FULL LENGTH MOCK MAT TEST SERIES 2007 NUMBER OF QUESTIONS: 200 (FOR EACH CORRECT, 4 MARKS; FOR EACH WRONG, -1)TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS 1. A sum of Rs. 25 was paid for a work which A can do in 32 days, B in 20 days, B and C in 12 days and D in 24 days How much did C Receive if all the four work together? (1) Rs.14/3 (2) Rs. 16/3 (3) Rs.15/3 (4) Rs. 17/3 2. A can build up a wall in 8 days while B can break it in 3 days A has worked for 4 days and then B joined to work with A for another 2 days only. In how many days will A alone build up the remaining part of the wall? (1) 13 1/3 days (2) 6 1/3 days (3) 7 1/3 days (4) 7 days 3. A cistern can filled by two pipes filling separately in 12 and 16 min respectively. Both pipes are opened together for a certain time but being clogged, only 7/8 of the full quantity of water flows through the former and only 5/6 through the latter pipe. The obstructions, however, being suddenly removed, the cistern is filled in 3 min form that moment. How long was it before the full flow began? (1) 2.5 min (2) 4.5 min (3) 3.5 min (4) 5.5 min 4. A man sold two steel chairs for Rs. 500 each. On one, he gains 20% and on other, he loses 12%. How much does he gain or lose in the whole transaction? (1) 1.5% gain (2) 2% gain (#) 1.5% loss (4) 2% loss 5. A sum of money lent out at simple interest amounts to Rs.720 after 2 years and to Rs.1,020 after a further period of 5 years. The sum and the rate % are. (1) Rs. 500, 5% (2) Rs. 400, 15% (3) Rs. 600, 10% (4) Rs. 700, 20% Directions (Qs. 6-9) : For the verbal analogies pick the pair that exhibits the most similar relationship to the given analogy : 6. Autumn; Wither (1) Fall; Digress (2) Winter; Retreat (3) Spring; Flower (4) Season; Change 7. Augur; Future (1) Knigh; Medieval (2) Poet; Century (3) Vanguard; Pack (4) Historian; Past 8. Stately; Demeanour (1) Ascetic; Deportment (2) Narrow; Vessel (3) Fertile; Nature (4) Sober; Mein 9. Rash; Stoic (1) Articulate; Oraor (2) Dubious; Scoundrel (3) Dolorous; Spouse (4) Agnostic; Cleric Page | 1
Transcript
FULL LENGTH MOCK MAT TEST SERIES 2007NUMBER OF QUESTIONS: 200 (FOR EACH CORRECT, 4 MARKS; FOR EACH WRONG, -1)TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS
1. A sum of Rs. 25 was paid for a work which A can do in 32 days, B in 20 days, B and C in 12 days and D in 24 days How much did C Receive if all the four work together?(1) Rs.14/3 (2) Rs. 16/3(3) Rs.15/3 (4) Rs. 17/3
2. A can build up a wall in 8 days while B can break it in 3 days A has worked for 4 days and then B joined to work with A for another 2 days only. In how many days will A alone build up the remaining part of the wall?(1) 13 1/3 days (2) 6 1/3 days(3) 7 1/3 days (4) 7 days
3. A cistern can filled by two pipes filling separately in 12 and 16 min respectively. Both pipes are opened together for a certain time but being clogged, only 7/8 of the full quantity of water flows through the former and only 5/6 through the latter pipe. The obstructions, however, being suddenly removed, the cistern is filled in 3 min form that moment. How long was it before the full flow began?(1) 2.5 min (2) 4.5 min(3) 3.5 min (4) 5.5 min
4. A man sold two steel chairs for Rs. 500 each. On one, he gains 20% and on other, he loses 12%. How much does he gain or lose in the whole transaction?(1) 1.5% gain (2) 2% gain(#) 1.5% loss (4) 2% loss
5. A sum of money lent out at simple interest amounts to Rs.720 after 2 years and to Rs.1,020 after a further period of 5 years. The sum and the rate % are.(1) Rs. 500, 5% (2) Rs. 400, 15%(3) Rs. 600, 10% (4) Rs. 700, 20%
Directions (Qs. 6-9) : For the verbal analogies pick the pair that exhibits the most similar relationship to the given analogy :6. Autumn; Wither
10. Two runners, A and B, running around a circular Track, complete one round each in 7 and 14 minutes respectively. They take a simultaneous start from the starting point. During the first 30 minutes, how many times has A crossed B on the track?(1) 4 (2) 3(3) 2 (4) 1
11. A river flows west to east and on the way turns left and goes in a semicircle round a hillock, and then turns left at right-angles. In which direction is the river finally flowing?(1) North (2) South(3) East (4) West
12. A clock seen through a mirror shows quarter past three. What is the correct time shown by the clock?(1) 03.15 (2) 08.45
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(3) 09.15 (4) 09.4513. Tony was not at school on Saturday last. He was first absent for four days before that. Today is Monday, the 31 st of
October. When was Tony first absent? Give the day and date?(1) Monday, October 24 (2) Tuesday, October 25(3) Wednesday, October 26 (4) Thursday, October 27
14. What is the angel that the Hour hand of a clock makes with the minute hand when the time is 15.40?(1) 1100 (2) 1200
(3) 1250 (4) 1300
Directions (Qs. 15-19): Each item is followed by two statements A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions:
Mark your answer as:
1. If the question can be answered by one of the statements alone and not by the other.2. If the question can be answered by using either statement alone.3. If the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using
either statement alone.4. If the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
15. A rectangular floor that the 4 meters wide is to be completely covered with square tiles, each with the side of length 0.25 meter. What is the least number of such tiles required?a. The length of the floor is three times the width.b. The area of the floor is 48 square meters.
16. Each student in class of 40 students voted for exactly one of the three candidates A. B or C for the post of class representative. Did candidate A receive the maximum votes from the 40 votes cast?a. Candidates A received 11 of the votes.b. Candidate C received 14 of the votes.
17. I1, I2 and I3 are lines in a plane. Is I1 perpendicular to I3?a. I1 is perpendicular to I2.b. I2 is perpendicular to I3.
18. Was 70 the average grade on a class test?a) On the test, half of the class had grades below 70 and half of the class had grades above 70.b) The lowest grade on the test was 45 and the highest grade on the test was 95.
19. If x is an integer, then what is the value of x2?a) 1/5 < 1/x +1 < ½b) (x - 3) (x - 4) = 0
Direction (Qs. 20-29) : Read the following passage carefully to answer these questions given at the end of each passage :
Passage I
One of the basic principles of people management for most of the 20 th century was to narrow an individual’s task down to a small, heavily monitored, transparently cost-effective unit of work. This was particularly the case in many areas of manufacturing, where it was felt to be a necessary route to greater competitiveness. It left the individual with little chance to show any initiative. Today, that tenet is being turned largely on its head. Much more is expected from employees; their value to a company’s well-being is increasingly acknowledged, even if not necessarily properly
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recognized. This transition has been accompanied by the emergence of ‘human resource management’, a term not universally acknowledged as representing much more than ‘personnel management’, but one which does signify a broader ambit than in the past. Just how much broader is discussed here, along with the widely differing attitudes of trade unions to human resource management and the issues that management must confront. Also examined are the issue that have been preoccupying human resource managers themselves. An example is the rapid emergence of new technology, which puts pressures on workers that cannot always be easily resolved. It is on the nature of good management practice that nothing, in isolation, provides the answer to every prayer. As john Grapper relates, British Airways, which lays claim to being the world’s favourite airline, has embraced human resource management to what is generally considered to be good effect. It sees its employees as frontline troops in the competitive battle with other airlines. It sees its employees as front line troops in the competitive battle with other airlines. Its overall success is acknowledged; witness its ability to produce profit while rivals notch up huge losses. Graper traces the pressure to re-think heavily monitored, narrowly defined work patterns as having come from Japan, where the team approach, with decisions made by the consensus is acknowledged to be a potent competitive weapon. Much of the shift is due to the fact that traditionally structured principles are incompatible with rapid technological change. This is especially so in service industries, where labour accounts for a large majority of total costs, and where employees can be at the forefront of enhancing standards of service. The mixed attitudes of unions to HRM emerge against a background of distrust Inevitably, if responsibility is pushed further down the organization, with established lines of authority being eroded, he union’s traditional role is called into question. This suspicion is exemplified by a national officer of the Transport and General Workers’ Union, who also accuses employers of often having as their real motivation, a desire to weaken collective strength. An academic’s view is that HRM sits uncomfortably with industrial relations, since among other things, managers will endeavour to bypass unions achieve their ends. But not all unions are opposed to ends but no all unions are opposed to HRM, one particularly perceptive view being that it is inevitably an acknowledgement by management that workers should be more involved in decision-making. A rider to this is that it brings managers under greater pressure to deliver and opens them to accusations of merely playing lip-service to the concept if they prove unhappy about being challenged. A further view is that HRM in the United Kingdom is a pale shadow of the that exist in Continental Europe, since the ‘power’ offered to workers is rather illusory and allows little scope for feedback from the workers to the upper echelons of management. This argument could well be supported by the attitudes which are reported in Chrisopher Lorenz’s article about whether or not a value can be put on human resources and if, indeed, management really wishes to do so. Larenz points to the growing number of chief executives who are at least paying attention to concepts which enhance the status of employees. But he question is whether this has any more substances than is revealed by the perfunctory acknowledgement in so many company annual reports of how valuable employees are to the organization. One of the inevitable outcomes of ‘empowerment’ of employees is that they will make mistakes and that they should be left (or helped) to learn by them. Yet this prospect help make some management’s draw back from delegating real power of decision further down the line and thus from taking HRM to its proper conclusion. In a world of rapid technological advance, human resources play a crucial role – but not just in ensuring that the latest piece of technology performs. They are also a barometer of what is achievable and what is not, as Michael Dixon illustrates. What is particularly clear is that employees’ are happy – or can be persuaded – to work with. Even in companies where HRM becomes very much the chief executive’s remit, much of the responsibility for ensuring that employees’ views are understood by management still falls to the human resource manager. Many managers still feel vulnerable in the organizational hierarchy. However, Simon Holberton suggests that while they know what their role should be, many human resource managers find themselves insufficiently informed by their companies to design programmes to meet manager’s demands. Significantly, training is at the top of the list of their priorities. And while the economic climate has changed considerably for the worse with budgets slashed or put on hold, training is still widely perceived to be one of the most pressing requirements if a wide swathe of companies is not to be left unprepared to take advantage of an economic upturn.
20. The author would agree with which of the following ?1. The individual’s value in any organization is today properly recognized.2. The individual’s value in any organization was always recognized.3. The individual’s value is not recognized even today in any organization.4. The individual is expected to do much less today than what he used to do earlier.
21. The success of British Airways can be attributed to 1. Its adaptation of human resource management principles.2. Its superior service and timely running of flights.
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3. Its consideration that its employees are combatant in a battle, thus giving them more responsibility.4. Both (1) and (3)
22. One of the salient features of the Japanese work pattern is that 1. All the Japanese regard work as worship2. The decisions are usually taken by the top management, thus leading to success.3. The belief in teamwork and taking decisions by consensus.4. The respect for elders and their style of working.
23. The trade unions oppose human resource management policies because 1. If workers become more responsible, the traditional role of unions is jeopardized.2. It is the tendency of the unions to oppose anything new.3. It will lead to greater interference by the management in union activity.4. None of these.
24. Why do some management not allow seeping down of responsibility?1. They want to take all the decisions themselves.2. Employees may make mistakes and hence giving them responsibility would to be beneficial.3. They have a basic attitude problem4. Both (1) and (3)
Passage II
Definitions of ‘culture’ are contested. In anthropological usage, the word refers to a system of shared meanings through which collective existence becomes possible, however, as many recent critiques of this position point out, this sense of culture gives no place to the idea of judgment, and hence to the relations of power by which the dominance of ideas and tastes is established. As said says about Mathew Arnold’s view of culture :“What is at stake in society is not merely the cultivation of individuals, or the development of a class of finely tuned sensibilities, or the renaissance of interests in the classics, but rather the assertively achieved and won hegemony of an identifiable set of ideas, which Arnold honorifically calls, culture, over all other ideas in society.”The implications of Arnold’s view of culture are profound; they lead us towards a position in which culture must be seen in terms of that which it eliminates as much as that when culture is consecrated by the state, it becomes a system of discriminations and evaluations through which a series of exclusions can be legislated from above. By the enactment of such legislation, the state comes to be the primary giver of values. Anarchy, disorder, irrationality, inferiority, bad taste and immorality are, in this way, defined and then located outside culture and civilization by the state and its institutions. The exclusion of alterity is an important device by which the hegemony of the state, especially to the notion that the state is the sole giver of values. At the same time, the danger is that we may in the process be tempted to valourise the community as somehow representing a more organic mode, and therefore a more authentic method of organizing culture. Many scholars feel that culture is more organically related to the traditions of groups, whereas traditions are falsely invented by the hands of state. The issues are by no means as simple, for culture and tradition are not instituted in society once and forever, but are subject tot eh constant change and flux which are an essential feature of every society. Indeed, the very attempt to freeze and fix cultural traditions may be inimical to their survival. Finally, in the contests between state, communities and collectivities of different kinds on one hand and the individual on the other, we can see the double life of culture: Its potential to give radical recognition to the humanity of its subjects as well as its potential to keep the individual within such tightly defined bounds that the capacity to experiment with selfhood – which is also a mark of humanity – may be jeopardized.So, we arrive at this double definition of culture. By this I mean that the word ‘culture’ refers to both a system of shared meanings which defines the individual’s collective life, as well as a system for the formulation of judgments which are used to excluded alterities, and which thus keep the individual strictly within the bounds defined by the society. It is in view of this that the question of cultural rights seems to me to be placed squarely within the question of passions rather than interest. It is time now to define passion.After the classical work of Hirschman on political passions, it was usual to think of passions as obstructions in the path of reason Passions had to be overcome for enlightened interet to emerge. This view of passions is extremely limited. Indeed, certain kinds of revolations, including he recognition of oneself as human, become possible only through passion. If the self is constituted only through the other – so that desire, cognition, memory and imagination become possible through the play of passion – then the revelatory role of passion must be acknowledged not only in the life of the individual but also in the life of the collective. Passion then must play a role in politics.
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As we have seen, the demand for cultural rights at this historical moment is in a context, where cultural symbols have been appropriated by the state, which tries to establish a monopoly over ethical pronouncements. The state is thus experienced as a threat by smaller units, who fell that their ways of life are penetrated, if not engulfed, by this larger unit. The situation is quite the opposite of the relation between the part and the whole in hierarchical systems, a relation seen as the characteristics mark of traditional politics in South Asia. In a hierarchical system, differences between constituent units were essential for the ‘whole’ to be constituted.In other worlds, small units came to be defined by being bearer of special marks in a hierarchical entilty. And although by definition they could not be equal in such a system, the very logic of hierarchy assured that they could not be simply engulfed into the higher totality not be simply engulfed into the higher totality. This was both a source of heir oppression as well as a guarantee of their acceptance (through not a radical acceptance) of their place in the world. My argument is not an appeal for a return to hierarchy as a principle of organization. Rather, it is an effort to locate the special nature of the threat which smaller groups fell.
25. Culture referes to the 1. Shared meanings and collective existence.2. Idea of judgment3. Relations of power4. All of the above
26. Culture is established through 1. Achievement of hegemony of an identifiable set of ideas over other ideas2. Consecration by the state3. Institutionalisation of a system of discriminations and evaluations4. Exclusion of alterity
27. Which of he following is true ?1. Passion contributes to the life of the collective.2. Passion contributes to the life of the collective but only after playing a role in the life of the individual3. Passion’s contributes of the life of the collective can be appreciated only if a broader view is adopted.4. Passion’s contribution to culture can be enhanced if it is not allowed to obstruct the path of reason.
28. Achieving selfhood involves1. Balancing one’s own desires with the boundaries of the state2. Jeopardising humanity3. Leading a double life 4. All of the above
29. The role of he stare is to1. Establish a monopoly over ethical pronouncements2. Appropriate cultural symbols3. Become the primary giver of the values4. All of the above
30. A man takes 6 hours 30 min. in going by a cycle and coming back by scooter. He should have lost 2 hours 10 min by going on cycle both ways. How long would it take him to go by scooter both ways?(1) 2 hrs (2) 4 1/3 hrs(3) 3 1/3 hrs (4) 5 1/3 hrs
31. A train with 90 km/h crosses a bridge in 36 seconds. Another train 100 metres shorter crosses the same bridge at 45 km/h. What is the time taken by the second train to cross the bridge?(1) 61 seconds (2) 63 seconds(3) 62 seconds (3) 64 seconds
32. Two pipes A and B can fill tank in 20 and 30 hours respectively. Both the pipes are opened to fill the tank but when the tank is 1/3rd full, a leak develops in the tank through which one-third water supplied by both the pipes goes out. The total time taken to fill the tank.(1) 12 hours (2) 16 hours(3) 14 hours (4) 18 hours
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33. Ramesh travels 760 km to his home, partly by train and partly by car. He takes 8 hours, if he travels 160 km by train and the rest by car. He takes 12 minutes more, if he travels 240 km by train and the rest by car. What are the speeds of the train and the car?(1) Speed of Car = 90 km/h (2) Speed of car = 100 km/h,Speed of train = 60 km/h Speed of train = 80 km/h.(3) Speed of car = 80 km/h (4) Speed of car = 100 km/hSpeed of train = 70 km/h Speed of train = 90 km/h
34. Some students planned a picnic. The budget for food was Rs.5000. But, 5 of them failed to go and thus the cost of food for each member increased by Rs.5. How many students attended the picnic?(1) 15 (2) 25(3) 20 (4) 30
Directions (Qs. 35 to 38): Answer these questions based on the following table which gives the circulation in thousands of five English dailies in the four States during 2002-2003.
Newspaper Kerala Punjab UP MPABCDE
12310512.282.424.4
22722014.64423
96117.29.714510
789717.29.3100
35. Of the five dailies, which has the highest number of circulation?(1) A (2) B (3) D (4) E
36. What is the difference in the circulation among the top two newspapers?(1) 14200 (2) 15200(3) 13200 (4) 12200
37. The newspaper A’s circulation in Punjab is x times that of the newspaper B’s circulation in HP. What is ‘x’?(1) 2.35 (2) 2(3) 2.75 (4) 2.25
38. The ratio of the circulation of newspaper D in Punjab and HP is(1) 5.5 : 2 (2) 5 : 2(3) 6 : 3.14 (4) 5.5 : 1.16
39. Ina college, fifteen student of a class are members of the “Spicmacy” Association and twelve students are members of the “Dhyan” Association. If out of these students a total of thirteen belong to only one of the two associations, then how many students belong to both the associations?(1) 2 (2) 6(3) 7 (4) 12
40. Geeta is taller than Seeta but not taller than Radha. Radha and Rani are of the same height. Geeta is shorter than Paru. Amongst all the girls, who is the shortest?(1) Geeta (2) Seta(3) Radha ad Rani (4) Paru
41. Directions (Questions 48 to 50) : A missing term in the series given in each of these questions is marked by a question marked(?). Choose the correct term to complete the series:1/2, 3/5, 5/8, 7/16, ?(1) 9/32 (2) 10/17(3) 11/34 (4) 12/35
42. ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL ?(1) ZKW (2) ZKU
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(3) ZAB (4) XKW43. P 3 C, R 5 F, T 8 I, V 12 L, ?
(1) Y 17 O (2) X 17 M(3)X170 (4) X160
44. British Petroleum recently signed an agreement with _____ for jointly building a refinery and rolling out retail outlets in the Indian Oil refining and marketing industry.(1) Bharat Petrleum (2) Indian Oil(3) HPCL (4) IBP
45. Which country launched its second manned space mission recently?(1) China (2) India(3) Korea (4) Singapore
46. Aquaguard water purification systems are products from(1) Kenstar (2) Voltas(3) Bluestar (4) None of these
47. The ad-line ‘Good people to bank with’ is associated with(1) Punjab National Bank (2) State Bank of India(3) Citi Bank (4) Union Bank of India
48. Telecom company Nokia belongs to which country?(1) Denmark (2) USA(3) Sweden (4) Finlan
49. The famous book “Two Lives” has been written by(1) Anurag Mathur (2) Arundhati Roy(3) Vikram Seth (4) Shiv Khera
50. ‘Fair and Lovely” range of products was launched by(1) Procter and Gamble (2) Lakme(3) Vikram Seth (4) Shiv Khera
51. MTML provides which one of the following quality services?(1) Garuda (2) Trump(3) Dolphin (4) All of these
52. The slogan ‘What you dream’ is associated with which company?(1) Sony (2) Honda(3) Phillips (4) Suzuki
53. ‘Data One’ Broadband service have been launched by which organisation?(1) BSNL (2) MTNL
(3) Tata Walky (4) Reliance india mobile
54. In a flight of 6000 km, an aircraft was slowed down due to bad weather. The average speed for the trip was reduced by 4000 kmph and the time of flight increased by 30 minutes. The original planned duration of the flight was.(1) 1 ½ h (2) 3 ½ h(3) 2 ½ h (4) 4 ½ h
55. After being set up, a company manufactured 6000 scoters in the third year and 7000 scooters in the seventh year. Assuming that the production increases uniformly by the fixed number every year, what is the production in the tenth year?(1) 7850 (2) 7650(3) 7750 (4) 7950
56. Soma purchases National Savings Certificates every year whose value exceeds the previous year’s purchase by Rs.400. After 8 years, she finds that she has purchased certificates whose total face value is Rs. 48,000. What is the face value of the certificates purchased by her in the first year?(1) Rs.4,300 (2) Rs.4,500(3) Rs.4,400 (4) Rs.4,600
57. A computer is available for Rs.39000 each or Rs.17000 as cash down payment followed by five monthly installments of Rs. 4,800 each. What is the rate of interest under the installment plan?(1) 35.71% p.a. (2) 37.71% p.a.(3) 36.71% p.a. (4) 38.71% p.a.
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58. Under the Rural Housing Scheme, the Delhi Development Authority (DDA) allotted a house of Kamal Raj for Rs. 1,26,100. This payment is to be made in three equal annual installments. If the money is reckoned at 5% per annum compound interest, then how much is to be paid by Kamal Raj in each installment?(1) Rs. 45,205 (2) Rs. 47,405
(3) Rs. 46,305 (4) Rs. 48,505
Directions (Qs. 59-63) : From the alternatives provided, choose the one that best fills the blank :59. They lament and express their despair ____ the way Gandhi has been forgotten in his own land.
(1) Over (2) Of(3) In (4) With
60. The government ____ on this issue.(1) Is divide (2) Are divided(3) Is being (4) Divide
61. After having sought my help, _______(1) My friend left me all alone (2) I was left all alone by my fiend(3) I was alone (4) I asked her to leave me alone
62. I have known her ____ the end of he World War II.(1) From (2) Since(3) During (4) Towards
63. The landlady _____ since morning.(1) Has gossiped (2) Has been gossiping
(3) Gossiped (4) Has gossiping
Directions (Questions 64-68) : Study the following information carefully to answer these questions:There are six persons A, B, C, D, E and F. C is the sister of F. B is the brother of E’s Husband. D is the father of A and grandfather of F. There are two fathers, three brothers and a mother in the group.
64. Who is the mother?(1) A (2) B(3) D (4) E
65. Who is E’s husband?(1) B (2) C(3) A (4) F
66. How many male members are there in the group?(1) One (2) Two(3) Three (4) Four
67. How is F related to E?(1) Uncle (4) Husband(3) Son (4) Daughter
68. Which of the following is a group of brothers?(1) ABF (2) ABD
(3)BFC (4) BDFDirections (Qs. 69 - 72): Answer these questions on the basis of the following graph which shows the production of items A, B and C during the months: April, May & June.
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April May June0
50
100
150
200
250
300
Product A
Product B
Product C
69. The percentage increase of production of item A from April to May is (1) 33% (2) 66%(3) 74% (4) 25%
70. Which item has maintained a rise over the three months?(1) A (2) B(3) C (4) B and C
71. The overall production of items A, B & c during April and May is in the ratio(1) 1 : 1 (2) 3 : 4(3) 9 : 11 (4) 11 :9
72. The total production during the months of April, May & June of the three items A, B and C are in the ratio.7 : 5 :77 : 5 :57 : 4.5 : 44.5 : 6 : 5
Direction (Qs. 73 - 75): Refer to the graph given below which gives the circulation growth of GRAMSSEWA magazine from July to December 2003.
21300 211885 204933
20000 200189
19300 189277
18300 173182 17539517300 JUL AUG SEP OCT NOV DEC
73. During November and December, there was an even growth rate, the average of which is(1) 2.36% (2) 2%(3) 2.88% (4) 3.36%
74. The circulation in October is – times then that of July.(1) 1.5 (2) 2%(3) 1 (4) 1.15
75. The growth rate is every marginal during the month of
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(1) August (2) October(3) November (4) December
76. Which company has recently introduced ‘Dura Technology’ in building cars?(1) Ford (2) Mitsubishi(3) GM (4) None of these
77. Real Juice are products of which company?(1) Nestle (2) Dabur(3) ITC (4) None of these
78. In the recently concluded World Chees Championship held in San Luis, India’s Vishwanathan Anand stood of _________ position.(1) Fifth (2) Third(3) Second (4) First
79. Rahul Dravid is associated with the advertising campaign of which bank?(1) Bank of Baroda (2) Bank of India(3) HSBC (4) HDFC
80. Mittal Steel, the largest steel maker in the world, has signed a MOU with which State Government for setting up a steel plant as well as undertaking mining operations?(1) Chattisgarh (2) Bihar(3) West Bengal (4) None of these
81. Which airline displays the tag line “There is no better way to fly”?(1) Lufthansa (2) British Airways(3) Singapore Airlines (4) Air India
82. Indian Formula-1 driver Narain Kathikeyan was associate with which team?(1) Mercedes (2) Ferrari(3) Honda (4) Jordan
83. ‘Georgia Gold’ brand of hot or cold beverages belongs to which company?(1) Pepsi (2) Nestle(3) HLL (4) Coca-Cola
84. Apple computers Inc. was started by which of the following entrepreneurs?(1) Jack Walsch (2) Bill Gages(3) Steva Jobs (4) None of the above
85. Procter and Gamble took over which famous brand recently?(1) Revlon (2) Vicks(3) Steve Jobs (4) None of the above
86. A pole 5 miters high is fixed on the top of the tower. The angle of elevation of the top of the pole observed from a point A on the ground is 600 and the angle of depression of the point A from the top of the towers is 450. The height of the tower is.(1) 5.83 m (2) 7.83 m(3) 6.83 m (4) 4.83 m
87. A tent is in the form of a right circular cylinder surmounted by a cone. The Diameter is the cylinder is 24m. The height of the cylindrical portion is 11 m while the vertex of the cone is 16 m above the ground. The area of the canvas required for the tent is(1) 1300 m2 (2) 1320 m2
(3) 1310 m2 (4) 1330 m2
88. The average score of boys in an examination in a school is 71 and that of the girls is 73. The average score of the school is 71.8. The ratio of the number of boys to that of the girls that appeared in the examination is.(1) 1 : 2 (2) 3 : 2(3) 2 : 2 (4) 4 : 2
89. The mean monthly salary paid to 75 workers in a factory is Rs. 5680. The mean salary of 25 of them is Rs. 5400 and that of 30 others is Rs. 5700 and that of 30 others is Rs.5700. The mean salary of the remaining workers is(1) Rs. 5000 (2) Rs. 7000(3) Rs. 6000 (4) Rs. 8000
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90. It is known that a box of 200 electric bulbs contains 16 defective bulbs. One bulb is taken out at random from the box. What is the probability that the bulb drawn is (i) defective (ii) non-defective?(1) (i) 2/25 (ii) 23/25 (2) (i) 4/25 (ii) 21/25(3) (i) 3/25 (ii) 22/25 (3) (i) 1/25 (ii) 20/25
91. A polygon has 25 sides, the lengths of which starting from the smallest side are in A.P If the perimeter of the polygon s 2100 cm and the length of he larges side is 20 times that of the smallest, then the length of the smallest side and the common difference of the A.P. are(1) 8 cm and 61/3 cm respectively (2) 8 cm and 51/
3 cm respectively(3) 6 cm and 61/3 cm respectively (4) None of these
92. A car travels 25 km an hour faster than a bus for a journey of 500 km. If the bus takes 10 hours more than the car, then the speeds of the bus and the car are
a. 25 km /hr and 40 km/hr respectivelyb. 25 km /hr and 60 km/hr respectivelyc. 25 km /hr and 50 km/hr respectivelyd. None of these
93. When a group photograph is taken, all the seven teachers should be in the first row and all the twenty students should be in the second row. If the two corners of the second row are reserved for the two tallest students, interchangeable only between them, and if the middle seat of the front row is reserved for the principal, then the number of such possible arrangements is(1) 720×18! (2) 1440×18!(3) 1370×18! (4) None of these
94. In a certain city, all telephone numbers have six digits, the first two digits always being 41 or 42 or 46 62 or 64. The number of telephone numbers having all the six digits distinct is(1) 8400 (2) 9200
(3) 7200 (4) None of theseDirections (Qs. 95 - 99) : In each of these questions, you are given a sentence. A part of the sentence. A part to the sentence is underlined. This is followed by your ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choice (1) repeats the original; the other three are different. Select the version the best rephrases the underlined part :
95. Many employers now believe that the advancement in technology has improved he environment for the workers who can now work up to 18 hours a day and still does not fell physically ties.
(1) Advancements in technology has improved the environment for the workers who can now work up to 18 hours a day and still does.
(2) Advancement in technology have improved the environment for the workers who can now work up to 18 hours a day and still does.
(3) Advancements in technologies have improved the environment for the workers who can now work up to 18 hours a day and still does.
(4) Advancements in technology have improved the environment for the workers who can now work up to 18 hours a day and still do.
96. It is difficult to diagnose malaria because its first symptoms are similar to any viral fever.(1) Are similar to any viral fever.(2) Are similar to those of any viral fever.(3) Are similar to those of any other viral fever.(4) Are similar to those of any viral fevers.
97. To create a new game means expending lot of sweat, and calls for all the members of he development team to play its with aplomb throughout the long-drawn-out procedure before the game sees the light of the day.
(1) For all the members of the development team to play its role with aplomb throughout.(2) For all the members in the development team to play their role with aplomb throughout(3) For all the members of he development team to play their roles with aplomb throughout.(4) All the members of the development team to play their roles with aplomb throughout.
98. The state has at least twenty college of whom only six are officially recognized.(1) Of whom only six are officially recognized(2) Of whom only six have been officially recognized.(3) Of which only six have official recognition.(4) Of which only six are officially recognized.
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99. The all-pervasiveness of he internet has led to a joke, that a few bored homo sapiens left to themselves in a single room with a couple of computers for some days, would eventually produce something that would either make Shakespeare jealous or plain wild.
(1) Either make Shakespeare jealous or plain wild.(2) Make either Shakespeare jealous or plain wild(3) Made Shakespeare either jealous or plain wild.(4) Either make Shakespeare jealous or make him plain wild.
Directions (Qs. 100-103) : Each of the sentences against these questions has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of he sentence as a whole:
100. The term ‘rare earths’ is in fact a _____, for paradoxically, the rareearth elements are in actuality ______, being present in low concentration in virtually as the minerals.
101. According to the 12th century cosmologies, the natural philosopher must strive to ____ a State of detached objectivity in order to free his capacity for constructing useful hypothesis form the _____ of unquestioned assumptions and accepted opinions about nature.
(1) Capture – Contemplation (2) Achieve – tyranny(3) Disclaimer – ephemeral (4) Metaphor – figurativeAccording to the 12th century cosmologies, the natural philosopher must strive to _____ a state of detached objectivity in order to free his capacity for constructing useful hypothesis from the ____ of unquestioned assumptions and accepted opinions about nature.(1) Capture – contemplation (2) Achieve – tyranny(3) Imitate – discipline (4) Attain – confusion
102. The columnist was very gentle when he mentioned his friends, but was bitter and even ____ when he discussed people who ___ him.
Direction (Qs. 104 - 108) Read the following information carefully to answer these questions;In a car exhibition, seven cares of seven different companies, viz. Cadillac, Ambassador, Fiat, Maruti, Mercedes, Bedford and Fargo were displayed in a fow, facing east, such that
(A) Cadillac car was to the immediate right of Fargo(B) Fargo was fourth to the right of fiat(C) Maruti was between Ambassador and Bedford(D) Fiat, which was the third to the left of Ambassador car, was at one of the ends.
104. Which of the following was the correct position of the Mercedes?(1)Immediate right of Cadillac (2) Immediate left of Bed ford(3)Between Bedford and Fargo (4) Fourth to the right of Maruti
105. Which of the following is definitely true?(5) Fargo car is between Ambassador and Fiat.(6) Cadilalc is to the immediate left of Mercedes.(7) Fargo is to the immediate right of Cadillac(8) Maruti is fourth to the right of Mercedes.
106. Which cars are on the immediate either sides of the Cadillac car?(1)Ambassador and Maruti (2) Maruti and Fiat(3)Fiat and Mercedes (4) Ambassador and Fargo
107. Which of he following is definitely true?(9) Maruti is to the immediate left of Ambassador
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(10) Bedford is to the immediate left of fiat(11) Bedford is at one of the ends(12) Fiat is second to the right of Maruti.
108. Which of the following groups of cars is to the right of the Ambassador car?(1)adilalc, Fargo and Maruti (2) Maruti, Bedford and Fiat(3)Mercedes, Cadillac and Fargo (4) Bedford, Cadilalc and Fargo
Direction (Qs 109 to 113) : Read the following information carefully to answer these questions:(A) Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to P, Q, R, S, T and U.(B) Q gets a North facing flat and is not next to S(C) S and U get diagonally Opposite flats.(D) R, next to U, gets a south facing flat and T gets a North facing flat.109. Which of the following combinations gets Sourth facign flats?
(1)QTS (2) UPT(3)URP (4) Data inadequate
110. Whose flat is between Q and S ?(1)T (2) U(3)R (4) P
111. If the flats of T and P are interchanged, then whose flat will be the next of that of U?(1)P (2) Q(3)R (4) T
112. The flats of which of the other paris, than SU, is diagonally opposite to each other?(1)QP (2) QR(3)PT (4) TS
113. To arrive at the answers to the above questions, which of the following statements can be dispensed with?(1)None (2) (A) only
(3)(B) Only (4) (C) only
Directions (Qs. 114 to 116): Answer these questions based on the information in the table given below:EMPLOMYMENT DATA: 1991-1997
(Figures in Millions)Years ->Employment
1991 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997
1. In organized sector2. In unorganized sector3.Unemployed
25.6
35.7
15.4
28.2
41.5
17.1
21.7
29.1
25.5
30.5
42.5
22.5
35.2
50.2
24.8
40.2
59.8
22.9
45.3
75.1
24.8
114. The rate of unemployment was the highest in
(1) 1991 (2) 1993 (3) 1995 (4) 1997
115. The number of employable showed the highest percentage increase in the year(1) 1996-97 (2) 1995-96(3) 1993-94 (4) 1991-92
116. From 1994 to 19971) Employment numbers have fluctuated
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2) Employment in organized sector has shown steady increase3) Figures in all the three categories have shown a steady increase4) Cannot each any of the above conclusions.
Directions (Qs. 117 - 119): Study the table given below to answer these questions.The table gives the sales data of four branches of a paint company in the three months of a year.
Branch October
FirstBill No.
Last Bill No.
Sale(Rs)
Noveber
FirstBill No.
Last Bill No.
Sale(Rs)
Decemer
FirstBill No.
Last Bill No.
Sale(Rs.)
1.Chennai2.Bangalore3.Cochin4.Hyderabad
2864405134692644
2942410136012703
345641147345269473165442
2943410236022704
3106420437042787
461750231469208947187928
3107420537052788
3280429637622841
485097221895210494175427
117. The total number of bills raised by the company from October to December is(1) 1045 (2) 1155(3) 777 (4) 1662
118. The average sale per bill in the given period was the highest in(1) Hyderabad (2) Cochin(3) Bangalore (4) Chennai
119. Which of the following statements is/are true?A. All branches show increase in the sale every month in the period shown.B. Bangalore branch raised the highest number of bills in December.C. Sale of Hyderabad branch in March was approximately its average sale for the three months shown.D. Ranking the branches by sale in the lead and Hyderabad coming last.
(1) A, B and C (2) B, C and D(3) A and B (4) C and D
120. A person standing on the bank of a river finds that the angel of elevation of the top of a tower on the opposite bank is 450. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Breadth of the river is twice the height of the tower.b. Breadth of the river is half of the height of the tower.c. Breadth of the river and the height of the tower are the same.d. None of these
121. Three groups A, B and C are contesting for a position on the Board of directors of a company. The probabilities of their winning are 0.05, 0.3 and 0.2 respectively. If the group A wins, then the probability of introducing a new product is 0.7 and the corresponding probabilities for group B and C are 0.6 and 0.5respectively. The probability that the new product will be introduced is(1) 0.52 (2) 0.74(3) 0.63 (4) None of these
122. An article manufactured by a company consists of two parts A and B. In the process of manufacture of part A, 9 out of 100 are likely to be defective. Similarly 5 out of 100 are likely to be defective in the process of manufacture of part B. The probability that the assembled apart will not be defective is(1) 0.8645 (2) 0.9645(3) 0.6243 (4) None of these
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123. A firm of readymade garments make both men’s and women’s shirts. Its average profit is 6% of the sales. Its sales and women’s shirts comprise 60% of the output. The average profit per sales rupee in women’s shirts is(1) 0.0466 (2) 0.0666(3) 0.0166 (4) None of these
124. In a certain town, 25% families own a phone, 15% own a car and 65% families own both a car and a phone. Consider the following statements in this regard:
i. 10% families own both a car and a phone.ii. 35% families own either a car or a phone.
iii. 40,000 families live in the town. Which of the above statements are correct?(1) I and II (2) II and III(3) I and III (4) I, II and III
125. The hands of a clock are 10 cm ad 7 cm respectively. The difference between the distance traversed by their extremities in 3 days 5 hours is(1) 4552.67 cm (2) 4557.67 cm(3) 4555.67 cm (4) 4559.67 cm
126. A circular grass plot, whose diameter is 70m, contains a gravel walk 5 m wide round it, 15 m from the edge The cost is turf the grass plot at Rs. 2 per m2 is.(1) Rs. 6000 (2) Rs. 6400(3) Rs. 6200 (4) RS. 6600
127. The trunk of a tree is a right cylinder 1.5 m in radius and 10 m high. The volume of he timber which remains when the trunk is trimmed just enough to reduce it to a rectangular parallelepiped on a square base is(1) 44 m3 (2) 46 m3
(3) 45 m3 (4) 47 m3
128. A semicircular sheet of paper of diameter 28 cm is bent to cover the exterior surface of an open conical ice cream cup. The depth of the ice cream cup is(1) 10.12 cm (2) 8.12 cm(3) 12.12 cm (4) 14.12 cm
129. If loga b= ½ , logb c= 1/3 and logc a = k/5, then the value of K is(1) 25 (2) 35(3) 30 (4) 20
130. The H.C.F. and L.C.M of two numbers are 21 and 4641 respectively. If one of the numbers lies between 200 and 300, then the two numbers are(1) 273, 357 (2) 273, 361(3) 273, 359 (4) 273, 363
Directions (Qs. 131-134) : In these questions, find out the part of the sentence that has an error. Choose ‘D’ if there is no error.
131. They cook meals, lay the table and wash up (A), / clean the house (B)/ and the morrow (C).(1)A (2) B(3)C (4) D
132. He seemed distracted (A), / thinking less about what he was doing tonight (B)/ Than what he would be doing on the morrow (C).
(1)A (2) B(3)C (4) D
133. For an educated man of the time, virtually the only way to gain power and prestige (A), / was studying the Confucian classics (B)/ and work his way up the ladder (C) / as a scholar official
(1)A (2) B(3)C (4) D
134. For several reasons (A), / Social psychologists have been studying (B)/ the effects of competition (C) / on performance and productivity
(1)A (2) B(3)C (4) D
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Directions (Qs. 135-139) : Each of these questions of a word, given in CAPITAL, followed by four words. Choose the word that is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in CAPITALS. Since some of the questions require you to distinguish the fine shades of meaning, be sure to consider all the choices before deciding which one is the best :
143. Which Indian business man brought back the ‘Sword of Tipu Sultan’ to India?(1)Kumarmanglam Birla (2) Ratan Tata(3)Noveen Jindal (4) Vijay Mallya
144. Which among the following states was not under the British rule?(1)Goa (2) Tamil Nadu(3)J & K (4) None of these
145. Which Indian state was renked as the No. 2 tourist destination in the world by ‘Lonely Planet’?(1)Himachal Pradesh (2) Tamil Nadu(3)Kerala (4) Uttranchal
146. ‘Unicorn’ motorbike model has been launched by which company?(1)Hero (2) TVS(3)Honda (4) Yamaha
147. ‘Octavia’ Brand belongs to which car manufacturer?(1)BMW (2) Skoda(3)Hyundai (4) None of these
148. Which of the following is a neighbouring state of Uttranchal?(1)Himachal Pradesh (2) UP(3)Haryana (4) All of these
149. Where are the headquarters of Asian Development Bank located?(1)Singapore (2) New Delhi(3)Manila (4) Mumbai
150. Which country is the largest importer of gold?(1)China (2) USA(3)Canada (4) None of these
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Directions (Qs. 51-52): Study the following graph and the table carefully to answer these questions:
POPULATION: DATA OF DIFFERENT STATES IN 1998(Total Population of all the States = 25 lakh)
A.P.
Darnataka
Maharashtra
T.N.
Kerala
Bihar
U.P.
SEX AND LITERACYWISEPOPULATION RATIOSTATES Sex Literacy
151. Approximately, what is the number of literate people in Maharashtra and Karnataka together?(1) 4.5 lakh (2) 6.5 lakh(3) 3 lakh (4) 3.5 lakh
152. In tamil Nadu, if we suppose that 70% of the females and 75%of the males become literate, than what is the total number of illiterates in the State?(1) 75,000 (2) 85,000(3) 71,000 (4) 81,000
Directions (Qs. 53 & 54): Refer the following table to answer these questions:
DISTRIBUTION OF MARKS OBTAINED BY 100 STUDENTS TWO PAPERS (I & II ) IN MATHEMATICS
Paper Marks out of 50
40 & above
30 & above
20 & above
10 & above
Below 10
III
Average (Aggregate)
585
223127
677971
829188
189
12
153. How many students have scored less than 40% marks in the aggregate?(1) 30 (2) 12 (3) 17 (4) 29
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154. What is the percentage of students who obtained 60% and more marks in paper II over the number of students who obtained 40% and more marks in the aggregate (approximately)?
(1) 44 (2) 40(3) 48 (4) Data inadequate
Directions (Question 155 to 159): Study the following table to answer these questions:
TABLE OF INTELLIGENCE CLASSIFICATION
I.Q. Classification % included
130 and
above120-129110-119
90-10980 – 109
80 – 8970 – 7969 andbelow
Very SuperiorSuperior
BrightNormalAverage
Dull normalBorder lineMentallyDefective
2.26.7
16.150.016.16.72.2
-
155. Following the above table, in which category will you classify the given data for I.Q. scores?Data : 20, 47, 24, 51, 55, 42, 38, 61, 65.1. Superior 2. Average3. Mentally Defective 4. No given Category
156. In which category will you classify the given data for I.Q. scores?Data : 140, 127, 135, 120, 125, 131, 139,144, 138.1. Superior and very superior 2. Bright and superior3. Average and Dull 4. No given category
157. Accordingly to the given table, in which category will you classify the given data for I.Q. scores?Data : : 99, 100, 101, 105, 95, 92, 90, 108, 98, 103, 93.1. Very Superior 2. Bright normal3. Average 4. Border line
158. Accordingly to the given table which of the following category with the highest percentage of cases include in it?1. Very Superior 2. Bright normal3. Average 4. Border line
159. What is the similarity between very Superior and Mentally Defective categories in terms of percentage of cases included in each?
1. Both are different categories for intelligence classifications.2. Both are extreme categories for differentiating maximally between.3. No similarity at all.4. Smallest percentage of cases belongs to both of these categories.
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160. When the price of a commodity is decreased by 10%, its consumption increase by 10%. The change in the revenue derived from it is K% The value of K is(1) 0 (2) -1(3) 1 (4) 2
161. The average monthly expenditure of a family was Rs.2200 during the first 3 months; Rs. 2250 during the next 4 months and Rs. 3120 during the last 5 months of a year. If the total saving during he year were Rs. 1260, then the average monthly income was(1) Rs. 2605 (2) Rs. 2805(3) Rs. 2705 (4) Rs. 2905
162. In an express train, the number of passengers traveling in A.C. sleeper class, First class and Sleeper class are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3, and the fares to each of these classes are in the ration 5 : 4 : 2 of these classes are in the ration 5 : 4 : 2. If the total income form this train is Rs. 54000, then the income from the A. C. sleeper class is(1) Rs.8000 (2) Rs. 12000(3) Rs. 10000 (4) Rs. 6000
163. Five liters of water is added to a certain quantity of pure milk costing Rs.3 per liter. If by selling the mixture at the same price as before, a profit of 20% is made, then what is the amount of pure milk in the mixture?(1) 20 liters (2) 30 liters(3) 25 liters (4) 35 liters
164. A dishonest hair dresser uses a mixture having 5 parts pure Aftershave lotion and 3 parts of pure water. After taking out some portion of the mixture, he adds equal amount of pure water to the remaining portion of the mixture such that the amount of Aftershave lotion and water become equal. The part of the mixture taken out is(1) 1/3 (2) 1/5(3) 1/4 (4) 1/6
Directions (Qs. 165-168) : Each of these questions consists of a word, followed by four words. Choose the word that is most nearly opposite I meaning to the word given in questions :
Direction (A) and a reason (R) are given in each of these questions :Mark your answer as :
(1) If both a and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.(2) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A(3) If A is true but R is false(4) If A is false but R is true.
169. Assertion (A):India has a tropical monsoon type climate.Reason (R)India is located exactly between the tropical latitudes.
170. Assertion (A):Africa has one of the largest water power potential in the worldReason (R)A large number of hydel power projects have been constructed in Africa.
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171. Assertion (A):Mercury is the farthest planet from the Sun.Reason (R)Mercury is the smallest planet in the entire Solar System.
172. Assertion (A):Ashoka pillars have retained their gloss on their surface.Reason (R)Moisture-laden winds do not blow in the areas where Ashoka pillars are located.
173. Assertion (A):Forest cutting is undesirable from the point of view of soil erosionReason (R)Cutting of forest reduces the interception of rain water.Directions (Qs. 71 to 75): Each of these questions has two statements P and Q. They may look factually absured. You have to ignore this absurdity and concentrate only upon the logic involved therein: Mark your answer as:
(1) If both P and Q are true(2) If both P and Q are false or doubtful(3) If P is true and Q is false or doubtful(4) If P is false or doubtful and Q is true
174. P : Jackals live in forests. Cities are in forests. Therefore jackals live in cities.Q : Some tables are grass. All stools are grass. Therefore all tables are stools.
175. P : Cups play chess. Chess is a difficult game. Therefore cups play a difficult game.Q : Reena is a girl. All girls are timed. Therefore Reena is timid
176. P : Some musicians are not rich. All musicians are polite. Therefore not all polite persons are rich.Q : All musicians are rich. No rich person is polite. Therefore musicians are not polite.
177. P : Some mangoes are apples. All grapes are mangoes therefore all apples are grapes.Q : Some mangoes are apples. All apples are grapes. Therefore some mangoes are grapes.
178. P : All fish can fly. Some fish are birds. All birds are naughty. Therefore some naughty can fly.Q : Some fish are birds. All birds are naughty. Therefore all fish are naughty.
179. Which is the first public sector unit in India to be disinvested?(1) CMC Ltd. (2) Modern Food Industries(3) BALCO (4) Hindustan Zinc Ltd.
180. Which is not a private Indian Bank?(1) UCO Bank (2) ICICI(3) HDFC (4) IDBI
181. Which country has the world’s largest area under pulse crop production/(1) Australia (2) China(3) USA ($) India
182. Which company has announced its plans to launch an electric version of three-wheelers by January 2006?(1) Tata Motors (2) Bajaj(3) Mahindra & Mahindra (4) None of these
183. Which company as introduced 91-Octane petrol EXTRAPREMIUM in India?(1) BPCL (2) Hindustan Petroleum(3) Indian Oil (4) IBP
184. Where are the headquarters of World Trade Organisation (WTO) located ?(1) New York (2) Canberra(3) Geneva (4) Buenos Aires
185. Indian Railways has been ogranised into how many zones?(1) 17 (2) 15(3) 14 (4) 16
186. Of which university, the Kellogg School of Management is a part ?Page | 20
North40%
South30%
East16%
West14%
(1) Columbia University (2) New York University(3) North-Western University (4) None of the above
187. Which is the top country in cotton production?(1) USA (2) India
(3) Pakistan (4) ChinaDirection (Questions 188-191): Study the Table and Pie Chart given below to answer these questions:
S. No.
North East West South
1. Rising prices 87 56 74 832. Joblessness 57 58 69 693. Stagnating Salaries 18 14 6 114. Rental house 7 6 7 65. Scarcity of essential times 9 11 4 26. Bad/very bad standard of
living4 11 3 2
7. Savings rate 17 21 19 138. Pollution 33 28 19 399. Education 41 32 49 2510. Not living better than 5 years
ago41 44 48 24
11. House ownership 45 46 15 51
Total number of respondents is 5000, with percentage distribution among the different zones as shown below:
188. The number of person surveyed having house ownership worries is minimum in the ____ zones.1. North 2. South3. West 4. East
189. What is the percentage of persons surveyed who do not have worries about increase in savings or about pollution?1. 9 2. 193. 29 4. Cannot be determined
190. What I the number of persons having worries regarding rising prices in the four zones put together?1. 3652 2. 38623. 3753 4. 3951
191. What percentage of persons with jobs has worries of ‘Stagnating salaries’ in the South?
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1. 35.5 2. 38.23. 25.7 4. Cannot be determined.
Directions (Qs. 192 to 194): Refer to the pie diagrams given below to answer these questions. The annual average receipts and outlays of the government in 2001-2002 are given in percentage.
RECEIPTS
OUTLAYS
192. The annual corporate income tax and gift tax was what fraction of the total receipts?(1) 1/4 (2) 1/3(3) 1/3 (4) 2/3
193. The ratio of the wealth tax and corporate tax receipts to the interest outlay is(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3(3) 3 : 2 (4) 2 : 3
194. If the amount spent on subsides is Rs. 2403 crore, then the space programmer outlay is approximately1. Rs. 4463 crore2. Rs. 445 crore3. Rs. 6007 crore4. Rs. 3204 crore
195. If the annual receipt is Rs. 26256 crore, then the amount collected by way of customs is approximately1. Rs. 4000 crore2. Rs. 3938 crore3. Rs. 15754 crore4. Rs. 1500 crore
Direction (Qs. 196 to 200) : Each of these questions consists of a statement followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument :
Make your answer as :(1) If Only argument I is strong.(2) If only argument II is strong.(3) If either I or II is strong(4) If neither I nor II is strong.
196. Statement :Should India give away Kashmir to Pakistan?
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gift tax10%
excise10%
individual income tax
14%
customs15%miscellaneous
6%
corporate income tax
40%
wealth tax5%
subsidies7%
defence20%
space programme13%
education13%
interest15%
others12%
health & security20%
Arguments :a. No, Kashmir is a beautiful state. It earns a lot of foreign exchange of India.b. Yes. This would help settle conflicts.
197. Statement :Should India have no military force at all?Arguments :
a. No. Other countries in the world do not believe in non violence.b.Yes. Many Indians believe in non-violence.
198. Should student’s union in universities be abolished?Argument :
a. Yes. Students can pay full attention to their career development.b. No. All the great leaders had been students’ union leaders.
199. Statement :Should higher education be reserved for a deserving few?Argument :
a. No. It will increase unemployment.b. Yes. It will minimize wastage in higher education.
200. Statement :Should those who received dowry despite the law prohibiting it, be punished?
a. Yes. Those who violate the law must be punished.b. No. Dowry system is firmly rooted in the society since time immemorial.
