A Unit of Med-Xel Tutorials INDIAN POLITYdrarvindsbiology.com/Content/papers/1C_P8.pdf · 11....

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DR. ARVIND’S BIOLOGY CLASSES (A Unit of Med-Xel Tutorials)

INDIAN POLITY

1. The retirement age of a judge of the Supreme Court is a) 65 years b) 62 years c) 70 years d) 58 years

Ans. (a) 2. Recently reservation for SC and ST in

Parliament and State Legislatures is extended for further 10 years through Constitution’s. a) 84th Amendment b) 23rd Amendment c) 82nd Amendment d) None of these

Ans. (b) 3. Who is the Supreme Commander of Indian

Armed Forces? a) The Chief of Staff of India Armed Forces b) The Prime Minister of India c) The Defence Minister of India d) The President of India

Ans. (d) 4. ‘Sine die’ means

a) Before death b) After death c) Without fixing a date d) Immature death

Ans. (c) 5. Who was the Prime Minister of Britain

when India got Independence? a) Sir Robert Walpole b) Gladstone c) Winston Churchill d) Clement Atlee

Ans. (d) 6. Which one of the following bodies is

presided over by a non-member? a) Lok Sabha b) Vidhan Sabhas of various states c) Rajya Sabha d) None of these

Ans. (c) 7. How many members can be nominated by

the President in Lok Sabha? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

Ans. (b) 8. The official residence of the Prime Minister

of Britain is a) 10 Downing Street b) Elysee Palace c) Pentagon d) White House

Ans. (a) 9. The Parliament of USA is known as

a) Federal Assembly b) Diet c) Knesset d) Congress

Ans. (d) 10. A candidate to become a member of the

Lok Sabha should not be less than a) 25 years of age b) 27 years of age c) 30 years of age d) 35 years of age

Ans. (a) 11. Article 370 of the Indian Constitution is

related to a) Jammu and Kashmir b) Sikkim c) Nagaland d) Assam

Ans. (a) 12. The Constitution of India was framed by

the a) British Parliament b) Constituent Assembly of India c) Members of the then Provincial

Legislature d) People of India

Ans. (b) 13. Right to Freedom of Speech in India is

guaranteed by a) Article 14 b) Article 15 c) Article 19 d) Article 21

Ans. (c) 14. In Parliamentary form of Government, the

executive is responsible to the a) Public b) President c) Judiciary d) Legislature

Ans. (d) 15. Who decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill

or not a) President b) Speaker of Lok Sabha c) Vice-President d) Finance Minister

Ans. (b) 16. Among the following States, which one

sends the highest number of members to the Lok Sabha? a) Andhra Pradesh b) Bihar c) Karnataka d) Madhya Pradesh

Ans. (a) 17. Rajya Sabha has no power over

a) Bills to amend the constitution b) Finance Bills c) Bills on subjects falling in the

Concurrent List d) Impeachment proceedings

Ans. (b) 18. India is a republic, because

a) The members of Parliament is elected b) The President is elected c) It has one constitution d) It is Sovereign

Ans. (b)

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19. The union territories are administrated by the a) President b) Prime Minister & his officials c) President through administrator

appointed by him d) Parliament

Ans. (c) 20. The longest Constitution of the World is of

a) United Kingdom b) India c) U.S.S.R. d) U.S.A.

Ans. (b) 21. In our parliamentary form of government.

a) The Parliament is supreme b) The Constitution is supreme c) Both have equal powers and may

supersede each other d) The executive is supreme

Ans. (b) 22. From which Constitution of the world have we

borrowed the concept of Fundamental Rights? a) UK b) Canada c) Russia d) USA

Ans. (d) 23. The number of Union Territories in India is:

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 4 Ans. (c) 24. The Legislative Council of a State in India

can be abolished or created by a) The President of India in consultation

with the Council of Ministers of the state concerned

b) The Legislative Assembly of the State concerned

c) The Parliament of a joint sitting of both the Houses

d) The Parliament provided the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect

Ans. (d) 25. Which one of the following Articles of the

Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance’? a) Article 215 b) Article 275 c) Article 325 d) Article 355

Ans. (d) 26. The attorney general of India is the legal

advisor to a) President of India b) Prime minister of foreign policies c) Government of finance policies d) Government of India

Ans. (d) 27. The Constitution of India was enacted by a

Constituent Assembly set up:

a) Under the Indian Independence Act, 1947 b) Under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946 c) Through a resolution of the provisional

government d) By the Indian National Congress

Ans. (b) 28. Who presided over the inaugural meeting

of the Constituent Assembly of India? a) Sachidananda Sinha b) B.R. Ambedkar c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad d) P. Upendra

Ans. (a) 29. Who among the following was the

Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?

a) Rajendra Prasad b) Tej Bahadur Sapru c) C. Rajagopalachari d) B.R. Ambedkar

Ans. (d) 30. How long did the Constituent Assembly

take to finally pass the Constitution? a) About 6 months in 1949 b) Exactly a year since Nov 26, 1948 c) About 2 year since Aug 15, 1947 d) About 3 years since Dec 9, 1946

Ans. (d) 31. Who was the President of the Constituent

Assembly? a) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad c) Dr. B.R Ambedkar d) C. Rajagopalachari

Ans. (b) 32. The Cabinet Mission to India was headed by:

a) Stafford Cripps b) A.V. Alexander c) Lord Pethick Lawrence d) Hugh Gaitskell

Ans. (c) 33. The Constituent Assembly for undivided

India first met on a) 6th December, 1946 b) 9th December, 1946 c) 20th February, 1947 d) 3rd June, 1947

Ans. (b) 34. Who among the following was the

Constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly of India? a) Dr. B.N. Rao b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar c) K.M. Munshi d) M.C. Setalvad

Ans. (a)

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35. The design of the National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India in: a) July, 1948 b) July, 1950 c) July, 1947 d) August, 1947

Ans. (c) 36. Who proposed the Preamble before the

Drafting Committee of the Constitution? a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) B.R. Ambedkar c) B.N. Rao d) Mahatma Gandhi

Ans. (a) 37. From which of the countries, Constitution

of India has adopted fundamental duties? a) USA b) Canada c) Erstwhile USSR d) UK

Ans. (c) 38. The Constitution names our country as:

a) Bharat b) India, that is Bharat c) Hindustan d) Aryavarta

Ans. (b) 39. Which of the following is not a condition for

becoming a citizen of India? a) Birth b) Acquiring Property c) Descent d) Naturalisation

Ans. (b) 40. Which of the following rights was described

by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as ‘The Heart and Soul of the Constitution’? a) Right of Freedom of Religion b) Right to Property c) Right to Equality d) Right to Constitutional Remedies

Ans. (d) 41. Protection of the interests of the minorities

is envisaged in which of the following articles? a) 14 b) 19 c) 29 d) 32

Ans. (c) 42. Which Article of the Constitution envisages

free and compulsory education for children upto the age of 14 years? a) Article 45 b) Article 19 c) Article 29 d) Article 32

Ans. (a) 43. The framers of the Constitution borrowed

the concept of Directive Principles from: a) Constitution of Indian Republic b) Government of India Act, 1935 c) Constitution of Ireland d) Constitution of Switzerland

Ans. (c) 44. The Constitution describes India as a:

a) Federation of States b) Union of States c) Confederation of States d) Unitary State

Ans. (b)

45. Total number of schedules now in Indian Constitution is: a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12

Ans. (d) 46. Which part of the Constitution incorporates

special provisions with regard to the state of Jammu and Kashmir? a) Part VI b) Part IX c) Part XI d) Part XXI

Ans. (d) 47. Match the following:

A. Abolition of Untouchability 1. Article 24 B. Abolition of Titles 2. Article 23 C. Prohibition of Child Labour 3. Article 17 D. Prohibition of Traffic 4. Article 18 In human beings A B C D A B C D a) 3 4 2 1 b) 2 4 1 3 c) 3 4 1 2 d) 1 3 2 4

Ans. (c) 48. Match the following:

A. National Emergency 1. Article 356 B. Constitutional Emergency 2. Article 360 C. Financial Emergency 3. Article 352 A B C A B C a) 1 2 3 b) 2 1 3 c) 2 3 1 d) 3 1 2

Ans. (d) 49. A proclamation of emergency issued under

Article 352 must be approved by the parliament within: a) 1 month b) 6 weeks c) 2 months d) 3 months

Ans. (a) 50. National emergency has been declared so far:

a) Once b) Twice c) Thrice d) Four times

Ans. (c) 51. A proclamation of national emergency

automatically suspends: a) All fundamental rights b) Right to freedom c) Right to constitutional remedies d) No fundamental right

Ans. (b) 52. On the basis of financial crisis, Emergency has

been declared by the president of India: a) Not Even once b) In 1962 c) In 1971 d) In 1991

Ans. (a) 53. Who administers the oath of office to the

President? a) Chief Justice of India b) Speaker of Lok Sabha c) Prime Minister d) Vice President

Ans. (a)

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54. An individual who is not a member of either House of Parliament can be appointed a member of either House within a period of: a) 1 month b) 2 months c) 3 months d) 6 months

Ans. (d) 55. If the President wants to resign from office,

he may do so by writing to the: a) Vice-President b) Chief Justice of India c) Prime Minister d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Ans. (a) 56. The minimum age required for becoming

the Prime Minister of India is: a) 25 years b) 30 years c) 40 years d) 35 years

Ans. (a) 57. The president can be removed by the way

of impeachment which can be made only: a) By the Supreme Court b) By the Rajya Sabha c) By the Members of Lok Sabha and

Rajya Sabha. d) Can not be impeached

Ans. (c) 58. Which of the following appointments is not

made by the President of India? a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha b) Chief Justice of India c) Chief of the Air Force d) Chief of the Army

Ans. (a) 59. In case a President dies while in office, the

Vice President can act as President for a maximum period of: a) 2 years b) 1 year c) 3 months d) 6 months

Ans. (d) 60. Who among the following has the power to

form a new state within the Union of India? a) President b) Prime Minister c) Supreme Court d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Ans. (a) 61. Put in chronological order the following

names of presidents of India. I. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

II. V.V. Giri III. Dr. Zakir Hussain IV. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy a) I, II, III, IV b) I, III, II, IV c) II, I, III, IV d) I, III, IV, II

Ans. (b)

62. The executive authority of the Union is vested by the Constitution in the: a) Prime Minister b) President c) Cabinet d) Union Legislature

Ans. (b) 63. Who acts as the President of India when

neither the President nor the Vice President is available? a) Speaker of Lok Sabha b) Chief Justice of India c) Auditor General of India d) Seniormost Governor of a State

Ans. (b) 64. Who among the following are appointed by

the President of India? I. Governors of States II. The Chief Justice and Judges of High

Courts III. The Chief Justice and the Judges of the

Supreme Court IV. The Vice-President a) I and II b) I, II and III c) II, III, and IV d) III and IV

Ans. (b) 65. When the Vice President officiates as

President, he draws the salary of: a) President b) Member of Parliament c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha d) Both (a) and (c)

Ans. (a) 66. Who elects the Vice-President?

a) The same electoral college which elects the President

b) Members of the Rajya Sabha c) An electoral college consisting of

members of Parliament d) Members of Parliament at a joint meeting

Ans. (c) 67. The resolution for removing the Vice-

President of India can be moved in the: a) Lok Sabha alone b) Either House of Parliament c) Joint Sitting of Parliament d) Rajya Sabha alone

Ans. (d) 68. The portfolios are allocated to the ministers by:

a) The President b) The Prime Minister c) Collective decision of the Council of

Ministers d) Individual choice

Ans. (b)

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69. In the event of the resignation or death of the Prime Minister: a) The Ministry is dissolved b) Fresh general elections must take

place c) The Cabinet may choose another

leader d) The President decides what to do

Ans. (a) 70. The Prime Minister is:

a) Elected by Lok Sabha b) Elected by the Parliament c) Appointed by the President d) Nominated by the Party enjoying

majority in Lok Sabha Ans. (c) 71. Who was the member of the Rajya Sabha

when first appointed as the Prime Minister of India? a) Lal Bahadur Shastri b) Indira Gandhi c) Morarji Desai d) Charan Singh

Ans. (b) 72. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya

Sabha? a) President b) Vice-President c) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs d) Leader of Opposition

Ans. (b) 73. Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected

according to: a) Cumulative Vote System b) Single Non-transferable Vote System c) Single Transferable Vote System d) None of the above

Ans. (c) 74. The Rajya Sabha can have a maximum

strength of: a) 200 b) 210 c) 250 d) 260

Ans. (c) 75. Who was the first speaker of the Lok Sabha?

a) G. V. Malvankar b) P. Upendra c) Anantha Sayanam Ayyanagar d) Hukam Singh

Ans. (a) 76. Who is authorized to decide over a dispute

regarding disqualification of a member of Parliament? a) Election Commissioner b) Speaker of Lok Sabha c) President d) A committee set up by the Parliament

Ans. (c) 77. The maximum number of representatives

of the States in Lok Sabha is: a) 525 b) 530 c) 545 d) 550

Ans. (d) 78. Who was the first leader of the Opposition

in the Rajya Sabha? a) Y.B. Chavan b) Bhola Paswan c) Kamlapati Tripathi d) C.M. Stephen

Ans. (c) 79. Which Union Terriotories are represented

in Rajya Sabha at present? I. Delhi II. Pondicherry III. Lakshadweep IV.Chandigarh a) I, II and IV b) II and III c) I, II, III and IV d) I and II

Ans. (d) 80. The time gap between two sessions of the

Parliament should not exceed: a) 3 months b) 6 months c) 9 months d) 1 year

Ans. (b) 81. The quorum required to hold meetings of

the legislative chambers is what fraction of the total membership of the House? a) 1/3 b) 1/4 c) 1/6 d) 1/10

Ans. (d) 82. One third of the members of the Rajya

Sabha retire after every: a) One year b) Second year c) Third year d) Fifth year

Ans. (b) 83. A money bill passed by the Lok Sabha

has to be passed/returned by Rajya Sabha within: a) 14 days b) 21 days c) 1 month d) 3 months

Ans. (a) 84. Which of the following can be abolished,

but not dissolved? a) Rajya Sabha b) Municipal Bodies c) State Legislative Council d) None of the above

Ans. (c) 85. The Rajya Sabha has a life of:

a) 2 years b) 6 years c) 7 years d) Permanency

Ans. (d) 86. Parliament or a State Legislature can

declare a seat vacant if a member absents himself without permission from the sessions for: a) 30 days b) 60 days c) 90 days d) 120 days

Ans. (b) 87. How many times can the president of India

return a non-money bill, passed by parliament? a) Twice b) Once c) Thrice d) Never

Ans. (b)

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88. Who is considered the guardian of the Public Purse? a) Parliament b) Controller and Auditor-General c) Public Accounts Committee d) The President

Ans. (b) 89. If an unqualified or disqualified person sits

and votes in parliament: a) He is liable to be prosecuted and jailed b) He may be fined Rs. 500 per day of his

so sitting c) He may be imprisoned by the House d) Nothing can be done

Ans. (b) 90. Which of the following actions are not

performed by the president? a) Proroguing Parliament b) Convening a joint sitting if requested c) Dissolving the Rajya Sabha d) Causing the Budget to be laid before

Parliament Ans. (c) 91. The total number of members in a

Legislative Council should not exceed that of a legislative Assembly by: a) 1/3 b) 2/3 c) 1/2 d) 1/4

Ans. (a) 92. Which of the following non-members of

Parliament has the right to address it? a) Solicitor-General of India b) Chief Justice of India c) Attorney General of India d) Chief Election Commissioner

Ans. (c) 93. Which Judge of the Supreme Court was

unsuccessfully sought to be impeached? a) Justice H.R. Khanna b) Justice A.N. Grover c) Justice M. Hidayatullah d) Justice Ramaswami

Ans. (d) 94. The total number of High Courts in India at

present is: a) 15 b) 16 c) 18 d) 21

Ans. (d) 95. The age of retirement of the Judge of the

High Court is: a) 62 years b) 65 years c) 58 years d) 60 years

Ans. (a) 96. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the

High Court are appointed by the: a) President b) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court c) Governor of the concerned state d) Chief Minister of the concerned state

Ans. (a) 97. The High Court which has the distinction of

having the first woman Chief Justice is a) Allahabad High Court b) Delhi High Court c) Himachal Pradesh High Court d) Guwahati High Court

Ans. (c) 98. Which High Court has jurisdiction over the

state of Arunachal Pradesh? a) Guwahati b) Bombay c) Calcutta d) Chandigarh

Ans. (a) 99. The only Union Territory which has a high

court of its own: a) Delhi b) Lakshadweep c) Chandigarh d) Daman and Diu

Ans. (a) 100. The Governor is appointed by the:

a) Prime Minister b) President c) Chief Minister d) Chief Justice

Ans. (b) 101. The membership of a State Legislative Council:

a) Shall not be more than 1/3rd of the membership of the Legislative Assembly

b) Shall not be less than 40 c) Shall not be less than 2/3rd of total

membership of Lok Sabha d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans. (d) 102. Who is the longest serving Chief Minister

in India? a) Bhajan Lal b) Hiteshwar Saikia c) Chimanbhai Patel d) Jyoti Basu

Ans. (d) 103. The first woman Governor of a state in

free India was a) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu b) Mrs. Sucheta Kripalani c) Mrs Indira Gandhi d) Mrs. Vijaya Laxmi Pandit

Ans. (a) 104. The ordinances issued by the Governor

are subject to approval by: a) Parliament b) State Legislature c) President d) No one

Ans. (b) 105. The State Legislative Assembly

participates in the election of: I. President II. Vice-President III. Rajya Sabha members IV. Members of Legislative Council of the

State a) I, II and III b) I, III, and IV c) I and III d) I, II, III, and IV

Ans. (b)

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106. Which of these States has the bicameral legislature? 1. Bihar 2.Gujarat 3. Karnataka 4. Jammu & Kashmir 5. Maharashtra 6. U. P.

a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6 c) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 d) All of these Ans. (b) 107. The largest contribution to the total

combined annual tax revenue of the Centre, States and Union Territories in India is made by: a) Sales tax b) Income and Corporation Tax c) Custom duties d) Union Excise duties

Ans. (d) 108. Which of the following is not included in

the State list in the Constitution of India: a) Police b) Prison c) Law and Order

d) Criminal Procedure Code Ans. (d) 109. Which of the following were Union

Territories before becoming States? I. Himachal Pradesh II. Manipur III. Sikkim IV. Tripura a) I, II, and IV b) II and III c) I and II d) I and III

Ans. (a) 110. Put in the correct order of their creation:

I. Assam II. Nagaland III. Goa IV. Mizoram a) I, II, III, IV b) II, I, IV, III c) I, II, IV, III d) I, IV, II, III

Ans. (c) 111. English is the official language of which of

the following states? a) Manipur b) Nagaland c) Karnataka d) Andhra Pradesh

Ans. (b) 112. The first general elections in India were

held in: a) 1949 b) 1950 c) 1951 d) 1947

Ans. (c) 113. What is the correct sequence of steps in

electoral procedure? I. Filing of nominations II. Presidential notification III. Scrutiny of nomination papers IV. Withdrawal of candidature V. Allotment of symbols a) I, III, IV, V, II b) II, I, IV, V, III c) I, III, V, IV, II d) II, I, III, IV, V

Ans. (d)

114. Electioneering has to stop in a constituency: a) One day before the election b) 48 hours before election starts c) 36 hours before a poll commences d) 48 hours before the closing hours of

polling Ans. (d) 115. A person is eligible to vote in the general

elections if he or she: I. Is a citizen of India II. Is not less than 21 years of age III. Does not hold any office of profit under

the Government IV. In not disqualified on grounds of

unsound mind a) I, II and III b) I and IV c) I and II d) I, II and IV

Ans. (b) 116. Finance Commission is constituted by the

president every: a) Two years b) Three years c) Five years d) Four years

Ans. (c) 117. Panchayati raj has received constitutional

status with the …….. Amendment Act: a) 72nd b) 73rd c) 74th d) 75th

Ans. (b) 118. In which of the following states was the

Panchayati Raj first introduced? a) Rajasthan b) Gujarat c) U.P. d) Bihar

Ans. (a) 119. A person to be qualified for standing in a

panchayat election must have attained the age of: a) 21 years b) 18 years c) 25 years d) 30 years

Ans. (a) 120. Who is entitled to initiate a Bill for

Constitutional amendments? a) State Legislative Assemblies b) Lok Sabha only c) Either House of Parliament d) Rajya Sabha only

Ans. (c) 121. Indian Constitution was amended for the

first time in: a) 1950 b) 1951 c) 1952 d) 1953

Ans. (b) 122. Of all the amendments in the Indian

Constitution, the most comprehensive and controversial amendment was: a) 42nd b) 43rd c) 44th d) 45th

Ans. (a)

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123. How many States are required to rectify certain amendments to the Constitution? a) Not less than half the number b) Three-fourths of the number c) At least 10 States d) All States in some cases

Ans. (a) 124. A bill in the imperial Legislative Council for

compulsory and free primary education was introduced by

a) Shankaran Nair b) Mohammad Shafi c) G. K. Gokhale d) Feroz Shah Mehta Ans. (c) 125. Who among the following was not a

member of the Constituent Assembly established in July 1946?

a) Vallabhbhai Patel b) Mahatma Gandhi c) K. M. Munshi d) J. B. Kripalani Ans. (b) 126. Which of the following was adopted from

the Maurya dynasty in the emblem of Government of India?

a) Four lions b) Chariot Wheel c) Horse d) Words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ Ans. (a) 127. Who presided over the inaugural meeting

of the Constituent Assembly of India? a) Sachchidananda Sinha b) B. R. Ambedkar c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad d) P. Upendra

Ans. (a) 128. The first session of the Constituent

Assembly was held in a) Bombay b) Calcutta c) Lahore d) New Delhi Ans. (d) 129. Who was the Chairman of the Constituent

Assembly? a) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar d) C. Rajagopalachari

Ans. (b) 130. India became a Sovereign, democratic

republic on a) Aug 15, 1947 b) Jan 30, 1948 c) Jan 26, 1950 d) Nov 26, 1929 Ans. (c) 131. The Cabinet Mission to India was headed by a) Stafford Cripps b) A. V. Alexander c) Lord Pethick Lawrence d) Hugh Gaitskell Ans. (c)

132. Who among the following is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution?

a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar b) Mahatma Gandhi c) Jawaharlal Nehru d) Vallabhbhai Patel Ans. (a) 133. The state of Bombay was bifurcated into

Maharashtra and Gujarat on May 1, in the year

a) 1958 b) 1959 c) 1962 d) 1960 Ans. (d) 134. Which of the following Union Territories

at-tained statehood in February, 1987? a) Goa b) Arunachal Pradesh c) Pondicherry d) Daman and Diu Ans. (b) 135. The 25th Indian state to achieve statehood is a) Goa b) Arunachal Pradesh c) Mizoram d) Sikkim Ans. (a) 136. The first state to become bifurcated after

independence was a) Bengal b) Bombay c) Punjab d) Assam Ans. (b) 137. The Indian Constitution closely follows the

Constitutional system of a) USA b) U. K. c) Switzerland d) USSR

Ans. (b) 138. The concept of welfare state is included in

which part of the Indian Constitution? a) The Preamble of the Constitution b) Fundamental Rights c) Directive Principles of State Policy d) 4th Schedule of the Constitution

Ans. (c) 139. In a federal state

a) States are more powerful than the Centre b) Centre is more powerful than States c) A Presidential form of government

functions d) Constitution effects division of powers

between the Centre and States with safeguards against transgression of jurisdiction

Ans. (a) 140. Which of the following words were added

to the ‘Preamble to the Constitution’ through the 42nd Amendment? A. Sovereign B. Socialist C. Secular D. Democratic Select the answer from the codes given below: a) A and B b) A, B and C c) B and C d) A, B, C and D

Ans. (c)

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141. The Indian Constitution is regarded as a) Federal b) Unitary c) Parliamentary d) Federal in form and Unitary in spirit

Ans. (d) 142. Which of the following is a feature

common to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation?

a) A single citizenship b) Dual Judiciary c) Three lists in the Constitution d) A Federal Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution Ans. (d) 143. The inspiration of ‘Liberty, Equality and

Fraternity’ was derived from a) American revolution b) French revolution c) Russian revolution d) None of these

Ans. (b) 144. There is a Parliamentary system of

government in India because a) The Lok Sabha is directly elected by

the people b) The Parliament can amend the

Constitution c) The Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved d) The Council of Ministers is responsible

in the Lok Sabha Ans. (d) 145. Which of the following is not a

characteristic of the federal state? a) Unicameralism b) Independent Judiciary c) Division of powers d) Written Constitution Ans. (c) 146. At the time of enactment of the

Constitution which one of the following ideals was not included in the Preamble? a) Equality b) Justice c) Socialist d) Liberty

Ans. (c) 147. Which of the following is not a basic

feature of the Indian Constitution? a) Presidential Government b) Parliamentary Government c) Federal Government d) Independence of Judiciary

Ans. (a) 148. Which of the following is not a part of the

Preamble to the Indian Constitution? a) Secularism b) Socialism c) Democratic Republic d) Federalism Ans. (d)

149. Protection of the interests of the minorities is envisaged in which of the following articles? a) 14 b) 19 c) 29 d) 32

Ans. (c) 150. The Directive Principles of State Policy

included in the Constitution of India have been inspired by the Constitution of

a) U.S.A. b) Ireland c) Canada d) Australia Ans. (b) 151. On whom does the Constitution confer

special responsibility for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?

a) Parliament b) Supreme Court c) President d) State legislature Ans. (b) 152. Which of the following is not a

Fundamental Right? a) Right to Equality b) Right against Exploitation c) Right to Property d) Right to Freedom of Religion Ans. (c) 153. Which of the following is not specifically

mentioned in Article 19 of the Constitution? a) Freedom of speech and expression b) Freedom to assemble peacefully

without arms c) Freedom to move freely d) Freedom of the press

Ans. (d) 154. Right to Property was removed from the

list of Fundamental Rights by which amendment?

a) 14th b) 42nd c) 39th d) 44th Ans. (d) 155. Which of the following Directive Principles

of State Policy has NOT been implemented so far? a) Separation of judiciary from the Executive b) Promotion of international peace and

security c) Uniform civil code for the citizens d) Organisation of village panchayats

Ans. (c) 156. Right to free education within certain limits is

a) Guaranteed as a Fundamental Right b) Enshrined in the Directive Principles of

State Policy. c) Outlined in the Preamble of the Constitution d) Ignored by the Constitution

Ans. (b) 157. The prohibition of traffic in human beings

and ‘begar’ comes under a) Art 22 b) Art 23 c) Art 24 d) Art 25 Ans. (b)

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158. The Directive Principles in the Indian Constitution are drawn on the lines of the a) American Constitution b) Canadian Constitution c) French Constitution d) Irish Constitution

Ans. d) 159. Fundamental Freedoms under Article 19

are suspended during emergency caused by a) War or external aggression b) Failure of constitutional machinery of a

state c) Internal armed rebellion d) Financial crisis

Ans. (a) 160. In Indian Constitution, there is no provision for

a) Religious Rights b) Political and Social Rights c) Educational Rights d) Economic Rights

Ans. (d) 161. Chapter III on the Fundamental Rights

contains twenty four articles from a) Art 12 to 35 b) Art 14 to 37 c) Art 10 to 33 d) Art 16 to 19 Ans. (a) 162. Right to Equality before law is a) Civil right b) Economic right c) Social right d) Political right Ans. (a) 163. What is the minimum permissible age for

employment in any factory or mine? a) 12 years b) 14 years c) 16 years d) 18 years

Ans. (b) 164. Which of the following is not a

Fundamental Right? a) Right to strike b) Right against exploitation c) Right to equality d) Right to freedom of religion

Ans. (a) 165. The total number of Fundamental duties

mentioned in the Constitution is a) 9 b) 10 c) 11 d) 12

Ans. (b) 166. Fundamental Duties were incorporated in

the Indian constitution in a) 1971 b) 1972 c) 1975 d) 1976

Ans. (d) 167. Which of the following signifies an

important distinction between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles? a) While the former are rights of citizens,

the latter are duties of the state.

b) While the former relate largely to civic aspects, the latter relate to socio-economic and international aspects.

c) While the former relate to the present, the latter are not so time-bound.

d) While the former are judicially enforceable, the latter are not so enforceable.

Ans. (d) 168. Article 17 of the Constitution

a) Protects individual freedom b) Grants right to equality c) Abolishes untouchability d) Grants right to Constitutional remedies

Ans. (c) 169. ‘Contempt of Court’ places restriction on

which Fundamental Right? a) Right to Freedom b) Right against exploitation c) Right to Equality d) Right to Constitutional Remedies

Ans. (a) 170. For those Union Territories, which have

no Legislative Councils of their own, laws are passed by

a) Union Ministry b) President c) Parliament d) Appointed Administrator

Ans. (c) 171. The first woman film star nominated/elected

to the Rajya Sabha was a) Nargis Dutt b) Vyjayanthimala c) Hema Malini d) Jayalalitha

Ans. (a) 172. Which of the following bills cannot be

introduced first in the Rajya Sabha? a) Money Bills b) Bills pertaining to the removal of the

President by impeachment c) Bills bringing a state under the

President’s Rule. d) Bills pertaining to the powers of the

Supreme Court or State Judiciary Ans. (a) 173. Which of the following best defines the

Parliamentary term ‘Crossing the Floor’? a) Leaving the opposition to join the party in

power or vice-versa by a Parliamentarian b) An attempt to occupy the seat of some

other Parliamentarian c) Leaving a House by a minister in between

in order to attend the other House d) Walk out by some Parliamentarians in

order to boycott the proceedings of the House

Ans. (a)

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174. A party having 36 members will avoid disqualification under the provisions of the Anti Defection Law if the number of members crossing the floor is least

a) 8 b) 9 c) 12 d) 18 Ans. (c) 175. In which of the following systems of

Government, can the Government be removed through no-confidence motion passed by the Parliament?

a) Parliamentary b) Presidential c) Federal d) Unitary Ans. (a) 176. An ordinance promulgated by the

President a) Will lapse automatically after 2 months b) Will lapse on the expiration of 6 weeks

from the meeting of the Parliament c) Will automatically become a law after 6

months d) Will continue to be in force till it is

superseded by an Act of the Parliament Ans. (b) 177. The President can promulgate an ordinance

a)When the Lok Sabha has been dissolved b) When there is a conflict between the

two Houses regarding a particular bill c) When a bill passed by the Lok Sabha

is not passed by the Rajya Sabha d) When both the Houses of the

Parliament are not in session. Ans. (d) 178. If a Minister of a state wants to resign, to

whom he should address the letter of resignation?

a) Chief Minister b) Speaker of Vidhan Sabha c) Governor of the State d) Leader of his political party

Ans. (a) 179. A member of Lok Sabha has to ask a

question in the Parliament which has been listed as a starred question. To this he will be given a) A written answer b) An oral answer c) No answer d) An immediate answer

Ans. (b) 180. Amongst the following for whose

removal Parliament’s resolution is not needed? a) Chief Election Commissioner b) Governor of a State c) Judge of Supreme Court d) Comptroller and Auditor General

Ans. (b)

181. When the Governor receives a Bill passed by the State Legislative Assembly, which of the following courses would be most appropriate for the Governor as an agent of the Centre? a) Give assent to the Bill b) Refer the Bill to the President c) Keep the Bill pending d) Exercise veto over the Bill

Ans. (b) 182. To which of the following Bills the

President must accord his sanction without sending it back for fresh consideration? a) Ordinary Bills b) Finance Bills c) Bills passed by both the Houses of the

Parliament d) Bill seeking Amendment to the Constitution

Ans. (b) 183. In the case of a conflict between the

Centre and a State in respect of a subject included in the Concurrent List a) The State Law prevails b) The Union Law Prevails c) The matter is resolved by the Supreme

Court d) The Law which had been passed first

would prevail Ans. (b) 184. Who is the highest Law Officer of a state?

a) Attorney General b) Advocate General c) Solicitor General d) Secretary General Law Department

Ans. (b) 185. What is ‘Zero hour’?

a) When the proposals of the opposition are considered

b) When matters of utmost importance are raised

c) Interval between the morning and afternoon sessions

d) When a Money Bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha

Ans. (b) 186. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

can be removed by a resolution a) Passed by 2/3rd majority of its total

members present b) Passed by a simple majority of its total

members present c) Moved by Rajya Sabha but passed by

Lok Sabha d) None of these

Ans. (b)

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187. A Bill referred to a Joint sitting of the two Houses of the Parliament is to be passed by a) A simple majority b) 2/3rd majority c) 3/4 th majority d) Absolute majority of total membership

Ans. (a) 188. Which of the following Bills was discussed

in the Lok Sabha but was withdrawn before it could be discussed in the Rajya Sabha? a) Benami Transaction Bill b) Newspaper Employees Bill c) Hill Council Bill d) Defamation Bill

Ans. (d) 189. Which of the following has banned ‘floor

crossing’ by the members elected on a party ticket to the legislature? a) 52nd Constitution Amendment Act b) People’s Representation Act c) National Security Act d) Maintenance of Internal Security Act

Ans. (a) 190. The question of disqualification of a

member of the State Legislature shall be decided by a) The Governor in consultation with the

President b) The Governor in consultation with the

Election Commission c) State Legislative Council d) State Legislative Assembly

Ans. (b) 191. The Union President can directly disallow

a State Legislation a) In case of any bill b) In case of money bills c) In case of bills reserved by the

Governor for President’s assent d) Both (b) & (c) above

Ans. (c) 192. Who among the following has the final

power to maintain order within the House of People? a) Marshal of the House b) Prime Minister c) Speaker d) Chief of Security Staff

Ans. (c) 193. Who among the following fixes the salaries

and the allowances of the Speaker of Lok Sabha?

a) President b) Council of Ministers c) Cabinet d) Parliament Ans. (d) 194. Which of the following is not true?

a) A person can be a member of both Houses of Parliament

b) There is no bar to a person contesting to as many seats and as many legislatures as he likes

c) A member of Lok Sabha cannot hold an office of profit under the Government

d) The population of a state is not the sole consideration for allotment of seats in the Rajya Sabha

Ans. (a) 195. If a person elected to both the Union

Parliament and a State Legislature does not vacate his seat in the State Legislature within the stipulated period, then a) His seat in the State Legislature

automatically becomes vacant b) His seat in the Parliament will become

vacant c) Both the seats will become vacant d) He may be debarred from contesting

elections in the future Ans. (b) 196. If a member of Parliament voluntarily

acquires the citizenship of a foreign country. a) He will be penalized b) He can continue to be a member of

Parliament c) He will be disqualified from membership d) He will have a choice of renouncing either

Ans. (c) 197. Which of the following is correct?

a) Speaker cannot be removed without a 2/3rd majority of the total membership of the House

b) The decision of the Speaker whether a particular Bill is a Money Bill is not final unless ratified by the President

c) No court of law can go into the merits of a ruling given by the speaker

d) Not all the proceedings of the House are addressed to the Speaker

Ans. (c) 198. Which of the following is also called the

‘House of Elders’? a) Rajya Sabha b) Lok Sabha c) Gram Sabha d) Vidhan Sabha

Ans. (a) 199. The Rajya Sabha was first constituted on

a) May 13, 1952 b) April 2, 1954 c) April 3, 1952 d) January 1, 1951

Ans. (c)

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200. Which of the following is correct? a) All the members of the Rajya Sabha are

elected by State Legislative Assemblies. b) Only a member of the Rajya Sabha can

contest for the office of the Vice-President

c) While a candidate to the Lok Sabha can contest from any state in India, a candidate to the Rajya Sabha should ordinarily be a resident of the State from where he is contesting

d) The Constitution explicitly prohibits the appointment of a nominated member of the Rajya Sabha to the post of a Minister.

Ans. (c) 201. What is the maximum number of elected

members in a State Assembly? a) 250 b) 300 c) 600 d) 500 Ans. (d) 202. Which of the following is not correct

regarding a Money Bill? a) It can be introduced in either House of

Parliament b) It can be passed by the Lok Sabha

even if the Rajya Sabha rejects it. c) It is deemed to have been passed by

both Houses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days.

d) It requires the prior approval of the President.

Ans. (a) 203. Which parliamentary committee in India is

normally chaired by a prominent member of the Opposition? a) Committee on Government Assurances b) Estimates Committee c) Privileges Committee d) Public Accounts Committee

Ans. (d) 204. Who presides over the Lok Sabha if

neither the Speaker nor the Deputy Speaker is available? a) A member of the House of People

appointed by the President b) A member chosen by Council of

Ministers. c) The senior most member of the Rajya

Sabha. d) The senior most member of the Lok Sabha.

Ans. (d) 205. When a bill passed by Parliament is sent

to the President for his assent, which option is not true to him? a) He may sign it b) He may decline to sign it c) He may return it to Parliament for reconsideration.

d) He may ask to amend it. Ans. (b) 206. The quorum required to hold meetings of

the legislative chambers is what fraction of the total membership of the House?

a) 3

1 b)

4

1 c)

6

1 d)

10

1

Ans. (d) 207. The Union Territories get representation in

a) Lok Sabha b) Rajya Sabha c) Both Houses of Parliament d) None of these

Ans. (c) 208. The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha

who is the Chief of its Secretariat is a) Elected by the Lok Sabha b) Elected by both Houses of Parliament c) Appointed by the Speaker d) Appointed by the President

Ans. (c) 209. The Joint Parliamentary Committee to

examine irregularities and fraudulent manipulations of the Securities Scam consists of a) 25 members of Lok Sabha and 15 of

Rajya Sabha b) 20 members of Lok Sabha and 10 of

Rajya Sabha c) 15 members of Lok Sabha and 15 of

Rajya Sabha d) 30 members of Lok Sabha and 30 of

Rajya Sabha Ans. (b) 210. How many members of the Rajya Sabha

are nominated by the President of India? a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 13 Ans. (c) 211. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be

removed from his office, if the House of the People passes a resolution to this effect by a) 2/3rd majority of members present and

voting b) Simple majority of members present

and voting c) Simple majority of members present

and voting and absolute majority of all the then members of the House

d) Absolute majority of all the then members of the House

Ans. (d)

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212. In the case of a deadlock between the two Houses of the Parliament, the joint sitting is presided over by the

a) President b) Vice-President

c) Speaker of Lok Sabha d) Member of the Lok Sabha specifically elected for the purpose

Ans. (c) 213. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is

a) Elected by the members of Rajya Sabha b) Nominated by the President c) Elected by members of both Houses of

Parliament d) Elected by Parliament and State

Legislatures jointly Ans. (c) 214. The time gap between two sessions of

the Parliament should not exceed a) 3 months b) 6 months c) 9 Months d) 1 year Ans. (b) 215. Joint sittings of the two Houses of

Parliament are held to a) Elect the President of India b) Elect the Vice President of India c) Adopt a Constitution amending Bill d) Consider and pass a bill on which two

Houses disagree Ans. (d) 216. One third of the members of the Rajya

Sabha retire after every a) One year b) Second year c) Third year d) Fifth year

Ans. (b) 217. What is the minimum age for election

appointment as member of the Rajya Sabha? a) 35 years b) 30 years c) 25 years d) 40 years

Ans. (b) 218. What type of Party system has been

evolved in India? a) Single Party b) Bi-party c) Multi- Party d) Party less Ans. (c) 219. When can the speaker exercise his right

to vote in the House? a) Whenever he desires b) Whenever the House desires c) Only in the event of equality of votes d) Whenever his party directs

Ans. (c) 220. According to the Constitution of India the

maximum number of members representing the Union Territories in the Lok Sabha cannot exceed

a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25

Ans. (c) 221. What is the minimum age for being the

member of the Parliament? a) 40 years b) 45 Years c) 50 Years d) None of these

Ans. d) 222. Which of the following non-members of

Parliament has the right to address it? a) Solicitor- General of India b) Chief Justice of India c) Attorney General of India d) Chief Election Commissioner

Ans. (c) 223. How many members of the Lok Sabha

must support a motion of ‘no confidence’ in the government, before it can be admitted by the Speaker? a) 20 b) 25 c) 35 d) 50

Ans. (d) 224. Appointment of the members of the Council

of Ministers is made by the president a) On the advice of the Prime Minister b) In his own discretion c) On the advice of the chief Justice. d) On the advice of the Vice-President

Ans. (a) 225. To be a member of the Lok Sabha a

person has to be a) 27 years b) 30 years c) 25 years d) 21 years

Ans. (c) 226. Who administers the oath of office to the

President? a) Chief Justice of India b) Speaker of Lok Sabha c) Prime Minister d) Vice President

Ans. (a) 227. The members of the State Legislative

Assembly are elected for what period? a) 2 years b) 6 years c) 4 years d) 5 years

Ans. (d) 228. Criterion for a regional party to be

recognized as a national party is a) To be recognized in at least 3 states b) To be recognized in at least 4 states c) To get 1/10th of the seats in Lok Sabha d) To get 1/10th of the seats in the

Parliament Ans. (b) 229. Money Bill can be introduced in

a) Lok Sabha only b) Rajya Sabha only c) Either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha d) None of these

Ans. (a)

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230. Who among the following decides whether particular bill is a Money Bill or not? a) President b) Speaker of Lok Sabha c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha d) Finance Minister.

Ans. (b) 231. Who presides over the meetings of the

Rajya Sabha? a) President b) Vice-President c) Prime Minister d) Speaker

Ans. (b) 232. The Rajya Sabha has a life of

a) 2 years b) 6 years c) 7 years d) Permanency

Ans. (d) 233. The Governor is appointed by the

a) Prime Minister b) President c) Chief Minister d) Chief Justice

Ans. (b) 234. The budget is presented to the Parliament

on a) The last day of February b) 15th March c) The last day of March d) 1st April

Ans. (a) 235. The term of Lok Sabha is normally

a) 4 years b) 5 years c) 6 years d) 2 years

Ans. (b) 236. The Constitution provides for the

nomination to the Lok Sabha two members belonging to the community of a) Syrian Christians b) Anglo-Indians c) Parsis d) Scheduled Castes

Ans. (b) 237. The term of the Lok Sabha

a) Cannot be extended b) Can be extended for another full term

of 5 years. c) Can be extended for an unlimited period d) Can be extended by 1 year at a time

Ans. (d) 238. How many times can the President of

India return a non-money Bill, passed by Parliament?

a) Twice b) Once c) Thrice d) Never Ans. (b) 239. Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected

according to a) Cumulative Vote System b) Single Non-transferable Vote System c) Single Transferable Vote System

d) None of the above Ans. (c) 240. Which of the following can be abolished,

but not dissolved? a) Rajya Sabha b) Municipal Bodies c) State Legislative Council d) None of the above

Ans. (a) 241. How long can a person continue to be a

Minister without being a member of either House of Parliament? a) 3 months b) 6 months c) 1 year d) No time limit

Ans. (b) 242. A party is recognised as a national party if

a) It secures 5% of the total votes polled b) If it contests in all the constituencies c) If it captures power in more than four

states d) If it secures 6% of the votes polled in

four states Ans. (d) 243. Which of the following is correct?

a) Lok Sabha can be dissolved before 5 years.

b) Lok Sabha can be extended only upto 6 years.

c) Lok Sabha is never dissolved before 5 years

d) All members of Lok Sabha are elected representatives.

Ans. (a) 244. Who is authorised to decide over a

dispute regarding disqualification of a member of Parliament? a) Election Commissioner b) Speaker of Lok Sabha c) President d) A Committee set up by the Parliament

Ans. (c) 245. The Lok Sabha is called in session for at

least how many times in a year? a) Twice b) Once c) Thrice d) Four times

Ans. (a) 246. If the Rajya Sabha rejects a Money Bill,

then which of the following is correct? a) Lok Sabha may or may not accept its

recommendation. b) Lok Sabha may not consider it at all. c) President calls a joint session for

passing of the Bill. d) Bill is sent for further consideration.

Ans. (a)

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247. The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the

a) Chief Minister b) Chief Justice c) Prime Minister d) Vice -President Ans. (c) 248. The President gives his resignation to the

a) Prime Minister b) Vice President c) Chief Justice d) Parliament

Ans. (b) 249. The second President of the Indian

Republic was a) V.V. Giri b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan c) Dr. Zakir Hussain d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Ans. (b) 250. For what period does the Vice President

of India hold office? a) 5 years b) 6 Years c) 2 years d) Till the age of 65 years Ans. (a) 251. The total number of members nominated

by the President to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is

a) 12 b) 14 c) 16 d) 18 Ans. (b) 252. Which of the following appointments is

not made by the President of India? a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha b) Chief Justice of India c) Chief of the Air Force d) Chief of the Army

Ans. (a) 253. Who appoints the Prime Minister of India?

a) Parliament b) Citizens of India c) Lok Sabha d) President

Ans. (d) 254. In case a President dies while in office,

the Vice President can act as President for a maximum period of

a) 2 years b) 1 year c) 3 months d) 6 months

Ans. (d) 255. The Union Council of Ministers consists of

a) Prime Minister b) Cabinet Ministers c) Cabinet Ministers and Chief Ministers

of the States d) Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State

and Deputy Ministers Ans. (d) 256. Who administers the oath of office to the

President of India before he enters upon the office?

a) Vice President b) Prime Minister c) Chief Justice d) Speaker

Ans. (c)

257. Who among the following enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister of the Indian Union? a) Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha b) Deputy Chairman of the Planning

Commission c) Secretary to the Government of India d) None of the above

Ans. (b) 258. Which of the following is not an essential

qualification for appointment as a Governor? a) He should be a citizen of India. b) He should be a domicile of the state to

which he is being appointed. c) He must have completed the age of 35

years. d) He must not a member of either House

of Parliament. Ans. (b) 259. The President nominates 12 members of

the Rajya Sabha according to a) Their performance as office bearers of

cultural societies. b) Their role played in political set up of

the country. c) The recommendations made by the

Vice-President d) Their distinction in the field of science,

art, literature and social service. Ans. (d) 260. Who was the member of the Rajya

Sabha when first appointed as the Prime Minister of India?

a) Lal Bahadur Shastri b) Indira Gandhi c) Morarji Desai d) Charan Singh Ans. (b) 261. How many times the President of India

can seek re-election to his post? a) Once b) 2 times c) 3 times d) Any number of times

Ans. (d) 262. Who among the following has the power

to form a new state within the Union of India?

a) President b) Prime Minister c) Supreme Court d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Ans. (a) 263. Who among the following can attend

meetings of the Union Cabinet? a) Cabinet Ministers b) Ministers of State c) Deputy Ministers d) President

Ans. (a)

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264. Who among the following has the Constitutional authority to make rules and regulations fixing the number of members of the UPSC

a) Home Ministry b) President c) Cabinet Secretary d) Vice-President

Ans. (b) 265. Under whose advice the President of India

declares Emergency under Article 352? a) Council of Ministers b) Cabinet c) Chief Ministers of all states d) Prime Minister

Ans. (b) 266. Who acts as the President of India when

neither the President nor the Vice President is available? a) Speaker of Lok Sabha b) Chief Justice of India c) Auditor General of India d) Seniormost Governor of a State

Ans. (b) 267. Who among the following are appointed

by the President of India? I. Chairman, Finance Commission II. Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission III. Chief Minister of a Union Territory

a) I only b) I & II c) I & III d) II & III Ans. (b) 268. The President’s Rule in a State can be

continued for a maximum period of

a) 22

1 years b) 2 years

c) 1 year d) 6 months Ans. (d) 269. The Chairman and members of State

Public Service Commission are appointed by the

a) President b) Prime Minister c) Governor d) Chairman, UPSC

Ans. (b) 270. When a State Governor dies or resigns,

who normally exercises his functions till a new Governor is appointed? a) Secretary General of the Governor b) A Person designated by State Cabinet c) Chief Justice of the High Court d) Advocate General of the State

Ans. (c) 271. Under which Article of the Constitution is

the President’s rule promulgated on any state in India?

a) 356 b) 326 c) 380 d) 370 Ans. (a) 272. The Chairman of the Planning

Commission in India is the

a) Minister of Planning b) Finance Minister c) President d) Prime Minister

Ans. (d) 273. If the office of the President of India falls

vacant, within what time should the next President be elected?

a) Immediately b) Within 2 months c) Within 6 months d) Within 1 year

Ans. (c) 274. The President may for violation of the

Constitution be removed from the office by a) Impeachment b) A no – confidence vote c) The Prime Minister d) The Electoral College consisting of members of Parliament and the State Legislatures.

Ans. (a) 275. In which of the following situations does

the President act in his own discretion? a) In appointing the Prime Minister b) In returning a proposal to the Council of

Ministers for reconsideration c) Both of these d) None of the above

Ans. (b) 276. How many types of Emergency have

been visualised in the Constitution of India?

a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four Ans. (c) 277. The impeachment proceedings against

the Vice-President can be initiated a) Only in Lok Sabha b) Only in Rajya Sabha c) In either House of Parliament d) In neither House of Parliament

Ans. (b) 278. If the President returns a Bill sent to him

for his assent and the Parliament once again passes the Bill in its original form, then the President a) Can once again return the bill for

further reconsideration b) Can ask for a referendum on the bill c) Gives assent to the bill d) Can seek the opinion of the Supreme

Court on the bill Ans. (c)

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279. Which of the following taxes is levied by the State Government only?

a) Entertainment Tax b) Wealth Tax c) Income Tax d) Corporation Tax

Ans. (a) 280. Sarkaria Commission has been

appointed by the Government of India to report on a) Centre- State relations b) Electoral reforms c) Inter- State conflicts d) Tribal development

Ans. (a) 281. The State Government’s responsibility

for educational planning is shared by the a) Ministry of Programme Implementation b) Ministry of Human Resource

Development c) Ministry of Planning d) Ministry of Home Affairs

Ans. (b) 282. Which of the following taxes is

exclusively and totally assigned to the Central Government by the Constitution? a) Estate Duty b) Sales Tax c) Corporation Tax d) Taxes on Railway fares and freight

Ans. (d) 283. Under the Constitution, the residuary

powers vest with the a) President b) Supreme Court c) Union Government d) State Governments

Ans. (c) 284. Which of the following is not in the State

List under the Constitution of India? a) Fisheries b) Agriculture c) Insurance d) Gambling

Ans. (c) 285. Grants-in–aid of revenue to the states is

recommended by the a) Inter – State Council b) Planning Commission c) Finance Commission d) National Development Council

Ans. (c) 286. Which of the following is in the

Concurrent List in the Constitution of India? a) Population control and family planning b) Public health and sanitation c) Capitation taxes

d) Treasure trove Ans. (a) 287. Which subject was transferred from State

List to Concurrent List by the 42nd amendment of the Constitution? a) Agriculture b) Education c) Irrigation d) Local Self Government

Ans. (b) 288. ‘Grants-in-aid’ is provided to the states for

a) Improving the Centre-State relationship. b) Reducing the regional imbalance. c) Improving the development of rural area. d) Implementing various development

programmes and rehabilitation Ans. (d) 289. Who has the Constitutional authority to

decide tax share of states? a) Finance Minister b) Finance Commission c) Planning Commission d) Union Cabinet

Ans. (b) 290. ‘Social Security and Social Insurance’ is

a subject included in the a) Concurrent List b) Residuary power c) State List d) Union List

Ans. (a) 291. Lotteries organized by the government of

a state come under a) Union List b) State List c) Concurrent List d) No list mentioned in the seventh schedule

Ans. (b) 292. In India both direct and indirect taxes are

levied by the Central and State Governments. Which of the following is levied by the State Governments? a) Excise duty on liquour b) Capital gains tax c) Customs duty d) Corporation Tax

Ans. (a) 293. The largest contribution to the total

combined annual tax revenue of the Centre, States and Union Territories in India is made by a) Sales tax b) Income & Corporation Tax c) Custom duties d) Union Excise duties

Ans. (d) 294. The Inter State Council has been set up

under a) Art 263 b) Art 283 c) Art 292 d) Art 352

Ans. (a)

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295. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the High Court are appointed by the a) President b) Chief Justice of the Supreme court c) Governor of the concerned state d) Chief Minister of the concerned state

Ans. (a) 296. Congnizable offence refers to an offence

where a) Arrests can be made without warrant b) Arrests can be made with warrant c) It is under the jurisdiction of a court d) Police can register a case without

formal complaints Ans. (c) 297. The High Courts at Calcutta, Madras and

Bombay, were established under the Indian High Courts Act of a) 1861 b) 1865 c) 1909 d) 1911

Ans. (a) 298. Under the writ of ‘Mandamus’, the Court

can a) Ask the person to be produced b) Ask to let a person free for a temporary

period c) Order to transfer the case from one court d) Direct the Government to do or not to

do a thing Ans. (d) 299. Appointments of officers and servants of

a High Court are made by the a) President b) Governor c) Chief Justice of the High Court d) None of these

Ans. (c) 300. The Constitution gives the powers of

superintendence over all sub-ordinate courts to the High Courts under Article a) 226 b) 227 c) 228 d) 229

Ans. (b) 301. Which of the following writs may be

issued to enforce a Fundamental Right? a) Habeas Corpus b) Mandamus c) Prohibition d) Certiorari

Ans. (a) 302. The authority competent to suspend the

operation of Fundamental Rights guaranteed under the Constitution of India is a) Supreme Court b) Parliament c) Prime Minister d) President

Ans. (d) 303. Which is the highest and final judicial tribunal

in respect of the Constitution of India? a) Parliament b) President c) Supreme Court d) Union Cabinet

Ans. (c) 304. The High Court of West Bengal (Calcutta)

has got the additional jurisdiction to hear cases from a) Andaman and Nicobar islands b) Arunachal Pradesh c) Tripura d) Mizoram

Ans. (a) 305. The lowest court of revenue is that of a

a) Naib Tehsildar b) Third class magistrate c) Munsif d) Sub-judge

Ans. (a) 306. The First Class Magistrates are

competent to award sentence of imprisonment upto a) 2 years b) 1 year c) 3 years d) 4 years

Ans. (a) 307. In which of the following cases appeals

cannot be lodged with the Supreme Court? a) Constitutional matters involving a

substantial point of law b) A sentence in a criminal case given by

the lower court and confirmed by the High Court

c) Criminal case in which High Court has given a death sentence to a criminal found non-guilty by a lower court

d) Criminal case in which High Court after with-drawing a case from the lower court, has given a death sentence

Ans. (b) 308. Which is the highest court of appeal in

India? a) High Court b) Privy Council c) Supreme Court d) President

Ans. (c) 309. Who decides the number of Judges in a

High Court? a) State Government b) President c) Governor of the State d) Parliament

Ans. (b) 310. Which High Court in India, has held that

the pronouncement of ‘Talaq’ thrice in one go is illegal? a) Bombay High Court b) Calcutta High Court c) Allahabad High Court d) None of these

Ans. (c)

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311. The small causes court can hear cases involving a maximum amount of a) Rs 2000 b) Rs 1000 c) Rs 500 d) Rs 5000

Ans. (a) 312. The power of the Supreme Court to

review any judgement pronounced or order made by it previously is provided in Article a) 126 b) 138 c) 137 d) 139

Ans. (c) 313. Which of the following is not a writ issued

by a superior court to an inferior court? a) Prohibition b) Mandamus c) Certiorari d) Quo Warranto

Ans. (d) 314. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court is

appointed by the President a) Alone b) In consultation with the Governor. c) In consultation with the Judges of the

Supreme Court and the High Courts. d) In consultation with judges of the

Supreme Court alone. Ans. (a) 315. The only Union Territory which has a High

Court of its own a) Delhi b) Lakshadweep c) Chandigarh d) Daman & Diu

Ans. (a) 316. The law declared by the Supreme Court

shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India in accordance with Article a) 124 b) 130 c) 136 d) 141

Ans. (d) 317. To be qualified to be a Judge of the

Supreme Court, a person must have served as a Judge of the High Court for at least a) 2 years b) 5 years c) 10 years d) 1 year

Ans. (b) 318. If the Parliament passes a law which is

against the Constitution, it can be declared as unconstitutional by the a) Supreme Court b) President

c) Chief Justice of India d) A bench of High Court Judges Ans. (a) 319. Who among the following is mainly

concerned with the task of the assessment of the land revenue and property taxes? a) Naib Tehsildar b) Tehsildar c) Commissioner d) Collector

Ans. (a)

320. Which of the following has the right to revise its earlier decisions? a) Only Supreme Court b) Only High Courts c) Both the Supreme Court and the High Courts d) None of these

Ans. (a) 321. Which of the following types of judicial

systems does India possess? a) Single Judicial hierarchy b) Double judicial set up c) Federal Judicial system d) Single Court set up

Ans. (a) 322. Which of the following is not a cause of

the end of the service of a Supreme Court Judge before the age of retirement? a) Resignation b) Impeachment c) Termination by the President d) Death

Ans. (c) 323. The words ‘social, secular’ and ‘the unity and

integrity of the nation’ have been added to the Indian Constitution by which amendment? a) 38th b) 40th c) 42nd d) 48th

Ans. (c) 324. The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of

India was a) Added by the 1st amendment b) Added by the 24th amendment c) Added by the 42nd amendment d) A part of the original Constitution

Ans. (a) 325. By which amendment, the power to

amend the Constitution was specifically conferred upon the Parliament? a) 56th b) 52nd c) 42nd d) 24th

Ans. (d) 326. The 42nd amendment to the Indian

Constitution is notable because it gives a) Primacy to Fundamental Rights over

Directive Principles b) Primacy to Directive Principles over

Fundamental Rights c) Special treatment to Jammu & Kashmir d) Special treatment to Sikkim

Ans. (b) 327. Which of the following amendments

provided for the extension of reservation of SC’s and ST’s for another 10 years? a) 43rd b) 44th c) 45th d) 42nd

Ans. (c)

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328. As a result of the 42nd amendment, which of the following has emerged as supreme in the Indian constitutional framework? a) Parliament b) Executive c) Judiciary d) Constitution

Ans. (a) 329. Indian Constitution was amended for the

first time in a) 1950 b) 1951 c) 1952 d) 1953

Ans. (b) 330. Of all the amendments in the Indian

Constitution, the most comprehensive and controversial amendment was a) 42nd b) 43rd c) 44th d) 45th

Ans. (a) 331. Which amendment Bill proposed to grant

statehood to Delhi? a) 44th b) 70th c) 72nd d) 77th

Ans. (c) 332. By which amendment Bill did the

Parliament lower the voting age from 21 to 18 years?

a) 42nd b) 44th c) 62nd d) 73rd Ans. (c) 333. Who gave that ‘no person shall be a

President for more than two terms, and that no amendment of the Constitution is necessary to enjoin this? a) C. Rajagopalachari b) J.B Kripalani c) Jawaharlal Nehru d) Mahatma Gandhi

Ans. (c) 334. Which Constitutional Amendment gave

the Parliament an absolute right to amend the Constitution including the provisions contained in Part III thereof? a) 24th b) 42nd c) 43rd d) 44th

Ans. (b) 335. The Indian Constitution provides how

many methods of amendment? a) One b) Two c) Three d) More than 3.

Ans. (c) 336. The control of the preparation of electoral

rolls for Parliament and legislatures vests with the a) Cabinet b) Prime Minister c) President d) Election Commission

Ans. (d) 337. For election to the Lok Sabha, a

nomination paper can be filed by a) Anyone residing in India.

b) A resident of the Constituency from which the election is to be contested.

c) Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a Constituency.

d) Any citizen of India. Ans. (c) 338. In India, political parties are given

recognition by a) President b) Law Commission c) Speaker of Lok Sabha d) Election Commission

Ans. (d) 339. The maximum age prescribed for election

as President is a) 58 years b) 60 years c) 62 years d) No such limit

Ans. (d) 340. In which year were the first general

elections held in India? a) 1947-48 b) 1948-49 c) 1950-51 d) 1951-52

Ans. (d) 341. Elections to the House of the People and

the Legislative Assemblies of States in India are conducted on the basis of a) Single transferable vote b) Limited suffrage c) Proportional representation d) Adult franchise

Ans. (d) 342. Who appoints the Chief Election

Commissioner of India? a) President b) Prime Minister c) Parliament d) Chief Justice of India

Ans. (a) 343. Parliamentary elections are organized by

the a) President b) Prime Minister c) Lok Sabha d) Election Commission

Ans. (c) 344. How many day’s time is given for the

candidates to file their nominations from the date of notification of the election? a) 2 days b) 4 days c) 6 days d) 8 days

Ans. (d) 345. Who among the following is authorized to

declare elections of the Lok Sabha? a) President b) Prime Minister c) Union Cabinet d) Election Commissioner

Ans. (a)

III/22


346. Which of the following does not come under the purview of the Election Commission? a) To conduct the election of PM of

India b) To conduct the election of President

of India c) To give recognition to the political

parties d) To assign election symbols to the

political parties Ans. (a) 347. Adult suffrage means that

a) Every resident of the country has a right to take part in the administration.

b) Every adult of the country has a say in the administration and governance of the country

c) Every adult of the country without any distinction has a duty to lay his life for the country

d) Every adult can occupy highest office of post without any distinction.

Ans. (b) 348. All electioneering campaigns during the

time of elections are stopped a) 48 hours before the actual poll. b) 48 hours before the appointed time of

election results c) 36 hours before the actual poll d) 72 hours before the actual poll

Ans. (a) 349. In India people are given the right to vote

in the Lok Sabha elections on the basis of a) Education b) Age c) Caste d) Period of stay in the country

Ans. (b) 350. The powers of the Election Commission

are given in which Article of the Constitution? a) Art 286 b) Art 356 c) Art 324 d) Art 382

Ans. (c) 351. Who is a Returning Officer?

a) An officer who returns the unaccepted applications for allotment of land

b) An officer who is sent back to his parent department

c) An officer who is head of the State Assembly Secretariat

d) An officer who is responsible for conduct of election in a Constituency and declares results

Ans. (d) 352. Election of Rajya Sabha is held after

a) 1 year b) 2 years c) 3 years d) 5 years

Ans. (b) 353. Graduates constitute a separate

constituency for the election of specified number of members to the a) Nyaya Panchayat b) State Legislative Council c) Rajya Sabha d) State Legislative Assembly

Ans. (b) 354. Which of the following is not correct?

a) A person seeking election to the Rajya Sabha must have completed the age of 30 years.

b) A person seeking election to the Lok Sabha must have completed the age of 25 years.

c) A person seeking election to a State Legislative Assembly must have completed the age of 21 years.

d) A person eligible to vote for elections to a village Panchayat must have completed the age of 18 years.

Ans. (c) 355. Why is the year 1952 important in Indian

History? a) States Reorganisation Act was passed. b) Haryana State was split. c) First official census in India was held d) First general elections to the Lok

Sabha were held Ans. (d) 356. The reference to Hindus in Article 25 of

the Constitution does not include a) Buddhists b) Jains c) Parsees d) Sikhs

Ans. (c) 357. English is the official language of which of

the following states? a) Manipur b) Nagaland c) Karnataka d) Andhra Pradesh

Ans. (b) 358. The first Law Officer of the Government of

India is a) Chief Justice of India b) Law Minister c) Attorney General d) Auditor General

Ans. (c) 359. The three languages included in the

Eighth Schedule of the Constitution by the 71st amendment are a) Konkani, English, Manipuri b) Konkani, Nepali, Maithili c) Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali d) Manipuri, Nepali, Dogri

Ans. (d)

III/23


360. How many articles are there in the Constitution? a) 395 b) 375 c) 325 d) 385

Ans. (a) 361. Which part of the Constitution

incorporates special provisions with regard to the state of Jammu & Kashmir? a) Part VI b) Part IX c) Part XI d) Part XXI

Ans. (d) 362. Total number of schedules now in India

Constitution is a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12

Ans. (d) 363. Which one of the following was an

associate state of India before becoming a full fledged state? a) Meghalaya b) Mizoram c) Sikkim d) Manipur

Ans. (c) 364. Which of the following is an extra

Constitutional and non-statutory body? a) Election Commission b) Finance Commission c) Planning Commission d) Union Public Service Commission

Ans. (c) 365. How many languages are so far listed in

the eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution? a) 15 b) 16 c) 17 d) 22

Ans. (d) 366. Among the following four persons who

was not the President of India? a) Zakir Hussain b) V.V. Giri c) C. Rajagopalachari d) N. Sanjiva Reddy

Ans. (c) 367. How many spokes are there in our

national emblem ‘Ashoka Chakra’? a) 12 b) 20 c) 15 d) 24

Ans. (d) 368. Indian Constitution recognizes minorities

on the basis of a) Religion b) Caste c) Population d) Colour

Ans. (c) 369. Article 370 of the Constitution deals with

a) Protection of interest of minorities b) Powers of President to grant pardon c) Formation of new states and alteration

of boundaries d) Temporary provision with respect to

Jammu and Kashmir Ans. (d)

370. The only Prime Minister who resigned after losing a vote of confidence in Lok Sabha was a) Indira Gandhi b) Charan Singh c) V.P. Singh d) Chandra Shekhar

Ans. (c) 371. The Constitution’s 92nd Amendment Bill

deals with which of the following? a) Amending the Companies Act b) Providing free and compulsory

education to children between 6 years and 14 years of age

c) Consequential promotions to SC/ST communities

d) None of these Ans. (c) 372. On which of the following Union Territory

was statehood conferred? a) Lakshadweep b) Andaman & Nicobar Island c) Pondicherry d) Goa

Ans. (d) 373. Extradition means

a) Forcing a foreign national to leave the country

b) Forcing a citizen of the country to leave the country

c) Delivering a foreign national for the trial of offences

d) Blocking the trade of other countries with a particular country

Ans. (c) 374. The Constitution describes India as a

a) Federation of States b) Union of States c) Confederation of States d) Unitary State

Ans. (b) 375. The ratio between length and breadth of

Indian National Flag is a) 5 : 3 b) 3 : 2 c) 3 : 4 d) 2 : 1

Ans. (b) 376. The National Planning Commission of

India was constituted in a) 1949 b) 1950 c) 1954 d) 1957

Ans. (b) 377. The National Anthem was first sung in the

year a) 1911 b) 1913 c) 1935 d) 1936

Ans. (a) 378. Finance Commission is appointed for

a) 2 years b) 3 years c) 5 years d) 6 years

Ans. (c)

III/24


379. Which of the following statements regarding the acquisition of Indian Citizenship is correct? a) If citizenship is to be acquired by

registration, six month residence in India is essential

b) If citizenship is to be acquired by naturalization the person concerned must have residence in India for 5 years.

c) If born in India, only that person can acquire citizenship at least one of whose parents is an Indian.

d) Rules regarding the citizenship of India shall not be applicable to Jammu and Kashmir.

Ans. (a) 380. On the basis of financial crisis,

Emergency has been declared by the President of India a) Not even once b) In 1962 c) In 1971 d) In 1991

Ans. (a) 381. The first state in India to be formed on

Iinguistic basis was a) Karnataka b) Maharashtra c) Andhra Pradesh d) Orissa

Ans. (c) 382. Constitution’s 93rd Amendment Bill deals with

a) Providing free and compulsory education to children between 6 years and 14 years of age

b) Cable Television Networks Amendment Bill.

c) Amending the 1938 Insurance Act. d) None of these

Ans. (a) 383. The expression ‘Creamy layer’ used in

the judgement of the Supreme Court relating to the case regarding reservations refers to a) Those sections of the society which

pay in-come tax b) Those sections of socially and

educationally backward classes of the society that are developed

c) Those sections of the society that are considered advanced according to the Karpuri Thakur formula

d) All sections of the upper castes of the society

Ans. (b) 384. What is the document published by the

government to apprise the public on any issue? a) Gazette b) Report of Public Accounts Committee c) White Paper d) None of these

Ans. (c) 385. Which Judge of the Supreme Court was

unsuccessfully sought to be impeached? a) Justice H. R. Khanna b) Justice A. N. Grover c) Justice M. Hidayatullah d) Justice Ramaswami

Ans. (d) 386. Which is the highest ranking post among

the following? a) Chief of the Air Staff b) Judge of the Supreme Court c) Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Ans. (d) 387. Which part of the Constitution

incorporates special provision with regard to the state of Jammu & Kashmir? a) VI b) IX c) XI d) XXI

Ans. (d) 388. Konkani, a language recently included in the

8th Schedule of the Constitution, is widely spoken in which State/Union Territory? a) Goa b) Pondicherry c) Lakshadweep d) Andaman and Nicobar

Ans. (a) 389. Territorial waters of India extends upto

how many nautical miles? a) 8 b) 12 c) 18 d) 22

Ans. (b) 390. Which of the following is not true about

the Lok Pal Bill? a) The Lok Pal is institutional set-up to put

curbs on erring Ministers. b) Once appointed, the Lok Pal can hold

office for a maximum period of five years.

c) Complaints to the Lok Pal can be made by any citizen other than a public servant.

d) The Lok Pal is appointed by the Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India.

Ans. (d) 391. The declaration which outlines the future

programme and policy of a political party issued on the eve of a general election is called a) White paper b) Manifesto c) Yellow paper d) Mandate

Ans. (b) 392. Which language is not recognised in the

8th Schedule though it is called an official language of a state? a) English b) Sindhi c) Sanskrit d) Kashmiri

Ans. (a)

III/25


393. Who among the following are appointed by the President of India? 1. Governors of states 2. The Chief Justice and Judges of High

Courts 3. The Chief Justice and the Judges of

the Supreme Court 4. The Vice-President

a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2 and 3 c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 1, 3 and 4 Ans. (b) 394. Which language is spoken next to Hindi,

in terms of number of people, in India? a) Bengali b) Marathi c) Tamil d) Telugu

Ans. (d) 395. In which of the following states, no tribe

has been declared as ‘Scheduled’ by the President? a) Uttar Pradesh b) Tamil Nadu c) Haryana d) Bihar

Ans. (c) 396. Which of the following Articles of Indian

Constitution guarantees equal opportunities in public employment to persons belonging to SC/ST and the other minority communities? a) Article 15 b) Article 16 c) Article 22 d) Article 27

Ans. (b)

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