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IBM EXAM COG-632

IBM Cognos 10 BI Metadata Model Developer

Total Questions: 53

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Question: 1 Which of the following is true when applying object security in Framework Manager? A. If beginning to apply security by specifying object security on an object with no children, all other objects remain accessible to all users. B. If beginning to apply security by specifying object security on an object with no children, all other objects will not be accessible to all users. C. Allow overrides Deny if specified in the properties of the object. D. Child objects only inherit security from their parent if the Inherit property is set to Yes.

Answer: B Question: 2 Which of the following is correct regarding the Cognos 10 security environment? A. Cognos 10 must be configured to use only one authentication provider at a time. B. To perform authentication of users, a connection to the Cognos namespace must be defined. C. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for users, groups and roles defined in the authentication providers. D. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for groups and roles (of which users are members), not individual users.

Answer: C Question: 3 With respect to Cognos 10 security, which of the following is true of the Cognos namespace? A. Only contains predefined groups and roles. B. Can be used to create custom groups, roles and users. C. Can be used to create Cognos 10 specific groups and roles. D. Can be deleted if a different namespace is used to secure the environment.

Answer: C

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Question: 4 The groups and roles defined in the Cognos namespace can be used to assign access rights to which of the following Framework Manager objects? A. Query items. B. Data sources. C. Relationships. D. Parameter maps.

Answer: A Question: 5 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the implementation of object security in Framework Manager? A. Groups and roles can be created in the Cognos namespace when specifying access to objects. B. Even when object security is applied, if anonymous access is configured, every object in a Framework Manager project is visible to everyone. C. A user belongs to two groups. One of the groups is denied access to an object. The other group is granted access to the object. The result is that user has access to the object. D. Granting access to an object for one user, group or role (except the Everyone and All Authenticated Users groups), implicitly denies access to that object for all other users, groups or roles.

Answer: D Question: 6 What must a modeler consider when modeling for drill-through between multiple data sources? A. Drill-through values must be cast. B. Drill-through values must be conformed. C. Drill-through values must be consolidated. D. Drill-through values must be identifiers.

Answer: B

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Question: 7 A recursive relationship exists between SALES_STAFF_CODE and MANAGER_CODE in the SALES_STAFF data source query subject. This query subject is provided in a model to report authors. Using this query subject alone, report authors cannot create a report that includes management staff and the sales staff that report to them. How can the existing recursive relationship in the model be modified to provide this ability to report authors? A. Import a query subject that does not contain a recursive relationship. B. Create a star schema grouping that contains the SALES_STAFF data source query subject and a shortcut to the SALES_STAFF data source query subject. C. Create a model query subject with the appropriate relationship to the existing SALES_STAFF data source query subject and make both available to report authors. D. Create a shortcut to the SALES_STAFF data source query subject, and report authors will use it instead of the underlying query subject to create the required report.

Answer: C Question: 8 A user-defined function imported into Framework Manager can be viewed and used in the following locations? A. Viewed in the Explorer and used in the expression editor. B. Viewed in the Project Viewer and used in the expression editor. C. Viewed in the Explorer and used in the SQL of a model query subject. D. Viewed in the Diagram and used in the SQL of a data source query subject.

Answer: A Question: 9 In Framework Manager, if a modeler changes the business key for a level in a regular dimension, which of the following may change? A. Level MUN B. Level identifier C. Member MUNs D. Member aliases

Answer: C

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Question: 10 What is true of a Framework Manager model of an operational database lacking a time dimension? A. Virtual star schema models require a time dimension for multi-fact queries. B. Report authors cannot create multi-fact, time-based queries. C. Time-based rollups for multi-fact queries may be difficult to handle. D. Report authors cannot create multi-fact, time-based queries unless using a union.

Answer: C Question: 11 In Framework Manager, role-playing dimension query subjects are used to resolve which reporting trap? A. Unwanted query splits (full outer joins). B. One query subject with several relationships. C. Multiple ambiguous joins between two query subjects. D. Queries that reference two facts with no conformed dimension.

Answer: C Question: 12 In Framework Manager, it is recommended to model operational metadata as a virtual star schema for which one of the following reasons? A. Provides stability to the underlying data structure. B. Creates an easy-to-read data dictionary for end users. C. Ensures inner joins between data source query subjects. D. Helps to remove ambiguity and provide predictable results.

Answer: D

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Question: 13 If authors want to perform OLAP-style queries directly against a relational database, which Framework Manager modeling technique will a modeler use? A. Create regular and measure dimensions and set scope. B. Create shortcuts to regular dimensions and fact query subjects. C. Create star schema groupings for dimension and fact query subjects. D. Create relationships between regular dimensions and measure dimensions.

Answer: A Question: 14 What technique can Framework Manager modelers use to implement a time dimension for models that lack a time dimension? A. Create relationships from date fields in one dimension to date fields in another dimension. B. Use parameter maps to map date values in one query subject to date values in another query subject. C. Use the Time Dimension wizard to generate a time dimension and create the appropriate relationships. D. Identify a time dimension table source, import into the model and create relationships to fact query subjects.

Answer: D Question: 15 Users want to compare Actual Revenue and Sales Target values by Month. Actual Revenue values are stored at the day grain in the Orders Fact table. Sales Target values are stored at the month grain in the Sales Target Fact table.

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In Framework Manager, which technique will best prevent Sales Target values from being doublecounted in Query Studio reports? A. Define both Month and Day determinant levels in the Time Dimension and Group By Day. B. Define both Month and Day determinant levels in the Time Dimension and Group By Month. C. Create separate star schema groupings for Orders Fact and Sales Target Fact, both at the month grain. D. Set scope for Actual Revenue at the Day level and Sales Target at the Month level in the Dimension Map.

Answer: B Question: 16 To ensure a query subject is recognized as a fact by the Cognos 10 query engine in all query scenarios, the query subject requires which cardinality rule? A. One instance of attached cardinality must be 1..1. B. One instance of attached cardinality must be 1..n. C. All instances of attached cardinality must be either 1..n or 0..n. D. All instances of attached cardinality must be either 1..1 or 0..n.

Answer: C

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Question: 17 In Framework Manager, when using star schema groupings in the business view, conformed dimensions can be identified by which one of the following? A. Using a different query subject icon for display in the studios. B. Viewing the properties of the query subjects in Report Studio. C. Viewing the properties of the query subjects in Framework Manager. D. Using the same name for the dimension in each star schema grouping.

Answer: D Question: 18 The generated Cognos SQL below contains which one of the following joins?

A. Inner join on RETURN_REASON_KEY. B. Outer join on RETURN_REASON_KEY. C. Left inner join on RETURN_REASON_KEY. D. Left outer join on RETURN_REASON_KEY.

Answer: A

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Question: 19 Although modelers can use model query subjects to create entire business views, it is recommended to use them to do which of the following? A. Resolve conflicting keys and indexes and generate minimized SQL. B. Combine facts and dimensions for intuitive ad hoc business views. C. Resolve reporting traps and simplify snowflake tables through consolidation. D. Provide dimensional information through the use of determinants.

Answer: C Question: 20 In Framework Manager, what are the minimum requirements to implement a stored procedure that expects arguments and make it available to authors? A. Import the stored procedure, add it as a model calculation, and then publish it as part of a package. B. Import the stored procedure, provide values that satisfy the procedure's arguments, retrieve a projection list and then publish it as part of a package. C. Import the stored procedure, use it to create a calculation in the expression editor and then publish the calculation as part of a package. D. Import the stored procedure, set the type to Data Modification, provide values that satisfy the procedure's arguments, retrieve a projection list and then publish it as part of a package.

Answer: B Question: 21 In Framework Manager, why is it recommended that modelers alter the default all-inclusive select statements of data source query subjects as little as possible? A. To generate the most efficient SQL at run time and simplify model maintenance. B. To prevent the exclusion of columns from a table that may be required in future reports. C. To prevent improperly constructed SQL and reduce issues with model documentation and readability. D. To provide authors with access to all columns in a databasetable which reduces requests to the modeler?

Answer: A

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Question: 22 In order to create complex joins in Framework Manager, a modeler can use which of the following techniques? A. Open the Relationship Definition dialog, and then edit the join expression as required. B. Select the relationship, and then from the Actions menu, select "Merge in New Query Subject". C. Open the Relationship Expression dialog, and then change both cardinality settings to 0..n or 0..1. D. Right-click a relationship in the Object diagram or Context Explorer, and then select "Create Compound Join".

Answer: A Question: 23 What question should a data modeler answer before accepting this proposed operational data structure?

A. Should all three tables be consolidated into one? B. Should a role playing dimension be created? C. Are Branch and Employee dimension tables or fact tables? D. Is there a direct relationship between Branch and Employee?

Answer: D

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Question: 24 Which of the following data structures typically contain normalized data? A. Cube B. Relational C. Operational D. Data Warehouse

Answer: C Question: 25 The database table below would typically be found in what data structure?

A. Cartesan B. Normalized C. Operational D. Star schema

Answer: D

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Question: 26 Which of the following is true of an OLAP data structure? A. Comprised of normalized dimension and fact structures. B. Organizes dimension tables into hierarchies and levels. C. Allows "real time" analysis against disparate data sources. D. Cardinality must be defined.

Answer: B Question: 27 What does a star schema database structure typically consist of? A. De-normalized hierarchy of dimension tables and fact tables. B. Normalized dimension tables and detailed fact tables. C. Normalized dimension tables and summarized fact tables. D. De-normalized dimension tables and fact tables.

Answer: D Question: 28 In a transitive relationship scenario, what problems exist when reporting from the tables below?

A. The Order table must be included in each query. B. The Order Detail table has conflicting cardinalities. C. The priority path must be defined. D. There is more than one possible path between the tables.

Answer: D

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Question: 29 The illustration below represents which of the following data traps?

A. Bridge B. Connection C. Parallel relationship D. Many-to-many relationship

Answer: C Question: 30 Which of the following is true regarding the operational data structure illustrated below?

A. It illustrates a parallel relationship. B. It should be consolidated into one table. C. It should be examined for a connection trap. D. The cardinality between the tables should be reversed.

Answer: C

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Question: 31 In Framework Manager, which of the following is a correct technique for model segmentation? A. Segment a project at the level of an individual query subject. B. Define the repository type and path to the repository in Cognos Connection. C. Consolidate segmented and linked metadata in a project into a single project by publishing a package to a network location. D. Copy all segmented model files into one common folder before using Framework Manger's model merge feature.

Answer: C Question: 32 In Framework Manager, which of the following is true about verifying your model? A. The entire model must be verified, individual objects cannot be verified. B. The model can only be verified through the Publish Packages wizard. C. The model can be verified from Cognos Connection or through the Publish Packages wizard. D. It is possible to select to automatically repair certain issues that have been detected.

Answer: D Question: 33 In Framework Manager, which of the following is a correct technique for maintaining packages? A. Edit the contents of a package by including or excluding model objects such as namespaces, folders, and query subjects. B. Publish packages to the network as well as to the content store in order to maintain model versioning and prevent report errors. C. Perform an impact analysis on a package to identify the impact of changing the cardinality of a relationship between two query subjects included in the package. D. When publishing packages, use file system version control so that reports created based on one version of a model will always run against that same version of the model regardless of how many times the package is published.

Answer: A

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Question: 34 In Framework Manager, which of the following will have a positive impact on query performance without intervention from an author? A. Create stand-alone filters. B. Add performance indicators to functions. C. Configure data sources in a project pointing to the same database instance to use the same connection. D. For a query item having an integer data type, set the Display Item Reference property to display an integer value.

Answer: C Question: 35 In Framework Manager, which of the following will have a negative impact on query performance? A. Enable the Allow Enhanced Model Portability governor. B. Set the Cross-product joins and Outer Joins governors to Deny. C. Add filters and calculations to model query subjects rather than data source query subjects. D. Ensure that, where required, queries are executed against materialized views which contain only aggregated data rather than base tables that contain all the data.

Answer: A Question: 36 In Framework Manager, which of the following statements is correct when working with a multilingual project? A. The design language can be changed at any point. B. A project language cannot be deleted once defined in Framework Manager. C. A language must be added to the project before it can be published with a package. D. When a new language is added to a project, all locales for that language are added as well.

Answer: C

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Question: 37 To create a report in Report Studio, a report author accesses which object? A. A report specification. B. A development model from Framework Manager. C. The runtime version of a Framework Manager model. D. A file that contains query subjects externalized from Framework Manager.

Answer: C Question: 38 Which of the following are proven practices for organizing the objects in a project? A. When importing metadata from more than one data source, include all imported objects in the root namespace. B. When importing metadata from more than one data source, create a separate folder for the imported objects from each data source. C. When importing metadata from more than one data source, create a separate namespace for the imported objects from each data source. D. When importing metadata from more than one data source, do not override the relationships defined between the data sources at the time of import.

Answer: C Question: 39 Which of the following is true for 0..n cardinality? A. The cardinality is optional and a union will be performed. B. The cardinality is optional and an inner join will be performed. C. The cardinality is optional and an outer join will be performed. D. The cardinality is required and an outer join will be performed.

Answer: C

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Question: 40 In Cognos 10, what are the two distinct model types authors can publish from Framework Manager? A. OLAP and DMR B. Dimensional and DMR C. Relational and SAP BW D. Relational and Dimensional

Answer: D Question: 41 Which of the following objects in the Framework Manager environment acts as a container and provides a unique name for objects? A. model B. folder C. namespace D. query subject folder

Answer: C Question: 42 After metadata is imported into Framework Manager or a new query subject is created, it is recommended to first verify which one of the following property settings? A. Usage B. Aggregate C. Data Type D. Semi-Aggregate

Answer: A

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Question: 43 When a modeler imports metadata into Framework Manager, the Usage property for a nonindexed, numeric query item is set to which of the following? A. Fact B. Attribute C. Identifier D. Measure Dimension

Answer: A Question: 44 When importing metadata into Framework Manager from a relational database, which of the following can be controlled by the modeler performing the import? A. Specifying the item names in various languages. B. Specifying the usage property for generated query items. C. Converting inner joins in the database to outer joins in the model. D. Generating relationships based on existing primary and foreign key relationships in the database.

Answer: D Question: 45 The Cognos 10 report below contains two conformed dimensions, Time Dimension and Product Dimension, and one non-conformed dimension, Order Method.

Which of the following best describes the results? A. Cross join B. Multi-fact split C. Correlated list D. Contiguous result set

Answer: C

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Question: 46 In Framework Manager, if a modeler tests the Month from Time Dimension and SALE_TOTAL from Sales Fact and applies Auto Sum, which of the following is a modeler most likely to see? A. An XMIN on Month. B. An XSUM on Month. C. An XMIN on SALE_TOTAL. D. An XSUM on SALE_TOTAL.

Answer: D Question: 47 Which of the following is true of the generated native SQL below?

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A. The derived table is executed independently, using Pass-Through SQL, and then processed locally. B. The derived table is used to retrieve one data set, in order to fulfill the join condition of another data set. C. The parent select statement uses an inner join to directly match columns from physical tables in the database. D. The outer projection list will return more columns than listed, due to extra columns retrieved in the derived table.

Answer: B Question: 48 Which of the following components does a basic Cognos 10 stitch query consist of? A. SC() function, full outer join, multiple queries that each query exclusive information. B. SC() function, full outer join, multiple queries that query some of the same information. C. Coalesce function, full outer join, multiple queries that each query exclusive information. D. Coalesce function, full outer join, multiple queries that query some of the same information.

Answer: D Question: 49 In Cognos 10, which of the following is true of multi-fact result sets? A. Only correlated result sets can have repeating fact values. B. Only contiguous result sets can have repeating fact values. C. Both contiguous and correlated lists can have repeating fact values. D. Both contiguous and correlated lists cannot have repeating fact values.

Answer: C

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Question: 50 Which column is most likely a non-conformed or non-shared dimension from the SQL below?

A. D2.DAY_DATE B. D2.ORDER_METHOD C. D3.RETURN_QUANTITY D. D3.REASON_DESCRIPTION

Answer: D Question: 51 When running an interactive HTML report, which of the following aggregation methods is used by default? A. Unspecified B. Running C. Unknown D. Extended

Answer: B

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Question: 52 An author creates a Report Studio report that contains Month, Product Line and Revenue. Revenue has a footer to show the overall total. What will the author see in the generated Cognos SQL for the Revenue footer column? A. XSUM(Sales_Fact.Revenue for Time_Dimension.Month1,Product_Dimension.Product_Line) as Revenue B. XSUM(Sales_Fact.Revenue for Time_Dimension.Month1,Product_Dimension.Product_Line) as Revenue2 C. XSUM(XSUM(Sales_Fact.Revenue for Time_Dimension.Month1,Product_Dimension.Product_Line) in Time_Dimension.Month1,Product_Dimension.Product_Line) as Revenue D. XSUM(XSUM(Sales_Fact.Revenue for Time_Dimension.Month1,Product_Dimension.Product_Line) at Time_Dimension.Month1,Product_Dimension.Product_Line) as Revenue1

Answer: D Question: 53 Which of the following join types does the generated SQL below illustrate?

A. Inner join B. Disjointed join C. Outer join D. Cross join

Answer: D