycolysis, when glucose is catabolised to pyruvate, most of the energy

of glucose is:

1. transferred directly to ATP.

2. retained in the pyruvate.

3. transferred to ADP, forming ATP.

4. stored in the NADH produced.

5. used to phosphorylate fructose to form fructose 6-phosphate.

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Question 31: Phosphofructokinase is an important control enzyme. Which of the following

statements concerning this enzyme are NOT true?

1. It is inhibited by ATP.

2. It is a coordinator of the processes of glycolysis and the Krebs cycle.3. It is activated by ADP.

4. It is an allosteric enzyme.

5. It is activated by citrate.

Question 32: The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and CO2:

1. involves the participation of an oxidation-reduction coenzyme.

2. is catalysed by an enzyme belonging to the dehydrogenase family.

3. all of the other options given are correct.

4. is not a readily reversible reaction.

5. involves the participation of an activation-transfer coenzyme.

Question 33: Succinate dehydrogenase is located in this complex.

1. Complex III.

2. Complex I.

3. Complex IV.

4. Complex II.

5. It is not known where succinate dehydrogenase is located.

Question 34: In the presence of oxygen (O2), the three-carbon compound pyruvate can be

catabolised in the citric acid cycle. First, however, the pyruvate

(i) loses a carbon, which is given off as a molecule of CO2,

(ii) is oxidised to form a two-carbon compound called acetate, and

(iii) is bonded to coenzyme A.

These three steps result in the formation of:

1. acetyl CoA, FAD, H2and CO

2.

2. acetyl CoA, NADH, H+and CO2.

3. acetyl CoA, NAD+, ATP and CO2.

4. acetyl CoA, FADH2and CO

2.

5. acetyl CoA, O2and ATP.

Question 35: Which of the following statements about the electron transport chain in animal

cells is NOTtrue?

1. Electrons are carried from Complex I and Complex II to Complex III by

the lipid soluble molecule coenzyme Q or ubiquinone.

2. Four protein complexes are involved in the transfer of electrons from

NADH to the nal electron acceptor.

3. The protein complexes are located in the inner mitochondrial membrane.

4. Cyanide is an effective inhibitor of electron transport.

5. NADH produced in glycolysis is the principal source of electrons for the

electron transport chain.

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Question 36: Which statement is INCORRECT?

1. Insulin stimulates glycogen synthesis.

2. Glycogen is only oxidised from the reducing ends of branched polymers.3. Reducing ends of glycogen polymers can attach to glycogenin.

4. Branches in glycogen polymers are formed by 1-6 glycosidic linkages.

5. Glycogen is stored in the liver.

Question 37: Liver glycogen is an important fuel storage source because it is:

1. a linear chain glucose polymer that can be processed at both ends to

release glucose.

2. easily taken up by the brain.

3. rapidly cleaved to maintain blood glucose levels.

4. utilised for low intensity muscle work.

5. hydrophobic.

Question 38: What is the general orderof predominant fuel use in hard working skeletal

muscles as they work to exhaustion?

1. creatine phosphateblood glucosemuscle glycogenfatty acids

cellular ATP stores.

2. creatine phosphate muscle glycogenblood glucose fatty acids

cellular ATP stores.

3. muscle glycogenblood glucose fatty acidscellular ATP stores

creatine phosphate.

4. cellular ATP storescreatine phosphate muscle glycogenbloodglucose fatty acids.

5. cellular ATP stores muscle glycogenblood glucose fatty

acids creatine phosphate.

Question 39: Which statement is NOTtrue?

1. Pancreatic -cells are stimulated to secrete insulin by elevated blood

glucose levels.

2. Glucagon stimulates liver glycogen breakdown.

3. Insulin stimulates growth.

4. Dropping blood glucose triggers pancreatic -cells to secrete insulin.5. Insulin stimulates the liver to take up glucose from the blood.

Question 40: Which statement is TRUE?

1. Glucose 6-phosphatase is unique to the skeletal muscle.

2. Glucokinase has a lower afnity than hexokinase for glucose.

3. Hexokinase is more active in liver than in skeletal muscle.

4. Glycogen synthesis uses ADP-glucose.

5. Glucokinase is more active in skeletal muscle than the liver.

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Question 41: Of the following lists, which one contains the distinctive enzymes of the

gluconeogenic pathway?

1. glucose 6-phosphatase, pyruvate dehydrogenase, pyruvate carboxylase,

phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase

2. glucose 6-phosphatase, pyruvate carboxylase, phosphoenolpyruvate

carboxykinase, pyruvate kinase3. pyruvate carboxylase, phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase, lactate

dehydrogenase, glucose 6-phosphatase

4. phosphofructokinase, pyruvate carboxylase, phosphoenolpyruvate

carboxykinase, glucose 6-phosphatase

5. glucose 6-phosphatase, fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase, pyruvate

carboxylase, phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase

Question 42: Which statement is TRUE?

1. Normal blood glucose is around 80 grams/decilitre.

2. Glucagon stimulates muscles to store glucose.

3. Epinephrine stimulates glycogen breakdown by activating adenylatekinase.

4. Lactate is not a substrate for gluconeogenesis.

5. Mammalian red blood cells have mitochondria.

Question 43: Which statement is TRUEof photosynthesis?

1. When chlorophyll absorbs light it becomes excited and gains an electron.

2. The Calvin cycle produces oxygen.

3. The cytochrome complex moves four protons into the thylakoid space.

4. Photosystem I is before Photosystem II in the light reaction of

photosynthesis.5. Chlorophyll aabsorbs visible light most strongly at 520 nm.

Question 44: Inside a light exposed chloroplast electrons ow along which pathway?

1. H2OP700 plastocyanin Ferredoxin plastoquinone P680

cytochrome complexNADP+reductaseNADP+

2. H2O P680plastoquinone cytochrome complexplastocyanin

P700FerredoxinNADP+reductaseNADP+

3. H2O P680 plastocyanin cytochrome complex

plastoquinoneP700 FerredoxinNADP+reductaseNADP+

4. NADP

+

P700

plastocyanin

Ferredoxin

plastoquinone

P680cytochrome complexNADP+reductase H2O

5. H2OP700 plastocyanin cytochrome complex

plastoquinone P680 FerredoxinNADP+reductase

NADP+

Question 45: What statement is NOTtrue for the Calvin cycle?

1. NADPH transfers electrons to the Calvin cycle.

2. Six CO2molecules are required to make one glucose molecule.

3. The product of the Calvin cycle is glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate.

4. Ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase oxygenase (RuBisCo) binds CO2.

5. Two glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate molecules are used to make one

ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate molecule.

QUESTION/ANSWER SHEETS FOLLOW

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THERE ARE NO QUESTIONS ON THIS PAGE.

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QUESTION/ANSWER SHEET

FIRST NAME: ................................. FAMILY NAME: .......................................................

ID NO: ......................................................

SECTION C EVOLUTION

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

(30 marks)

(Recommended time 30 minutes)

NOTE: Answer ALL questions.

marks

5

46. Who is most closely associated with these concepts? (5 marks total)

Select name(s) from the following list and enter the name next to the appropriate

concept.

Malthus, Plato, Lamarck, Socrates, Hutton, Mayr, Mendel, Fitzroy, Aristotle,

Darwin, Lyall, Cuvier, Linnaeus, Haldane, Weinberg, Galileo, Wallace

CONCEPT Person(s)

(a) Essentialism

(b) Teleology

(c) Natural selection

(d) Transformationism

(e) Gradualism

(f) Binomial nomenclature

(g) Catastrophism

(h) Biological species concept

(i) Laws of inheritance

(j) Exponential increase in populations

46 47 48 49 Total

FOR OFFICIAL USE

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8

marks

This cladogram represents a single Order dened by the character #1. Within this Order

are two (and only two) monophyletic Families.

(a) Circle the groups of species most likely to be included in each of the two Families.

(2 marks)

(b) Label the two Families (as #I and or #II) in the diagram and identify the character

that denes each Family (2 marks)

Family #I, character ___________________

Family #II, character ___________________

(c) Which species has diverged the most from the ancestral species A? (1 mark)

________________________________________________________________

(d) Which species has diverged the least from the ancestral species A? (1 mark)

________________________________________________________________

(e) What species is the common ancestor of I and K? (1 mark)

________________________________________________________________

(f) What character is likely the result of Convergent Evolution? (1 mark)

________________________________________________________________

47. The cladogram below represents the phylogenetic relationships among six extant

species and ve ancestral species (and an outgroup). The numbered horizontal bars

indicate the evolution of characters present in the taxa above the bar.

(8 marks total)

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QUESTION/ANSWER SHEET

FIRST NAME: ................................. FAMILY NAME: .......................................................

ID NO: ......................................................

marks

9

48. In the table below list the most likely force resulting in the observed pattern or change

to a population. (1 mark each)

SCENARIO Force

(a) There are ve unrelated species of anteaters that

have evolved independently in different parts of

the world.

(b) An albino calf is observed in a large, unexploited

population of whales. Prior to this sighting, there

were no albino individuals in this population.

(c) The adults of a certain species of land snail are

found as either a light cream color or a solid

brown color. Intermediate adults are relatively

rare.

(d) A nocturnal species of moth found in sympatry

with bats (Microchiroptera) is sensitive to high

frequency sound. A related species of moth that is

diurnal is not sensitive to high frequency sound.

(e) Only male beaked whales have emergent teeth

(in the form of tusks) and only males are covered

with scars from these tusks.

(f) Male humpback whales on the winter breeding

grounds sing an elaborate song that seems to

attract females.

(g) Genetic samples collected from the critically

endangered Mauis dolphin of the North Island

show far lower diversity than samples collected

from the more abundant Hectors dolphin of the

South Island.

(h) A single breeding pair of takahe, a New Zealand

endemic bird, is translocated to an island

sanctuary. The pair is very successful at raising

young and the colony grows over the rst

generation. During the subsequent generations,

however, the number of chicks that survives to

edging declines.

(i) Two populations of kiwi became isolated by a

busy motorway and genetic monitoring indicated

that diversity was being lost in both populations.A series of tunnels were constructed to allow

kiwis to disperse under the road. Subsequent

monitoring showed that diversity was restored.

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marks

8

49. The phylogenetic tree above (Figure 3) represents one of the current hypotheses

about the pattern and timing of human evolution and related outgroups.

Referring to this tree, indicate the most likely time point (node) or interval

(branch) for the origin of the following characters or events in the evolution ofhominins using the labeled nodes as reference points (for example, at node A or

between nodes B and C). (8 marks total)

(a) the rst upright walking ape ____________________________________

(b) tool use ___________________________________________________

(c) the rst migration ofHomoout of Africa __________________________

(d) symbolic representations ______________________________________

(e) migration of modern humans from Africa _________________________

(f) What species is represented by node I? ___________________________

(g) What is the approximate date of node G?__________________________

(h) What species is represented by F? ________________________________

(i) What is the approximate date of node A? __________________________

Figure 3

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QUESTION/ANSWER SHEET

FIRST NAME: ................................. FAMILY NAME: .......................................................

ID NO: ......................................................

SECTION D BIOCHEMISTRY

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

(25 marks)

(Recommended time 30 minutes)

NOTE: Answer ALL questions.

50 51 52 53 54 Total

FOR OFFICIAL USE

marks

5

50. The above schematic is an overview of cellular respiration. In the spaces provided below,

name the metabolic pathways, molecules and processes labelled A-J. (Do NOT label the

diagram). (5 marks total)

A: _____________________________________________________________(1/2 mark)

B: _____________________________________________________________(1/2 mark)

C: _____________________________________________________________(1/2 mark)

D: _____________________________________________________________(1/2 mark)

E: _____________________________________________________________(1/2 mark)

F: _____________________________________________________________(1/2 mark)

G: _____________________________________________________________(1/2 mark)

H: _____________________________________________________________(1/2 mark)

I: _____________________________________________________________(1/2 mark)

J: _____________________________________________________________(1/2 mark)

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5

51. The following question relates to glucose homeostasis in humans. (5 marks total)

During starvation blood glucose levels are maintained through a range of mechanisms.

Five phases have been allocated to describe the processes of how the body derives and al -locates glucose.

Complete the table below, identifying the origin(s) of blood glucose and the fuel(s) used

by the brain during the ve phases.

Note: there may be more than one origin of glucose and more than one fuel used by the

brain in each phase.

Phase 1

~0-4 hrs

Phase 2

~5-16 hrs

Phase 3

~16-36 hrs

Phase 4

~2-24 days

Phase 5

beyond 24 days

Origin(s) of

blood glucose

Major fuel(s)

used by the

brain

marks

2.5

2.5

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QUESTION/ANSWER SHEET

FIRST NAME: ................................. FAMILY NAME: .......................................................

ID NO: ......................................................

5

52. The above schematic is a comparison of chemiosmosis in mitochondria and chloroplasts.

(a) Identify the cellular compartments labelled A-D in these organelles:

A: _____________________________________________________ (1/2 mark)

B: _____________________________________________________ (1/2 mark)

C: _____________________________________________________ (1/2 mark)

D: _____________________________________________________ (1/2 mark)

(b) Explain, in three to four sentences, how electron transport is coupled to oxidative

phosphorylation in plant and animal cells (3 marks)

Total marks

2

3

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5

53: The following question relates to the Calvin cycle.

Fill in the blanks with the appropriate word(s) or numbers to complete the paragraph.

(5 marks total)

The Calvin cycle occurs in the __________ of chloroplasts. The reactions

have historically been referred to as the ______________________of

photosynthesis. The Calvin cycle is dependent on upstream light reactions

that supply ATP and NADPH, which are generated by a complex pathway

with the nal reaction steps catalysed by the enzymes ___________________

and ______________________, respectively. These energy-rich molecules

are then used to x carbon into simple carbohydrates by the stepwise

addition of three atmospheric CO2molecules into three molecules of

____________________ in the carbon xation phase of the Calvin cycle.

This step is catalysed by ______________________, a highly abundant

enzyme in the biosphere. Molecules containing six carbon atoms are then

formed, and these are then rearranged and cleaved to produce six molecules

of ______________________, a product of the Calvin cycle which is also

an intermediate of the______________________ pathway. Only one of these

three carbon molecules is extracted for each set of three CO2molecules

consumed, while the remaining ve molecules continue in the Calvin cycle.

Two of these molecules are required to combine to make glucose. In theory

the energetic inputs to produce the two molecules used to make glucose

equates to ____molecules of ATP and ____molecules of NADPH.

marks

(1/2 mark)

(1/2 mark)

(1/2 mark)

(1/2 mark)

(1/2 mark)

(1/2 mark)

(1/2 mark)

(1/2 mark)

(1 mark)

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QUESTION/ANSWER SHEET

FIRST NAME: ................................. FAMILY NAME: .......................................................

ID NO: ......................................................

54: Write short notes on ONE (1)of the following topics. (5 marks total)

EITHER: (a) The transport of glucose across the cell membrane and its retention in the

cell

OR: (b) Lactate production under anaerobic conditions and the Cori cycle

Write your answer in the box provided below. Diagrams with explanatory notes are

acceptable.

Please circle question attempted: a or b

marks