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Contents Chapter 1: Carbohydrate Chemistry ............................................................. 3
Chapter 2: Carbohydrate Metabolism ........................................................ 14
Chapter 3: Lipid Chemistry............................................................................ 36
Chapter 4: Lipid Metabolism ......................................................................... 45
Chapter 5: Protein Chemistry ....................................................................... 64
Chapter 6: Enzymes .......................................................................................... 77
Chapter 7: Protein Metabolism ..................................................................... 86
Chapter 8: Physiology ...................................................................................... 96
Chapter 9: Short Essay Questions ............................................................. 101
Chapter 10: Previous Years’ Questions (Alexandria/Ein shams Univ.) ............................................................................................................................. 108
Chapter 11: Metabolism Reactions’ Summary ..................................... 126
1. Rotation of the plane of polarized light is caused by solutions of all of the following monosaccharides except
a. Glucose b. Glyceraldehyde c. Fructose d. Dihydroxyacetone e. None of the above
2. Ascorbic acid is an example of a. Sugar acid b. Sugar alcohol c. Sugar phosphate d. Deoxy-sugar e. Amino sugar
3. An invert sugar is a. An equimolar mixture of
glucose and fructose b. An equimolar mixture of a-
glucose and 13-glucose c. An equimolar mixture of a-
fructose and 13-fructose d. The sugar which changes its
optical activity from levo- to dextrorotatory
e. None of the above 4. A disaccharide formed of two glucose
units is a. Lactose b. Maltose c. Sucrose d. Amylose e. Amylopectin
5. Milk sugar is a. Cellobiose b. Maltose c. Sucrose d. Lactose e. None of the above
6. Cane sugar is a. Cellobiose b. Maltose c. Sucrose d. Lactose e. None of the above
7. Malt sugar is a. Cellobiose b. Maltose c. Sucrose d. Lactose e. None of the above
8. Starch is an example of a. Galactosans b. Mannosans c. Glucosaminans d. Glucosans e. Fructosans
9. Glycogen is an example of a. Glucosans b. Galactosans c. Mannosans d. Glucosaminans e. Fructosans
10. Starch is an example of a. Structural polysaccharides
present in animals b. Structural polysaccharides
present in plants c. Nutrient polysaccharides
present in animals d. Nutrient polysaccharides
present in plants e. None of the above
11. Which of the following has a free anomeric carbon atom
a. Glucose b. Mannose c. Lactose d. Sucrose e. Fructose
12. A polysaccharide indigestible by man is
a. Cellobiose b. Glycogen c. Amylopectin d. Cellulose e. Amylose
13. A branch component of starch is a. Glucose b. Amylopectin c. Amylose d. Maltose e. None of the above
14. Which of the following statements characterizes glucose
a. It usually exists in the furanose form
b. It is a ketose c. Carbon 2 is the anomeric
carbon atom d. It forms part of the
disaccharide sucrose e. It is oxidized to form sorbitol
15. Which of the following contains ketone group
a. Ribulose b. Glucose c. Mannose d. Galactose e. Lactose
16. Which of the following is non fermentable sugar?
a. Maltose b. Sucrose c. Glucose d. Fructose e. Lactose
17. Hydrolysis of sucrose yields a. Two moles of glucose b. Glucose and fructose c. Galactose and fructose d. Glucose and mannose
18. Ribitol is
a. Deoxy sugar b. Amino sugar c. Sugar alcohol d. Sugar acid
19. Inulin is a simple polysaccharide built up of
a. Glucosamine b. Galactose c. Fructose d. Aldose
20. The end products of glycogen hydrolysis by acid is
a. Dextrin b. Maltose c. Amylose d. Glucose
21. The richest site for fructose in the body is
a. Mammary gland b. Seminal fluid c. Thyroid gland d. Prostate
22. D-glucose and D-mannose are epimers with respect to carbon atom number
a. 3 b. 2 c. 5 d. 1
23. Which of the following polysaccharides is not a polymer of glucose
a. Amylose b. Glycogen c. Inulin d. Amylopectin
24. Reduction of glucose produces a. Mannitol b. Sorbitol c. Dulcitol d. Glucuronic acid
25. Gluconic acid, saccharic acid and glucuronic acid are produced from glucose by
a. Reduction b. Treatment with acids c. Oxidation d. Treatment with bases
26. Galactose is present in the structure of a. Sucrose b. Lactose c. Lecithin d. Glycogen
27. Which statement is incorrect a. Glucose and mannose are
Epimers b. α- and β-glucose are Anomers c. Glucose and galactose are
Anomers d. Ribose and xylose are epimers
28. The invert sugar is a. Maltose b. Sucrose c. Hydrolytic products of sucrose d. Hydrolytic products of maltose
29. Sorbitol is a. A sugar alcohol b. Obtained from glucose c. Obtained from fructose d. All of the above
30. By complete acid hydrolysis of starch we obtain
a. Maltose b. α-glucose c. β-glucose d. All of the above
31. The blood sugar is a. Glucose b. Fructose c. Ribose d. Galactose
32. Ribulose is an example of a. Aldopentose b. Ketohexose c. Ketopentose d. Deoxy sugar e. Sugar alcohol
33. Cellulose is a. Formed of β-glucose b. Not digested in human
intestine c. A simple polysaccharide d. All of the above
34. Dextrose is a. An aldopentose b. An aldohexose c. A ketohexose d. A ketopentose
35. Sorbitol can be obtained from fructose by
a. Oxidation b. Reduction c. Hydrolysis d. Acetylation
36. A reducing disaccharide is a. Glucose b. Mannose c. Maltose d. Fructose
37. Glucose and mannose are epimers, this means that
a. They are mirror image to each other
b. One is aldose, the other is a ketose
c. They differ only in the configuration to one carbon
d. One is pyranose the other is furanose
38. Starch is a. A heterogeneous
polysaccharide b. Composed of β-glucose c. Not digested by amylase d. All of the above e. None of the above
39. The grape sugar is a. Fructose b. Sucrose c. Glucose d. Mannose
40. Lactose is a. A non-reducing sugar b. Formed of α-glucose and β-
fructose c. both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above 41. Honey is the natural example for
a. Sucrose b. Maltose c. Invert sugar d. Lactose
42. Reducing property of monosaccharide is tested by
a. Seliwanoff's test b. Molisch’s test c. Fehling test d. Rothera’s test e. Shape of osazone crystals
43. Inulin is a polymer of a. Glucose b. Levulose c. Galactose d. Mannose
44. α.glucose is present in structure of a. Dextrins b. Dextran c. Glycogen d. All of the above
45. Amylase enzyme can hydrolyse a. Starch b. Dextrins c. Glycogen d. All of the above
46. Glucose and lactose are similar to each other in that both are
a. Reducing b. Able to give the same osazone c. Present in milk d. All of the above
47. Which of the following is a disaccharide?
a. Starch b. Cellulose
c. Glycogen d. Ribose e. Lactose
48. Which carbohydrate will you find in greatest abundance in potatoes?
a. Starch b. Cellulose c. Sucrose d. Glycogen e. Lactose
49. D-glucuronic acid is an example of a. Aldonic acid b. Aldaric acid c. Uronic acid d. Saccharic acid e. None of the above
50. Reduction of monosaccharides yields
a. Sugar alcohols b. Sugar acids c. amino sugars d. Deoxy-sugars e. None of the above
51. Hydrogen gas in presence of a metal can reduce fructose to
a. Mannitol b. Ribitol c. Glycerol d. Glucose e. None of the above
52. Cellulose is made up of the molecules
of a. alpha Glucose b. Beta Glucose c. Both of above d. None of the above
53. The epimer of glucose is: a. Fructose b. Galactose c. Ribose d. Deoxyribose
54. Alpha and Beta forms of D-glucose are referred to as:
a. Epimers b. Anomers c. Enediols d. Tautomers
55. Which of the following does not give a positive test for a reducing sugar?
a. Ribose b. Galactose c. Maltose d. Sucrose
56. Cellulose is a: a. Branched polymer containing
or 1 —> 4 and on 1 —> 6 glycosidic linkages
b. Straight chain polymer consisting of B 1 —> 4 glycosidic units
c. Polymer containing glucose, galactose and glucosamine
d. Mucopolysaccharide 57. In order that a compound possesses
optical activity it must be: a. Colored b. Symmetrical c. Inorganic d. Asymmetric
58. Hydrolysis of sucrose yields: a. Galactose and glucose b. Maltose and glucose c. Fructose only d. Fructose and glucose
59. Starch and glycogen are both polymers of:
a. Fructose b. Glucose-1-phosphate c. Mannose d. Glucose
60. Which of the following is not a CHO? a. Amylose b. Hyaluronic acid c. Heparin d. Palmitic acid
61. The predominant carbohydrate of muscle
a. D-fructose b. D-glucose c. Lactose d. Glycogen
62. Lactose is also called: a. Blood sugar b. Invert sugar c. Milk sugar d. Animal starch
63. An example of pentose is: a. Galactose b. Mannose c. Ribose d. Fructose
64. An example of Hexose is: a. Ribose b. Ribulose c. Xylulose d. Mannose
65. A mucopolysaccharide with blood anticoagulant activity is:
a. Chondroitin sulphate B b. Chondroitin sulphate D c. Keratan sulphate II d. Heparin
66. Beta 1-4 glycosidic bond is present in a. Maltose b. Lactose c. Sucrose d. None of the above
67. Number of stereo-isomers of glucose is :
a. 4 b. 8 c. 16 d. none of the above
68. A homopolysaccharide made up of fructose is :
a. inulin b. dextrin c. cellulose d. glycogen
69. In fructofuranose ,the anomeric carbon is
a. carbon 1 b. carbon 2 c. carbon 3 d. carbon 4
70. A carbohydrate found in the DNA : a. ribose b. ribulose c. deoxyribose d. all of the above
71. Ribulose is a : a. ketotetrose b. aldotetrose c. ketopentose d. aldopentose
72. In D-glyecraldehyde, -OH group is present on the right hand side of carbon atom number :
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 1,2 & 3
73. A disaccharide made up of two glucose units :
a. maltose b. sucrose c. dextrin d. lactose
74. A carbohydrate found only in milk : a. glucose b. lactose c. galactose d. maltose
75. A carbohydrate ,known commenly as invert sugar :
a. lactose b. sucrose c. fractose d. glucose
76. The homopolysaccharide among the following is :
a. heparin b. hyaluronic acid c. dermatan sulphate d. cellulose
77. The heteropolysaccharide among the following is :
a. inulin b. starch c. heparin d. cellulose
78. In straight chain structure of D-glucose, -OH group is present on the left hand side of carbon atom number :
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
79. The following causes levorotation : a. D-fructose b. L-glucose c. both of them d. None of them
80. The carbon atom which becomes asymmetric when the straight chain form of monosaccharide changes into ring form is called :
a. anomeric carbon atom b. epimeric carbon atom c. isomeric carbon atom d. none of the above
81. In straight chain structure of D-ribose, -OH group is present on the right hand side of carbon atom number :
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. all of the above
82. In glucopyranose the anomeric
carbon atom is number: a. 2 b. 1 c. 5 d. 6
83. In alpha-D glucopyranose, -OH groups projecting below the plane of the ring, are attached to carbon atoms of numbers:
a. 1,2 & 3 b. 1,2 & 5 c. 1,2 & 4 d. 2,3 & 4
84. Sugar present in DNA is a. ribose b. xylulose c. Arabinose d. deoxyribose
85. Sugar present in RNA is: a. Ribose b. Xylulose c. Arabinose d. Deoxyribose
86. Sugar present in seminal fluid is: a. glucose b. fructose c. galactose d. maltose
87. All the following polysaccharides have glucose as their monomer EXCEPT
a. Starch b. dextrin c. Inulin d. glycogen
88. End product of starch on acid hydrolysis is
a. glucose b. fructose c. maltose d. dextrin
89. End product of enzyme hydrolysis of starch is
a. glucose b. fructose c. maltose d. dextrin
90. Beta 1,4 glycosidic linkages are present in
a. Glycogen b. starch c. cellulose d. inulin
91. All the following are homopolysaccharides EXCEPT
a. Cellulose b. starch c. glycogen d. heparin
92. All the following are heteropolysaccharides EXCEPT
a. Hyaluronic acid b. chondroitin sulphate c. Inulin d. Heparin
93. Which of the following poly
saccharine is a naturally occurring anti coagulant?
a. Hylauronic acid b. chondroitin sulphate c. heparin d. keratosulphate
94. One of the following carbohydrates is not digested in the human intestinal tract
a. Starch b. cellulose c. lactose d. sucrose
95. Amylopectin differ from amaylose by a. alpha 1,4 glycosidic linkage b. beta 1,4 glycosidic linkage c. alpha 1,4 glycosidic linkage at
branching d. alpha 1,6 glycosidic linkage at
branching 96. One of the following polysaccharides
is called animal starch: a. glucose b. heparin c. dextrin d. glycogen
97. Glucose on oxidation with H2O2 gives:
a. Hyaluronic acid b. Glucuronic acid c. Glucaric acid d. Mucic acid
98. Sorbitol is:
a. A sterol b. An amino alcohol c. A sugar alcohol d. A glycerol derivative
99. The functional group responsible for the reducing property of glucose is present on which carbon atom?
a. 6 b. 5 c. 2 d. 1
Answers
1. D 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. C 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. D 11. C 12. D 13. B 14. D 15. A 16. E 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. D 21. B 22. B 23. C 24. B 25. C 26. B 27. B 28. C 29. D 30. B 31. A 32. C 33. D
34. B 35. B 36. C 37. C 38. E 39. C 40. D 41. C 42. C 43. B 44. D 45. D 46. A 47. E 48. A 49. C 50. A 51. A 52. B 53. B 54. B 55. D 56. B 57. D 58. D 59. D 60. D 61. D 62. C 63. C 64. D 65. D 66. D
67. C 68. A 69. B 70. C 71. C 72. B 73. A 74. B 75. B 76. D 77. C 78. B 79. C 80. A 81. D 82. B 83. B 84. D 85. A 86. B 87. C 88. A 89. C 90. C 91. D 92. C 93. C 94. B 95. D 96. D 97. B 98. C 99. D
1. Glycolysis takes place in: a. Mitochonthia. b. Cytosol. c. Lysosome. d. Endoplasmic reticulum. e. All of the above.
2. Glycolysis is inhibited by:
a. Flouride. b. Mg+ c. Cu d. Mn+ e. Ca.
3. Pyruvate is converted to acetyl Co-A
by: a. Oxidation b. Reduction c. Oxidation decarboxylation d. Decarboxylation e. None of the above.
4. Epinephrine and glucagon have the
following effect on glycogen metabolism in the liver:
a. The net synthesis of glycogen is increased.
b. Glycogen phosphorylase is activated,whereas glycogen synthesis is inactivated.
c. Both glycogen phosphorylase and glycogen synthetase are activated but at markedly different rates.
d. Glycogen phosphorylase is inactivated,whereas glycogen synthetase is activated.
5. Floride inhibits glycolysis by inhibiting:
a. Aldolase. b. Enolase. c. Hexokinase. d. Pyruvate kinase.
6. Which of the following is not a
cofactor of pyruvate to acetyl COA reaction:
a. Mn b. TPP. c. Lipoic acid. d. Coenzymes A. e. NAD
7. Pyruvate to acetyl coA conversion is
carried by: a. Pyruvate kinase. b. Mutase. c. Aldolase. d. None of the above.
8. Substrate level phosphorylation step in glycolysis is:
a. 1,3 diphosphoglyceric acid to 3 phosphoglyceric acid.
b. Glucose to G-6-P. a. Pyruvate to lactate. b. Pyruvate to acetyl COA. c. None of the above.
9. Muscle glycogen cannot give rise to blood glucose because muscle lacks the enzyme:
a. phosphorylase b. G-6 phosphatase. c. Glucokinase. d. Debranching enzyme.
10. Formation of glycogen from glucose in the liver require:
a. AMP. b. ATP. c. UTP. d. CIP. e. None of the above.
11. Gluconeogenesis requires the following enzymes:
a. Pyruvate carboxylase. b. Phosphoenol pyruvate kinase. c. Fructose 6 diphosphatase. d. G-6 phosphatase. e. All of the above. f. None of the above.
12. The commonest deficient enzyme in galactosemia is:
a. Galactokinase b. Galactose-1-P uridyl
transferase c. UDP transferase d. Lactose synthetase e. Galactose 1 phosphatase.
13. HMP shunt pathway a. Give rise to more ATP b. Give rise to NADH+H c. Give rise to NADPH+H d. Give rise to FADH2
14. The Substrate level phosphorylation step in citric acid cycle is:
a. Pyruvate to acetyl COA. b. Iso-citrate to oxalosuccinate. c. ketoglutarate to succinyl COA. d. Succinyl COA to succinic acid. e. None of the above.
15. Number of ATP molecules formed per molecule of glucose in aerobic glycolysis is:
a. 2 b. 8 c. 18 d. 36 e. 54
16. In anaerobic glycolysis, 2 moles of Pi are used per mole of glucose consumed, which of the following enzymes catalyze the uptake of inorganic phosphate?
a. Hexokinase b. Enolase c. Pyruvate kinase d. Glyceraldehyde 3-P
dehydrogenase e. Phosphofructokinase
17. Which of the following reactions has a product containing a newly formed high- energy phosphate bond?
a. Phosphorylation of glucose. b. 2-phosphoglycerate to
phosphoenolypyruvate. c. Oxidation of D-glyceraldehyde
3-phosphate. d. All the above. e. Only b and c.
18. The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex requires:
a. Biotin b. Thiamine pyrophosphate c. Pyridoxal phosphate d. Nicotinamide adenine
dinucleotide e. B and d.
19. The release of carbon dioxide results from the following reaction of the citric acid cycle:
a. Citrate to isocitrate. b. Fumarate to malate. c. Malate to oxaloacetate. d. Succinate to fumarate. e. Isocitrate to ketoglutarate.
20. The Cells capable of gluconeogenesis include:
a. hepatocytes. b. Kidney tubule cells. c. Small intestine mucosal cells. d. All of the above. e. Only b and c.
21. Hereditary fructose intolerance is a condition caused by a deficiency of:
a. Phosphofructokinase. b. Fructokinase. c. Aldolase B. d. Fructose I .6-diphosphate
adolase. e. Fructose 6-phosphatase.
22. The enzyme deficient in fructose intolerance is:
a. Fructokinase b. Aldolase B c. Phosphofructokinase d. Fructose 1,6 diphosphate
23. Which one of the following compounds cannot give rise to the net synthesis of glucose?
a. Lactate b. Glycerol c. alpha-ketoglutarate d. Oxaloacetate e. Acetyl-COA.
24. Which one of the following metabolites is not directly produced in the hexose monophosphate pathway?
a. Fructose 6-phosphate b. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate c. Gluconolactone-6-phosphate d. Erythrose-4-phosphate e. Co2.
25. The major contributing factor to cataract formation in Diabetes may be the accumulation of sorbitol in the lens.For that to occur, blood glucose has to interact with:
a. Glucose oxidase. b. NADPH-dependent aldose
reductase. c. Glucokinase. d. Hexokinase & G-6-P
dehydrogenase. e. Hexokinase and
phosphoglucoisomerase. 26. Anerobic oxidation of glucose in
animal tissue produces: a. CO2 and H20 b. Acetyl-COA c. Two moles of ATP d. Ethyl alcohol and CO2
27. The main regulatory enzyme for glycolysis is:
a. Hexokinase b. Phosphofructokinase 1 c. Pyruvate carboxylase d. Enolase
28. The major source for blood lactate is: a. Red cells b. Adipose tissue c. Muscle d. Both a and c
29. Aerobic oxidation of glucose inside the red cells will produce the following number of ATP moles?
a. 2 b. 8 c. 36 d. 38
30. An ATP producing reaction in glycolysis is catalysed by:
a. Hexokinase. b. Pyruvate kinase. c. Lactate dehydrogenase. d. All of these.
31. The product of LDH action on pyruvic acid will be:
a. Lactate. b. Oxaloacetate c. Active acetate d. Phosphoenol pyruvate
32. In red cells :the end product of glycolysis in presence of O2 is Lactate due to the lack of:
a. O2 b. Mitochondria c. Insulin d. LDH
33. An enzyme not involved in glycolysis is:
a. Phosphoglycerate-dehydrogenase
b. Phosphoglycerate mutase c. Pyruvate kinase d. Lactate dehydrogenase
34. A pathway not needing NAD is: a. Glycolysis b. Pentose shunt c. Krebs cycle d. Oxidative decarboxylation
35. All of the following energy- related activities occur in the mitochondria except:
a. TCA cycle b. Fatty acid oxidation c. Electron transport. d. Glycolysis
36. A specific enzyme for glucose phosphorylation is:
a. GIucokinase b. Hexokinase c. Galactokinase d. Glucose-6-phosphatase
37. Under anaerobic conditions,muscle glycolysis becomes more rapid because of an increase in the intracellular concentration of:
a. NAD b. ATP c. Glycogen d. AMP
38. The rate of glycolysis is controlled by inhibition of any of the following enzymes except:
a. Glucokinase by ATP b. Hexokinase by glucose-6-
phosphate c. Phosphofructokinase by citrate d. Phosphofructokinase by ATP
39. The conversion of G-6-P to lactate in the glycolytic pathways is accompanied by or net gain of
a. 1 mole ATP b. 2 moles ATP c. 3 moles ATP d. 8 moles ATP
40. In pyruvate kinase (PK) deficiency, hemolysis of red cells occurs primarily because of increased intracellular levels of:
a. Lactate. b. Pyruvate c. ADP to ATP ratio. d. 2,3-diphosphoglycerate
41. A high-energy phosphate compound is formed at the substrate level in citric acid cycle This occurs during the following reactions
a. Citrate to alpha-ketoglutarate b. Succinate to Fumarate c. Fumarate to Malate d. Ketoglutarate to Succinate
42. The CAC is inhibited by the following factors:
a. Arsenite. b. Malonate. c. Fluoroacetate. d. All of these.
43. The reaction catalyzed by alpha - ketoglutarate dehydrogenase in citric acid cycle requires:
a. NADP b. COA-SH c. ATP d. Succinate
44. The oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate requires the following factors except:
a. TPP b. NAD c. Biotin d. FAD e.
45. The following are isomerization reactions except:
a. G-6-P Fructose-6-P b. 3-phosphoglycerate 2-
phosphoglycerate c. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.
d. Ribulose-5-P Ribose-5-P 46. One of the following enzymes is
required for both of glycolysis and gluconeogenesis.
a. Pyruvate carboxylase. b. Hexokinase. c. Aldolase. d. Pyruvate kinase.
47. A common requirement for oxidative decarboxylation of alpha-ketoacid is:
a. NADP. b. Lipoic acid. c. Acetyl-COA. d. Pyruvate.
48. Poisoning with fluoroacetate leads to intracellular accumulation of:
a. Citrate. b. Oxalosuccinate. c. Aconitic acid. d. Succinate.
49. Fluoroacetate is an inhibitor of: a. Citrate synthetase. b. Aconitase c. Isocitrate dehydrogenase. d. Succinate dehydrogenase
50. Acetyl-COA is: a. An allosteric activator of
pyruvate carboxylase. b. Able to be converted to
pyruvate. c. Never converted to fatty acid. d. Produced from pyruvate in
cytoplasm. 51. Entry of acetyl-COA into CAC is
decreased when: a. The ratio of ATP/ADP is high. . b. NADH+H is rapidly oxidized in
the respiratory chain. c. The concentration of AMP is
high. d. The GTP/GDP ratio is low.
52. Cortisol is a potent activator of the key enzymes of:
a. Glycolysis. b. Gluconeogenesis c. Pentose shunt. d. Glycogenesis.
53. Reduced COA is produced by a cycle that is active in:
a. Red cells. b. Adipose tissue. c. Adrenal cortex. d. All of these.
54. The major site for gluconeogenesis: a. Liver b. Kidney c. Intestine d. Skeletal muscle
55. The activity of G-6-P dehydrogenase is very low in:
a. Skeletal muscle. b. Adipose tissue. c. Adrenal cortex. d. Red cell.
56. GTP is produced by the action of the following enzyme:
a. Succinate thiokinase. b. Succinate dehydrogenase. c. alpha-Ketoglutarate
dehydrogenase. d. Phosphoenol pyruvate
dehydrogenase. 57. Which one of the following is not
characteristic of hexose monophosphate pathway:
a. It produces CO2 b. It uses NADP c. It produces ribose-5-
phosphate d. It requires ATP for
phosphorylation 58. Which reaction does not consume
NADPH: a. Reduction of oxidized
glutathione (G-S-S-G) b. Synthesis of steroid c. Conversion of glucose 6-
phosphate to 6- phosphoglucono lactone
d. Fatty acid synthesis 59. Glutathione functions in red blood
cells largely to: a. Reduce H2O2 b. Produce NADPH+H c. Reduce methemoglobin d. Reduce pyruvate to lactate
60. Which one of the following metabolites is not directly produced in the hexose
a. monophosphate pathway: b. Fructose -6-phosphate c. Co2 d. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate e. Erythrose -4-phosohare
61. The synthesis of glucose from pyruvate by gluconeogenesis:
a. Occurs exclusively in the cytoplasm
b. Is inhibited by elevated levels of glucagon
c. Requires the participation of biotin
d. Involves lactate as intermediate 62. Which one of the following reactions
is unique to gluconeogenesis? a. Lactate to pyruvate b. Phosphoenol pyruvate to
pyruvate c. Oxaloacetate to phosphoenol-
pyruvate d. Glucose 6-phosphate to
fructose-6-phosphate 63. Which of the following compounds
cannot be converted to glucose? a. Lactate b. Glycerol c. Oxaloacetate d. Acetyl COA
64. Succinate dehydrogenase is inhibited by:
a. Malonate b. ATP c. Long chain fatty acids d. All of these.
65. A factor not required for oxidative decarboxylation is:
a. NAD. b. FAD c. TPP d. FMN
66. By oxidative decarboxylation alpha-ketoglutarate is transformed into:
a. Succinyl CoA b. Glutaryl CoA c. Acetyl CoA d. Succinate
67. Citrate synthase is inhibited by:
a. Citrate. b. ATP c. Long chain fatty acids d. All of these.
68. FADH2 oxidation occurs in: a. Mitochondria b. Microsomes c. Cytoplasm d. Lysosome
69. An inhibitor for aconitase is: a. Fluoroacetate b. Arsenite c. Malonate d. All of these
70. By oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate to active acetate, the following number of ATP moles are obtained:
a. 2 b. 3 c. 8 d. 15
71. A coenzyme for pentose shunt dehydrogenases is:
a. TPP b. NADP c. Both (a) and (b) d. NAD
72. Blood glucose is not elevated in:
a. Diabetes mellitus b. Acromegaly c. Renal glucosuria d. Stress glucosuria
73. In glycogenesis ,the formation of a branching point is catalyzed by:
a. 1,4-1,6 glucotransferase b. 1,4-1,6 transglucosidase c. Glucosyl transferase d. UDPG-pyrophosphorylase
74. GTP is formed in which reaction a. Oxaloacetate to
phosphoenolpyruvate b. Isocitrate to Oxalosuccinate c. Succinyl COA to succinate d. Ketoglutarate to Succinyl-COA
75. The coenzyme required for lactate dehydrogenase activity is:
a. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
b. Pyridoxal phosphate c. COASH d. Cytochrome C
76. Which enzyme is activated by AMP?
a. Phosphofructokinase-1 b. Fructose 1,6 diphosphatase c. Phosphorylase a d. Glycogen synthase
77. Glycogen synthetase requires the following substrate:
a. UDP glucose b. GDP glucose c. ADP glucose d. CDP glucose
78. Lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) catalyzes: a. The oxidation of lactate b. The addition of two hydrogen
to lactate c. The removal of two H atoms
from pyruvate d. The removal of one mole of
H2O from lactate 79. Which reaction is irreversible in
glycolysis? a. Oxidation of 3-
phosphoglycerate b. Formation of fructose-6-
phosphate c. Splitting of fructose 1,6
diphosphate d. Formation of fructose 1,6
diphosphate 80. Which of the following is not a high
energy compound? a. 1,3 diphosphoglycerate b. Adenosine diphosphate c. Pyrophosphate d. Adenosine monophosphate
81. Which metabolite is decarboxylated in TCA cycle?
a. Pyruvate b. Oxalosuccinate c. Cis-aconitate d. Oxaloacetate
82. Which of the following is oxidized and loses CO2 in the TCA cycle?
a. Isocitrate b. Oxalosuccinate c. Fumarate d. alpha-Ketoglutarate
83. For which reaction is thiamin pyrophosphate required as a coenzyme?
a. Pyruvate to Acetyl-COA b. Pyruvate to Oxaloacetate c. Pyruvate to Alanine d. Pyruvate to Lactate
84. Glucose-6-phosphate cannot be directly converted by a one enzyme step to:
a. Glucose b. UDP-G c. Fructose 1,6 diphosphate d. 6-phosphogluconolactone
85. The TCA cycle is controlled by the activity of:
a. Citrate synthetase b. Isocitrate dehydrogenase c. Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase d. All of these
86. Hexokinase activity is inhibited by: a. Glucose-6-phosphate b. Acetyl-COA c. Phosphoenol pyruvate d. All of these
87. The activity of phosphorylase B kinase is:
a. Controlled by activation of its zymogen
b. Directly modulated allosterically
c. Inhibited by phosphorylation d. Increased by phosphorylation
88. In gluconeogenesis starting from oxaloacetate, how many high energy phosphate bonds will be used for each glucose molecule synthesized?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6
89. How many ATP molecules are formed when 2 molecules of pyruvate are completely oxidized by TCA cycle?
a. 30 b. 32 c. 36 d. 38
90. The number of (NADPH+H) formed from hexose phosphate in pentose phosphate pathway is:
a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 12
91. How many ATP molecules are formed when a glucose molecule is completely oxidized by glycolysis & TCA cycle?
a. 34 b. 35 c. 36 d. 38
92. Fructosuria is the result of: a. A deficiency of
phosphofructokinase b. A deficiency of liver
fructokinase c. Elevated levels of liver aldolase
B d. A deficiency of liver
hexokinase 93. Which is a member of the electron
transport chain? a. Palmitoyl carnitine. b. Carnitine. c. Reduced nicotinamide
dinucleotide (NADH). d. Cytochrome P45.
94. The connection between oxidation phosphorylation and electron transport is best described by:
a. Existence of a higher pH in cisternae of endoplasmic reticulum than in the cytosol.
b. Synthesis of ATP as protons flow into the mitochondrial matrix along a proton gradient that exists across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
c. Dissociation of electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation.
d. Absence of ATP synthase in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
95. Which of the following reactions generate ATP?
a. G-6-P to F-6-P b. Glucose to G-6-P. c. Phosphoenolpyruvate to G-6-
P. d. Pyrvate to lactate.
96. Phosphofructokinase a. Is stimulated by ATP and
citrate b. Catalyses the conversion of G-
6-P to F-6-P c. Is inhibited by F-2,6-
Phosphate d. Catalyses an irreversible
reaction 97. Actions of F-2,6-bisphosphate
includes a. Stimulation of fructose 1,6
biphosphate b. Stimulation of phosphoenol
pyruvate c. inhibition of pyruvate
dehydrogenase d. Stimulation of PFK1
98. Catabolism of fatty acid syimulates
gluconeogenesis in all of the following ways except
a. By contributing to citrate production
b. By pyruvate carboxylase activation
c. By contributiong of ATP production
d. By providing carbons for glucose skeleton
99. Which of the following statements about glycogenolysis and glucose metabolism is true
a. G6P from liver glycogen usually enters glycolysis
b. G6P from muscle glycogen sometimes enters the blood
c. Muscle cytosol contains glucose 6 phosphatase
d. Liver glycogenolysis and glycolysis aren't usually active at the same time
100. Each of the following statements about TCA cycle intermediates is true except
a. They can be used for the net production of glucose
b. They are all ketogenic c. Citrate is required in the
synthesis of FAs in the cytoplasm
d. Two of them provide carbon skeletons for the synthesis of two AAs by transamination
101. Hereditary deficiency of G6PD causes haemolytic anaemia because of all of the following except
a. It's association with decrease in NADPH
b. It's accompanied by decrease in concentration of reduced glutathione in RBCs
c. It results in a slower glycolytic rate
d. It leads to oxidation of SH groups in same proteins of the RBCs
102. In aerobic glycolysis a. The breakdown of one mole of
glucose leads to net formation of 2 moles of lactate and 4 moles of ATP
b. Most of the intermediates are phosphate esters which can't leave the cell
c. Since ATP is produced, none is required in intermediate steps
d. Pyruvate kinase is required to form PEP
103. Mature RBCs show all of the following except
a. Depends on ATP generate by glycolysis
b. May undergo haemolysis if there is defeciency in G6PD
c. Accumulate lactate which is removed by cori's cycle
d. Contain aerobic mechanism to prevent accumulation of lactate
104. Which of the following inter-conversions of monosaccharides (or derivatives)don't require a nucleotide sugar intermediate
a. Galactose 1 P G1P b. Glucose Glucuronic acid c. Glucose Fructose d. G1P lactose
105. Fructose a. Unlike glucose, can't be
catabolized by glycolytic pathway
b. In the liver, enters directly into glycolysis as F6P
c. Is converted to UDP-linked form and then epimerised to UDPG
d. Its catabolism in liver used fructokinase
106. Which of the following reactions has a product containing a newly formed high-energy phosphate bond
a. Phosphorylation of glucose b. 2-PhosphoGlycerate PEP c. Oxidation of D-glyceraldehyde
3-P d. Only B and C
107. An infant with enlarged liver has a glucose 6 phosphatase deficiency. This infant:
a. Can't maintain blood glucose level either by glucogenolysis or gluconeogenesis
b. Can use liver glycogen to maintain blood glucose level
c. Can use muscle glycogen to maintain blood glucose level
d. Can use muscle glycogen to maintain blood glucose level
e. Can convert both alanine and glycerol to glucose to maintain blood glucose level
108. Which one of the following metabolites isn't directly produced in HMS
a. F6P b. DHAP c. Gluconolactone-6-P d. Erythrose 4-P
109. Glucokinase is
a. Inhibited by ATP allosterically b. Stimulated by AMP
allosterically c. An inducible enzyme d. Activated by phosphorylation
110. Increased FA oxidation activates gluconeogenesis by increase levels of all the following except
a. Citrate b. Acetyl Co-A c. AMP d. ATP
111. Citrate a. Activates PFK1 allosterically b. Inhibits F 1,6 bisphosphatase c. Can release Acetyl Co-A in
mitochondria d. Can produce active acetate in
cytoplasm 112. Von Gierk's disease is
characterized by a. Decreased levels of uric acid in
blood b. Decreased levels of glucose in
blood c. decreased levels of lipid in
blood d. Increased amount of altered
glycogen in liver
113. All the following about glycogenolysis in muscle are correct except
a. Glycogen phosphorylase release phosphorylated glucose units
b. Amylo 1,6 glucosidase releases G1P
c. It's not affected by glucagon d. It doesn't maintain blood
glucose level 114. In muscle: synthesis of Ribose 5 P
needs a. G6PD b. Vitamin B1 c. NADPH+ H+ d. NADP
115. Amylo 1, 6 glucosidase is called a. Branching enzyme b. Debranching enzyme c. Glucantransferase d. Phosphorylase
116. Not a Gluconeogenic organ: a. Liver b. Intestine c. Kidney d. Muscle
117. CAC can be inhibited by all the following except
a. Flouroacetate b. Mercury c. Arsenate d. Arsenite
118. Glycolysis can be inhibited by a. Malonate b. Arsenite c. Fluroacetate d. Glucose
119. Which of the following is oxidized and loses CO2 in CAC
a. Citrate b. Fumarate c. Malate d. Alpha keto glutarate
120. Glycolysis can be inhibited by a. Malonate b. Arsenite c. Fluroacetate d. Glucose
121. Glucagon a. Stimulates glycogen synthase
by de-phosphorylation b. Stimulates glycogen
phosphorylase by phosphorylation
c. Represses gluconeogenic enzymes
d. Represses hexokinase 122. Pyruvate can be synthesized from
all the following except a. Malate b. Acetyl Co-A c. Glycerol d. Glucogenic AA
123. PDH complex needs a. biotin b. NADH+H+ c. Lipoic acid d. NADP
124. Alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase is stimulated by
a. Increased level of ATP b. Increased level of reduced
NAD c. Increased level of ADP d. decreased level of NAD
125. Acetyl Co-A a. Inhibits pyruvate carboxylase b. Stimulates pyruvate
dehydrogenase complex c. Synthesized and cleaved by
two different enzymes d. Is a gluconeogenic substrate
126. One of the following is an inducible enzyme
a. Glycogen synthase b. Hexokinase c. G6PD d. PDH
127. A high energy compound that can be produced by glycolysis is
a. G6P b. GTP c. 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate d. F 1,6 bisphosphate
128. In presence of arsinate, number of ATP produced from oxidation of one mole of glucose in hepatic cell by glucose in hepatic cell by glycolysis is
a. 0 b. 8 c. 6 d. 2
129. Salivary amylase a. Can produce free glucose from
starch b. Acts on terminal alpha 1,4
glucosidic bond c. Acts as alpha 1,6 glucosidic
bond d. Works on starch and glycogen
in random
130. Hexokinase activity is inhibited by a. G-6-P b. Acetyl Co-A c. PEP d. All of the above
131. To synthesize milk sugar in galactosemic patient, all the following are needed except
a. UTP b. Galactokinase c. Glucokinase d. UDPG pyrophosphorylase
132. To convert propionate to succinyl co-A, how many high energy phosphate bonds are consumed?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
133. To convert 2 glycerol molecules
into one mole of glucose, how many ATP molecules are consumed?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
134. In dicarboxylic acid shuttle, all the following enzymes are needed except
a. Pyruvate carboxylase b. Malic enzyme (NADP
dependent malate dehydrogenase)
c. NAD dependent malate dehydrogenase
d. PEPCK
135. Glucose 6 phosphatase isn't present in
a. Liver b. kidney c. Muscle d. Intestine
136. Example of extra-mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation
a. Phosphoglycerate kinase b. Pyruvate kinase c. Glyceraldehyde 3 P
dehydrogenase d. Hexokinase
137. All catalyse simple oxidative decarboxylation except
a. Isocitrate dehydro. b. 6-phosphogluconate dehydro c. Alpha ketoglutarate dehydro d. Malic enzyme
138. G6P can’t be directly converted by a 1-step enzyme to
a. Glucose b. UDPG c. Fructose 6 P d. 6- Phosphogluconolactone
139. In gluconeogenesis starting from Oxaloacetic Acid, how many high energy phosphate bonds will be used to synthesize one mole of glucose
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6
140. In Gluconeogenesis, starting from lactate, how many high energy phosphate bonds will be used to synthesize one mole of glucose
a. 6 b. 3 c. 4 d. 2
141. How many ATP moles are formed when a mole of pyruvate is completely oxidized in CAC
a. 15 b. 16 c. 18
142. In abscence of NADP+ (for action of G6PD and 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase), pentose phosphate may be synthesized by the action of
a. Hexokinase on ribose b. Pentokinase on ribose c. Transketolase and
transaldolase on the glycolytic intermediates
d. Aldolase on sedoheptulose 7 phosphate
143. Pyruvate dehydrogenase activity is a. Increased by phosphorylation b. Increased by de-
phosphorylation c. Decreased by covalent
modification promoted by decreased NAD
144. GTP is produced by the action of the following enzyme
a. Succinate thiokinase b. Succinate dehydrogenase c. Alpha ketoglutarate
dehydrogenase d. Phosphoenolpyruvate
dehydrogenase 145. Which one of the following is not
characteristic of hexose monophosphate pathway:
a. It produces CO2 b. It uses NADP c. It produces ribose-5-P d. It requires ATP for
phosphorylation 146. Which one of the following
reactions does not consume NADPH a. Reduction of oxidized
glutathione (G-S-S-G) b. Synthesis of steroid c. Conversion of glucose 6-
phosphate to 6- phosphoglucono lactone
d. Fatty acid synthesis 147. Glutathione functions in RBCs
largely to a. Reduce H2O2 b. Produce NADPH+H c. Reduce methaemoglobin d. Reduce pyruvate to lactate
148. Which one of the following metabolites is not directly produced in the hexose monophosphate pathway:
a. Fructose-6-phosphate b. CO2 c. DHAP d. Erythrose-4-phosphate
149. The synthesis of glucose from pyruvate by gluconeogenesis
a. Occurs exclusively in the cytoplasm
b. Is inhibited by elevated levels of glucagon
c. Requires the participation of biotin
d. Involves lactate as intermediate 150. Which one of the following
reactions is unique to gluconeogenesis?
a. Lactate to pyruvate b. PEP to pyruvate c. Oxaloacetate to PEP d. Glucose-6-phosphate to
fructose-6-phosphate 151. Which compound cannot be
converted to glucose? a. Lactate b. Glycerol c. Oxaloacetate d. Acetyl Co-A
152. Succinate dehydrogenase is inhibited by
a. Malonate b. ATP c. Long chain fatty acids d. All of these
153. A factor not required for oxidative decarboxylation is
a. NAD b. FAD c. TPP d. FMN
154. By oxidative decarboxylation alpha-ketoglutarate is transformed into
a. Succinyl Co-A b. Glutaryl Co-A c. Acetyl Co-A d. Succinate
155. Citrate synthase is inhibited by a. Citrate b. ATP c. Long chain fatty acids d. All of these
156. FADH2 oxidation occurs in a. Mitochondria b. Microsomes c. Cytoplasm d. Lysosome
157. An inhibitor for aconitase is
a. Flouroacetate b. Arsenite c. Malonate d. All of these
158. By oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate to active acetate,the following number of ATP moles are obtained
a. 2 b. 3 c. 8 d. 15
159. A coenzyme for pentose shunt dehydrogenases is:
a. TPP b. NADP c. Both a and b d. NAD
160. In glycogenesis ,formation of branching point is catalyzed by:
a. 1,4--1,6 glucotransferase b. 1,4--1,6 transglucosidase c. Glucosyl transferase d. UDPG-pyrophosphorylase
161. The coenzyme required for lactate dehydrogenase activity is:
a. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
b. Pyridoxal phosphate c. CO-ASH d. Cytochrome C
162. Which enzyme is activated by AMP?
a. PFK1 b. Fructose1,6 bisphosphatase c. Phosphorylase a d. Glycogen synthase
163. Glycogen synthetase requires the following substrate
a. UDP glucose b. GDP glucose c. CDP glucose d. ADP glucose
164. Lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) catalyzes:
a. The oxidation of lactate b. The addition of two hydrogen
to lactate c. The removal of two H atoms
from pyruvate d. The removal of one mole of
H2O from lactate
165. Which reaction is irreversible in glycolysis?
a. Oxidation of 3-phosphoglycerate
b. Formation of fructose-6-phosphate
c. Splitting of fructose 1,6 diphosphate
d. Formation of fructose 1,6 diphosphate
166. Which of the following is not a high energy compound?
a. 1,3 diphosphoglycerate b. Adenosine diphosphate c. Pyrophosphate d. AMP
167. Which of the following is oxidized and loses CO2 in the TCA cycle?
a. Isocitrate b. Oxalosuccinate c. Fumarate d. Alpha ketoglutarate
168. For which reaction is thiamin pyrophosphate required as a coenzyme?
a. Pyruvate to Acetyl-COA b. Pyruvate to oxaloacetate c. Pyruvate to Alanine d. Pyruvate to lactate
169. Glucose-6-phosphate cannot be directly converted by a one enzyme step to:
a. Glucose b. UDP glucose c. Fructose1,6 bisphosphate d. 6 phosphogluconolactone
170. The TCA cycle is controlled by the activity of
a. Citrate synthetase b. Isocitrate dehydrogenase c. Alphaketoglutarate
dehydrogenase d. All of these
171. Hexokinase activity is inhibited by a. Glucose-6-phosphate b. Acetyl Co-A c. PEP d. All of these
172. The activity of phosphorylase b kinase is:
a. Controlled by activation of its zymogen
b. Directly modulated allosterically
c. Inhibited by phosphorylation d. Increased by phosphorylation
173. In gluconeogenesis starting from oxaloacetate,how many high-energy phosphate bonds will be used for each glucose molecule synthesized?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6
174. How many ATP molecules are formed when 2 molecules of pyruvate are completely oxidized by TCA cycle?
a. 30 b. 32 c. 36 d. 38
175. The number of molecules of NADPH+H formed from hexose phosphate in the pentose phosphate pathway is:
a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 12
176. How many ATP molecules are formed when a glucose molecule is completely oxidized by glycolysis & CAC?
a. 34 b. 36 c. 37 d. 38
177. Fructosuria is the result of a. Deficient phosphofructokinase b. Deficient liver fructokinase c. Elevated levels of liver aldolase
B d. Deficient liver hexokinase
178. Which of the following compounds is a member of the electron transport chain?
a. Palmitoyl carnitine. b. Carnitine c. NADH d. Cytochrome P45
179. The connection between oxidation phosphorylation and electron transport is best described by:
a. Existence of a higher pH in cisternae of endoplasmic reticulum than in the cytosol
b. Synthesis of ATP as protons flow into the mitochondrial matrix along a proton gradient that exists across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
c. Dissociation of electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation.
d. Absence of ATP synthase in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
180. Which of the following reactions generate ATP?
a. G-6-P to F-6-P b. Glucose to G-6-P c. Phosphoenolpyruvate to G-6-P d. Pyrvate to lactate
Model Answers 1. B 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. A 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. C 11. E 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. B 16. D 17. E 18. E 19. E 20. A 21. C 22. B 23. E 24. B 25. B 26. C 27. B 28. A 29. A 30. B 31. A
32. B 33. A 34. B 35. D 36. A 37. D 38. A 39. C 40. C 41. D 42. D 43. B 44. C 45. B 46. C 47. B 48. A 49. B 50. A 51. A 52. B 53. D 54. A 55. A 56. A 57. D 58. C 59. A 60. D 61. C 62. C
63. D 64. A 65. D 66. A 67. D 68. A 69. A 70. B 71. B 72. C 73. B 74. C 75. A 76. A 77. A 78. A 79. D 80. D 81. B 82. D 83. A 84. C 85. D 86. A 87. D 88. C 89. A 90. A 91. D 92. B 93. C
94. B 95. C 96. D 97. D 98. D 99. D
100. B 101. C 102. B 103. D 104. C 105. D 106. D 107. A 108. B 109. C 110. C 111. D 112. B 113. B 114. B 115. B 116. D 117. C 118. B 119. D 120. A 121. B 122. B 123. C 124. C
125. C 126. C 127. D 128. C 129. D 130. A 131. B 132. C 133. B 134. B 135. C 136. C 137. C 138. B
139. C 140. A 141. A 142. C 143. B 144. A 145. D 146. D 147. A 148. C 149. C 150. C 151. D 152. A
153. D 154. A 155. D 156. A 157. A 158. B 159. B 160. B 161. B 162. A 163. A 164. A 165. D 166. D
167. D 168. A 169. B 170. D 171. A 172. D 173. C 174. A 175. A 176. D 177. B 178. C 179. B 180. C
1. True statements about lipids include the following except
a. They are an intracellular energy source
b. They are poorly soluble in water
c. They are structural components of membranes
d. They are composed of only carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
2. Hydrogenation of oil is a. The basis of artificial fat
formation b. Oxidation reaction of lipids c. The basis for soap formation d. All of the above
3. An unsaturated fatty acid with 3 double bonds is
a. Stearic acid b. Lignoceric acid c. Linoleic acid d. linolenic acid
4. Lecithin contains a. Two fatty acids b. Glycerol c. Phosphoric acid d. Choline e. All of these
5. An essential fatty acid is a. Linoleic b. Linolenic c. Arachidonic d. All of these
6. A non-essential fatty acid is a. Oleic b. Linoleic c. Linolenic d. Arachidonic
7. A lipid containing sphingosine is a. Lecithin b. Ganglioside c. Cardiolipin d. Cephalin
8. Adipose tissue fats are mainly a. Phospholipids b. Triglycerides c. Lipoproteins d. Sulfolipid
9. Addition of choline to phosphatidic acid will produce
a. Lysolecithin b. Choline plasmalogen c. Phosphatidyl serine d. Lecithin
10. The double bond in cholesterol is present between the following 2 carbons
a. 4 and 5 b. 5 and 6 c. 7 and 8 d. 22 and 23
11. Fatty acids that are dietary essentials in humans include which of the following
a. Palmitic acid b. Stearic acid c. Oleic acid d. Linoleic Acid
12. A substance not present in the hydrolytic products of lecithin is
a. Saturated fatty acid b. Glycerol c. Phosphoric acid d. Ethanolamine
13. The free fatty acid of blood are a. Metabolically inert b. Mainly bound to B-
lipoproteins c. Stored in the fat depots d. Mainly bound to serum
albumin 14. An unsaturated fatty acid with 3
double bonds is a. Stearic acid b. Lignoceric acid c. Linoleic acid d. Linolenic acid
15. Plasma lipoproteins can be separated by
a. Electrophoresis b. Ultracentrifugation c. Both of these d. None of these
16. A non-essential fatty acid is a. Oleic b. Linolenic c. Arachidonic d. All of these
17. A 18 carbon fatty acid not synthesized
in the body is a. Lignoceric b. Palmitoleic c. Stearic d. Linoleic
18. A compound normally used to conjugate bile acids is
a. Serine b. Glucuronic acid c. Fatty acids d. Calcium e. Glycine
19. Fatty acids that must be obtained from the diet by humans include
a. Oleic b. Plamitoleic c. Palmitic d. Stearic e. Linoleic
20. Hydrolysis of a mixture of phospholipids may yield all the following except
a. Serine b. Choline c. Galactose d. Glycerol
21. A substance not present in the hydrolytic products of cephalin is
a. Saturated fatty acid b. Glycerol c. Phosphoric acid d. Ethanolamine
22. A fatty acid not synthesized in man is a. Oleic b. Palmitoleic c. Linoleic d. Palmitic
23. Which of the following is not a phospholipid
a. Cerebroside b. Plasmelogen c. Lecithin d. Splingomyelin
24. An anti-oxidant is a substance that a. Prevents saponification b. Used to produce rancidity of
lipids c. Used to protect lipids against
rancidity d. Used for hardening of oils
25. Lipids are: a. Structural constituents of cell
membrane b. Components having high
energy value c. Soluble in non-polar solvents d. All of the above
26. An example for simple lipid is: a. Triglyceride (T riacylglycerol) b. Cephalin c. Fatty acids d. Glycerol
27. Which one of the following is not a compound lipid?
a. Plasmalogen b. Waxes c. Lecithin d. Sphingomyelin
28. Cholesterol is an: a. Compound lipid b. Simple lipid c. Derived lipid d. Aliphatic alcohol
29. Respiratory distress syndrome occurs due In deficiency of:
a. Plasmalogen b. Svinsvmyflin c. Dipalmimoyl lecithin d. Phosphatidyl serine
30. Which is a major costituent of lung surfactantl?
a. Dipalmitoyl lecithin b. Cholesbeml c. Phosphalidic add d. Glycerol
31. Carbohydrate moiety present in cerebroside in:
a. fructose b. Galactose c. Ribose d. Mannose
32. Sphingosine, as amino alchol in a constituent of all the following except:
a. Ganglioside b. Cerebroside c. Cephalin d. Sphingomyelin
33. which is not constituent of
gangliosides: a. Sialic acid b. Glycerol c. Sphingosine d. Long-chain fatty acid
34. Which of the following is monounsaturated fatty acids
a. Linoleic Acid b. Alpha linolenic Acid c. Oleic Acid d. Arachidonic Acid
35. Which of the following is a precursor to prostaglandins
a. Linoleic Acid b. Alpha linolenic Acid c. Oleic Acid d. Arachidonic Acid
36. All the following are essential together except
a. Omega 3 b. Linoleic acid c. Arachidonic acid d. Stearic acid
37. Which of the following is the variable element of fat
a. Triacylglycerol in blood b. Stored glycogen c. True fat d. Glycerophospholipids
38. 1 gram of fat is oxidised into a. 9.3 Kcal b. 4.1 Kcal c. 5.6 Kcal d. 2.1 Kcal
39. The precursor compound of glycerophospholipids is
a. Dipalmitoilglycerol b. Triacylglycerol c. Phosphatidic acid d. Glycogen
40. The L-isomer of glycerol phosphate is found in
a. Plant sterols b. Natural phosphoglycerols c. Blood lipoproteins d. Tissue lipid bilayer
41. The amphipathic property of phospholipids is because they have
a. Phosphoryl bases as polar heads
b. Hydrocarbon non polar tails c. Leads to formation of micelles
in water d. All of the above
42. All are correct about lecithin except a. The base here is choline b. Present in cell membrane c. One of the most important
clotting factors d. Dipalmitoyl form is important
for lung surfactant
43. All of the following are true about dipalmitoyl lecithin except
a. Position 1, 2 is occupied by palmitate
b. Found in extracellular fluid of alveoli
c. Its loss decreases surface tension of alveolar fluid leading to alveolar collapse
d. Its loss leads to respiratory distress syndrome
44. All are true about cephalin except a. Abundant in animal cell
membranes b. Base is ethanolamine c. Has 2 forms 3 & 2 cephalin d. Takes part in formation of lung
surfactant e. One of the important clotting
factors 45. Lipositol
a. Has a cyclic hexose myoinositol head
b. 1,4,5 form is present in brain and muscles
c. The suger moiety is non-polar d. Phosphatidic inositol can have
two or three moles of phosphoric acid
46. Cardiolipin a. Used to test for syphilis b. 2 molecules of phosphatidic
acid bound to glycerol c. Found in large amounts in
inner mitochondrial membrane
d. First isolated from heart e. Important clotting factor
47. Which of the following is the constant element of fat
a. Triacylglycerol in blood b. Stored glycogen c. True fat d. Glycerophospholipids
48. Which of the following is the chemical reaction of breaking glycerophospholipids
a. Hydrolysis by Phospholipases b. Polyunsaturated Fatty acid
peroxidation c. Phosphodiesterase reaction
49. The membrane-bound glycerophospholipids control cell permeability in
a. Heart b. Lung c. Nerves d. Liver
50. All the following are the functions of non-membrane bound glycerophospholipids except
a. In bile for solubilisation of cholesterol, digestion and absorption of dietary lipids
b. In plasma lipoproteins c. Mediators of hormone action d. Increase surface tension in
lung alveoli 51. All of the following are hydrolytic
products of sphingophospholipids except
a. Sphingosine b. Glycerol c. Higher fatty acid d. Phosphoric acid e. Base
52. All the following statements about Ceramide are true except
a. The parent structure of membrane components found in brain and myelin sheath of nerves
b. The fatty acid moiety is saturated or mononunsaturated
c. The amino group of sphingosine is connected by a hydrogen bond to the fatty acid
53. The most abundant sphingophospholipids in animals are
a. Glycosphingolipids b. Ceramides c. Sphingomyelins. d. Sulfatides
54. The sphingomyelin polar head group is:
a. Phosphoryl choline b. Phosphatidyl ethanolamine c. Phosphatidyl inositol d. Phosphoryl Co-A
55. The following occur in the outer
leaflet of plasma membrane a. Sphingophospholipids b. Glycerophospholipids c. Glycolipids d. Steroids
56. All the following are functions of cell surface glycolipids
a. Cell to cell communication b. Tissue immunity c. Blood group antibodies d. Species specificity
57. All the following are true about cerebrosides except
a. They are neutral because they contain neutral sugar molecules as their polar heads
b. The sugars are bound to hydroxyl group of ceramide
c. Glucocerebroside is the major glycosphingolipid in brain and nervous tissue
d. The bond between sugers and hydroxyl groups is Beta-1,1 glycosidic link
58. Which of the following is true about acidic glycolipids:
a. The sylfatides are sulphate esters of glucocerebrosides
b. The linkage between sulphur and glucocerebrosides is at the 2nd position of glucose
c. Gangliosides are simple glycosphinglipids derived from galactosyl ceramide
d. Gangliosides contain neuraminic acid in their structure
59. The USF include all except
a. Steroids b. Carotenoids c. FSVs d. Glycerols e. High molecular weight
alcohols
60. All of the following are true about USF except
a. They include steroids and FSVs b. Can be hydrolysed by alkali c. Can be separated from other
types of fat by saponification d. It stands for Unsaponifiable
Fraction of fats 61. Which of the following is not correct
about the steroid nucleus a. It’s nucleus is called
cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene ring
b. There is a methyl group at C10 and C13
c. The total number of carbon atoms including the methyl groups is 17
d. The 6 carbon atoms of the hexagonal ring are completely saturated
62. Which of the following is incorrect about sterols
a. They are a type of steroids b. They have a hydroxyl group at
C3 c. They have an aliphatic side
chain at C17 d. Ergosterol is an animal sterol
while 7-dihydrocholesterol is a plant sterol
63. The main sterol in the body is a. 7-dihydrocholesterol b. Cholesterol c. Ergosterol d. 22-dihydroergosterol
64. All of the following are true about cholesterol except
a. It’s a major constituent of plasma membrane
b. It’s a precursor of sex hormones, cortical hormones & Vit. D
c. =Synthesized by the body and found in plant fats which are the major source
d. Formed in the body from acetyl Co-A
65. Which is incorrect about the chemistry of cholesterol
a. Hydroxyl group at C3 b. Aliphatic side chain at C17 c. =It’s formed of 29C d. A double bond between C5 &
C6 66. Which of the following compounds is
converted by UV rays into cholecalciferol
a. =7-dihydrocholesterol b. Cholesterol c. Ergosterol d. 22-dihydroergosterol
67. The extra methyl group in plant sterols is at
a. C29 b. C3 c. =C24 d. C17
68. All of the following is true about plant sterols except
a. They have a double bond between C22 & C23
b. Ergocalciferol is formed by photolysis from plants
c. Yeast is the main source of ergocalciferol
d. =D3 is more potent than D2 e. 22-dihydroergosterol is called
pro-vit D4
Answers 1. D 2. A 3. D 4. E 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. B 9. D 10. B 11. C 12. D 13. D 14. D 15. C 16. A 17. D 18. E 19. E 20. C 21. D 22. C 23. A 24. c
25. d 26. a 27. b 28. c 29. c 30. a 31. b 32. c 33. b 34. c 35. d 36. d 37. c 38. a 39. c 40. b 41. d 42. c 43. c 44. d 45. c 46. e 47. d 48. a
49. c 50. d 51. b 52. c 53. c 54. a 55. c 56. c 57. c 58. d 59. d 60. b 61. c 62. d 63. b 64. c 65. c 66. a 67. c 68. d
1. Β-oxidation takes place in: a. Mitochondria b. Extramitochondria c. Lysozyme d. Endoplasmic reticulum e. All of these
2. Denovo synthesis of fatty acids take place in:
a. Mitochondria b. Extramitochondria c. Lysozyme d. Endoplasmic reticulum e. None of these
3. The end product of β-oxidation of odd chain fatty acid is:
a. Acetyl COA b. Malonyl COA c. Propionyl COA d. Hydroxy methyl glutaryl COA e. Acetyl COA and propionyl COA
4. High density Lipo protein fraction is rich in:
a. Triglycerides b. Phopho lipid c. Cholesterol d. Fatty acid e. All of these
5. Low density lipoprotein are rich in:
a. Phospholipid b. Triglycerides c. Cholesterol d. Chylomicrons e. All of these
6. Very low density lipoprotein are rich in: a. Phospholipid b. Cerebrosides c. Triglycerides d. Chylomicrons e. All of the above
7. Cholesterol biosynthesis takes place in: a. Mitochondria b. Extramitrochondria c. Endoplasmic reticulum d. Ribosomes e. All of the above
8. The rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis is:
a. HMG COA reductase b. HMG COA synthetase c. thiolase d. Mevalonate kinase e. Squalene synthetase
9. Cholesterol gives rise to:
a. Provitamin D b. Cholic acid c. Sex hormones d. All of the above e. None of the above
10. Esterification of cholesterol takes place
in: a. liver b. Kidney c. Blood. d. Intestines e. All of the above
11. Which of the following is not a ketone body:
a. Acetic acid. b. Acetone. c. B-hydroxyButyricacid d. Aceto acetic acid e. None of the above
12. Ketone bodies are intermediatry
products in: a. Carbohydrate metabolism b. Lipid metabolism c. protein metabolism d. Nucleic acid metabolism e. None of the above
13. Fatty liver is due to: a. Deficiency of lipo protein factors b. Lead poisoning c. Starvation d. ketosis e. All of the above
14. The role of liver in lipid metabolism is: a. Triglyceride synthesis b. phospholipid synthesis c. Ketone bodies formation d. Synthesis and degradation of
fatty acid e. All of the above
15. All of the following statements about ketone bodies are correct except:
a. They are soluble in aqueous solutions and therefore do not require carriers in blood.
b. They are made in response to elevated levels of fatty acids in the liver, where the amount of acetyl-COA exceeds the oxidation capacity of the liver.
c. Acetone is not utilized by the body as fuel.
d. Unlike fatty acids.they can be oxidized by the brain.
e. When plasma ketone bodies levels are elevated,the liver efficiently oxidizes them for energy.
16. Which of the following changes would you expect in a patient with decreased activity of lipoprotein lipase?
a. Elevation of plasma chylomicron only
b. Elevation of plasma high-density lipoprotein only
c. Elevation of plasma low-density lipoprotein only
d. Elevation of both plasma chylomicron and very low-density lipoprotein.
e. Elevation of both plasma high-density lipoprotein and low-density lipoprotein.
17. Which one of the following substances is an intermediate in the synthesis of both glycerolcontaining phospholipids and triacylglycerol?
a. Acetoacetyl-COA. b. Ethanolamine. c. Phosphatidic acid. d. Choline e. B-hydroxybutyrate
18. The regulatory step in the biosynthesis of cholesterol from acetyl-COA is:
a. The formation of acetoacetyl-COA from acetyl-COA.
b. The formation of HMG-COA from acetoacetyl-COA.
c. The formation mevalonate from HMG-COA.
d. The formation squalene of by squalene synthetase.
e. The cyclisation of squalene to lanosterol.
19. Carnitine is involved in fatty acid:
a. Synthesis. b. Activation. c. Oxidation. d. Thiolysis
20. The action of the enzyme B-Ketothiolase is linked with:
a. FAD. b. NAD c. COA-SH. d. ATP.
21. In Β-oxidation ,the activation of fatly acids to an acyl-COA occurs:
a. In the cytoplasm. b. Inside the mitochondria. c. On the inner mitochondrial
membrane. d. Crossing the mitochondrial
membrane.
22. In β-oxidation of fatty acids,the second oxidation-reduction steps is catalyzed by:
a. Acyl-COA dehydrogenase. b. B-hydroxy acylCOA
dehydrogenase. c. B-keto acyl reductase. d. Enoyl reductase.
23. Oxidation of palimitic acid to active
acetate needs the repetition of β-oxidation cycles:
a. 3 times b. 6 times c. 7 times d. 8 times
24. Propionyl-COA can be obtained by Β-
oxidation of: a. Butyric b. Valeric c. Caproic d. Palmitic
25. Complete oxidation of butyric acid results in gain of the following number of ATP moles:
a. 24. b. 27. c. 29. d. 129.
26. Glycerokinase is present in the following tissues except:
a. liver. b. Kidney. c. Intestine. d. Adipose tissue.
27. A lipid component that can be convened
to glucose is: a. Glycerol. b. Fatty acid. c. Cholesterol. d. Sphingosine.
28. A coenzyme not used in fatly acid
oxidation is: a. COA-SH. b. NAD. c. FAD. d. NADP.
29. FFA are carried in blood bound to:
a. Chylomicrons. b. VLDL. c. HDL. d. Albumin.
30. An enzyme that releases NEFA from chylomicrons is:
a. Fat cell lipase. b. Pancreatic lipase. c. Lipoprotein lipase. d. Intestinal cell lipase.
31. For oxidation of one mole of stearic acid,the number of active acetate produced is:
a. 8. b. 9. c. 6. d. 11
32. The oxidation and degradation of fatty acid inside the cells:
a. Starts with the fatty acid thioester of COA.
b. Does not produce energy for the cells.
c. Is inhibited by carnitine. d. Proceeds through successive
shortening of the acids by three carbon units.
33. Which of the following statements describes best the function of carnitine?
a. It transports medium-chain fatty acid into gut-epithelial cells.
b. It transports medium-chain fatty acids across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
c. It is a trans-acylation reaction catalyzed by a transferase.
d. It is a derivative of vitamin A and is involved in adaptation of
the retina to darkness
34. During each cycle of ongoing B-fatty acid oxidation, all of the following components are generated except:
a. H20. b. NADH+H c. FADH2. d. Fatty-acyl-COA.
35. In fatty acid synthesis, the transfer of acetyl group across the inner mitochondrial membrane is mainly achieved by means of:
a. The camitine shuttle. b. Citrate Shuttle. c. Acetyl transferase. d. Malonyl-transacylase.
36. Biosynthesis of fatty acids requires: a. Thiamine. b. Riboflavin. c. Biotin. d. Pyridoxal phosphate.
37. In microsomal synthesis of fatty acids,the source is:
a. Acetyl-COA b. Propionyl-COA. c. Malonyl-COA. d. Acetoacetyl-COA.
38. A precursor for fatty acid synthesis is:
a. Crotinyl-COA. b. Acetoacetate. c. Acetyl-COA. d. Propionyl-COA.
39. Elongation of palmityl-COA to stearyl-COA occurs mainly inside:
a. Microsomes. b. Mitochondria. c. Nucleus. d. Cytosol.
40. Fatty acids that are dietary essential in
human include which of the following? a. Palmitic. b. Stearic. c. Oleic. d. Linoleic.
41. Important intermediate in the synthesis
of fatty acid from glucose in animal tissues include:
a. Carnitine. b. Pyruvate. c. ATP. d. COA-SH.
42. The NADPH utilized for fatty acid
synthesis can be generated from: a. Citrate lyase. b. HMP shunt. c. Mitochondrial malate
dehydrogenase. d. Aspartate transaminase.
43. Which of the following statements about the de-novo synthesis of fatty acids is true:
a. It does not utilize acetyl-COA. b. It produces only fatty acids
shorter than 10 carbon atoms. c. It requires the intermediate
malonyl-COA. d. It takes place primarily in the
mitochondria.
44. The source of glycerol for fatty acid esterification in adipocytes is:
a. Obtained primarily from phosphorylation of glycerol by glycerol kinase.
b. For the most part derived from glucose.
c. Formed by glycogenesis. d. Inhibited by insulin stimulation.
45. The cholesterol molecule is a: a. Benzene derivative. b. Tocopherol. c. Straight-chain alcohol. d. Steroid.
46. Which of the following compounds has the lowest density?
a. Chylomicrons. b. B-lipoproteins. c. Pre-B-lipoproteins. d. Alpha-lipoproteins.
47. Acetyl-COA is a precursor for synthesis of the following compounds except:
a. Ketone bodies. b. Cholesterol. c. Pyruvic acid. d. Fatty acids.
48. HMG-COA is an intermediate during
synthesis of: a. Ketone bodies & phospholipids. b. Triglycerides & cholesterol. c. Ketone bodies & cholesterol. d. Ketone bodies & lipoproteins.
49. Ketone bodies are normally synthesized from:
a. Acetyl-COA. b. Glucose. c. Acetone. d. Glycerol.
50. Ketosis results from: a. Overproduction of acetyl-CoA. b. Overutilization of glucose. c. Under utilization of lipids. d. Underproduction of active
acetate. 51. For the synthesis of lecithin from
diacylglycerol,the following compound is required:
a. CDP-ethanolamine. b. UDP-G. c. CDP-choline. d. CTP.
52. HMG-COA is converted to mevalonic acid by HMG-COA reductase needing two molecules of:
a. FADH2. b. Active acetate. c. NADP H+H d. HMG-COA.
53. The rate-limiting enzyme in the
extramitochondrial synthesis of fatty acids is:
a. Citrate lyase. b. Hydratase. c. Acyl transferase. d. Acetyl-COA carboxylase.
54. A lipogenic hormone is:
a. Glucagon. b. Cortisol. c. Insulin. d. Epinephrine.
55. The depot fat consists largely of:
a. Glycolipids. b. Triglycerides. c. Phospholipid. d. Cholesterol.
56. The amino acid used in sphingosine
synthesis is: a. Serine. b. Alanine. c. Glutamine. d. Aspartic.
57. CDP-choline is used for synthesis of: a. Cholesterol. b. Lecithin. c. Ketone bodies. d. Acetyl-choline.
58. Β-oxidation takes place in: a. Mitochondria b. Extramitochondria c. Lysozyme d. Endoplasmic reticulum e. All of these
59. Esterification of cholesterol takes place in:
a. liver b. Kidney c. Blood d. Intestines e. All of the above
60. Which of the following is not a ketone
body: a. Acetic acid. b. Acetone. c. B-hydroxyButyricacid d. Aceto acetic acid e. None of the above
61. Ketone bodies are intermediatry products in:
a. Carbohydrate metabolism b. Lipid metabolism c. protein metabolism d. Nucleic acid metabolism e. None of the above
62. Fatty liver is due to: a. Deficiency of lipo protein factors b. Lead poisoning c. Starvation d. ketosis e. All of the above
63. The role of liver in lipid metabolism is: a. Triglyceride synthesis b. phospholipid synthesis c. Ketone bodies formation d. Synthesis and degradation of
fatty acid e. All of the above
64. All of the following statements about ketone bodies are correct except:
a. They are soluble in aqueous solutions and thus do not require carriers in blood.
b. They are made in response to elevated levels of fatty acids in the liver, where the
c. Acetone is not utilized by the body as fuel.
d. Unlike fatty acids.they can be oxidized by the brain.
e. When plasma ketone bodies levels are elevated,the liver efficiently oxidizes them for energy.
65. Which of the following changes would you expect in a patient with decreased activity of lipoprotein lipase?
a. Elevation of plasma chylomicron only
b. Elevation of plasma HDL only c. Elevation of plasma LDL only d. Elevation of both plasma
chylomicron and VLDL e. Elevation of both plasma HDL &
LDL 66. Which one of the following
substances is an intermediate in the synthesis of both glycerolcontaining phospholipids and triacylglycerol? a. Acetoacetyl-COA. b. Ethanolamine. c. Phosphatidic acid. d. Choline e. B-hydroxybutyrate.
67. The regulatory step in the biosynthesis of cholesterol from acetyl-COA is:
a. The formation of acetoacetyl-CoA from acetyl-CoA.
b. The formation of HMG-COA from acetoacetyl-COA.
c. The formation mevalonate from HMG-COA.
d. The formation squalene of by squalene synthetase.
e. The cyclisation of squalene to lanosterol.
68. Carnitine is involved in FA: a. Synthesis. b. Activation. c. Oxidation. d. Thiolysis.
69. De-novo synthesis of fatty acids takes place in:
a. Mitochondria b. Extramitochondria c. Lysozyme d. Endoplasmic reticulum
70. The action of the enzyme B-Ketothiolase is linked with:
a. FAD. b. NAD c. COA-SH. d. ATP.
71. In Β-oxidation ,the activation of fatly acids to an acyl-COA occurs:
a. In the cytoplasm. b. Inside the mitochondria. c. On the inner mitochondrial
membrane. d. Crossing the mitochondrial
membrane. 72. In Β-oxidation of fatty acids,the
second oxidation-reduction steps is catalyzed by:
a. Acyl-COA dehydrogenase. b. B-hydroxy acylCOA
dehydrogenase. c. B-keto acyl reductase. d. Enoyl reductase.
73. Oxidation of palimitic acid to active acetate needs the repetition of Β-oxidation cycles:
a. 3 times b. 6 times c. 7 times d. 8 times
74. Propionyl-COA can be obtained by Β-
oxidation of: a. Butyric b. Valeric c. Caproic d. Palmitic
75. Complete oxidation of butyric acid results in gain of the following number of ATP moles:
a. 24 b. 27 c. 29 d. 129
76. Glycerokinase is present in the following tissues except:
a. liver. b. Kidney. c. Intestine. d. Adipose tissue.
77. A lipid component that can be convened
to glucose is: a. Glycerol. b. Fatty acid. c. Cholesterol. d. Sphingosine.
78. A coenzyme not used in fatly acid oxidation is:
a. COA-SH. b. NAD c. FAD d. NADP.
79. FFA are carried in blood bound to: a. Chylomicrons. b. VLDL. c. HDL d. Albumin.
80. The end product of β-oxidation of odd chain fatty acid is:
a. Acetyl COA b. Malonyl COA c. Propionyl COA d. Hydroxy methyl glutaryl COA e. Acetyl COA and propionyl COA
81. An enzyme that releases NEFA from
chylomicrons is: a. Fat cell lipase. b. Pancreatic lipase. c. Lipoprotein lipase. d. Intestinal cell lipase.
82. For oxidation of one mole of stearic
acid,the number of active acetate produced is:
a. 8 b. 9 c. 6 d. 11
83. The oxidation and degradation of fatty acid inside the cells:
a. Starts with the fatty acid thioester of CoA.
b. Does not produce energy for the cells.
c. Is inhibited by carnitine. d. Proceeds through successive
shortening of the acids by three carbon units.
84. Which of the following statements describes best the function of carnitine?
a. It transports medium-chain FA into gut-epithelial cells.
b. It transports medium-chain fatty acids across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
c. It is a trans-acylation reaction catalyzed by a transferase.
d. It is a derivative of vitamin A and is involved in adaptation of the retina to darkness.
85. During each cycle of ongoing B-fatty acid oxidation,aIl of the following components are generated except:
a. H20. b. NADH+H c. FADH2. d. Fatty-acyl-COA.
86. In fatty acid synthesis, the transfer of acetyl group across the inner mitochondrial membrane is mainly achieved by means of:
a. The camitine shuttle. b. Citrate Shuttle. c. Acetyl transferase. d. Malonyl-transacylase
87. Biosynthesis of fatty acids requires:
a. Thiamine. b. Riboflavin. c. Biotin. d. Pyridoxal phosphate.
88. In microsomal synthesis of fatty
acids,the source is: a. Acetyl-COA b. Propionyl-COA c. Malonyl-COA. d. Acetoacetyl-COA.
89. A precursor for fatty acid synthesis is: a. Crotinyl-COA. b. Acetoacetate. c. Acetyl-COA. d. Propionyl-COA.
90. Elongation of palmityl-COA to stearyl-COA occurs mainly inside:
a. Microsomes b. Mitochondria c. Nucleus d. Cytosol.
91. High density 1ipo protein fraction is rich in:
a. Triglycerides b. Phopho lipid c. Cholesterol d. Fatty acid e. All of these
92. Fatty acids that are dietary essential in
human include which of the following? a. Palmitic. b. Stearic c. Oleic d. Linoleic.
93. Important intermediate in the synthesis
of fatty acid from glucose in animal tissues include:
a. Carnitine. b. Pyruvate. c. ATP d. COA-SH.
94. The NADPH utilized for fatty acid synthesis can be generated from:
a. Citrate lyase. b. HMP shunt. c. Mitochondrial malate
dehydrogenase. d. Aspartate transaminase.
95. Which of the following statements
about the de-novo synthesis of fatty acids is true:
a. It does not utilize acetyl-COA. b. It produces only fatty acids
shorter than 10 carbon atoms. c. It requires the intermediate
malonyl-COA. d. It takes place primarily in the
mitochondria.
96. The source of glycerol for fatty acid esterification in adipocytes is:
a. Obtained primarily from phosphorylation of glycerol by glycerol kinase.
b. For the most part derived from glucose.
c. Formed by glycogenesis. d. Inhibited by insulin stimulation.
97. The cholesterol molecule is a: a. Benzene derivative. b. Tocopherol. c. Straight-chain alcohol. d. Steroid.
98. Which of the following compounds has
the lowest density? a. Chylomicrons. b. B-lipoproteins. c. Pre-B-lipoproteins. d. Alpha-lipoproteins.
99. Acetyl-COA is a precursor for synthesis
of the following compounds except: a. Ketone bodies. b. Cholesterol c. Pyruvic acid. d. Fatty acids.
100. HMG-COA is an intermediate during synthesis of:
a. Ketone bodies and phospholipids.
b. Triglycerides and cholesterol. c. Ketone bodies and cholesterol. d. Ketone bodies and lipoproteins.
101. Low density lipoprotein are rich in: a. Phospholipid b. Triglycerides c. Cholesterol d. Chylomicrons e. All of these
102. Ketosis results from:
a. Overproduction of acetyl-COA. b. Overutilization of glucose. c. Under utilization of lipids. d. Underproduction of active
acetate.
103. For the synthesis of lecithin from diacylglycerol,the following compound is required:
a. CDP-ethanolamine. b. UDP-G. c. CDP-choline. d. CTP.
104. HMG-COA is converted to
mevalonic acid by HMG-COA reductase needing two molecules of:
a. FADH2 b. Active acetate. c. NADP H+H d. HMG-COA.
105. The rate-limiting enzyme in the extramitochondrial synthesis of fatty acids is:
a. Citrate lyase. b. Hydratase c. Acyl transferase. d. Acetyl-COA carboxylase.
106. A lipogenic hormone is: a. Glucagon. b. Cortisol. c. Insulin d. Epinephrine.
107. The depot fat consists largely of: a. Glycolipids. b. Triglycerides. c. Phospholipid. d. Cholesterol.
108. The amino acid used in sphingosine synthesis is:
a. Serine b. Alanine. c. Glutamine. d. Aspartic.
109. CDP-choline is used for synthesis of: a. Cholesterol. b. Lecithin. c. Ketone bodies. d. Acetyl-choline.
110. Very low density lipoprotein are rich in:
a. Phospholipid b. Cerebrosides c. Triglycerides d. Chylomicrons
111. Cholesterol biosynthesis takes place
in: a. Mitochondria b. Extramitrochondria c. Endoplasmic reticulum d. Ribosomes e. All of the above
112. The rate limiting step in cholesterol
biosynthesis is: a. HMG COA reductase b. HMG COA synthetase c. thiolase d. Mevalonate kinase e. Squalene synthetase
113. Cholesterol gives rise to: a. Provitamin D b. Cholic acid c. Sex hormones d. All of the above e. None of the above
114. De novo synthesis of fatty acids is catalysed by a multi-enzyme complex which contains
a. One-SH group b. Two SH groups c. Three-SH groups d. Four-SH groups
115. Activation of fatty acids requires all
the following except a. ATP b. Co A c. Thiokinase d. Carnitine
116. Mitochondrial thiokinase acts on
a. Short chain of FA b. Medium chain of FA c. Long chain of FA d. All of these
117. Carnitine is required for the transport of
a. Triglycerides out of liver b. Triglycerides into mitochondria c. Short chain fatty acids into
mitochondria d. Long chain fatty acids into
mitochondria
118. Carnitine acylcarnitine translocase is present
a. In the inner mitochondrial membrane
b. In the mitochondrial matrix c. On the outer surface of inner
mitochondrial membrane d. On the inner surface of inner
mitochondrial
119. Net ATP generation on complete oxidation of stearic acid:
a. 129 b. 131 c. 146 d. 148
120. Propionyl CoA formed oxidation of fatty acids having an odd number of carbon atoms is converted into
a. Acetyl CoA b. Acetoacetyl CoA c. D-Methylmalonyl CoA d. Butyryl CoA
121. α-Oxidation of fatty acids occurs mainly in
a. Liver b. Brain c. Muscles d. Adipose tissue
122. α-Oxidation of fatty acids occurs mainly in
a. Liver b. Brain c. Muscles d. Adipose tissue
123. NADPH required for fatty acid synthesis can come from
a. Hexose Monophosphate Shunt b. Oxidative decarboxylation of
malate c. Extramitochondrial oxidation of
isocitrate d. All of these
124. NADPH required for fatty acid
synthesis can come from a. Hexose Monophosphate Shunt b. Oxidative decarboxylation of
malate c. Extramitochondrial oxidation of
isocitrate d. All of these
Answers
1. A 2. B 3. E 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. E 11. A 12. B 13. E 14. E 15. E 16. D 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. C 21. A 22. B 23. C 24. B 25. B 26. D 27. A 28. D
29. D 30. C 31. B 32. A 33. C 34. A 35. B 36. C 37. C 38. C 39. A 40. D 41. B 42. B 43. C 44. B 45. D 46. A 47. C 48. C 49. A 50. A 51. C 52. C 53. D 54. C 55. B 56. A
57. B 58. A 59. E 60. A 61. B 62. E 63. E 64. E 65. D 66. C 67. C 68. C 69. B 70. C 71. A 72. B 73. C 74. B 75. B 76. D 77. A 78. D 79. D 80. E 81. C 82. B 83. A 84. C
85. A 86. B 87. C 88. C 89. C 90. A 91. B 92. B 93. B 94. B 95. C 96. B 97. D 98. A 99. C 100. C 101. C 102. A 103. C 104. C 105. D 106. C 107. B 108. A 109. B 110. C 111. B 112. A
113. D 114. D 115. D 116. A 117. D 118. A 119. C 120. C 121. B 122. B 123. D 124. D
1. Which of the following is most found in protein molecule?
a. Carbon b. Hydrogen c. Oxygen d. Nitrogen
2. No of naturally occuring aminoacids is : a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40
3. All of the following are aliphatic amino acids except :
a. Glycine b. Alanine c. Proline d. Lysine
4. One of the following is neutral amino acid : a. Arginine b. Lysine c. Glutamine d. Valine
5. All of the following are hydroxy containing amino acids except : a. Serine b. Threonine c. Valine d. Tyrosine
6. One of the following is optically non active amino acid a. Valine b. Tyrosine c. Glycine d. Threonine
7. All of the following are polar amino acids except : a. Serine b. Glutamate c. Arginine d. Alanine
8. All of the following are essential
amino acids except : a. Lysine b. Aspartate c. Tryptophan d. Hisitidine
9. Lysine : a. Basic Only ketogenic b. Ketogenic glucogenic c. Acidic glucogenic d. Non essential
10. All of the following are primary
aminoacids except : a. Cysteine b. Cystine c. Alanine d. Arginine
11. Which of the following is precursor of T3 and T4 : a. GABA b. Dopa c. B- Alanine d. Di-iodotyrosine
12. Zwitter ion are : a. Basic b. Acidic c. Neutral d. Carry both -ve & +ve charges e. Both c and d
13. The unit of peptides is : a. Moiety b. Residue c. Polypeptide d. Both a and b
14. Lactic acid is buffered by : a. L.Carnosine b. Glutathione c. Casenogin d. Dopa
15. N terminal of glutathione is : a. Glycine b. Cysteine c. Glutamate d. Aspartate
16. Which of the following is BLOOD iron carrier? a. Haemoglobin b. Albumin c. Transferrin d. Globulin
17. Storage form of iron : a. Transferrin b. Ferritin c. Myosin d. Actin
18. Which of the following protien is found in bone : a. Keratin b. Ossein c. Mucin d. Actin
19. Type of bonds between C terminal and N terminal is : a. Covalent b. Disulphide bond c. Peptide d. Ionic e. Both a and c
20. Type of bond between nitrogen and carbonyl group : a. Hydrogen bonds b. Covalent bond c. Peptide bond d. Disulphide bond
21. All of the following are non covalent except : a. Hydrophobic interactions b. Disulphide bond c. Hydrogen bond d. Electrostatic bond
22. Primary structure of proteins refers to : a. Coiling and folding in form of
specific structure b. Number of amino acids in a
chain c. 3D structure d. Alpha and Beta sheets
23. Denaturation involves : a. Peptide bonds b. Primary structure of
protein c. Secondary structure d. Function e. Both c and d
24. Tertiary structure of proteins involves EXCEPT :
a. Domains b. Globular c. Fibrous d. Beta sheets
25. All of the following are simple proteins except :
a. Histones b. Albumin c. Keratins d. Glycoprotein
26. Which of the following is sulphur highly containing protein :
a. Collagen b. Keratin c. Ossein d. Reticulin
27. Casenogen is
a. Chromoprotein b. Phosphoprotein c. Glycoprotein d. Lipoprotein
28. X-ray is a chemical agent for protein denaturation
a. True b. False
29. Increase viscosity of proteins is due to
a. Denaturation b. Isoelectric point c. Both d. None
30. Separation of low molecular weight protein from high one is :
a. Dialysis b. Cromotography c. Electrophoiesis d. Ultracentrifugation
31. Example of basic essential amino acids
a. Arginine b. Histidine c. Lysine d. All of the above e. None of the above
32. Example of non-protein amino acid
a. Glycine b. Alanine c. Tryptophan d. All of the above e. None of the above
33. Example of non-protein amino acid
a. Alanine b. Citrulline c. Phenylalanine d. Leucine
34. Glutathione is an example for a. Amino acid b. Dipeptide c. Polypeptide d. Protein e. Tripeptide
35. The active group of glutathione is
a. Amino group b. Sulfhydryl group c. Carboxylic group d. Imino group e. Peptide linkage
36. The peptide bond is a. Covalent bond b. Non-covalent bond c. Weak bond d. Responsible for secondary
structure of protein e. Between sulfhydryl groups
37. First order of protein structure refers to
a. Bending of protein chain b. Number and sequence of
amino acids c. Three dimensional structure of
protein d. Site of disulfide bonds e. Non-covalent bonds in protein
molecule 38. Second order of protein
structure refers to a. Number and sequence of
amino acids b. Three dimensional structure of
protein c. Proteins formed of more than
one monomer d. Bending of protein molecule e. Dependence on covalent bonds
39. Third structure of protein structure refers to
a. Number and sequence of amino acids
b. Three dimensional structure of protein
c. Proteins formed of more than one monomer
d. Bending of protein molecule e. Dependence on covalent bonds
40. Fourth structure of protein structure refers to
a. Proteins formed of more than one monomer
b. Myoglobin is an example. c. Depends on covalent bonds d. None of the above e. All of the above
41. Covalent bond is a. A weak bond b. A true chemical bond c. A hydrogen bond d. Responsible for secondary
structure of protein e. Liable to be destroyed
42. Example of essential aromatic amino acids
a. Threonine b. Alanine c. Phenyl alanine d. Glycine e. Cysteine
43. Protein of high biological value a. Contains essential amino acids b. Is poor in essential amino acids c. Is of plant source d. Contains amino acid glycine e. Is a basic protein
44. Albumin is a. Insoluble in water b. Heat coagulable protein c. A plant protein
d. A protein of low biological value
e. Poor in essential amino acids 45. Globulin is
a. A basic protein b. A protein of low molecular
weight c. Heat coagulable protein d. Easily soluble in water e. A fibrous protein
46. Keratin is a. Protein of tendons b. Rich in sulfur c. Poor in cysteine d. Conjugated protein e. Soluble in water
47. Collagen contains high percentage of
a. Glycine b. Tryptophan c. Phenyl alanine d. Serine e. Valine
48. Caseinogen is a. Simple protein b. Derived protein c. Phosphoprotein d. Rich in sulfur containing
amino acids e. Presentin plasma
49. On electrophoresis for plasma proteins using buffer of pH 8.6
a. The proteins are neutral b. The proteins carry negative
charge c. The proteins carry positive
charge d. The proteins are easily
precipitated e. The proteins are denaturated
50. Albumins are separated by a. 1/2 saturated ammonium
sulfate b. Full saturated ammonium
sulfate c. 20% saturated ammonium
sulfate d. 60% saturated ammonium
sulfate e. 10% saturated ammonium
sulfate 51. Albumins and globulins are
defined as: a. Derived protein b. Conjugated protein c. Fibrous protein d. Globular protein e. Lipoprotein
52. Plasma proteins are separated by
a. Dialysis b. Electrophoresis c. Filtration
d. Alcohol precipitation 53. Example of essential sulphur
containing amino acids a. Lysine b. Cysteine c. Cystine d. Alanine e. Methionine
54. The bonds present in the primary structure of protein are
a. Peptide bonds b. Hydrogen bonds c. Disulfide bonds d. All of these
55. A protein rich in proline and hydroxy proline is
a. Globin b. Collagen c. Casein d. Histone
56. The buffering property of proteins is due to the presence of
a. Acidic and basic groups b. Hydrogen bonds c. Indole groups d. Hyrophobic bonds
57. Arginine, lysine and ornithine are
a. Obtained by hydrolysis of proteins
b. Essential amino acids c. Basic amino acids d. Derived from butyric acid
58. Glycine Is characterized by a. Absence of an asymmeteric
carbon b. Absence of optical activity c. The shortest amino acid d. All of these
59. Ornithine is a. A basic amino acid b. An essential amino acid c. Present in protein structure d. All of these
60. Albumin, globulin and casein are
a. Milk proteins b. Plasma proteins c. Egg proteins d. Meat proteins
61. Cysteine, cystine and methionine are
a. Essential amino acids b. Present in protein structure c. Acidic amino acids d. All of these
62. A protein that gives positive biuret test is
a. Albumin b. Globulin c. Casein d. All of these
63. A basic amino acid present in protein structure is
a. Histidine b. Citruline c. Ornithine d. All of these
64. Example of amino acid containing guanido group
a. Arginine b. Lysine c. Histidine d. Valine e. Leucine
65. Keratin is a. A scleroprotein b. Rich in cystine c. A simple protein d. All of these
66. A fibrous protein is a. Albumin b. Myosin c. Casein d. Globulin
67. Glycine is a. A non-optically active amino
acid b. Present in structure of
glutathione c. A neutral amino acid d. All of these
68. Proteins associated with nucleic acid in nucleo-protein are
a. Albumin b. Globulin c. Keratin d. Histones
69. ln proteins, the alpha-helix and Beta-pleated sheet are examples of
a. Primary structure b. Secondary structure c. Tertiary structure d. Quaternary structure
70. A tetra peptide contains the following number of preptide bonds
a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five
71. A globular protein is a. Actin b. Myosin c. Collagen d. Albumin
72. Example of branched amino acid
a. Valine b. Leucine c. Isoleucine d. All of the above e. None of the above
73. Example of hydroxy containing amino acids
a. Serine b. Phenyl alanine c. Tryptophan d. Proline e. Glutamic acid
74. Example of amino acids containing imino group
a. Glycine b. Valine c. Proline d. Lysine e. Phenyl alanine
75. Example of an amino acid containing sulfhydryl group
a. Alanine b. Cysteine c. Proline d. Tryptophan e. Lysine
76. Example of non-optically active amino acid
a. Proline b. Alanine c. Glycine d. Phenylalanine
77. Which of the following statements about amino acids is not true?
a. Amino acids are ampholytes b. Aminoacids are linked through
peptide bonds to form proteins c. Amino acids are not
Crystalline compounds d. Leucine is a purely ketogenic
amino acid 78. The amino acids found in
biological proteins are of: a. D-Configuration and
dextrorotatory b. L-Configuration and
levorotatory c. D-Configuration and
levo/dextrorotatory d. L-Configuration and
dextro/laevoratatory 79. Which amino acid doesn’t
occur in proteins of biological system? a. Ornithine b. Arginine c. Cystine d. Histidine
80. All amino adds are optically active except:
a. Serine b. Glycine c. Tryptophan d. Threonine '
81. Which of the following amino acids possesses an imino group? a. Tryptophan b. Hydroxylysine c. Tyrosine d. Proline
82. An amino acid which contains a disulphide bond is:
a. Lysine b. Methionine c. Homocysteine d. Cystine
83. Chemically keratin is a: a. Globulin b. Fibrous protein c. Tripeptide d. Conjugated protein
84. The most abundant protein in the human body is:
a. Collagen b. Keratin c. Myosin d. Albumin
85. Denaturation of proteins is often characterised by:
a. Loss of biological activity b. Always being irreversible c. Being greater the lower the
temperature d. Changes in primary structure
86. Decarboxylation of amino acids will result in the formation of:
a. Amines b. Imino acids c. Basic amino acids d. Amides
87. The number of amino acid residues in one spiral of alpha-helix of proteins is usually:
a. 2.6 b. 3.6 c. 4.6 d. 5.6
88. Which of the following is not found in proteins?
a. Citrulline b. Arginine c. Methionine d. Cysteine
89. The only amino acid containing indole ring is:
a. Tryptophan b. Tyrosine c. Histidine d. Phenylalanine
90. With the exception of glycine, all amino acids found in proteins are:
a. Optically active b. Dextrorotatory c. Of L-configuration d. Levorotatory
91. Essential amino acids are so named because:
a. They are essential for life process
b. Cannot be synthesized in the body
c. Deficiency leads to genetic diseases
d. Important in cell growth 92. Casein is a:
a. Lipoprotein b. Mucoprotein c. Phosphoprotein d. Chromoprotein
93. Which is a basic amino acid? a. Lysine b. Tyrosine c. Glycine d. Leucine
94. An amino acid containing imidazole group ls:
a. lsoleucine b. Arginine c. Proline d. Histidine
95. The major linkage between amino acids in protein is the:
a. Hydrogen bond b. Ionic bond c. Sulphide bond d. Peptide bond
96. An example of a chromoprotein is:
a. Casein b. Hemoglobin c. Peptone d. Collagen
97. When a peptide bond is formed there is removal of :
a. CO2 b. H2O c. NH3 d. H+
98. Aspartic acid is a (an):
a. Monoamino dicarboxylic acid
b. Diamino monocarboxylic acid
c. Aromatic amino acid d. Imino acid
99. All amino acids are optically active except:
a. Glycine b. Serine c. Threonine d. Tryptophan
100. Amino acid which synthesizes many hormones is:
a. Valine b. Phenylalanine c. Alanine d. Histidine
Answers 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. C 7. D 8. B 9. B 10. B 11. D 12. D 13. D 14. A 15. C 16. C 17. B 18. B 19. E 20. A 21. B 22. B 23. E 24. D 25. D
26. B 27. B 28. B 29. A 30. A 31. D 32. E 33. B 34. E 35. B 36. A 37. B 38. D 39. B 40. A 41. B 42. C 43. A 44. B 45. C 46. B 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. B
51. D 52. B 53. E 54. A 55. B 56. A 57. C 58. D 59. A 60. A 61. B 62. D 63. A 64. A 65. D 66. B 67. D 68. D 69. B 70. B 71. D 72. D 73. A 74. C 75. B
76. D 77. C 78. D 79. A 80. B 81. D 82. D 83. B 84. A 85. A 86. A 87. B 88. A 89. A 90. A 91. B 92. C 93. A 94. D 95. D 96. B 97. B 98. A 99. A 100. b
1. Group of organic catalysts, protein in nature, present inside the living cells
a- Enzymes b- Catalysts c- Hormones d- None of the above
2. All of the following is true regarding enzymes except ….. a- Heat labile b- Colloidal c- Dialyzable d- High molecular weight
3. Organic substance on which the enzyme acts …….
a- Substrate b- Co-Enzyme c- Product d- None of the above
4. All of the following can be considered as a co Enzyme for transfer of H except a- Biotin b- ATP c- FAD d- Folic acid
5. One of the following can be considered as a co Enzyme for transfer of groups other than H except
a- Biotin b- ATP c- FAD
d- Folic acid
6. One of the following is considered a feature of Enzymes except …… a- Globular Proteins b- Undergo Denaturation c- Simple Proteins d- Non-Specific
7. Enzyme acts on a special type of bond at specific site and attached to specific groups …… a- Group Specificity b- Absolute Specificity c- Relative Specificity d- Optical Specificity
8. D-amino acid Oxidase represents …… a- Group Specificity b- Absolute Specificity c- Relative Specificity d- Optical Specificity
9. Pancreatic Lipase represents ……. a- Group Specificity b- Absolute Specificity c- Relative Specificity d- Optical Specificity
10. Special sequence of amino acids in the protein molecule of the enzyme to which the substrate is attached……. a- Catalytic Site b- Active site c- Allosteric Site d- None of the above
11. All sequences of amino acids which affect the activity of the enzyme …… a- Catalytic Site b- Active site c- Allosteric Site d- All of the above
12. Substrate induces a conformational change in the catalytic site ……. a- Lock and key model b- Flexible model of catalytic site c- Rigid model of catalytic site d- None of the above
13. Concentration of the product increases directly by time ……. a- Maximum Velocity b- End velocity c- Initial Velocity d- None of the above
14. Increase in substrate concentration leads to …….. a- Increase of velocity b- Increase in enzyme activity c- Increase of V max
d- All of the above 15. Substrate concentration which
produces half maximal velocity (½Vmax.) ………. a- Full Concentration b- Null Concentration c- Michael’s Concentration d- All of the above
16. Increase in enzyme concentration ……. the rate of reaction a- Increase b- Decrease c- No effect d- Permissive effect
17. Complete irreversible loss of enzyme activity occurs at …… a- 37 degree C b- 45 degree C c- 0 degree C d- 60-65 degree C
18. Temperature at which the enzymatic reaction velocity is maximal …… a- Optimum Temperature b- 37 degree C c- 65 degree C d- A and b together e- None of the above
19. Optimum PH for Trypsin is …… a- 6.8 b- 8.4 c- 8 d- 2
20. Optimum PH for Alkaline Phosphatase a- 6.8 b- 8.4 c- 8 d- 2
21. All of the following inhibits enzymatic activity except
a- Physical Agents b- Heating c- Shaking d- Red and Blue lights
22. Pepsin is activated through …….. a- Removal of inhibitory peptide b- Reducing agent c- Minerals d- Allosteric activators
23. Glyceraldehyde 3-P dehydrogenase is activated through …..
a- Removal of inhibitory peptide b- Reducing agent c- Minerals d- Allosteric activators
24. Metaloenzymes is activated through ….. a- Removal of inhibitory peptide b- Reducing agent c- Minerals d- Allosteric activators
25. Tyrosinase requires …… a- ZN ++ b- CU ++ c- CL – d- MG ++
26. Phosphofructokinase enzyme is activated through ….. a- Removal of inhibitory peptide
b- Reducing agent c- Minerals d- Allosteric activators
27. Activation by Phosphorylation excludes one of the following …….
a- Hormone sensitive lipase b- Glycogen Phosphyrlase c- Glycogen Synthetase d- None of the above
28. Competitive inhibition includes all of the following except
a- Chemical structure of the inhibitor closely resembles that of the substrate.
b- Combines Reversibly with the enzyme
c- When both the substrate and the inhibitor are present they compete for the same binding site.
d- V max is decreased e- Is removed by increases the
concentration of inhibitor 29. Reversible noncompetitive Inhibition
includes all of the following except a- I combine with the enzyme away
from the catalytic site. b- The I is not similar to the
substrate in structure. c- The I can combine with the free
enzyme or with the enzyme substrate
d- increase the Km 30. Phosphoglyceraldehyde dehydrogenase
Resembles ……. a- Reversible Non Competitive
Inhibition b- Irreversible noncompetitive
Inhibition c- Allosteric inhibition d- Competitive inhibition
31. Increased product concentration …… the enzyme activity
a- Increases b- Decreases c- No effect d- Permissive effect
32. Substances which stimulate gene expression into protein …….
a- Inducer b- Suppressor c- Repressors d- Co-Enzymes
33. Concerning Isoenzyme ……. a- Have quaternary structure and
the individual subunits in each isoenzyme are different from the others
b- They act on the different substrate and will give the same product
c- They have different affinity to the substrate.
d- They are present in different tissues.
34. HMMM is present in …….. a- Heart b- Kidney c- Liver d- Muscles
35. HHMM is present in a- Kidney b- Muscles c- Heart d- None of the above e-
36. Non Functional plasma enzymes include all of the following except …..
a- Transaminases ( AST & ALT ) b- Alkaline Phosphatase c- Lipoprotein lipase d- None of the above
37. Increased in bone metastasis ……… a- Alkaline phosphatase b- Creatine kinase c- LDH d- None of the above
38. Increased in Prostatic Carcinoma ………
a- Alkaline phosphatase b- Creatine kinase c- LDH d- None of the above
39. Decreased in Galactosemia ……… a- Streptokinase b- Digestive enzymes c- Galactosyl transferase d- α-chymotrypsin
40. Treatment of intraocular hemorrhage is done by
a- Streptokinase b- Digestive enzymes c- LDH d- α-chymotrypsin
41. The oxidation process occurs by ……… a- Addition of oxygen. b- Removal of hydrogen. c- Loss of electron d- All of the above
42. Redoxes that use oxygen as a hydrogen receptor are called ……..
a- Oxidases b- Hyper peroxidases c- Dehydrogenases d- Oxygenases
43. Catalase is specifically abundant in all of the following except ……..
a- Liver b- Kidney c- Erythrocytes d- Milk and leucocytes
44. Enzymes utilizing H2O2 as substrate ……….
a- Oxidases b- Hyper peroxidases c- Dehydrogenases d- Oxygenases
45. LDH depends on ………. In dehydrogenation
a- Nicotinamide b- FAD c- C.AMP d- None of the above
46. Enzymes which catalyze transfer of functional groups (G) other than hydrogen between a pair of substrates …….
a- Transferase b- Oxygenases c- Dehydrogenases d- Hydrolases
47. All of the following are included in Transferase class of enzymes except …….
a- Transaminase b- Hydrolase c- Transglycosayl d- None of the above
48. Split terminal peptide linkage splitting one amino acid at a time is ……..
a- Estrases b- Endoeptidases c- Exopeptidases d- Glycosidases
49. Fumerase is an example of ……. a- Transferase b- Hydrolase c- Oxidase d- Lyases
50. Lipase is an example of ……. a- Transferase b- Estrases c- Oxidases d- Lyases
51. Enzymes link two molecules using energy from ATP ……
a- Lyases b- Hydrolase c- Ligase d- Redox
52. Carboxylase is an example of ……. a- Transferase b- Estrases c- Oxidases d- Ligases
Choose (A) for true and (B) For false of the following
53. Pepsin acts on peptide bonds between amino groups of aromatic amino acid and carboxylic group of another amino acid
54. Enzymes are usually specific in action 55. In Absolute specificity the enzyme acts at different rates on one type of bond in
Compounds chemically related 56. Enzymes may be considered to lower energy barriers for chemical reactions 57. Increase in the substrate concentration will lead to decrease in enzyme activity 58. Increase in enzyme concentration increase the rate of reaction 59. Some enzymes containing SH groups requires Minerals to be activated 60. In Competitive inhibition Vmax of the enzyme is not decreased 61. Inducers are substances which inhibit gene expression 62. Isoenzyme is oligomeric enzyme
Model Answers
1. A 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. D 7. A 8. D 9. C 10. A 11. B 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. C 16. A 17. D 18. D 19. C 20. B 21. D
22. A 23. B 24. C 25. B 26. D 27. C 28. D 29. D 30. A 31. B 32. A 33. B 34. D 35. A 36. A 37. A 38. B 39. C 40. D 41. D 42. A
43. D 44. B 45. A 46. A 47. B 48. C 49. D 50. B 51. C 52. D 53. A 54. A 55. B 56. A 57. B 58. A 59. B 60. A 61. B 62. A
1. Pyruvate is not formed during the metabolism of:
a. Serine. b. Cysteine. c. Alanine. d. Leucine. e. Tryptophan.
2. An immediate precursor (i.e. converted by action of one enzyme) of glutamate is not:
a. Formiminoglutamate. b. Glutamic semialdehyde. c. Glutanune. d. Alpha-ketoglutarate. e. Succinyl-COA.
3. An immediate precursor (i.e. Converted by action of a single enzyme) of alpha-ketoglutarate:
a. N5-formimino-glutarnale. b. Glutamine. c. Glutamine semialdehyde. d. Iso-citrate. e. Succinyl-COA.
4. Catabolism of tryptophan begins with formation of:
a. Nicotinate. b. Urocanate. c. Serotonin. d. N-formylkynurenine. e. Anthranilate
5. An immediate precursor (i.e converted by action of a single enzyme) of glycine is:
a. Serine. b. Choline. c. 2-phosphoglycerate. d. Sarosine (N-methylglycine) e. Alanine.
6. Urea cycle consumes: a. one ATP b. 2 ATP c. 3 ATP d. 4 ATP
7. A metabolic disease, the underlying defect of which lies in an enzyme that hydroxylates an aromatic ring is:
a. Albinism. b. Hartnups’s disease. c. Cystinuria. d. Maple syrup urine disease. e. Gout.
8. An amino acid ,the catabolism of which is initiated by a transamination reaction:
a. Proline b. Tryptophan. c. Arginine. d. Histidine. e. Tyrosine.
9. The toxicity of ammonia is thought to be due to:
a. Depletion of cellular NADH. b. Depletion of cellular citrate. c. A shift in the ratio of glutamate
to glutamine.
d. A shift in the ratio of asparate to arginine.
e. Metabolic alkalosis.
10. The urea cycle: a. Supplies the body requirement
for arginine in infants. b. Converts urea to uric acid. c. Converts ammonia into urea. d. Acts as an energy-supplying
mechanism by oxidizing waste materials.
e. Converts urea to ammonia and carbon dioxide.
11. Urea formation occurs mainly: a. In Liver. b. In Blood. c. In Kidney. d. In Spleen.
12. Pyridoxal phosphate is essential for
synthesis of: a. Hippuric acid. b. Choline c. Nicotinic acid. d. All of these.
13. Pyruvic acid can be obtained from the following:
a. Alanine. b. Serine. c. Cysteine. d. All of these.
14. A neurotrasmitter that produces elevation of mood is:
a. Epinephrine. b. Norepinephrine. c. Serotonin. d. Melatonin.
15. Melatonin is: a. Derived from tryptophan. b. Involved in sleep mechanism. c. Inhibitory neurohormone. d. Released from hypothalmus.
16. Albinism results from deficiency of: a. Phenylalanine hydroxylase. b. Tyrosinase c. Dopa decarboxylase. d. Tyrosine transaminase.
17. Phenylketonuria is associated with: a. Mental retardation. b. Microcephaly. c. Skin lesions. d. All of these.
18. The coenzyme for Serine dehydratase is: a. Thiamine pyrophosphate. b. Pyridoxal phosphate. c. Adenosine triphosphate. d. Nicotinamide mononucleotide.
19. Demethylation of methionine results in formation of:
a. Cysteine. b. Homocysteine. c. Betaine. d. All of these.
20. Glutamic acid is a precursor of: a. Folic acid. b. GABA. c. Glutathione. d. All of these.
21. Tyrosine gives rise to: a. Catecholamines. b. Thyroid hormones. c. Melanin. d. All of these.
22. A co-enzyme for L-glutamate dehydrogenese is:
a. NADP. b. FAD. c. Lipoic acid. d. COA-SH.
23. Thyroxine is derived from: a. Tyramine. b. Taurine. c. Tyrosine. d. Tryptamine.
24. Methyl donors in animals are: a. Active methionine , choline
dimethyiglycine. b. Betaine, choline, methionine. c. Choline, s-adenosylmethionine,
betaine. d. None of the above.
25. Adrenaline and nor-adrenaline are formed from:
a. Epinephrine. b. Tryptophan. c. Tyrosine. d. Tryptamine.
26. An amino acid not involved in urea cycle is:
a. Arginine. b. Histidine. c. Ornithine. d. Aspartic acid.
27. Transamination of phenylalanine results in formation of:
a. Tyrosine. b. Phenylpyruvic. c. Phnelactic. d. Phenylacetic.
28. Adding 10% ferric chloride solution to urinary sample of one year old infant with mental retardation revealed a green color, the cause may be due to the deficiency of:
a. Phenylalanine transaminase. b. Phenylalanine hydroxylase. c. Tyrosine hydroxylase. d. DOPA decarboxylase.
29. Hydroxylation of tryptophan is the first step in the synthesis of:
a. Serotonin. b. Melanin. c. Both of these. d. None of these.
30. Argininosuccinase is involved in: a. The formation of arginosuccinic
acid. b. The formation of arginine and
fumarate. c. The combination of ornithine
with urea. d. None of these.
31. 5-hydroxyindole acetic acid is the metabolic end product of:
a. Spermidine metabolism b. Serotonin metabolism. c. Catecholamines metabolism. d. Histamine metabolism.
32. S-adenosyl methionine (SAM) is involved in the transmethylation in each of the following reactions except:
a. 5-hydroxytryptophan to serotonin.
b. Guadinoacetate to creatine. c. Phosphatidylethanolamine to
phosphatidylcholine. d. Noradrenaline to adrenaline.
33. Histamine can be produced from histidine by:
a. Transamination. b. Decarboxylation. c. Oxidative deaamination. d. Transmethylation.
34. Which vitamin provides the coenzyme for transamination reactions?
a. B1. b. B2. c. B6. d. B12.
35. Alkaptonuria is due to the absence, or
lowered activity of: a. Phenylalanine hydroxylase. b. Homogentisic acid oxidase. c. Parahydroxyphenyl pyruvic acid
(PPPA) oxidase. d. Tyrosinase.
36. Ammonia is produced in each of the following amino acid metabolic reactions except:
a. Deamination by glutamate dehydrogenase.
b. Deamination by an amino acid oxidase.
c. Cleavage of the amide group of glutaminase.
d. Transamination of alpha-ketoglutarate by alanine.
37. In the synthesis of urea, how many high energy bonds are cleaved?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
38. A deficiency of parohydroxyphenyl pyrivate oxidase causes:
a. Albinism. b. Tyrosinaemia. c. Pigment deposition in cartilage. d. Accumulation of homogentisic
acid. 39. Mark the wholly ketogenic amino acid:
a. Arginine. b. Tyrosine. c. Leucine. d. Isoleucine.
40. Which enzyme does not require pyridoxal phophate as a coenzyme?
a. Amino acid oxidase. b. Aspartate decarboxylase, c. Thrconine deaminase. d. Serine dehydratase.
41. All of the following are intermediates of the urea cycle except:
a. Citrulline. b. Arginine. c. Omithine. d. Urea.
42. Adrenaline cannot be synthesized from the amino acid:
a. Tyrosine. b. Phenylalanine. c. Tryptophan. d. Dihydroxyphenylalanine.
43. Which is a non-essential amino acid? a. Tryptophan. b. Tyrosine. c. Leucine
44. The hydrolytic products of glutathione are:
a. Taurine, cysteine and glycine. b. Glutamine, cysteine and glycine. c. Glutamic, cysteine and serine. d. Glutamic, cysteine and glycine.
45. Which amino acid possesses indole ring?
a. Serine. b. Tryptophan. c. Glycine. d. Histidine.
46. Transfer of methyl groups from choline to homocysteine produces:
a. Cysteine and ethanolamine. b. Dimethylglycine and
methionine. c. Dimethyl-aminoethanol and
methionine.
d. Cysteine and betaine. 47. The enzyme that converts glutamic to
gamma-amino butyric acid requires: a. TPP. b. Glutamine. c. ATP. d. Pyridoxal phosphate.
48. An animal is in positive nitrogen balance when:
a. Nitrogen intake exceeds output. b. Nitrogen output exceeds intake. c. Urine is nitrogen free. d. Urine contains nitrogen.
49. Formation of melanin from tyrosine requires:
a. DOPA decarboxylase. b. Peroxidase. c. Catechol oxidase. d. Tyrosinase.
50. The sites for glutamine synthesis are: a. Liver and brain. b. Liver and kidney. c. Intestine and kidney. d. Brain and kidney.
51. Homogentisic acid appears in urine in: a. Hartnup disease. b. Phenylketonuria. c. Alkaptonuria. d. Albinism.
52. After hydrolysis of folic acid, we obtain: a. Aspartate. b. Glycine. c. Cysteine. d. Glutamic.
53. Arginase enzyme results in the formation of:
a. Arginine and citrulline. b. Ornithine and urea. c. Citrulline and aspartic. d. Arginine and furnaric.
54. Carbamoyl phosphate is essential for synthesis of:
a. Urea. b. pyrimidine c. Both of these. d. None of these.
55. Transamination of aspartic acid will produce:
a. oxaloacetic b. Alpha-ketolgutarate. c. Pyruvate d. All of these.
56. Urea formation occur mainly in a. Liver b. Kideny c. Brain d. All the above
57. Pyruvate is not formed during the metabolism of
a. Serine b. Valine c. Leucine d. Alanine
58. Catabolism of tryptophan begins by formation of
a. Serotonin b. 3 hydroxy kynurenine c. N-formyl kynurenine d. Niacin
59. Urea cycle consume a. 1 ATP b. 2 ATP c. 3 ATP d. 4 ATP
60. Vitamin B6 important for formation of a. Mandilic acid b. Nicotinic acid c. Vanilic acid d. None of the above
61. Pyruvic acid can be obtained from a. Alanine b. Tryptophan c. Serine d. All of the above
62. Melatonin is a. Derived from tryptophan b. Release from hypothalamus c. Steroid hormone d. None of the above
63. Albinism is due to deficiency of a. Phenylalanine hydroxylase b. Tyrosinase c. DOPA decarboxylase d. None of the above
64. Phenylketonuria is associated with a. Mental retardation b. Eczema of skin c. Mousy odour of urine d. All of the above
65. The coenzyme for Serine dehydratase is a. Thiamine pyrophosphate b. Pyridoxal phosphate. c. Adenosine triphosphate. d. Nicotinamide mononucleotide.
66. Demethylation of methionine results in formation of
a. Cysteine. b. Homocysteine. c. Betaine d. All of these.
67. Glutamic acid is a precursor of a. Folic acid. b. GABA c. Glutathione. d. All of these.
68. Tyrosine gives rise to a. Catecholamines. b. Thyroid hormones. c. Melanin. d. All of these.
69. A Co-enzyme for L-glutamate
dehydrogenese is a. NADP. b. FAD. c. Lipoic acid. d. CoA-SH.
70. An amino acid not involved in urea
cycle is a. Arginine. b. Histidine. c. Ornithine. d. Aspartate
71. Adding 10% ferric chloride solution to urinary sample of one year old infant with mental retardation revealed a green color, the cause may be due to the deficiency of
a. Phenylalanine transaminase. b. Phenylalanine hydroxylase. c. Tyrosine hydroxylase. d. DOPA decarboxylase.
72. Hydroxylation of tryptophan is the first step in the synthesis of
a. Serotonin. b. Melanin. c. Both of these. d. None of these
73. Histamine can be produced from histidine by
a. Transamination. b. Decarboxylation. c. Oxidative deamination. d. Transmethylation.
74. Which vitamin provides the coenzyme for transamination reactions?
a. B1 b. B2 c. B6 d. B12
75. All of the following are intermediates of the urea cycle except
a. Citrulline. b. Arginine. c. Omithine. d. Urea.
Model answers
1. D 2. E 3. D 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. A 8. E 9. A 10. C 11. A 12. C 13. D 14. C 15. A 16. B 17. D 18. B 19. B 20. D 21. D 22. A 23. C 24. C 25. C
26. B 27. B 28. B 29. A 30. B 31. B 32. A 33. B 34. C 35. B 36. D 37. C 38. B 39. C 40. A 41. D 42. C 43. B 44. D 45. B 46. C 47. D 48. A 49. D 50. A
51. C 52. D 53. B 54. C 55. A 56. A 57. C 58. C 59. C 60. B 61. D 62. A 63. B 64. D 65. B 66. B 67. D 68. D 69. A 70. B 71. B 72. A 73. B 74. C 75. D
1. To convert 1 molecule of ATP to ADP, the amount of energy produced is
a. 12 Kcal b. 24 Kcal c. 6 Kcal d. 36 Kcal
2. When a person gains weight, he is in a state of:
a. Positive energy balance b. Negative energy balance c. Energy equilibrium
3. The physiologic caloric value of carbohydrates is ………. While that of proteins is …….. While that of fat is……… Kcal/gram
a. 4.1, 4.1, 9.3 b. 4.1, 9.3, 4.1 c. 9.3, 4.1, 9.3 d. 4.1, 9.3, 4.1
4. The BMR is measured under the following conditions except
a. Complete physical and mental rest
b. Sleep c. Post absorptive state d. Comfortable room temperature
5. The normal BMR value in an adult male is ……. Kcal/h/m2
a. 40 b. 35
c. 45 d. 30
6. The BMR differs according to all the following except
a. Age b. Sex c. Body surface area d. Diet
7. State which of the following factors a) Increase … b) decrease the respiratory exchange ratio
a. Hyperventilation b. Hypoventilation c. Metabolic alkalosis d. Metabolic acidosis e. Diabetes mellitus f. Severe muscle exercise g. Recovery from muscle exercise h. CO2 retention i. CO2 expiration j. Fevers
8. The most important factor affecting the metabolic rate is
a. Muscular exercise b. Specific dynamic action of food c. Sleep d. Hormones
9. The biggest energy equivalent of oxygen is that of
a. Carbohydrates b. Fats c. Proteins
10. The RQ for carbohydrate is…. While that of fats…. While that of proteins
a. 0.82, 0.7, 1 b. 1, 0.7, 0.82 c. 2, 1, 3 d. 0.7, 0.82, 1
11. The RQ in diabetes mellitus is: a. 0.82 b. 1 c. 0.7 d. 2
12. Match the cause of SDA with a) proteins… B) Fats… C) carbohydrates
a. Extra energy required to form glycogen
b. Effect on cellular chemical process
c. Direct stimulation of metabolism d. Deamination in liver
13. Which of the following decreases the BMR
a. Shivering b. Thyroxin secretion c. Decreased body activity d. Slowing of metabolic processes
14. For each degree of fever, the metabolic rate increases by:
a. 10% b. 12% c. 14% d. 50%
15. The BMR …… by age a. Increases b. Decreases c. Remains the same
16. Growth hormone increases the BMR by a. Increasing cellular metabolism b. Increasing the number of cells c. Increasing the growth of cellular
mitochondria d. Increasing the body temperature
17. Prolonged malnutrition/starvation decreases BMR due to
a. Depression of sympathetic system
b. Decreased catecholamine levels c. Fall of thyroid hormones d. All of the above
18. In malnutrition the body weight constantly decreases
a. True b. False
19. Depression elevates the metabolic rate a. True b. False
20. All the following about the feeding center is true except
a. It lies in the lateral hypothalamas
b. When stimulated causes hyperphagia
c. Works synergistically with the satiety center
d. When destroyed leads to weight loss
21. Omniphagia is caused by destruction of a. Satiety center b. Hunger center c. Brain stem centers d. The amygdala and the prefrontal
cortex
22. The nutrition regulation by satiety center is affected by
a. Glucose level b. Lipid levels c. Amino acid levels d. All of the above
23. Cold temperatures causes a tendency of overeating
a. True b. False
24. Leptin secretion by adipocytes leads to all the following except
a. Decreased neuropeptide Y b. Increased corticotropin-
releasing hormone c. Increase insulin secreation d. Increase sympathetic nerve
activity
Model Answers 1. B 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. A, B, B, A, B, A, B, B, B, A 8. A 9. A 10. B 11. C 12. C, A, B, A 13. C 14. C 15. A 16. A 17. D 18. B 19. B 20. C 21. D 22. D 23. A 24. C
Give short account on
Structural Chemistry
1) Definition and types of isomerism 2) Enumerate polysaccharide derivatives 3) Classification of fatty acids (according to chain length, saturation and un-
saturation, essential, non-essential and semi-essential, sulfur/hydroxyl-containing)
4) Physical properties and biological importance of true fat 5) Physical properties of glycerophospholipids 6) Significance of glycerophospholipids (membrane-bound & non-membrane
bound) 7) Significance of glycerosphinglipids 8) Biomedical importance of cholesterol 9) Enumerate with giving examples, the types of bile acids 10) Classify amino acid according to (structure-nutritional value) 11) Optical activity of amino acids 12) ***** Amphoteric properties of amino acids 13) Formation of peptide bonds 14) Enumerate bonds responsible for protein structure 15) Denaturation (definition & causes) 16) Structure of collagen 17) Vitamin A & D (functions and deficiency) 18) Effects of thiamine, niacin and ascorbate deficiency 19) How to differentiate between folate and cyanocobalamin deficiency 20) Models of substrate-enzyme binding
21) Effect of temperature/pH on enzymatic activity (with the aid of diagram)
22) Allosteric activation and covalent modification 23) Different types for enzymatic inhibition with giving examples 24) Definition and uses of iso-enzymes
Metabolism
1) Compare between hexokinase and glucokinase 2) Special metabolic systems in RBCs 3) Importance of glycolysis in RBCs 4) Regulation of glycolysis 5) Cori’s cycle using a diagram 6) Importance, regulation and inhibition of CAC 7) ******Energy yield from complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose
(with full calculation) 8) ***** Importance of hexosemonophosphate shunt 9) Importance of uronic acid pathway 10) Enumerate 4 gluconeogenic substrates 11) Regulation of gluconeogenesis 12) Regulation of glycogenesis & glycogenolysis 13) Steps of beta-Oxidation 14) Uses of alpha and omega oxidation 15) Ketosis: definition and causes 16) Regulation of ketone body synthesis 17) Regulation of FA synthesis
18) Compare between endoplasmic and mitochondrial elongation reactions
19) Regulation of cholesterol synthesis 20) Define transamination with giving an example and mention its
importance 21) Using a diagram, explain the mechanism of ammonia excretion by
the kidney 22) Explain the link between CAC and urea cycle 23) Functions of cysteine 24) Metabolism of homocysteine 25) Important derivatives of tyrosine 26) Important derivatives of tryptophan 27) Mechanism of oxidative phosphorylation 28) Define nitrogen balance and mention its types
Physiology
1) Definition of BMR and enumerate the factors affecting 2) RQ (definition, importance, factors affecting) 3) SDA (Definition causes and factors affecting food SDA) 4) differentiate between anabolism and catabolism with examples 5) Compare between phosphate and creatine high energy compounds with
examples 6) Write a short account about energy balance 7) Mention 2 hormones affecting BMR 8) How can sex affect BMR? 9) Compare between the effect of sleep and parasympathetic system on
10) Compare between hunger and satiety according to definition 11) Write a short account about the role of hypothalamic centers in
regulation of food intake 12) Mention the effect of body temperature on food intake 13) Enumerate the theories that explain nutritional regulation and write
a short note about one of them 14) Give a short account about short term regulation of food intake
Community
1) Health consequences of maternal malnutrition 2) Factors considered in feeding industrial workers 3) Define anthropometry and enumerate its types 4) Advantages and limitations of anthropometry 5) Methods of dietary assessment 6) Define
a. Nutrition b. Diet c. Balanced/unbalanced diet d. Nutritional status e. ****** Recommended dietary allowance (RDA)
7) Tabulate the differences between micronutrients and micronutrients 8) Malnutrition and its types3 9) How can your food be affected by your lifestyle 10) Enumerate the steps to eat healthy (without explanation) 11) The difference between an adequate and a balanced diet
12) What does the food pyramid show? 13) What are the components of a balanced diet? What’s their
importance? Which of them is not nutritious? Which of them is crucial for life?
14) What are the reasons behind change in the Egyptian diet pattern? What are those changes that took place?
15) What is the impact of the change in Egyptian diet pattern? 16) Enumerate the approaches to improve the nutritional quality of the
Egyptian diet 17) Define the term (vulnerable group) and enumerate the most
important of these groups 18) Why are the elderly considered sometimes as a vulnerable group? 19) Which group is considered the most vulnerable? Why? 20) What are the maternal Nutritional indicators which have shown
consistent relationship to the birth weight of the newborn? 21) State the importance of breast feeding 22) What’s the effect of malnutrition on babies? 23) Give reasons for the high prevalence of malnutrition in preschool
children? 24) Enumerate some of the personal and community problems that may
result from the malnutrition of industrial workers 25) What are the factors to be considered in feeding of industrial
workers? 26) What’s the purpose of nutritional assessment? 27) Enumerate the methods of nutritional assessment 28) Define anthropometry and state its importance
29) Define BMI, state its formula and assessment 30) Enumerate advantages and limitations of anthropometery 31) Enumerate the methods of dietary assessment and write short notes
about each 32) What are the limitations of the food frequency questionnaire?
Carbohydrates 1. Give an example for each of the following:
Hexoses. Amino sugar. Pentoses. Deoxy-sugar. Non-reducing disaccharides. Sugar acids.
2. Give one example of the following: o Glucosaminoglycans. o Aldo-pentoses. o Sugar alcohol. o Reducing disaccharides. o Structural animal glucose. o Structural non-digestible plant polysaccharide. o Dietary digestible glucosan. o Fructosan.
3. Mention the name & hydrolysis products of: Storage form of carbohydrates in liver cells Non-fermentable disaccharide
4. What is the importance of? Glucosamine Deoxy-sugar
5. Compare between Amylose and amylopectin Starch and glycogen Milk sugar, malt sugar and cane sugar Cellulose and glycogen
6. Give an account on
Amino-sugars Anomers Epimers Sugar alcohols Optical activity Malt sugar Milk sugar Inulin Nuraminic acid Acid hydrolysis of starch Sucrose Invert sugar Glucosans L-ascorbate Non-reducing sugar Carbohydrate components Reducing sugar Types of glycosidic linkage with examples Disaccharides polysaccharides
Carbohydrate Metabolism 1. Explain how pyruvic acid is converted to aspartic acid giving the coenzymes
of this transformation. 2. Give one metabolic reaction for each of the following enzymes related to
carbohydrate metabolism giving the name of substrates and products and the required cofactors and coenzymes (no formula is needed) Succinate dehydrogenase. Aldolase. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
3. The effects of catabolic hormones giving examples 4. Hormones that regulates metabolism during fasting 5. Give an account on synthesis and functions of 2, 3 diphosphoglycerate in
RBCs. 6. Mention different pathways of glucose-6-phosphate and explain how glucose
could be stored as a polysaccharide in liver. 7. Give an account on:
a) Oxidative decarboxylation of alpha keto acids. b) Importance of H.M.P shunt.
8. Discuss the lactate cycle and its importance. 9. Write the role of succinyl Co-A in the formation of Oxaloacetic acid 10. Explain how glyceraldhyde-3-phosphate is formed from glucose by two
different pathways and mention the Importance, regulation and enzyme defect of these two pathways.
11. What is meant by galactosaemia? 12. Discuss:
a) Synthesis and fate of UDPG. b) Regulation of citrate synthesis. c) Substrate level phosphorylation in glycolysis.
13. Illustrate one reaction needing NAD & another needing FAD in citric acid cycle & explain the importance of these reactions.
14. Explain how lactic acid is converted to phosphoenol pyruvate in the hepatic cells.
15. Mention the reaction catalyzed by: a) Glycogen synthase. b) Phosphorylase.
How is each of these two reactions is regulated? 16. What is the inborn error encountered in deficiency of:
a) Fructose-1-phosphate aldose. b) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase.
c) UDP-galactose transferase. 17. Illustrate how oxaloacetate is converted to alpha ketogluterate. 18. Explain how UDP-galactose serves as donor of galactose units in the
following units in the following synthetic pathways: a) Synthesis of lactose. b) Glycogen. c) Glycolipids.
19. Role of insulin and adrenaline in glycogen metabolism. 20. How glycerol is changed into glucose and how the process is regulated. 21. Write the steps of glycolysis and what are the enzymes affecting it 22. Write by formula the reactions in TCA that liberate carbon dioxide. 23. Reactions catalyzed by transketose and transaldose. 24. Role of NADP & NAD in carbohydrate metabolism. 25. Mention how the intermediates that can be produced by the TCA are used
for the following processes: a) Gluconeogenesis. b) Urea cycle.
26. Explain the mechanism of synthesis and fate of lactate in skeletal muscle 27. Explain how pyruvate carboxylase and dehydrogenase enzymes regulate
carbohydrate metabolism. 28. Discuss: "Disruption of the uronic acid pathway is caused by enzyme
defects".
Proteins 1. Give one example of the following:
Phosphoprotein Metaloprotein containing zinc Essential hydroxyl amino acid
2. Give one example of each of the following: Tri-peptides
Aromatic amino acid Essential amino acid Sulfur amino acid Essential hydroxyl containing amino acid Di-carboxylic amino acid
3. Define: Isoelectric point Essential amino acid (giving examples)
4. State the types of bonds in protein structure 5. Mention the difference between the fibrous and globular proteins as regards:
structure, physical properties, and function. (Give an example of each) 6. Mention 3 types of conjugated proteins. Give one example of each. 7. Give short notes on:
Polar & non-polar amino acids. Amphoteric properties & pH of amino acids.
8. Give two examples of: Basic proteins Proteins of low biological value
9. Give account on: Heterocyclic amino acid Heterocyclic non-essential amino acid Sulfur containing amino acid Amino acid found in collagen Histidine Proline Basic essential amino acid Valine Methionine Cysteine Cysteine
GABA DOPA Precursor of melanin Precursor of thyroid hormone Protein non-primary amino acids Physical and chemical properties of amino acids Domains Denaturation Simple proteins Conjugated proteins Physiologically active peptide ****Zwitterion Classify amino acids with example of each group Bonds of proteins Enzyme specificity Isoenzyme Enzyme activators and inhibitors
Protein Metabolism 1- Write briefly on:
a) Two examples for role of pyridoxal phosphate in amino acid decarboxylation.
b) Synthesis of formyl group from histamine. 2- Prove by chemical reactions that alanine and glutamic acids are nonessential. 3- Give short account on alkaptonurea. 4- Mention two important functions of cysteine. Explain how it can be
synthesized. 5- State two important functions of aspartic acid. 6- Write the following metabolic reactions indicating the enzymes and the
coenzymes:
a) Tryptophan to melatonin. b) Glycine to creatine phosphate.
7- State the metabolic importance of: a) L-glutamate dehydrogenase. b) Alanine amino transferase.
8- "Amino acid decarboxylation gives important compounds in the body" discusses giving five examples.
10. Discuss: a) Conversion of phenylalanine to DOPA. b) Conversion of glycine to creatine. c) Conversion of glycine to glutathione. d) Conversion of glutamine to ketoglutaric acid. e) Conversion of homocysteine to cysteine.
11. How urea’s synthesized in liver. 12. Discuss the conversion of tryptophan into serotonin. 13. Explain how glutathione participates in the transport of the amino acids
across the plasma membrane of kidney cells. 14. Discuss disposal of ammonia in the brain. 15. Write short notes on:
a) Role of transamination in maintenance of gluconeogenesis. b) Synthesis and degeneration of creatine phosphate.
16. Illustrate the biosynthesis of cysteine from methionine and enumerate its biological functions.
17. Demonstrate how valine and isoleucine yield succinyl Co-A. 18. How can brain and muscle dispose of their ammonia? 19. What are the keto-acids formed by transamination between the following
amino acids and ketogluterate: a) Phenylalanine b) Aspartate c) Leucine
d) Tyrosine. 20. How the followings could be synthesized in the body:
a) Glutathione b) alpha-alanine c) S-adenosylmethionine
21. What is meant by nitrogen balance? Give two examples for each of positive and negative balance.
22. Mention four examples for formation of biologically active amines from amino acids.
23. How is iso-citrate converted to glutamine in the brain? 24. How propionate is converted to succinate? 25. Mention four compounds using glycine as a precursor in its synthesis. 26. Discuss the role of glutamate dehydrogenase and carbonyl phosphate. 27. Discuss. “Glutathione is an important tri-peptide", explain its synthesis,
formation and role in the body. 28. Explain with reaction how cysteine is synthesized from serine and its role
in decarboxylation 29. Give an account on:
a- Different sources of blood ammonia in the body and its fate b- Oxidative deamination of amino acid.
30. Explain the conversion of: a) Cysteine to pyruvate. b) Tryptophan to melatonin. c) Methionine to creatinine.
31. Illustrate reactions catalyzed by the following enzymes: a) Extra and intra mitochondrial carbamoyl phosphate synthetase. b) Glutamate dehydrogenase.
29. Explain how phenylalanine is converted to epinephrine; Mention the possible inborn errors of this pathway.
Lipids 1. Give one example for the following:
Lipids containing choline fatty acids Steroids Non-essential fatty acids Phospholipids containing serine Essential fatty acids Sterol Saturated fatty acids
2. Enumerate the lipids that contain sphingosine base 3. Enumerate five of the unsaturated fatty acids. And state the essential ones 4. To what compounds does cholesterol belongs? 5. Draw the structural formula of tri-glyceride & mention its important
functions. 6. Write the structure formula of the tri-acyl-glycerol. 7. Enumerate phospholipids & the structure of cholesterol. State three important
compounds related to its structure. 8. Mention the structure of plasma lipoproteins & the name three chemical
properties. 9. Describe the structure & the function of micelle. 10. Mention the different plasma lipoproteins & the bases of their classification. 11. Write short notes on both physical & physiological properties of fatty acids
determined by their length & degree of saturation. 12. Give an account on:
Low fatty acid High fatty acid Saturated fatty acid Mono-enoic fatty acid Arachidonic acid
Linolenic acid Myoinositol Lecithin Lung surfactant Lipositol Cardiolipin Sphingosine Ceramide Cerebrosides Sulfatides Ganglioside Sterane ring Provitamin D3 Cholicalciferol Provitamin D2 Provitamin D4 Cholanic acid Secondary bile acid Vitamin A Cholesterol + derivatives & values Carotenoid Vitamin D Vitamin K Variable element of fat Constant element of fat Sphingophospholipid Glycolipids USF Vitamin D precursors
Bile acids & salts (structure and function) Common properties and biochemical importance of lipids Lipid component as lung surfactant Cardiac glycosides Glycerophosphatides Essential fatty acid
13. What’s the hydrolytic products of Cardiolipin Lipositol Cephalin Lecithin
14. Compare between Vitamin D2 and Vitamin D3 Sphingomyelin , cerebrosides and cerebrosides Glycerophospholipids and sphingmyelins
Lipid Metabolism 1. Mention the reaction used esterify blood cholesterol 2. Mention the effect of two hormones on blood cholesterol. 3. Give an account on formation and fate of chylomicrons. 4. Give an account on synthesis of triglycerides. 5. Give an account on lipotropic substances and their role in preventing fatty
liver. 6. "Urine analysis of adiabolic patients revealed acetoacetate." Discuss:
Its fate in extra hepatic tissues. Hazards of elevation of these compounds.
7. Explain by formula how acetyl COA is completely oxidized in the mitochondria and calculate the number of ATP produced.
8. Give an account on:
Importance of lipoprotein lipase. Importance of HMG COA in metabolism.
9. Role of cAMP dependent protein kinase in adipose tissue metabolism. 10. Role of LDL receptors in cholesterol metabolism 11. Discuss synthesis of sphingomyelins. 12. Function and fate of HDL. 13. Role of carntine palmityl transferase in regulation of ketogenesis. 14. Discuss control of adipose tissue lipolysis. 15. Discuss the main pathway of glucose utilization in adipose tissue when it is
provided in excess. 16. Regulation of cholesterol level in plasma. 17. Discuss lipolysis in adipose tissue in fasting condition. 18. Discuss deficiency of ATP –citrate lyase 19. Synthesis of palmitic acid in mammalian cells. 20. Give an account on the microsomal elongation of fatty acid molecules. 21. Role of carntin in fatty acid oxidation. 22. Synthesis and function of one phospholipid in the liver. 23. Synthesis and catabolism of ketone bodies. 24. Role of malonyl COA in fatty acid synthesis. 25. Role of phospholipase in degradation and synthesis of phospholipids 26. Extra hepatic utilization of ketone bodies. 27. Formation and fate of LDL lipoprotein. 28. Synthesis and fate of HMG CO-A. 29. Formation and fate of low and high density lipoproteins. 30. Synthesis and fate of hydroxyl methyl glutaryl COA. 31. Discuss:
c) The metabolic interrelationship between low density lipoproteins, very low density lipoproteins and high density lipoproteins.
d) Hormonal and metabolic factors controlling lipolysis in adipose tissue
e) Utilization of acetoacetic acid as a source of energy in extra hepatic tissue.
32. Discuss the steps of oxidation of palmitic acid calculate the number of ATP molecules generated.
33. Explain the synthesis and metabolic fates of HMG COA in the body. 34. Give an account on synthesis and catabolism of chylomicrons. 35. Write the role of succinyl COA in the formation of ketone body utilization. 36. Illustrate the steps of synthesis of mevalonate. 37. What is meant by feedback inhibition and its role in cholesterol synthesis?
Vitamins 1. Give an account on the biochemical mechanism of retinol. 2. Give an account on chemical structure, activation and function of vitamin D3. 3. Mention two manifestations of:
Beri-beri Rickets Pellagra
4. Mention the name of vitamin precursors for each: FAD Co-carboxylase TPP Co-A-SH
5. Give an account on: Rhodopsin Vit. D3 activation
6. 9. Give an account on chemistry, synthesis, mode of action of 1,25 dihydroxy-cholecalciferol in Calcium metabolism.
7. 10. Pantothenic acid is a component of important Co-enzyme in the body. 8. Mention this Co-enzyme, its constituents and functions. 9. 11. Enumerate the Co-enzymes of vit. B complex that act as Hydrogen carrier
10. Enumerate vitamins containing sulfur. 11. Give the name of the disease resulting from deficiency of the following:
Thiamine 1,25 cholecalciferol Cyanocobalamine Niacin L-ascorbic acid Retinol
12. Mention the biological importance of: Pantothenic acid Pyridoxal
13. Enumerate vitamins containing sulfur and mention their importance. 14. What are the Co-enzymes having the nicotinic acid derivatives in their
structure? 15. What are the possible functions of Vit E? 16. State the deficient vitamin in the following diseases:
Xerophthalmia. Coagulopathy. Megaloblastic anemia. Osteomalacia. Beri-beri.
17. Mention the name of retinoids and their role in: Vision. Cell growth and differentiation. Cancer.
18. Mention the biological functions of: Vit A. Vit E. Vit C. Niacin.
Riboflavin. Pantothenic acid.
19. Mention the Co-enzyme participating in following enzymes: Transketolase. Oxidase.
Enzymes 1. Discuss how km determination is important to evaluate the inhibitors and
enzyme inhibition. 2. Give the significance and example for non-functional plasma enzymes. 3. Give an account on each of the following:
Enzyme induction and inducible enzymes. Covalent modification regulation in control of catalysts. Reversible non-competitive inhibition
4. Give an account on: Protein kinases and phosphatases in regulation of enzyme activity (giving
two examples) Functional classification of co-enzymes and their role in substrate binding. Lysozymes and Lysosomes.
5. What is meant by enzyme induction? 7. Explain regulation of catalytic efficiency by covalent modification. 8. Illustrate diagrammatically the effect of substrate concentration on the rate of
enzyme reaction. 9. What is the origin of non-functional plasma enzymes? (Give examples) 10. Give one example for the following classes of enzymes:
Transferases. Ligases.
11. Define the Km and the Vm in Case of competitive and non-competitive inhibitors by drawing using the double reciprocal plots.
12. Give two examples of isozymes of clinical importance.
13. Write short notes on the change of catalytic activity of an enable by change in temperature
14. Give account on: Properties of enzymes Mechanism of enzyme action Catalytic site (definition and types) Enzyme activators and inhibitors Allosteric inhibition Enzyme regulation Enzymes as tumor markers Cytochromes Dehydrogenases Oxido-reductases Transferases Hydrolases Isomerases Lyases Ligases Respiratory chain Oxidative phosphorylation Uncouplers of Oxidative phosphorylation Enzyme specificity peptidases NAD- NADP – FAD – FMN – GSH – CO-Q- Lipoic Acid – SAM- UDP glucose – PLP – Co- ASH – Biotin Rate of enzyme reaction Effect of ……… on enzyme reaction
o Substrate conc. o Enzyme conc. o Temprature
o PH o Induction/repression
General Questions 1. What is the defect in: Phenylketonuria? 2. “During fasting, Liver is considered to be glycogenolytic, gluconogenic, ketogenic &proteolytic.” Explain this statement diagrammatically. 3. Succinyl CO-A and malonyl CO-A be synthesized during carbohydrate metabolism and can be used in lipid metabolism, Explain. 4- One carbon metabolism is folic acid dependent; explain this statement giving one example
Minerals Metabolism 1. Discuss level of blood calcium and its regulation. 2. Discuss "Minerals are well controlled at the level of absorption" (Give iron &copper as example.) 3. Discuss role of calcium in muscle contraction. 4. The possible mechanism by which trace elements act as enzyme activators 5. Discuss Importance of Iodine. 6. Give short account on Iron absorption and factors regulating it. 7. Give account on calcium absorption and factors regulating it. 8. Explain two factors affecting Ca++ absorption and its level in blood. 9. Discuss absorption and transport of Iron.
Biological Oxidation 1. Write briefly the high –energy compounds. 2. Write briefly the role of respiratory chain in energy capture 3. Describe briefly hydrogen carriers containing flavin 4. Discuss high-energy phosphate containing compounds. 5. Give an account on the role of ATP on the energy currency of the cell. 6. Give an account on: Respiratory chain and its inhibitors
Reactants Products Arrow
Carbohydrate Metabolism
a- Glycolysis (Embden Meyerhof Pathway)
α- D - Glucose α- D – Glucose- 6
Phosphate
Hexokinase/Glucokinase
Mg++
ATP ADP
α- D – Glucose- 6
Phosphate
D- Fructose 6
Phosphate Phosphohexose Isomerase
D- Fructose 6 Phosphate D- Fructose 1,6
Bisphosphate
Phosphofructokinase
Mg++
ATP ADP
D- Fructose 1,6
Bisphosphate
Dihyroxyacetone
Phosphate Aldolase
Glyceraldehyde 3-
phosphate
Dihyroxyacetone
Phosphate
Glyceraldehyde 3-
phosphate Phosphotriose Isomerase
Glyceraldehyde 3-
phosphate
1,3
bisphosphoglycerate
Glyceraldehyde-3-P
dehydrogenase
NAD+NADH+H+
1,3 bisphosphoglycerate 3-Phosphoglycerate Mg++
ADP ATP
3-Phosphoglycerate 2-Phosphoglycerate Phosphoglycerate mutase
2-Phosphoglycerate Phosphoenolpyruvate
Mg2+
Enolase
H2O Out
Phosphoenolpyruvate (Enol) Pyruvate
Pyruvate Kinase
Mg2+
ADP ATP
(Enol) Pyruvate (Keto) Pyruvate Spontaneous
(Keto) Pyruvate
L-Lactate Anaerobic Respiration
NADH+H+ NAD+
Oxaloacetic Acid
ATP – Biotin
CO2 + H2O In
ADP + P out
Acetyl Co-A
IN: CoA-SH + NAD+
Out: CO2 + NADH+H+
Pyruvate Dehydrogenase
TPP, FAD & Lipoic acid
Citric Acid Cycle (Kreb’s Cycle)
Oxalacetate Citrate Acetyl-CoA + H2o in
CoA.SH Out
Citrate Cis-Aconitate
Aconitase
Fe3+
H20 Out
Cis-Aconitate Iso-Citrate Aconitase
H20 Out
Iso-Citrate OxaloSuccinate IsoCitrate Dehydrogenase
NAD+NADH+H+
OxaloSuccinate α- Ketoglutarate Mn2+
CO2 Out
α- Ketoglutarate Succinyl Co-A
α- Ketoglutarate
dehydrogenase complex
NAD+NADH+H+
CoA.SH
Succinyl Co-A Succinate
Succinate thiokinase
GDP+P GTP ATP
CoA.SH out
Succinate Fumarate Succinate Dehydrogenase
FAD FADH2
Fumarate L-Malate Fumarase
L-Malate Oxaloacetate Malate Dehydrogenase
NAD NADH+H+
Citrate Oxaloacetate + Acetyl
Co-A
Citrate Lyase
ATP ADP + P
CoA.SH in
Hexose monophosphate shunt
Β-D-Glucose-6-
Phosphate
6-
Phosphogluconolactone
Glucose 6 phosphate
dehydrogenase
Mg2+ or Ca2+
NADP+NADPH+H+
6-Phosphogluconolactone 6-Phosphogluconate
Gluconol acetone
hydratase
H2O In
Mg2+, Mn2+ or Ca2+
6-Phosphogluconate 3-keto 6-
phosphogluconate
6-Phosphogluconate
dehydrogenase
NADP+NADPH+H+
Mg2+, Mn2+ or Ca2+
Lipid Metabolism:
Lipolysis:
Triglycerides of
chylomicrons
Glycerol +
Free fatty acids (FFAs)
Lipoprotein lipase
(LPL)
(activated by apo-
lipoprotein CII)
Triglycerides
(triacylglycerol) of
adipose tissue
Di-acyl-glycerol +
FFA
Hormone sensitive
lipase
Di-acyl-glycerol Mono-acyl-glycerol +
FFA Di-acyl-glycerol lipase
Mono-acyl-glycerol Glycerol +
FFA
Mono-acyl-glycerol
lipase
B-oxidation:
R-COOH (fatty acid)
+
Co-A-SH
Acyl Co-A Acyl Co-A synthase
ATP AMP+PPi
Acyl Co-A Enoyl Co-A
Acyl Co-A
dehydrogenase
FpFpH2
Enoyl Co-A 3-hydroxy-acyl-Co-A Enoyl Co-A hydratase
+ H2O
3-hydroxy-acyl-Co-A 3-ketoacyl-Co-A
3-hydroxy-acyl-Co-A
dehydrogenase
NAD+ NADH + H+
3-ketoacyl-Co-A
Acyl Co-A
+
Acetyl Co-A
Thiolase + Co-A-SH
Ketogenesis:
Acetyl Co-A
+
Acetyl Co-A
Acetoacetyl Co-A
+
Co-A-SH
Thiolase
Acetoacetyl Co-A
+
Acetyl Co-A
HMG Co-A HMG Co-A synthase
H2O Co-A-SH + H+
HMG Co-A Acetoacetate + acetyl
Co-A HMG Co-A lyase
acetoacetate β-Hydroxybutyrate
β-Hydroxybutyrate
dehydrogenase
NADH+H+ NAD+
Fatty Acid Synthesis:
Acetyl Co-A Malonyl Co-A
Acetyl Co-A
carboxylase
ATP+CO2 ADP+Pi
Palmitoyl ACP Palmitate + HS_ACP Thiolase + H2O
Triacylglycerol synthesis:
Glycerol-3-phosphate
+
Acyl Co-A
1 Acyl glycerol-3-
phosphate
+
Co-A
Glycerol-3-phosphate
acyltransferase
Biotin
1 Acyl glycerol-3-
phosphate
+
Acyl Co-A
1,2 diacylglycerol
phosphate
+
Co-A
1 Acyl glycerol-3-
phosphate
acyltransferase
1,2 diacylglycerol
phosphate + H2O
1,2 diacylglycerol
+ Pi
Phosphatidate
phosphohydrolase
1,2 diacylglycerol
+
Acyl Co-A
Triacyl-glycerol
+
Co-A
Diacylglycerol
acyltransferase
1,2 diacylglycerol
CDP diacylglycerol Cytidyl transferase
CTPPP
CDP diacylglycerol
+
Inositol
Phosphatidyl inositol
+
CMP
PI synthase
Sphingolipid synthesis:
Palmitoyl Co-A
+
Serine
Sphingosine
Sphingosine
+ Acyl Co-A
Ceramide
Ceramide
+
UDP-galactose
Galactocerebroside
+
UDP
Ceramide
+
UDP-glucose
Glucocerebroside
+
UDP
Glucocerebroside
+
UDP-glucose/galactose
Glucoside Multiple additions
Glucoside
+
Sialic acid
Ganglioside
Ceramide
+
Phosphatidyl choline
Sphingomyelin
Ketolysis:
Acetoacetate
+
Succinyl Co-A
Acetoacetyl Co-A
+
Succinate
Succinyl Co-A
transferase
Acetoacetyl Co-A
+
Co-A-SH
Acetyl Co-A
+
Acetyl Co-A
Thiolase
Cholesterol synthesis:
Acetyl Co-A
+
Acetyl Co-A
Acetoacetyl Co-A
+
Co-A-SH
Thiolase
Acetoacetyl Co-A
+
HMG Co-A
+
H2O
HMG Co-A synthase
Acetyl Co-A Co-A-SH
HMG Co-A Mevalonate
+
Co-A-SH
2NADPH+2H
2NADP
** Protein Metabolism:
A)Transamination:
Glutamic Acid +
Oxaloacitic Acid
α-Ketoglutaric Acid
+ Aspartic Acid
GOT
B6
Glutamic Acid + Pyruvic
Acid
α –Ketoglutaric
Acid + Alanine
GPT
B6
B)Oxidative Deamination:
Amino Acid α –Imino Acid Amino Acid Oxidase
Flavin Flavin- H2
α-Amino Acid Keto Acid H2O NH3
Glutamic Acid Imino Acid L-Glutamic Acid
Dehydrogenase
NADPNADPH+H
Imino Acid α –Ketoglutaric
Acid
H2O NH3
C)Non-Oxidative Deamination(Direct Deamination):
L- Serine Amino Acid H2O is removed
Amino Acid Pyruvic Acid Serine dehydrase
PLP
D)Transdeamination(L-Glutamate dehydrogenase) :
α-Amino Acids α-Keto Acids Glutamate Transaminase
(Transamination)
α- Ketoglutrate Glutamatic Acid Glutamate Transaminase
(Transamination)
Glutamatic Acid α- Ketoglutrate L-glutamate
dehydrogenase
(Oxidative deamination)
H2O NH3+2H L-glutamate
dehydrogense
(Oxidative deamination)
**Krebs urea cycle(ornithine cycle for urea formation):
CO2 + NH3 Carbamoyl
Phosphate
*Carbamoyl Phosphate
Synthase
* 2ATP 2ADP+Pi
Ornithine Citrulline * Ornithine
Transcarbamoylase
(Citrulline Synthase)
*Carbamoyl Phosphate
Pi
Citrulline Argininosuccinate * Argininosuccinate
Synthase
* ATP AMP + Pi
Argininosuccinate Arginine Argininosuccinase
Arginine Ornithine *Arginase
* H2O Urea
** Amino Acid Metabolism:
1) Serine: A)Synthesis:
i) 3- Phosphoglycerate 3- Phosphohydroxy
pyruvate
* Phosphoglycerate
Dehydrogenase
* NAD NADH + H
3- Phosphohydroxy
pyruvate
3- Phosphoserine * Transaminase PLP
* Glutamate
α - KetoGlutarate
3- Phosphoserine Serine * Phosphatase
* H2O Pi
ii) Glycine Serine Serine hydroxymethyl
transferase
B) Catabolism:
Serine Glycine (By Glycine cleavage
system, it is cleaved to CO2&NH3)
Serine Pyruvate
C) Functions and Derivatives:
Serine Pyruvate Serine Dehydratase
Serine Glycine Serine Hydroxymethyl
Transferase
Serine Ceramide Conjugation with
Palmitoyl CoA
Serine Ethanolamine By Decarboxylation
2) Cysteine : A)Synthesis:
L- methionine S-Adenosyl methionine * L-Met. Adenosyl
transferase
* H2O+ATP
Pi+PPi
S-Adenosyl mthionine S-Adenosyl
Homocysteine
* Methyltransferase
* acceptorCH3-
acceptor
S-Adenosyl
Homocysteine
L-Homocysteine * H2O adenosine
L-Homocysteine Cystathionine * Cystathionine
Synthase
* Serine H2O
Cystathionine L-Homoserine
+L-Cysteine
Cystathionase
B)Functions and Derivatives:
Cysteine Pyruvate -
Cysteine Thioethanolamine * Decarboxylase
* PLP
Cysteine Cystine * Cystine reductase
* NAD NADH+H
Cysteine Glutathione -
Methionine:
L-Methionine S-adenosyl
methionine(SAM)
ATP→PPi+Pi
Adenosyltransferase
S-adenosyl methionine
(SAM)
S-adenosyl
homocysteine
→CH3
Methyl transferase
S-adenosyl
homocysteine
Homocysteine H2o →adenosine
Homocysteine L-Methionine Betaine (trimethyl
glycine) →dimethyl
glycine
CH3-THF → THF methyl
transferase
Homocysteine:
Homocysteine cystathionine Cystathionine synthase
Serine → H2o
PLP
cystathionine homoserine Cystathionase
H2O→cysteine
homoserine iminobutyrate Homoserine deaminase
PLP → H2o
iminobutyrate αketobutyrate H2O → NH3
α-ketobutyrate Propionyl CO A
Homocysteine αketobutyrate Homocysteine
desulfiydrase
PLP
H2O → H2S and NH3
αketobutyrate Propionyl CO A
Methionine S-adenosyl
methionine(SAM)
ATP
S-adenosyl
methionine(SAM)
S-adenosyl
homocysteine
→ CH3
S-adenosyl
homocysteine
homocysteine
homocysteine Methionine Methyl B12→ B12+ N5
methyl FH4 → FH4
homocysteine cystathionine Cystathionine synthase
cystathionine Propionyl CO A Cysteine
Propionyl CO A Methylmalonyl CO A Propionyl CO A
carboxylase
Methylmalonyl CO A Succinyl CO A Methylmalonyl CO A
mutase (vit. B 12
cofactor)
Phenylalanine/tyrosine
Phenylalanine tyrosine Phenylhydroxylase
O2→H2o
Tetrahydrobiopetrin
→dihydrobiopetrin
L- tyrosine P- hydroxyphenyl
pyruvic acid
Tyrosine transaminase
PLP
→ α-KG + GLU
P- hydroxyphenyl
pyruvic acid
Homogentisic acid P- hydroxyphenyl
pyruvate hydroxylase
Ascorbate
Cu+2
O2→ CO2
Homogentisic acid Methylacetoacetic acid Homogentistate oxidase
Fe +2
Ascorbate
Methylacetoacetic acid Fumaryl acetoacetic
acid
Glutathione
Methylacetoacetic acid cis
trans isomerase
Fumaryl acetoacetic
acid
Fumarate (glucogenic)
+
Acetoacetate
(ketogenic)
Fumaryl acetoacetate
hydrolase → H2o
Catecholamines
tyrosine 3,4 dihydroxy
phenylalanine (dopa)
O2 → H2O
H4-biopetrine → H2-
biopetrine
3,4 dihydroxy
phenylalanine
dopamine DOPA decarboxylase
PLP → CO2
dopamine Norepinephrine O2
Dopamine B hydroxase
Cu+2
Vit. C
Norepinephrine epinephrine N-methyl transferase
SAM→ SAH
Epinephrine Dihydrooxymandelic
acid
MAO
Norepinephrine Dihydrooxymandelic
acid
MAO
Dihydroxymandelic
acid
3-methoxy,4-
hydroxy,mandelic acid
COMT
Epinephrine Metanephrine COMT
Metanephrine 3-methoxy,4-
hydroxy,mandelic acid
MAO
Noepinephrine Normetanephrine COMT
Normetanephrine 3-methoxy,4-hydroxy-
mandelic acid
MAO
Dopamine Dihydrophenyl-acetic
acid
MAO
Dihydrophenyl-acetic
acid
Homovanillic acid COMT
Dopamine 3-methoxytyramine COMT
3-methoxytyramine Homovanillic acid MAO
Tryptophan
Tryptophan N-formyl kynurenine Tryptophan oxygenase +
O2
N-formyl kynurenine Kynurenine
+
Formate
Kynurenine fomylase +
H2O
Formate Formate-THF THF
Kynurenine
+
O2
3-hydroxy kynurenine
+H2O
Kynurenine hydroxylase
NADPH+H NADP
3-hydroxy kynurenine
+
H2O
3-hydroxy anthranilate Kynureninase
B6
3-hydroxy
anthranilate
Niacin
+ Aceto-acetyl Co-A
Oxidase
+ O2
Tryptophan 3-hydroxy tryptophan Tryp. Hydroxylase
O2 H2O
BH4 BH2
3-hydroxy tryptophan Serotonin
+
CO2
Decarboxylase
PLP
Serotonin
+
Acetyl Co-A
N-acetyl serotonin
+
Co-A-SH
N-acetyl transferase
N-acetyl serotonin Melatonin O-Methyl transferase
SAM SAH
Serotonin
+
O2
5 HIAA
+
NH3
MAO
Fat Soluble Vitamins
7-Dehydrocholesterol
(Pro-vitamin D3)
Cholecalciferol
(Vitamin D3)
UV Rays (Sunlight)
Rhodopsin (11 Cis
retinal +Opsin)
All Trans Retinal Light
All Trans Retinal All Trans Retinol NADPH+H+
|
Alcohol Dehydrogenase
NADP+
All Trans Retinol
(Retina)
11 Cis Retinol
(Liver)
Isomerase
11 Cis Retinol 11 Cis Retinal NAD +
|
Alcohol Dehydrogenase
NADH+H+
11 Cis Retinal Rhodopsin Dark
