9 Week Practice Test

8/10/2019 9 Week Practice Test

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Name: Class: Date: _

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( ine Week Practice Test

Multiple ChoiceIdentify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

ID: A

1. Which psychologist proposed that the study of consciousness should be replaced by the study of behavior?

a. John B. Watson

b. Abraham Maslow

c. G. Stanley Hall

d. Sigmund Freud

2. The theoretical orientation that insisted on verifiability of observation was

a. structuralism

b. functionalism

c. behaviorism

d. psychoanalysis

3. With which of the following would a behaviorist agree?

a. Conscious experiences can be studied in an objective, precise way.

b. In order to understand behavior, one must understand the motives behind the behavior.

c. Behavior can only be explained in terms of phenomenology, that is, an individual's

interpretation of experience.

d. Psychology should be the science of behavior that can be observed by others.

4. Freud concluded that psychological disturbances are largely caused by

a. unrealistic demands from family and friends

b. personal conflicts existing at an unconscious level

c. genetic predispositions to behave in a particular way

d. conflicts between conscious desires and environmental constraints

5. Janet trained her dog to sit on command by following this behavior with a reward of a dog biscuit and praise

Janet used the principles of which of the following "schools" of psychology?a. behaviorism

b. humanism

c. psychoanalysis

d. functionalism

6. Which of the following groups of psychologists would be most likely to focus on individual uniqueness,

freedom, and potential for growth as a person?

a. behaviorists

b. psychoanalysts

c. humanistsd. Gestalt psychologists

7. Which type of psychologist would be least likely to generalize from studies of animal subjects to humanbehavior?

a. a psychoanalyst

b. a behaviorist

c. a humanist

d. a cognitive psychologist


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10: A

8. The branch of psychology concerned with everyday, practical problems is called psychology.

a. developmental

b. abnormal

c. applied

d. cognitive

9. The branch of psychology concerned with the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders is calleda. counseling psychology

b. social psychology

c. developmental psychology

d. clinical psychology

10. Which of the following is a recent movement in psychology that has revived the old interest in mental and

conscious events?

a. physiological psychology

b. psychoanalysis

c. behavioral psychology

d. cognitive psychology

11. A theory is

a. a tentative statement about the relationship between two or more variables

b. a system of interrelated ideas used to explain a set of observations

c. a statement of research results that have been proven to be correct

d. a preliminary proposal that has yet to be tested

12. A hypothesis isa. a random guess as to what might happen in an experiment

b. a tentative statement about the relationship between two or more variables

c. a conclusion drawn from an experiment

d. a system of interrelated ideas used to explain a set of observations

13. Dr. Licciardi predicts that if people are observed while they perform a complex task they will make more

errors. Dr. Licciardi's prediction is an example of

a. a hypothesisb. an operational definition

c. a theory

d. inferential statistics

14. A researcher is measuring the heart rate of subjects as an index of anxiety. In this study heart rate is

a. A confounded variableb. negatively correlated with anxiety

c. an independent variable

d. an operational definition of anxiety

15. Differing approaches to the observation, measurement, manipulation, and control of variables in empirical

studies are referred to as

a. validity operationalizationsb. research methods

c. inductive techniques

d. statistical analyses

16. In an experiment, the variable that is controlled or manipulated by the researcher is called the

a. dependent variable

b. independent variable

c. control variable

d. stimulus variable

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In: A

17. Researchers who were studying memory had participants learn a list of words after consuming a soft drink

with caffeine or a decaffeinated version of the same soft drink. The researchers then counted the number of

words that were recalled from the list. In this study, the type of beverage (caffeinated or decaffeinated) would

be

a. the independent variable

b. an extraneous variablec. the dependent variable

d. a placebo

18. A dependent variable in an experiment refers to the variable

a. held constant across the experimental conditions

b. deliberately manipulated by the experimenter

c. that changes value because of the systematic manipulation in the experiment

d. that the experimenter is depending on to cause something to happen in the experiment

19. A group of researchers conducts a study to determine if children's performance is affected by the presence of

other children. First the children are taken to a room with no other children and timed while they complete a

puzzle. Later the same children are taken to a room with four other children and timed while they complete a

similar puzzle. In this study, the length of time it takes to complete the puzzle would bea. the independent variable

b. an extraneous variable

c. a control variable

d. the dependent variable

20. If we view an experiment as an attempt to establish a cause-effect relationship, the variable

would be the cause, and the variable would be the effect.-----

a. dependent; independent

b. independent; dependent

c. control; experimental

d. independent; confounded

21. The experimental group

a. consists of the subjects who receive some special treatment with regard to the

independent variable

b. consists of the subjects who receive some special treatment with regard to the dependent

variable

c. consists of the subjects who do not receive the special treatment

d. must be chosen so as to be as different from the control group as possible

22. The purpose of the control group is to

a. make the experiment more complex

b. isolate the effect of the independent variable on the dependent variable

c. make statistical significance more likely

d. isolate the effect of the dependent variable on the independent variable

23. A researcher wants to see if a protein-enriched diet will enhance the maze-running performance of rats. Onegroup of rats is fed the high-protein diet for the duration of the study; the other group continues to receive

ordinary rat chow. In this experiment, the group of rats that is fed the high-protein diet is group;

the group that receives ordinary rat chow is group.

a. a control; a control

b. a control; an experimental

c. an experimental; an experimental

d. an experimental; a control

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24. A group of researchers wanted to determine whether children would behave more aggressively after watchin~-

violent television programming. Half the children in the study watched a violent television show; the other "-

children watched a non-violent television program. In this study, the control group is

a. the children who behave the most aggressively at the end of the study

b. the children who watch the non-violent program

c. the children who watch the violent show

d. the children who behave the least aggressively at the end of the study

25. By definition, an extraneous variable is

a. a variable that affects the control group but not the experimental group

b. the same thing as a dependent variable

c. a variable that is completely irrelevant to both the independent and dependent variables

d. a variable, other than the independent variable, that may influence the dependent variable

26. When two variables are linked and their individual effects cannot be separated out, we speak of the variables

as being

a. independent variables

b. dependent variables

c. confounded variables

d. codependent variables

27. In experiments, placing subjects in experimental groups such that each subject has an equal probability of

ending up in any experimental group is referred to as.

a. random selection

b. random sampling

c. random forecasting

d. random assignment

28. Random assignment of subjects occurs when \.

a. subjects are allowed to choose which group or condition they would like to be in

b. a different method is used to assign each subject to a group or condition

c. all subjects have an equal chance of being assigned to any of the groups or conditions

d. all topics have an equal chance of being assigned to a particular experimenter29. The main advantage associated with the experimental method is

a. its precise control

b. its ability to duplicate real life in the laboratory

c. that it can be used to explore just about everything

d. participants usually enjoy taking part in the study

30. The ability to infer a cause-and-effect relationship is associated only with the

a. correlational research method

b. case history research method

c. experimental research method

d. empirical research method

31. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of the experimental method of conducting research?a. It cannot be used to study certain issues.

b. It produces artificial situations that may not be applicable to real life.

c. It is impossible to manipulate certain variables.

d. It is virtually impossible to conduct a true experiment with human beings.

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In: A

32. Naturalistic observation, case studies, and surveys all have in common that

a. they do not directly observe behavior

b. they do not manipulate the variables under study

c. they can show causal relationships

d. the results obtained cannot be analyzed statistically

33. Going to a playground for an hour each day for two weeks and recording girl-boy exchanges would be an

example of

a. a case study

b. a surveyc. a naturalistic observation

d. an experiment

34. An advantage of naturalistic observation is that it

a. approximates the experimental method

b. allows for cause-and-effect conclusions to be drawn

c. allows behavior to be studied in realistic settings

d. involves random assignment

35. Subjectivity and the danger of focusing attention selectively is probably greatest ina. experimental studies

b. surveys

c. naturalistic observation

d. compiling a case study

36. Trevor plans to study the relationship between people's responses to highly stressful situations and their

overall health. He decides he must use correlational research, rather than experimental research, to

investigate this problem because correlational studies

a. tend to be more accurate than experimentsb. have higher internal validity than experiments when there are two dependent variables

c. can be used to study either positive or negative relationships, whereas experiments can

only be used to study positive relationships

d. can be used to investigate factors that would be unethical to manipulate in an

experimental study

37. The two basic types of statistics are

a. descriptive and inferential

b. central tendency and variability

c. sampling and correlative

d. parametric and nonparametric

38. Statistics that are used to summarize and organize data are cal1ed

a. descriptive statistics

b. numerical statistics

c. inferential statistics

d. computational statistics

39. The score that fal1sexactly in the center of a distribution of scores such that half the scores fal1below that

score and half the scores fal1above it is the

a. meanb. standard deviation

c. range

d. median

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40. Your grade point average is an example of which measure of central tendency?

a. median

ID: A

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

b. mean

c. modc

d. midpoint

The correlation coefficient is a measure of

a. central tendency

b. the amount of variability in a data set

c. the degree of relationship between two variables

d. the difference between the largest and smallest scores in a data set

A correlation coefficient of zero describes

a. a positive relationship between two variables

b. a negative relationship between two variables

c. the lack of a relationship between two variables

d. a perfect rclationship between two variables

Suppose a researcher discovered a +.87 correlation between the length of a person's toes and the number of

shoes the person owns. In general, people who own the fewest number of shoes would have

a. small toes

b. large toes

c. medium-sized toes

d. either very large or very small toes

The FDA found that people who used a particular diet drug combination had more heart valve defects than

people who had not taken the diet drug combination. This suggests that the use of the diet drug combination

and heart valve defects are ~

a. negatively correlated

b. independent variables

c. positively correlated

d. interactive variables

Mice who received gingko biloba in their diets made fewer errors in a maze running task than mice who hadnot received gingko biloba. This suggests that, in mice, the use of gingko biloba and errors in maze running

are

a. dependent variables

b. negatively correlated

c. positively correlated

d. uncorrelated

Of the following correlation coefficients, the one that would allow the most accurate predictions of one

variable based on the other variable would be

a. 0.00

b. +1.24

c. +1.00

d. -0.49

47. Of the following, the correlation coefficient that indicates the weakest relationship between the two variables

being measured is

a. +0.95

b. -0.69

c. +0.01

d. -4.50

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48. "Statistically significant" means that the results of an experiment most likely

a. resulted from chance variations

b. wcre not due to chance

c. had practical significance

d. were important

49. By definition, a sample

a. is that group of people to whom the conclusion of the study will apply

b. is a subset of the population who actually participate in a research study

c. contains less than 50 people or animals

d. must only include volunteers who express an interest in the study

50. By definition, a population

a. is the group of people to whom the conclusion ofthe study will apply

b. is a subset of the sample

c. consists of those individuals who actually participate in the study

d. is any group that contains more than 100 people or animals

51. To generalize results to a population, we must first

a. select a biased sample from the population of interestb. oversample selected subgroups in the population

c. draw a representative sample from the population of interest

d. ensure that all the variables have been operationally defined

52. A researcher who is conducting an opinion survey asks viewers who are watching a political debate to dial a

1-800 number and record their opinion to the "question of the day." In this case the researcher is likely to

have

a. a representative sample

b. a random sample

c. a biased sample

d. a random population

53. A sample is representative ifa. only volunteer subjects are used

b. it is as different from the population as possible

c. all subjects are chosen from a single, unusual segment of the population

d. its composition is similar to the composition of the population

54. Dr. Stillingsworth is interested in people's reactions to a controversial jury verdict. Dr. Stillingsworth calls

people at their home between the hours of I :00 p.m. and 3 :30 p.m. on a Tuesday afternoon. In this example

Dr. Stillingsworth has most likely selected

a. a representative sample

b. a biased population

c. a biased sample

d. a statistically significant population

55. Sometimes a subject's expectations may lead to behavior change in the absence of any effective treatment.

This is referred to as an example of

a. sampling bias

b. experimenter bias

c. socially desirable responding

d. the placebo effect

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56. One is most apt to encounter problems with the social desirability bias when using

a. self-reports \.b. case studies

c. naturalistic observations

d. the experimental method

57. Subjects' self-reports often indicate that they are healthier, happier, and less prejudiced than other types ofevidence would suggest. The most likely explanation is

a. experimenter bias

b. faulty memory

c. the social desirability bias

d. a tendency to agree with almost every statement

58. John dislikes completing questionnaires, so each time he fills one out he always circles the same item (such

as "strongly agree" or "strongly disagree"). John's behavior reflects

a. the placebo effect

b. a sampling bias

c. social desirability

d. a response set

59. The fact that many times researchers unintentionally influence the outcome of their studies implies the

existence of

a. experimenter bias

b. a placebo effect

c. sampling bias

d. social desirability

60. Experimenter bias typically results in

a. the effects of the bias disconfirming the experimenter's expectations ,,

b. the effects of the bias confirming the experimenter's expectations

c. results that are not statistically significant

d. the placebo effect

61. One method to control for experimenter bias effects in research is to usea. a socially desirable procedure

b. reverse control groups

c. a double-blind procedure

d. a non-representative sample

62. The experimental procedure in which both the experimenter and subject are unaware of who is in the

experimental and who is in the control group is referred to as thea. placebo control procedure

b. stereotaxic procedure

c. single-blind procedure

d. double-blind procedure

63. Which of the following statements is true?a. Deception has never been used in psychological research.

b. Although deception has been used in the past, it has recently been banned by the

American Psychological Association.

c. In recent years, there has been a steady increase in the use of deception in psychologicalresearch.

d. Deception has been fairly common in psychological research since the 1960s.

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64. Deception is used in some research in order to

a. help control for placebo effects.

b. help aid in double-blind procedures.

c. prevent socially desirable responding.

d. encourage socially desirable responding.

65. The cells that provide structural support and insulation for neurons are called

a. glia

b. somata

c. neuromodulators

d. dendrites

66. The cells of the nervous system that do the work of receiving, integrating, and transmitting information are

the

a. neurons

b. glia

c. neuroblasts

d. neurilemma

67. The basic parts of a neuron area. vesicles, terminal buttons, synapse

b. cell body, axon, dendrites

c. myelin, nodes, axon terminals

d. hindbrain, midbrain, forebrain

68. receive information from other neurons; transmit information to other neurons.

a. Plxons; synapses

b. Dendrites; axons

c. Synapses; dendrites

d. Plxons; dendrites

69. Exchange of information between neurons takes place at the

a. axonb. cell body

c. synapse

d. myelin sheath

70. Which of the following is the correct sequence of structures through which information flows in a neuron?a. dendrites to cell body to axon

b. axon to cell body to dendrites

c. glia to dendrites to axon

d. dendrites to axon to glia

71. T he is the junction between two neurons.

a. synapse

b. terminal button

c. postsynaptic membrane

d. myelin sheath

72. Neurotransmitters are secreted from the

a. myelin sheath

b. terminal buttons

c. neuromodulators

d. dendrites

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10: A

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

A neural impulse is initiated when a neuron's charge

a. momentarily changes from positive to negative

b. momentarily becomes less negative, or even positive

c. suddenly becomes even more positive than it was during the resting state

d. suddenly becomes even more negative than it was during the resting state

The minimum length of time between action potentials is determined by

a. transduction capacity

b. transduction incapacity

c. the absolute refractory period

d. the relative threshold period

A chemical that transfers information from one neuron to another is referred to as a(n)

a. synaptic vesicle

b. enzyme

c. neural impulse

d. neurotransmitter

Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps through which neurotransmitters progress during

synaptic transmission?

a. synthesis, release, binding, inactivation, reuptake

b. release, synthesis, binding, reuptake, inactivation

c. binding, synthesis, release, inactivation, reuptake

d. synthesis, binding, release, reuptake, inactivation

A good analogy for the way in which a neurotransmitter binds to receptor sites is

a. the opening and closing of a window

b. a key fitting in the lock of a door

c. the lowering of a drawbridge

d. the pulling of the trigger of a gun

Which of the following neurotransmitters is primarily involved in the activation of motor neurons controlling

skeletal muscles?

a. GABAb. dopamine

c. serotonin

d. acetylcholine

The regulation ofthe sleep-wake cycle has been linked to

a. amino acid release cycles

b. garnma-aminobutyric acid

c. serotonin

d. phenylalanine hydroxylase

Which of the following has been implicated in pain alleviation?

a. dopamine

b. endorphins

c. acetylcholine

d. norepinephrine

A marathon runner may well experience a phenomenon known as "runner's high" because the pain of a long

run may trigger the release of in the brain.

a. morphine

b. endorphins

e. placebos

d. naloxone

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91.

92 .

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

99.

Destroying a piece of brain tissue to observe its effect on behavior is referred to as which of the following? -

a.~ Ub. lesioning

c. tumor ligation

d. stereotaxic inversion

The technique in which radioactively tagged chemicals are introduced into the brain and then equipmentmonitors where the chemicals appear in the brain is

a. computerized tomography

b. positron emission tomography

c. magnetic resonance imaging

d. electro graphic tomography

Shot in the head, the victim died instantly because the bullet entered the , that portion of the

hindbrain that regulates breathing.

a. cerebellum

b. medulla

c. thalamus

d. pons

Damage to the cerebellum is most likely to result in

a. problems with coordination of movement

b. impairment of short-term memory

c. difficulties in judging distance

d. eating irregularities

A person might end up in a coma if the following area of the brain is damaged

a. reticular formation

b. medulla

c. hypothalamus

d. pons

The brain structure responsible for relaying sensory information to various locations in the brain is the

a. frontal lobe of the cerebral cortexb. cerebellum

c. thalamus

d. limbic system

The function of the hypothalamus is to regulate

a. hunger

b. thirst

c. body temperature

d. hunger, thirst, and body temperature

Which of the following brain structures is most closely associated with the regulation of emotion?

a. cerebellum

b. reticular formationc. brainstem

d. limbic system

Which of the following is responsible for the human ability to engage in higher mental activity such as

thinking and philosophizing?

a. the corpus callosum

b. the cerebrum

c. the cerebellum

d. the hypothalamus

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!D: A

100. The structure that connects the two cerebral hemispheres is the

a. corpus callosum

b. pineal gland

c. thalamus

d. parietal lobe

101. The primary processing for auditory sensations is in the lobe of the cerebrum.

a. parietal

b. temporal

c. frontal

d. occipital

102. A split-brain person has a severed

a. cerebral cortex

b. cerebellum

c. medulla

d. corpus callosum

103. Surgically disconnecting the cerebral hemispheres has its origins in the treatment of

a. epilepticsb. people in comas

c. schizophrenics

d. psychopaths

104. If the left hemisphere of the brain is damaged, which part of the body would be most directly affected?

a. the left half

b. the right half

c. the upper portion

d. the entire body

105. Research has found that the left side of the brain typically exercises primary control over all of the following

except

a. languageb. the right side of the body

c. visual-spatial abilities

d. linguistic processing

106. The system of glands that secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream is known as the

a. atopic system

b. exocrine system

c. endocrine system

d. blood-brain system

107. The master gland of the endocrine system is the

a. thyroid gland

b. adrenal gland

c. pancreas

d. pituitary gland

108. When a dominant gene is paired with a recessive gene, the gene pair is said to be

a. homozygous

b. phenotypic

c. heterozygous

d. polygenic

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109.

110.

111.

112.

113.

114.

115.

116.

When one member of a gene pair is more influential, such that its trait is expressed over the trait of the other~

gene, it is said to be '- a. expressive

b. genotypic

c. phenotypic

d. dominant

The observable characteristics of an individual are referred to as one's

a. phenotype

b. zygotype

c. genotype

d. heritability

Which of the following is determined at conception and is fixed forever?

a. phenotype

b. somatotype

c. genotype

d. prototype

Technically, your absolute threshold is the point which you can detect

a. a stimulus 50 percent of the timeb. a stimulus 75 percent of the time

c. any stimulus set point

d. any stimulus that registers on sensory memory

If a subject is presented with a series of pairs of light bulbs of different wattages and is asked whether the

members of each pair differ in brightness, which of the following is being measured?

a. the physical intensity difference between the two lights

b. the subject's just noticeable difference for brightness

c. the subject's absolute threshold for brightness

d. the subject's visual acuity

If a IDO-Hztone had to be increased to 110 Hz for a subject to just notice the difference, you would predict

that a 1000-Hz tone would have to be increased toa. 1010 to be noticed

b. 1050 to be noticed

c. 1100 to be noticed

d. 1200 to be noticed

If one is subjected to prolonged stimulation, eventually

a. sensory overload will occur

b. sensory adaptation will occur

c. perceptual agnosia will occur

d. perceptual inversion will occur

You enter a room and notice a distinctive new smell. After a bit of time you no longer smell the odor. This

illustrates the phenomenon of

a. progressive desensitization

b. sensory contrast

c. sensory novelty

d. sensory adaptation

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117. The wavelength of light mainly affects our perception of

a. color

b. brightness

c. saturation

d. light purity

118. The lens in the eyea. converts light energy into neural energy

b. controls the amount of light entering the eyec. bends entering light rays and focuses them onto the retina

d. is the part of the eye that gives it its color

119. The amount oflight entering the eye is regulated by changes in the size of the

a. pupil

b. lens

c. cornea

d. retina

120. In bright sunlight, the pupil of the eye is

a. the same size as it is in a dark roomb. dilated

c. constricted

d. closed

121. The blind spot in the eye isa. where photoreceptor cells do not "bleach"

b. the point at which ganglion cells synapse with bipolar cells

c. where the optic nerve exits the back of the eye

d. what leads to color blindness

122. Petra looked directly into a very bright light and damaged her retina. The opthamologist has told her that shehas sustained massive damage to her cones, but for the most part her rods have not been affected. One change

that you could predict for Petra's vision is that she will now havea. poor vision in low illumination

b. poor peripheral vision

c. no color vision

d. more accurate depth perception

123. The primary visual cortex is located in the

a. occipital lobes

b. temporal lobes

c. parietal lobes

d. frontal lobes

124. Television sets are able to recreate the entire visible spectrum by additively mixing three primary colors. Thi

process is similar to the view of human color vision called

a. opponent-process theory

b. saturation theory

c. complementary color theory

d. trichromatic theory

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125. Hering's opponent-process theory suggests that receptors are linked antagonistically in pairs. His opposed

pairs were

a. red-yellow; blue-green; black-white

b. red-green; yellow-blue; black-white

c. red-black; yellow-white; green-blue

d. yellow-green; red-blue; black-white

126. A perceptual set implies that

a. people often see what thcy expcct to see

b. visual perception is based on a bottom-up processing strategy

c. feature analysis is a "hard-wired" process

d. the focused-attention stage of processing is often overridden by preattentive processes

127. The ability to rapidly process words in reading depends most on

a. top-down processing

b. bottom-up processing

c. bottom-to-top processing

d. lateral processing

128. The lights around the movie marquee flashed on-and-offin succession. However, Jerome did not perceive

them as separate lights flashing, but instead saw a continuous band of light moving around the edge of the

marquee. Jerome's perception illustrates

a. the phi phenomenon

b. bottom-up processing

c. feature detection

d. preattentive processing

129. The Gestalt principle of proximity refers to the idea that

a. people tend to gravitate toward a common interaction distance

b. center-surround cells are closer fire more often

c. perception occurs in discrete time frames

d. objects nearer to each other are seen as forming a unit

130. If you are looking at an object such as a book, the object itself can be referred to asa. a distal stimulus

b. a proximal stimulus

c. an approximate stimulus

d. a distilled stimulus

131. Amanda had an operation on her eyes, but the doctors were unable to save the vision in her left eye. One

major change that will affect Amanda's perception is the fact that she will

a. no longer have any perception of depth

b. be more likely to misinterpret perceptual illusions

c. no longer be able to utilize binocular depth cues

d. lose her ability to perceive colors accurately

132. Perceptual constancy refers toa. the same thing as functional fixedness

b. our perception of objects remaining stable despite the fact that sensory information

changes

c. the existence of schemas that guide our perceptions

d. visual fields in the retina that allow our perception of the world to remain stable

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133. The structure of the ear that transduces sound vibrations into nerve impulses is the

a. cochlea

b. oval window

c. temporal lobe

d. stirrup

134. According to place theory, the ability to hear pitch corresponds toa. specific hair cells being stimulated along the length of the semicircular canals

b. vibrations occurring at specific locations down the length of the basilar membranec. the entire cochlea vibrating at a speed equivalent to the wavelengths the ear is being

stimulated with

d. differential movement of specific ossicles

135. The frequency theory of pitch perception is flawed because

a. structurally, it is impossible for the basilar membrane to vibrateb. neurons cannot fire fast enough to account for hearing tones higher than 1,000

cycles/secondc. it places the transduction process in the semicircular canals and not the cochlea

d. the action of the ossicles interacting with the auditory nerve was misidentified136. The volley principle suggests that

a. spreading effects from one semicircular canal to another interact to produce pitch

perception for frequencies higher than 5,000 Hzb. ossicles of the middle ear "echo" or "volley" auditory transmission back and forth to

stimulate hair cellsc. sound localization is an interpretation of time discrepancies between the time when the

same sound reaches each ear

d. groups of auditory neurons are able fire neural impulses in rapid succession, sending

signals that exceed the firing rate of any single neuron

137. Clifford was in an accident and he has lost all the hearing in his right ear. The deafuess in this ear will mostly

affect Clifford's ability to

a. localize sounds accuratelyb. separate speech sounds from background noise

c. detect high frequency sounds

d. detect high amplitude sounds

138. The sense associated with the perception of taste is referred to as the

a. gustatory system

b. olfactory system

c. vagus system

d. vestibular system

139. The sense associated with the perception of smell is

a. gustation

b. olfactionc. kinesthesis

d. audition

140. Of the following, the only sensory system that does not project upward to the cerebral cortex through the

thalamus, is

a. vision

b. hearing

c. gustation

d. olfaction

17


18/21

Name: _ In: A

141.

142.

143.

144.

145.

146.

147.

148.

149.

You place your left hand in a pan of cool water and your right hand in a pan of warm water, for a minute. If

you then place both your hands in a pan of lukewarm water, the lukewarm water will feel

a. lukewarm to both hands

b. warm to your left hand but cool to your right hand

c. cool to your left hand but warm to your right hand

d. cool to both hands

Information that an injury has just occurred is carried to the brain via the pain pathway;

information that the injury has not yet healed is carried to the brain via the pain pathway.

a. fast; slow

b. fast; fast

c. slow; fast

d. slow; slow

The vestibular sense reports information from a set of receptors in

a. the joints

b. the muscles

c. the inner ear

d. the skin

Which of the following parts of the ear has a role in maintaining balance?

a. the cochlea

b. the basilar membrane

c. the semicircular canals

d. the ossicles

Consciousness includes awareness of

a. external events only

b. internal sensations only

c. self only

d. external events, internal sensations, and self

The EEG pattern associated with normal, waking, alert states is

a. gammab. beta

c. alpha

d. delta

The delta wave EEG pattern is associated with

a. dreaming

b. deep sleep

c. a waking state

d. none of these states

A circadian rhythm involves a biological cycle that fluctuates

a. every 8 hours

b. dailyc. monthly

d. yearly

Stage I sleep is represented by EEG brain-wave patterns referred to as

a. alpha waves

b. REM waves

c. synchronisitic waves

d. zeta waves

18

~


19/21

Name:- - - - - - - - - - -

lD: A

ISO. Slow-wave sleep refers to stages and an EEG rhythm of _

a. 1and 2; theta

b. 2 and 3; alpha

c. 1 and 4; theta

d. 3 and 4; delta

lSI. The stage of sleep in which the slowest brain waves occur is

a. stage 1

b. stage 2

c. REM

d. stage 4

152. Which of the following is (are) characteristic of REM sleep?

a. dreamsb. rapid eye movements

c. relaxed muscle tone

d. all of these

153. Dreaming typically goes with which sleep stage?

a. REMb. stage I

c. stage 2

d. stage 4

154. REM sleep is also known as paradoxical sleep because

a. subjects in REM sleep are deeply asleep, but are extremely easy to awaken

b. brain activity during REM sleep is similar to that observed in wide-awake subjects

c. muscular tension during REM sleep is similar to that observed in wide-awake subjects

d. the eyes are open even though the person is sleeping

155. Sheri has no trouble falling asleep, but she has difficulty remaining asleep. Sheri is suffering from

a. insomnia

b. narcolepsyc. sleep apnea

d. pseudoinsomnia

IS6. The rare sleep disorder in which a person will, without warning, go directly from being awake into REM

sleep is

a. sleep apnea

b. narcolepsy

c. hypersomnia

d. somnambulism

157. Sleep apnea is characterized bya. a sudden, irresistible urge to sleep during normal waking hours

b. a reflexive gasping for air during sleep

c. an extremely low rate of REM

d. "night terrors"

IS8. Night terrors are most closely associated with which of the following?

a. a somnambulistic episode

b. emotional disturbance

c. severe depression

d. NREM sleep

19


20/21

Name: __ ID: A

159. The role-playing theory of hypnosis offered by Barber and Spanos suggests that the hypnotized subject

a. actually fakes the hypnotic state

b. enters into a trance and acts out suggestions

c. knows that he or she is only pretending

d. is in a normal state but acts out the role of a hypnotized person

160. Dissociation refers to

a. a loss of inhibition by hypnotized subjects

b. a hypnotized subject's willingness to act out the hypnotist's suggestions

c. a splitting of mental processcs into two separate, simultaneous streams of awareness

d. role playing by hypnotized subjects in response to situational cues

20


21/21

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A

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B

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B

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130.

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132.

133.

134.

135.

136.

137.

138.

139.

140.

141.

142.

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145.

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147.

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149.150.

151.

152.

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157.

158.

159.

160.

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100.101.

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106.

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108.

109.

110.

111.

112.

113.

114.

115.

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117.

118.

119.

120.

121.

122.

123.

124.

125.

126.

127..128. A

_~29. D i---- -'- -- --

40. B :

41. e42. e43. A ,

44. e45. B I

46. e i

47. Be \

48.

49. B I50. A I

51. e52. e53. D

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58. D .

59. A

60. B

61. e62. D

63. D

64. A

65. A

66. A

67. B

68. B

69. e70. A

71. A

72. B

73. B

74. e75. D

76. A

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-0- ~~: ~J '83. A

__ ._____ 84. B_ . _ - '-. -------

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4. B

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14. D

15. B

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20. B

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22. B

23. D

24. B

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26. e27. D

28. e29. A

30. e31. D

32. B

33. e34. e35. D

36. D

37. A

38. A

39. D

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