HLMaritimeTest Operational Common Engine Q

OPERATIONAL Category (Common & Engine) - QUESTIONSNavigare necesse est vivere non est necesse

CO6-OPA 90 Operational - Common

Under OPA 90 a level "A" Oil Spill RemovalOrganisation" (OSRO) has .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

the greatest recovery capability.

recovery capabilities in open ocean water only.

the lowest recovery capability.

provisional status only.

SET010000002648

Under OPA 90 shipboard pollution containersshould be capable of recovering at least ....... barrels of oily waste.

1)

2)

3)

4)

55

20

30

12

SET010000002650

Under OPA 90, the Logistics Section of the IncidentCommand system is divided into the Service Branch and the SupportBranch. The Service Branch is responsible for .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

communication, medical and food.

communication and ground support.

supply, facilities and ground support.

electricity, sanitation and bioremediation.

SET010000002652

Under OPA 90, application of Oil Dispersants to anoil spill must ....

1)

2)

3)

4)

have official approval.

be made within the first 24 - 48 hours after the spill.

have official approval and be made within the first 24 - 48 hours.

be your first response to clean-up procedures.

SET010000002653

Version 1.0.1 , 2014 © Adrian MINCULESCU of 584 Page 1



OPA 90 - the most cost effective and convenientmethod of disposing of oily debris is.....

1)

2)

3)

4)

incineration.

recycling.

landfills.

commutation.

SET010000002654

The Oil Pollution Act of 1990 is .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

an international pollution law.

an equivalent standard of Marpol 73/78.

United States legislation.

only enforceable in the Atlantic Ocean & US Gulf.

SET010000002655

OPA 90 - spills of persistent oils with greater than1.0 specific gravity ......

1)

2)

3)

4)

dissipate with wind and current.

do not readily evaporate and are difficult to recover.

should be easily dispersed with detergents.

should be recovered with skimmers.

SET010000002658

Under OPA 90, a "Worst Case Scenario" includesthe discharge of the vessel's entire cargo during ....

1)

2)

3)

4)

fire or explosion.

the absence of the Master.

grounding.

adverse weather.

SET010000002659




Under OPA 90, the term "OSRO " means .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

Official Safety and Regulatory Organisation.

Oceanic Science Regional Observatory.

Oil Spill Response Organisation.

Offshore Scientific Research Organisation.

SET010000002660

OPA 90 - in the event of a major oil spill, what wouldmost likely happen to a crewmember's job if "unlimited liability" isassessed on the ship?

1)

2)

3)

4)

He would get a contract extension

He will be entitled to one months extra pay

He may be promoted

He would lose his job

SET010000002661

Under OPA 90, the term 'Qualified Individual' means......

1)

2)

3)

4)

An English speaking person available on a 24 hour basis, located in theUnited States, authorised by the owner to activate the vessel's Response

A Project Scientist with exceptional qualifications.

A pollution clean-up specialist appointed by the U.S. Coast Guard and theEnvironmental Protection Agency.

The owner or the operator of the ship.

SET010000002662

Under OPA 90 regulations, oils have been dividedinto ......... different groups based upon their environmental persistence.

1)

2)

3)

4)

6

3

4

5

SET010000002663




Under OPA 90, due diligence describes ....

1)

2)

3)

4)

emergency preparedness.

attention to safety.

good faith effort.

All of the other options

SET010000002664

Regardless of the size of an oil spill in U.S. waters,the following must always be notified.....

1)

2)

3)

4)

the U.S. Coast Guard National Response Center.

the local U.S.Coast Guard captain, Classification Society, Salvage and FireFighting Contractors.

the Oil Spill Response Contractor, Owner or operator, Flag State authorities,P & I club representative.

the IMO coordination Centre.

SET010000002665

Under OPA 90, the Incident Command System is ....

1)

2)

3)

4)

the method used to implement a response to a catastrophic spill under aUnified Command structure.

a computerised system used to record marine accidents.

only adapted by the US Coast Guard personnel for internal use.

the Owners / Operators in house control system.

SET010000002666

Under OPA 90, a tank vessel owner or operatormust make contractual arrangements with ......

1)

2)

3)

4)

oil spill clean-up contractors.

the National Transportation Safety Board.

fire fighting, lightering and salvage contractors.

oil spill clean-up contractors and fire fighting, lightering and salvagecontractors.

SET010000002668




One purpose of the US Oil Pollution Act of 1990 isto ......

1)

2)

3)

4)

enhance the preparedness of shipboard and shore based personnel in theevent of a pollution incident.

restrict the trade of foreign nations.

create an international pollution regime.

limit the access of tankers to US waters

SET010000002669

All tank vessels under OPA 90 are required to carryon board spill recovery equipment of sufficient capacity to ....

1)

2)

3)

4)

combat a worst case spill.

clean up an accidental spill up to 500 barrels.

accommodate oil spilt on deck.

accommodate oil spilt in the Engine Room.

SET010000002672

OPA 90 - tools for mitigation include the ships firehoses. Fire hoses may be used to.....

1)

2)

3)

4)

disperse floating oil.

wash oil from the dock.

prevent floating oil from escaping downstream.

wash oil off the cargo deck.

SET010000002673

OPA 90 - during oil spill clean up, boomingstrategies are most effective to contain spills in....

1)

2)

3)

4)

calm weather conditions in coastal waters.

rough weather conditions in open sea.

areas with waves with medium swells and significant height.

areas close to response centers.

SET010000002674




OPA 90 - the costs of cleaning up a major oil spillcan.....

1)

2)

3)

4)

greatly exceed the cost of the oil itself.

cost shipowners and operators their assets.

lead to prosecution of those involved.


SET010000002675

Under OPA 90, the intentional discharge of 10,000gallons of oil into the sea is best described as.....

1)

2)

3)

4)

willful misconduct.

an operational spill.

a casualty spill.

a worst case scenario.

SET010000002677

OPA 90 response times for salvage and lighteringcontractors are calculated from the time of .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

the occurrence of the oil spill.

the call out.

reaching the pollution scene.

the go ahead signal from the Coast Guard.

SET010000002678

Under OPA 90 regulations, each part of the cargooil or bunkering system not used during fuel transfer or cargo oil transfermust be secured ....

1)

2)

3)

4)

by locking the hydraulic actuators to the respective line valves.

by securing the manual valves tight and padlocking the valve wheels.

with a blank flange.

with a cement box.

SET010000002679




Under OPA 90, all verbal reports regarding an oilspill should be followed....

1)

2)

3)

4)

by obtaining feedback about the action taken.

up in writing to facilitate clear communications.

by the course of action; also, repeated verbal reports are to be made if newinformation is available.

by obtaining feedback about the action taken and by repeated verbal reportsare to be made if new information is available.

SET010000002680

Under OPA 90, concerning the activation of theOSRO or Oil Spill Response Organisation, which one of the statementsbelow is true?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The ship's staff alone is to activate the OSRO directly within 30 minutes afterthe spill, after which the USCG is informed.

The shore management is able to activate the OSRO.

The Harbour Master's office is to activate the OSRO immediately.

The P & I club is to activate the OSRO within 24 to 48 hours.

SET010000002682

OPA 90 - in the event of an oil spill, mooring linescan be used as an interim containment barrier .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

to avoid oil spilled on the deck from escaping overboard via the fish plateopenings.

to contain small oil spills on the open deck.

to keep an oil slick from escaping downstream.

around cargo oil and bunkering manifolds.

SET010000002683

OPA 90 - most important in monitoring the loadingof oil or the bunkering rate is .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

to keep a close eye on the manifold pressure.

to keep close radio contact with the jetty/barge.

that tanks should be sounded very regularly.

that the remote control gauging system is to be observed.

SET010000002684




A tank vessel owner or operator can ensure he hasmet the planning criteria of OPA 90 by .......

1)

2)

3)

4)

employing an OSRO.

contracting sufficient resources to meet the tiered planning guidelines foreach area in which the ship is trading.

having response equipment on board.

trading only in high volume ports.

SET010000002686

With reference to OPA 90, which major port is not ahigh volume port?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Mobile

Port Angeles

New York

St. Croix

SET010000002687

An oil spill removal organisation that candemonstrate a 40,000 barrel per day recovery capability under OPA 90 isclassified as ......

1)

2)

3)

4)

Level "E ".

Tier 1.

Level "A ".

Tier 3.

SET010000002688

Under OPA.90, salvage, fire fighting and lighteringcontractors must...

1)

2)

3)

4)

be members of the U.S. Salvage Association.

be under contract to the US Coast Guard.

be contractually pre-arranged by Owners or Operators.

have tractor tugs available.

SET010000002689




Under OPA 90, when reporting an oil spill to theNational Response Center and a recorded message is heard and you areplaced on hold, your alternate contact should be......

1)

2)

3)

4)

the local directory operator.

the National Transportation Safety Board.

the nearest U.S. Coast Guard Captain of the Port.

your head office.

SET010000002690

Under OPA 90, the penalty for failure to immediatelynotify the appropriate U.S. Government agency of an oil spill is .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

unlimited liability.

a fine of not more than U.S $ 10,000 and/or one year in prison.

partial liability.

ten years in prison.

SET010000002691

OPA 90 - the telephone number of the local USCoast Guard Captain of the Port can be easily found by checking ....

1)

2)

3)

4)

the geographic Appendix in the Vessel's Response Plan.

with the US Coast Guard Information System, Washington DC.

with Lloyds Register of Shipping.

the National Archives.

SET010000002692

OPA 90 - if any telephone numbers listed in theVessel Response Plan are wrong, the correct listings may be found in theUSA by contacting .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

the Oil Spill Removal Organisation.

the National Response Centre.

Ocean Routes.

local directory assistance , 1 + area code + 5551212.

SET010000002693




OPA 90 - a key element of the Incident CommandSystem is.....

1)

2)

3)

4)

reporting..

containment.

recovery.

liaison with government agencies.

SET010000002700

The US Oil Pollution Act of 1990 applies to .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

diesel and kerosene fuels.

petroleum oils.

petroleum, animal and vegetable oils.

black oil.

SET010000002701

OPA 90 - three functions of the Incident Commandstaff are ....

1)

2)

3)

4)

incineration, recycling and disposal.

information, safety and liaison.

fire fighting, lightering and salvage.

command, control and evacuation.

SET010000002703

OPA 90 - who is responsible for the supervision ofcleanup until the Qualified Individual arrives on the scene?

1)

2)

3)

4)

the local agent.

the ship's staff.

the Environment Protection Agency.

the person in charge of oil transfer.

SET010000002705




Under OPA 90 , Group 1 oils are .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

persistent oils.

vegetable oils.

non-persistent oils.

animal oils.

SET010000002706

OPA 90 - under normal conditions a spill of Group Voil will .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

burn.

float.

sink.

disperse with wind and current.

SET010000002707

OPA 90 - the three types of boom are .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

light, medium and low.

light, heavy and double extra strength.

fire fighting, lightering and salvage.

heavy duty offshore, river & harbour, sorbent.

SET010000002708

According to OPA 90 Pollution Response, clean-upof which oil group may involve underwater recovery?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Group III

Group V

Group IV

Group I

SET010000003053




OPA 90 regulations are effective up to .......... milesoffshore.

1)

2)

3)

4)

50

10

200

150

SET010000003054

Under OPA 90 regulations, actuation of Tier Iresponse resources must be made ............. after discovery of discharge.

1)

2)

3)

4)

immediately, in any case not later than 30 minutes

within one hour

within 45 minutes

within two hours

SET010000003055

Basic procedures for bunkering operations on allships require that ............................. should personally supervise allbunkering operations.

1)

2)

3)

4)

the Master

the Chief Engineer

the 2nd Engineer

a responsible person

SET010000003023

Bunkering procedures for all ships require that..................... communication should be maintained with the shore/bargestaff in charge of the transfer.

1)

2)

3)

4)

continuous

frequent

occasional

intermittent

SET010000003024



CO1-Pollution Prevention Requirements STCW Operational - Common

Bunkering procedures on all ships require that thedeck officer on watch is informed prior to the starting of bunkering. This isbecause ............. .

1)

2)

3)

4)

the time needs to be recorded exactly.

he is responsible for all communication with the shore or barge.

appropriate precautions have to be taken by the deck department.

the bunkering flag has to be hoisted and the oil spill recovery team put onstand-by.

SET010000003025

Which of the following is not a "Special Area"according to MARPOL Regulation 10?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Mediterranean Sea area including the Black Sea

Baltic Sea area

Red Sea area

Caribbean Sea area

STCW22E9R8C9J3H

Cross connections between the fuel and ballastsystems are.................. .

1)

2)

3)

4)

allowed at the fuel system manifold in the engine room.

allowed at the fuel system manifold on the main deck.

totally prohibited.

allowed at the ballast system manifold in the engine room.

STCW25VI2DY342J

Ships may only discharge processed bilge waterfrom machinery spaces into the sea if certain very specific criteria arebeing met. Which of those listed below is correct?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The ship is sailing within a special area.

The ship is proceeding en route.

The oil content of the effluent without dilution does not exceed 100 ppm.

The ship has in operation equipment as required by Regulation 16(5) ofAnnex I to MARPOL.

STCW2ATZPLNI83M




The term "segregated ballast" means.......

1)

2)

3)

4)

a ballast system completely separated from the fuel oil system.

a ballast system completely separated from the cargo oil system.

a ballast system completely separated from the cargo and fuel oil systems.

none of the other options.

STCW2EENJM4R25Z

Which of the following pumps is not allowed to havea direct overboard connection to the sea?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Ballast Water Pumps

Engine Room Bilge Pump

Cargo Hold Bilge Pump

Sludge Pump

STCW2H0FEBF8CU6

The entries in the Oil Record Book must be............

1)

2)

3)

4)

in the language of the Captain and in English or French.

in the language of the crew and in English or French.

in the official language of the Flag State and in English or French.

in any language comprehensible by the Port State Control officers.

STCW2LFXY4YLIZV

The Garbage Record Book must be open forinspection at all times and kept for a minimum of...........

1)

2)

3)

4)

six months.

one year.

two years.

five years.

STCW2LLDQRTRKGE




Which MARPOL Annex deals with the Regulationsfor the Control of Pollution by Noxious Liquid Substances in Bulk?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Annex I

Annex II

Annex III

Annex V

STCW2OYP6GDDNPW

The disposal of plastics at sea is..........

1)

2)

3)

4)

allowed anywhere outside the designated Special Areas.

strictly prohibited.

allowed as long as the ship is no less than 12 nautical miles from the coast.

allowed as long as they have passed through a comminutor.

STCW2P32GY6LM5Q

In the USA any food waste being put ashore mustbe delivered in..........

1)

2)

3)

4)

biodegradable sacks.

plastic bags.

cardboard boxes.

sealed metal containers.

STCW2Q0ZBKXLT3G

MARPOL Annex V came into effect from the 1stJuly 1997, for new ships, and from 1st July 1998 for all other vessels. Itaffects ships........

1)

2)

3)

4)

of 400 tonnes and above.



carrying 12 or more passengers.

STCW2V5FBHXI4EN




Which Marpol Annex deals with the Regulations forthe Prevention of Pollution by Oil?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Annex I

Annex II

Annex IV

Annex V

STCW2VRTDQY6XOI

According to the MEPC, Circular No. 235, issued bythe IMO, entitled "Guidelines for systems for handling oily wastes inmachinery spaces of ships", a return line to the bilge or holding tankis..............

1)

2)

3)

4)

strongly recommended for all ships.

required for all ships.

left to be fitted at Owner's discretion.

required for ships of 10,000 GRT and above.

STCW2X6YMW85BL0

What is "relative or specific gravity?"

1)

2)

3)

4)

The mathematical factor needed to calculate the vessel's displacement.

The density of a substance, compared to the density of fresh water.

It is the density of fresh water.

It is the density of sea or salt water.

SET010000003814

What is the principle of Archimedes?

1)

2)

3)

4)

That every body that floats displaces at least twice its own weight in water.

That a floating body becomes unstable, if the density of the water it is floatingin exceeds the specific gravity of salt water.

That every floating body displaces it's own weight of the liquid in which itfloats.

That a floating body must be completely watertight, in order for it to float.

SET010000003815



CO2A-Maintain Seaworthiness - Stability STCW Operational - Common

What is "reserve buoyancy" in relation to a vessel?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The watertight volume of a vessel, which is below the waterline.

The total volume of a fully laden ship.

The watertight volume of the engine room and store rooms.

The watertight volume above the waterline.

SET010000003816

What do you call the effect of the movement ofliquid in a slack tank?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Sideways movement.

Fore and aft movement.

Free surface effect.

The open surface effect.

SET010000003817

What is the equilibrium state of the vessel in thisdiagram?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The vessel is in a state of neutral equilibrium.

The vessel is in a state of stable equilibrium.

The ship is in a state of unstable equilibrium.

The vessel is in a state of semi - equilibrium.

SET010000003818

With a forward draught of 8.00m and an aft draughtof 9.00m, the amidships draught reads 8.30m. What state is the vessel in?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The vessel is sagged.

The vessel is in a normal state.

The vessel is hogged.

The vessel is on even keel.

SET010000003819




What effect does "Hogging," have on a vessel'sdraught?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It makes the amidships draft appear less than it should be.

It causes a vessel to be trimmed by the head.

It makes the amidships draught greater than it should be.

It has no effect on the draught.

SET010000003820


1)

2)

3)

4)

It is in a state of stable equilibrium.

It is in a state of unstable equilibrium.

It is in a state of semi - stable equilibrium.

It is in a state of neutral equilibrium.

SET010000003821

What does fresh water allowance or "FWA " mean?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The maximum amount of fresh water a fully laden vessel is allowed to carry.

The amount of fresh water that may be consumed by each crew memberdaily, during rationing.

The amount the laden fresh water draft must be reduced by, to equal themaximum allowed laden salt water draft.

The amount the vessel may submerge it's maximum salt water draft by, whenloading in fresh water.

SET010000003822

What happens to cause a vessel to be in a state of"Unstable Equilibrium?"

1)

2)

3)

4)

When the metacentre and the centre of gravity, are at the same height abovethe keel.

When a vessel has a very large GM.

When a vessel is rolling very heavily.

When the centre of gravity rises above the metacentre.

SET010000003823




What does the term "Trim" mean?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The difference between the mean draught, and the forward draught.

The state of a vessel on even keel.

The difference between the draught at the forward perpendicular and thedraught at the after perpendicular.

The difference between the mean draught and the after draught.

SET010000003825

What causes a "Free Surface Effect?"

1)

2)

3)

4)

The movement of liquid in slack tanks due to a ship's motion.

A vessel being top heavy.

A vessel having a very large GM.

Pressing up double bottom tanks .

SET010000003826

What are the "effects" of free surface?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It causes an increase in GM, thereby making the ship roll very heavily.

It causes the ship to "go by the head", thus increasing the risk due to heavypitching.

It cause a loss of GM, thereby creating a possibly dangerous situation.

It results in a loss of bouyancy.

SET010000003827

What causes "Sagging" in a loaded vessel?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Improper loading, caused by placing too much weight at either end of theship.

Leaving the fore and after peaks full, when the ship is fully loaded.

This condition is caused by aged bottom plates.

Leaving peak tanks empty, and then loading tanks/holds near to amidships.

SET010000003829




What is the "Centre of Buoyancy of a ship?"

1)

2)

3)

4)

The point through which the force of buoyancy, is considered to actdownwards.

The geometrical centre of underwater volume & the point through which theforce of buoyancy may be considered to act upwards.

It is the centre point of each cargo hold, in a fully laden vessel.

It is the middle point of the watertight volume, above the waterline.

SET010000003831

What does the diagram show, and what does itmean?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A mould of a ship inside in a block, which is used for modeling purposes in ashipyard.

The block coefficient of fineness, which is the ratio between the underwatervolume, and volume of circumscribing block.

A stability model, which is used when calculating GM and other pertinentinformation.

The waterplane coefficient, which is the ratio between the waterplane areaand the area of the circumscribing rectangle .

SET010000003832

What is a "Moment", in terms of stability?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It is the product of force and distance.

The time taken to perform an Inclining Experiment.

It refers to the weight loaded daily.

The consequence of overloading.

SET010000003837

What causes ships to experience "Stresses?"

1)

2)

3)

4)

As long as a ship is properly built and handled , it will never experiencestresses .

When the upward force due to weight at a point, and the downward thrust dueto buoyancy, at the same point are unequal.

Stresses to a ship are mainly caused when it is subjected to forces fromwind, waves and loads.

When the downward force due to weight at a point, and the upward thrust dueto buoyancy, at the same point, are not equal.

SET010000003839




What are the "Stresses" that effect a ship?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Mainly tensile, compressive and bending stresses.

Heavy cargoes such as iron ore, steel billets and other ores with low stowagefactors.

The ageing process of a vessel in heavy weather.

Rust and general wear & tear, when accompanied by poor maintenance.

SET010000003840

What is a "Shear Force" in a ship?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A violent sideways motion in heavy weather, which can cause a vessel toshear violently.

A very powerful wind force, such as that experienced in a tropical revolvingstorm.

A vertical force at the point at which a load is being carried, with the forcebeing the difference between upward and downward thrust.

It is the total weight applied at a recognised "weaker" part of a ship , such aswhere the Main Deck meets the superstructure.

SET010000003841

What is a "Bending Moment" in a ship?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The process of lifting a heavy object, by squatting first, before applying anupward lifting motion with one's arms & legs.

The method of applying a superior force to a metal object, to bend or shapesaid object to the way you want it.

A beam bends by placing weights on either side of it. The "Moment" iscalculated by multiplying the weight applied by the respective distance.

This is another name for hogging, and it occurs when there is too muchweight at either end.

SET010000003842

What is a "Metacentre?"

1)

2)

3)

4)

It is the position between the centre of gravity and the centre of buoyancy.

It is the intersecting point between the vertical lines through the centre ofbuoyancy in the initial and slightly listed positions.

When a vessel heels over so that the low side touches the sea, that point isthe metacentre.

When a vessel is in a vertical position, the metacentre is the point below thecentre of buoyancy.

SET010000003843




Which letters signify the metacentric height on thediagram?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The metacentric height is represented by the letters " BM ".

The metacentric height is not shown on this diagram.

The metacentric height is represented by the letters "GM ".

The metacentric height is represented by the letter " M ".

SET010000003844

What is "the moment of a couple?"

1)

2)

3)

4)

It is the perpendicular distance between the forces forming the couple.

It is the product of one of the forces forming the couple, and the lever of thecouple.

It is the combined strength of the two forces forming the couple.

It is the righting lever that gives a rolling vessel the ability to return to herinitial position, after having been forcibly heeled.

SET010000003846

What is the "formula " for calculating the rightingmoment of a ship?

1)

2)

3)

4)

There is no specific formula for this purpose.

It is the product of the ship's displacement multiplied by the BM.

It is the GM multiplied by the displacement in tonnes.

It is the GZ multiplied by the displacement in tonnes.

SET010000003848

What is an "Angle of Loll?"

1)

2)

3)

4)

It is simply the angle of each variable roll of a heeled vessel.

It is the angle or list a vessel settles at, after a shift of cargo.

It is the period in which a vessel momentarily rests after heeling one way orthe other, before returning to the upright position.

It is the list angle at which a vessel with negative stability comes to rest.

SET010000003852




Which vessels are considered most prone to poorstability?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Timber-carrying vessels, and Fishing vessels in Arctic waters.

Liquefied Natural Gas carriers.

Ships loaded with grain cargoes, that are liable to shift in bad weather.

Ships loaded with tobacco hogsheads /liner board or paper/ or steel coils thatrequire chocking & lashing, and can break free in bad weather.

SET010000003853

What do the letters ML in the attached diagrammean & what is it used for ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It is the metacentric height.

It is a figure showing how an Inclining Experiment is done.

It is the longitudinal metacentre and is used when calculations involving trimare considered.

It is the transverse metacentre and is used with inclinations of heel & list .

SET010000003855

What happens when a weight is loaded off theship's centre line?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The vessel lists momentarily to the opposite side to which the weight hasbeen loaded.

When loading or discharging a weight off the centreline, the shift of G must beresolved into both vertical & horizontal components.

There is a dramatic shift in G, causing the vessel to become momentarilyunstable.

There is no change whatsoever in the stability of the vessel. Everythingremains as it is.

SET010000003856

What is the "Principle of Suspended Weights?"

1)

2)

3)

4)

When a weight is suspended from a ship's derrick, its centre of gravity isconsidered as being at the derrick head.

When a weight is suspended from a derrick, its centre of gravity is consideredas being at the heel of the derrick.

When a weight is suspended from a derrick ever increasing pressure isexerted on the cargo runner and thus it may part.

When a weight is suspended from a derrick, personnel working in the vicinityshould be warned "not to stand under it".

SET010000003857




What is a "Ship's Rolling Period?"

1)

2)

3)

4)

It is the time in seconds taken by a vessel to complete a roll i.e port tostarboard and back to port.

It is the time taken in seconds for a vessel to complete a roll, either tostarboard or to port.

It is the time in seconds between a vessel pitching downwards and returningto the upright.

It is the time in seconds of the downward or upward pitch.

SET010000003862

What is the "Change of Trim?"

1)

2)

3)

4)

It is the term used to describe leveling and bagging grain in a slack hold.

It is the difference between the original trim and the final trim.

It is another term used to describe the change of draft.

It is the moment required to change the trim by one centimetre.

SET010000003866

What is the "Centre of Flotation or Tipping Centre"of a vessel?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It is the exact mid point of the ship, around which the vessel trims as weightsare added or taken away.

It is a fixed known point on the longitudinal metacentre.

It is the point on which the vessel initially rests, when being drydocked.

It is the geometrical centre of the waterplane and also the point about whichthe vessel trims.

SET010000003867

What do the letters "MCTC" stand for?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Movement to Change Tonnage by one tonne.

The Moment to Change Trim one Centimetre.

The Mid Container Terminal Centre.

The Main Change of Trim.

SET010000003868




If the forward draught of a vessel is greater than theaft draught, what state of trim is the vessel in?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The vessel is said to be finely balanced.

The vessel is said to be on even keel.

The vessel is trimmed by the head.

The vessel is trimmed by the stern.

SET010000003870

About which point on a waterline does a vesselchange trim?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Around it's mid point.

Anywhere along the fore and aft line.

The Longitudinal Centre of Flotation.

Around the point at which a weight is added or taken away.

SET010000003871

What is the "True Mean Draught?"

1)

2)

3)

4)

The draught at the Centre of Flotation is considered as the True MeanDraught or the draught the vessel would lie in even keel conditions.

It is the mean of the forward and aft draughts or the amidships draught.

It is the draught between the forward and midships draughts.

It is the mean between the amidship and after draughts.

SET010000003872

What happens when a vessel passes betweenwater of different densities?

1)

2)

3)

4)

If a ship goes from salt water to fresh water, there will be a bodily sinkageplus a small change of trim.

The densities of all waters through which a ship passes are essentially thesame, so nothing happens.

If passing from water of less density to water of greater density, the draughtwill be increased.

The forward draught decreases, whilst the aft draught increases, but themean draught remains the same.

SET010000003875




What does the letter " T " stand for in the diagram?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The Gross Tonnage of the vessel.

The Trim of the vessel.

The Tonnage Mark of the vessel.

The Terminus or most forward point.

SET010000003878

What is "Pressure" in the context of stability?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The maximum force that can be used in filling a tank.

The downward pressure resulting from the weight of individual cargo loads.

The force applied at either end of the vessel, due to improper loading.

Pressure is force per unit area.

SET010000003879


1)

2)

3)

4)

It is in a state of "Neutral Equilibrium".

It is in a state of "Unstable Equilibrium".

It is in a state of "Stable Equilibrium".

It is a vessel in a "Tender State".

SET010000003881

What is the "Centre of Gravity", of an object?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It is the point at which the whole weight of the object may be regarded asacting.

It is always the mid - point of the object.

It is the end point of an object.

It is the point where an object will snap, if it is bent.

SET010000003888




What is the "Ship's Displacement in Tonnes?"

1)

2)

3)

4)

The weight of the ship's cargo.

The weight of all the enclosed spaces.

The actual entire weight of the ship.

The weight of the hull, the machinery and the stores.

SET010000003889

What is the "Volume of Displacement?"

1)

2)

3)

4)

The volume of water needed to fill the moulded hole, if the ship was liftedfrom the water.

Half the volume of water displaced, as a vessel moves through the water atfull speed.

The volume of the cargo loaded or discharged.

The volume of fuel or bunkers loaded for a long ocean passage, together withthe stores.

SET010000003890

How many tonnes are there in 1 cubic metre of saltwater?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1.015

1.008

0.925

1.025

SET010000003891

How many tonnes are there in 1 cubic metre offresh water?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1

0.895

1.012

1.024

SET010000003892




What is "Deadweight"?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The weight of the provisions, stores and bunkers.

The difference between the vessel's loaded and light displacements. It is theweight that a ship carries.

The weight of the vessel's cargo only.

The amount of cargo a vessel is allowed to carry, depending on the Load LineZone she in.

SET010000003893

What do the letters "LBP", stand for in relation to aship?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Lloyds Buoyancy Particulars.

Loadline Beam Position.

Length Between Perpendiculars.

Largest Beam Possible.

SET010000003894

What do the letters "LOA", stand for in relation to aship?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Latest Official Act.

Length Over All.

Longest Objective Attainable.

Largest Outside Article.

SET010000003895

What does "Breadth Moulded" mean in relation to aship?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The maximum breadth measured from outside the plating.

The maximum breadth measured across the hatches.

The maximum breadth measured from inside the shell plating P to S.

The maximum breadth measured from the waterline.

SET010000003896




What is the "Breadth Extreme?"

1)

2)

3)

4)

The maximum breadth measured from outside the shell plating P to S.

The mean of the breadth at # 1 hatch and the breadth at the aftermost hatch.

The maximum breadth measured from inside the plating.

The maximum breadth measured from the inside plating at the bottom of thecentremost hatch.

SET010000003898

What is the "Depth Moulded" in relation to a ship?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The vertical distance from the top of keel to the uppermost continuous deck atside.

The vertical distance from the keel to the main deck.

The vertical distance from the keel, to the top of the centremost hatchcoaming.

The vertical distance from the waterline, to the uppermost deck.

SET010000003899

From the diagram, give the formula for the "KG"value.

1)

2)

3)

4)

KG = KM plus GM.

KG = KM minus KB.

KG = KM minus GM.

KG = KG plus BM.

SET010000003900

What do the letters "LCF" mean in relation tostability?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Left Centre of Flotation.

Light Container Freight.

Longitudinal Centre of Flotation.

Longitudinal Common Factor.

SET010000003901




What do the letters "GRT" mean?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Gross Registered Tonnage.

Grave Reverse Trim.

Ground Rules of Trim.

Grain Regulatory Tests.

SET010000003903

Define "Amidships".

1)

2)

3)

4)

The mid-point of LOA.

The mid-point between the after perpendicular and the forward perpendicular.

Mid-point of maximum beam.

Geometric centre of the waterplane.

SET010000003905

If the angle of heel is less than 10 degrees, what isthe equation for finding GZ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

GM times BM / 3.

GM times Sin(x).

GM times cos(x).

BM times sin(x).

SET010000003908

What does the term "LCB" mean?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Longitudinal Centre of Ballast.

Lowest Centre of Buoyancy.

Lowest Cantilever Beam.

Longitudinal Centre of Buoyancy.

SET010000003909




What is a hydrometer used for?

1)

2)

3)

4)

For testing viscosity.

For testing acidity.

For testing for sulphur content.

For determining the density of a liquid.

SET010000003913

What is the "Range of Stability" on a statical stabilitycurve?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Zero to 30 degrees.

Zero to one radian ( 57.3 degrees ).

Angles of heel where all GZ levers are positive.

Zero to angle of deck immersion.

SET010000003915

Define the "Lightweight" of a ship.

1)

2)

3)

4)

Accommodation weight only.

Stores for the crew and passengers.

The net tonnage.

Displacement minus the deadweight. It is the weight of the ship itself.

SET010000003917

At what angle of heel on a statical stability curve isthe GM plotted?

1)

2)

3)

4)

60 degrees.

45 degrees.

30 degrees.

57.3 degrees.

SET010000003918




What is an "Angle of List?"

1)

2)

3)

4)

The angle of heel where the GM is zero.

A fixed angle of heel caused by a transverse imbalance of internal forceswithin the ship.

The same as the Angle of Loll.

The angle of heel where the deck edge is immersed.

SET010000003919

A stiff vessel will have a GM which is....

1)

2)

3)

4)

large

small

zero

negative

STCW20VAMNJ5XF9

The centre of pressure, on a bulkhead flooded onone side to a depth, h, measured from the bottom, is....

1)

2)

3)

4)

0.1 h

0.25h

0.33h

0.5h

STCW2A5QZJUBCKU

What is a GZ curve used to determine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Displacement

Deadweight

Stability

Buoyancy

STCW2CQB63KY3X8




When a vessel is in neutral equilibrium, the GM willbe....

1)

2)

3)

4)

large

small

zero

negative

STCW2G0HT3XAFHB

What is the intact volume of a vessel above thewaterline called?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Buoyancy

Negative Buoyancy

Reserve Buoyancy

Lost Buoyancy

STCW2H1FLGYDS50

What is a GZ curve used to determine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Displacement

Deadweight

Stability

Buoyancy

STCW2ODSGFLZGPZ

What is the intact volume of a vessel above thewaterline called?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Buoyancy

Negative Buoyancy

Reserve Buoyancy

Lost Buoyancy

STCW2SLVA4FFOVG




The Dock Water Allowance is calculated as aproportion of the.......

1)

2)

3)

4)

fresh water allowance.

freeboard.

summer draught.

winter draught.

STCW2SN6WH3IZX4

What is the horizontal distance between the forcesof Buoyancy and Gravity, acting on a vessel when heeled by wind orwaves, called?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Metacentric Height

KG

KM

Righting Lever

STCW2X8DR2EFU0J

Freeboard is the vertical distance measured fromthe.......

1)

2)

3)

4)

waterline to the keel.

main deck to the waterline.

main deck to the keel.

top of the bulwarks to the waterline.

STCW2ZU52R0YM7S

What stresses are the vessel's structure forward ofthe collision bulkhead stiffened to resist?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Panting & Pounding

Panting & Racking

Water Pressure

Hogging & Sagging

STCW21CN699KY0Y



CO2B-Maintain Seaworthiness - Ship Construction STCW Operational - Common

What is the uppermost continuous hull platingcalled?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Sheer Strake

Garboard Strake

Stealer Plate

Stringer Plate

STCW249DNF63HD7

A perforated flat is part of the structure in the.........

1)

2)

3)

4)

forward hold.

double bottom.

deck house.

fore peak.

STCW2645GGUDKVQ

How are stacked containers prevented from movingin the hold?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By girders

By wire lashings

By portable beams

By cell guides

STCW26M6B5Q5PBI

What are bulkhead stiffeners attached to the tanktop by?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cleats

Brackets

Stays

Chocks

STCW278JCKHTGRO




What is a keel structure constructed to allow pipingto run through called?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Bar Keel

Flat Plate Keel

Box Keel

Duct Keel

STCW28LL4AYTN63

What is the type of rudder shown in the figure?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Unbalanced

Semi-balanced

Balanced

Spade

STCW28N9JK720C8

What is the connecting plate between a side frameand a transverse deck beam called?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Bracket

Gusset

Knee

Stiffener

STCW2A5VE46Q3MD

Gross tonnage is defined as....

1)

2)

3)

4)

earning capacity.

internal capacity.

light displacement.

load displacement.

STCW2AMI14LFWND




What is distortion of a vessel's structure caused byrolling called?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Racking

Slamming

Pounding

Heaving

STCW2BXSNK5KFX8

The lower end of the stem bar of a ship is attachedto a........

1)

2)

3)

4)

stringer

frame

beam

keel plate

STCW2D1CF5M4NBN

What is the pipe which directs the anchor cablefrom the windlass to the chain locker called?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Mooring

Hawser

Spurling

Scupper

STCW2DP06HIM9B9

What is the item shown in the figure?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Stay

Strut

Bulwark Stanchion

Stiffener

STCW2GC8Y17A6B3




What is a vertically welded shell joint called?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Butt

Lap

Seam

Joint

STCW2H2ANL8P4EI

What stress is the connection of frames and beamsat deck level between the bulkheads designed to resist?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Hogging

Sagging

Racking

Pounding

STCW2HAF99HMEOJ

Racking stresses in a ship can be reduced by fittinga good system of......

1)

2)

3)

4)

stringers.

deck girders.

side girders.

bulkheads.

STCW2HKFGS19QWU

What is the minimum number of transversebulkheads required for a vessel with machinery aft?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Three

Four

Five

Six

STCW2HN0MPRTGWE




A General Arrangement drawing gives details of avessel's....

1)

2)

3)

4)

construction sequence

tank capacities

hydrostatic information

layout

STCW2HWX29IKOQX

What is the type of framing shown in the ship crosssection?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Transverse

Longitudinal

Combination

Web

STCW2HZVC0G6T7V

Additional bottom stiffening is required immediatelyaft side of the collision bulkhead to resist........

1)

2)

3)

4)

racking.

panting.

pounding.

hogging.

STCW2IFUYS3J93D

When a vessel is hogging the keel will be in........

1)

2)

3)

4)

sheer.

tension.

torsion.

compression.

STCW2JZ100UOYHP




What is the type of weld shown in the figure?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Fillet

Butt

Vee Butt

Lap

STCW2K3PZ899IDO

In the figure, what is the section marked 4 called?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Flat Bar

Tee

Angle

Offset Bulb

STCW2KSTIDBJLH9

What could the steel section shown in the figure beused to construct?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Tank Top

Hatch Cover

Bulkhead

Steering Flat

STCW2L39S7A1H91

In the figure, what are the items marked 6 called?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Chocks

Bilge Brackets

Knees

Webs

STCW2L9S5UC1Z2W




In ideal conditions, the forward distance a propellerwill move in one revolution of the shaft is the:

1)

2)

3)

4)

Diameter

pitch

slip

circumference

STCW2LGCRVFGPK2

Where is the top of a stern frame connected to avessel's structure?

1)

2)

3)

4)

After Peak Bulkhead

Steering Flat

Transom Floor

Vibration Post

STCW2LY4ZOWZBRN

What is the item of structure numbered 12 in thefigure called?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Boss Plate

Stern Bearing

Stern Post

Stern Frame

STCW2M07BXV2YLJ

What is the item of structure numbered 9 in thefigure?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Deck Plate

Panting Stringer

Foundation Plate

Floor Plate

STCW2NHZURG0L1F




What is a drawing used to identify individual strakesand plates called?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Construction Drawing

Sheer Profile

Shell Expansion Plan

Body Plan

STCW2NI9FC2YT4J

Water is drained from an exposed deck by.........

1)

2)

3)

4)

discharge pipes.

side scuttles.

freeing ports.

drain valves.

STCW2ODF8PR5VO3

The vertical distance measured from the deck lineto the centre of the load line disc is the........

1)

2)

3)

4)

depth.

winter draught.

summer draught.

statutory freeboard.

STCW2OF7ALR1GBZ

What is the vertical distance top to top between theload line marks S and F?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Summer Allowance

Tropical Allowance

Dock Water Allowance

Fresh Water Allowance

STCW2Q4E558G485




Moulded beam is the measurement taken tothe.........

1)

2)

3)

4)

inside of the plating.

outside of the plating.

inside of the frames.

inside of the ceiling.

STCW2QAQ2J7JNSC


1)

2)

3)

4)

Bulkhead

Floor Plate

Wash Plate

Web

STCW2QCC0HYB02M


1)

2)

3)

4)

Breast Hook

Diamond Plate

Bracket

Bow Chock

STCW2S3VKCW88RQ

What is the hinge on which a rudder turns called?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Bolt

Pin

Gudgeon

Coupling

STCW2TRMGCGVVS4




What is the weight a vessel can carry called?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Load Displacement

Gross Tonnage

Registered Tonnage

Deadweight

STCW2TS96FEE1XY

What is the condition in which the greatest poundingstresses in a ship are liable tooccur?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Loaded, beam sea

In ballast, beam sea

Loaded, head sea

In ballast, head sea

STCW2VDAPSOQQU5

Where are panting stresses for a ship most severe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Forward

Amidships

Aft

Between the bulkheads

STCW2VH25XWDOUJ

A vessel in the condition shown in Figure 1will be....

1)

2)

3)

4)

hogging

sagging

racking

twisting

STCW2VOYHJFWKWW




What is the transverse curve of the deck called?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Flare

Rake

Camber

Tumblehome

STCW2VTQ4G6Y8Z1

What is the athwartships cross section structureshown in the figure2?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Box Keel

Bar Keel

Flat Plate Keel

Duct Keel

STCW2X2HPMNW8AG

What is the longitudinal curve of the deck called?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Sheer

Freeboard

Rise of Floor

Rake

STCW2XS9SIQPQZK

To prevent water entering the space below, dooropenings on the weather deck should be constructed with approved........

1)

2)

3)

4)

drains.

sills.

scuppers.

baffles.

STCW2YW3JDPTYD2



CO3-Monitor Compliance With Legislative Requirements STCW Operational - Common

The law of the sea is embodied in the UnitedNations Convention on the Law of the Sea and the.......

1)

2)

3)

4)

London Conventions of 1955.

STCW Convention of 1978 as amended in 1995.

United Nation Conventions of 1958.

Geneva Conventions of 1958.

STCW20WYFRJ2FAI

The MARPOL Annex I regulations for the preventionof pollution by oil apply to which ships?

1)

2)

3)

4)

All Tankers only

Tankers greater than 500 gross tons

All vessels greater than 500 gross tons

All ships, unless expressly provided otherwise

STCW215GHOLZBXO

What sea area is known as "the continental shelf"?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The section that slopes down gradually from the low-water mark to the depth,averaging 130 metres,at which the angle of declination increase markedly.

The sea area to seaward of the Exclusive Economic Zone

The safety zones around artificial islands

The waters surrounding the European continent only

STCW22ILR5RI998

Where would you find a sea area known as the"Contiguous Zone"?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It is an area seaward of the territorial sea within which the coastal Stateenjoys limited jurisdiction

It is a sea area surrounding an archipelago within which the coastal Stateenjoys limited jurisdiction

It is the 200 mile zone seaward of the normal coastal base line

It is the area landward of the territorial sea; that is the estuaries and harbours

STCW287RDQNH30A




In international law the territorial sea forms part of aState's territory.At how many miles does the Law of the Sea Convention set the limit ofthe territorial sea?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Three miles

Six miles.

Twelve miles

Two hundred miles

STCW298PH3G1I38

What do the letters UNCLOS stand for?

1)

2)

3)

4)

United Nations Centre for Loss Prevention Studies, 1985

United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, 1982

United Nations Certificate for Load Line Spaces

United Nations Classification of Ships, 1988

STCW2AOB1APJVI6

The normal base line for measuring the extent ofthe territorial area along the coast, as marked on large scale chartsofficially recognised by the coastal State is..........

1)

2)

3)

4)

the low-water line.

the estuary.

the high-tide line.

the mean high water line.

STCW2BZSXYWMP2O

What is the SOLAS Convention?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The "Voluntary Code for Safety Of Life At Sea."

The "International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea."

The "Convention on Life Saving Appliances."

The "International Life Saving Appliance Code."

STCW2DOKXF89LUZ




What is MARPOL?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The International Maritime Police Convention

Maritime Policies as agreed by the IMO

The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships

The Marine Environmental Protection and Liability Convention

STCW2FT1UN65CZZ

The present SOLAS regulations, unless expresslyprovided otherwise, applies only to..........

1)

2)

3)

4)

ships of war and troopships.

cargo ships in excess of 500 gross tonnage.

ships not propelled by mechanical means.

fishing vessels.

STCW2KDZJATXXP4

What is the meaning of the word "Convention", asused for instance in SOLAS, MARPOL and STCW "Conventions"?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A Convention describes a party of delegates at a meeting.

A Convention is a treaty between States, which have agreed to be bound by itto apply the principles contained in the convention within their sphere.

A Convention explains maritime law based partly on generally acceptedcustomary rules.

A Convention explains the enactment of national legislation giving effect toand enforcing its provisions.

STCW2KPV4WXSXYD

What is a passenger ship?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A ship that carries more than ten passengers

A ship that carries more than twelve passengers

A ship that carries more than six passengers

A ship that carries more than twenty passengers

STCW2MPSGXOILSD




In passenger ships, all watertight doors in maintransverse bulkheads shall be operated....

1)

2)

3)

4)

daily.

weekly.

monthly.

each four-hour watch.

STCW2OEWTNEHP0W

The International Safety Management Code statesthat the company and the.......

1)

2)

3)

4)

company directors shall comply with the requirements of the ISM Code.

port state control officer shall be mentioned in the Safety ManagementSystem.

ship shall comply with the requirements of the ISM Code.

port State shall comply with the requirements of the ISM Code.

STCW2QS40AJ34UV

What is the intention when adopting internationalmaritime conventions and agreements?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To specify flag State jurisdiction.

To empower the International Maritime Organization (IMO).

To provide uniform practice internationally.

To keep up to date with developments in shipping.

STCW2T91M0EEZPI

Which of the following statements is not correct?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Ships must respect established sea-lanes and Traffic Separation Schemes.

A coastal State has jurisdiction over installations and structures within itseconomic zone.

An archipelagos State may designate sea lanes through its waters.

The exclusive economic zone is the sea area within the 12 mile territorial sea.

STCW2ZW9E712SR6



CO4-MARPOL STCW Operational - Common

The discharge of oily mixtures is not allowed withinspecial areas (with the exemption of processed engine room bilge water),unless certain conditions are satisfied. Which of these conditions must besatisfied?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, IV, VI, VII, IX

I, IV, V, VIII, IX

II, IV, V, VII, VIII

II, III, V, VIII, IX

SET010000002899

Which of the areas listed are designated as SpecialAreas by Marpol Annex I ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II, III, VI, X, XI, XIII, XIV

I, III, VI, IX, X, XI, XIII, XIV

I, II, VI, VIII, IX, XI, XIII, XIV

II, III, V, VI, X, XII, XIII, XIV

SET010000002900

According to Regulation 13.3.b, in which of theseexceptional cases can ballast water be loaded into cargo holds oftankers?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, III, IV

II, IV, VI

III, V, VI

I, III, VI

SET010000002908

Existing tankers up to 40,000 dwt which are fittedwith CBTand COW and designated as "Crude Oil/Product Carrier" on theIOPP certificate should operate as which of these?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII

I, II, III, IV, VI, VII, VIII

I, II, III, IV, V, VII, VIII

I, II, III, IV, V, VI VII

SET010000002911




Every oil tanker operating with Dedicated CleanBallast shall be provided with an approved Dedicated Clean BallastOperating Manual. Which of these items must be contained in themanual?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II, III, IV

I, II, III, V

III, IV, V, VI

I, IV, V, VI

SET010000002917

Requirements for Crude Oil Washing demand that anumber of cargo tanks be washed prior to each ballast voyage. Whatnumber of tanks are specified?

1)

2)

3)

4)

One third of the number of all tanks.

All tanks designated as cargo tanks.

Sufficient to increase the ship's draught by at least 3 metres and not exceed a1 metre trim by the stern.

Sufficient to take account of the ship's trading pattern, so that ballast water isnot put into tanks that have not been crude oil washed.

SET010000002920

Every tanker operating a Crude Oil WashingSystem shall be provided with an approved .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

Tank Cleaning Manual.

Safety Operation Manual.

Cargo Loading Manual.

Operations and Equipment Manual.

SET010000002921

Existing tankers in specific trades do not need tocomply with SBT, CBT and COW requirements provided that which ofthese items apply?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II, V, VI, VII, VIII

I, II, III, IV, VIII, IX

II, IV, V, VI, VII, IX

II, III, IV, V, VII, VIII

SET010000002923




The term "tanks with smooth walls" is meant toinclude which tanks?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Centre cargo tanks.

Cargo oil tanks, including the main tanks of oil bulk/ore carriers, even if theyare constructed with framing of small depth.

Tanks with vertically corrugated bulkheads.

All of the other options.

SET010000002931

MARPOL regulations require that the slop tankcapacity is 3 % of the cargo tank capacity. Under which of theseconditions can the slop tank capacity be reduced to 2 or 1.5 %?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, IV, VI

II, IV, V

I, II, VI

I, III, V

SET010000002932

Under Marpol, do the requirements of Oil Retentionand Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment apply to tankers carryingasphalt?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Yes, same requirements as for other tankers

Yes, but no slop tanks required

No, retention of residues on board is required with discharge of allcontaminated washings to reception facilities

No, not a specialised trade, no such requirements apply

SET010000002938

Every new oil tanker which is required to beprovided with SBT or fitted with COW shall comply with which of thefollowing items concerning pumping arrangements and piping?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II, V, VII

I, IV, V, VI

II, III, IV, VII

I, III, V, VII

SET010000002950




Marpol states that a small diameter line is to beconnected outboard of the manifold for the purpose of pumping pipe andcargo pumps drainage to shore receptives. What does "connectedoutboard of " mean?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A connection other than the cargo manifold

A connection fitted adjacent to the ships sides for connection to shore lines orto barges

A connection on the downstream side of the manifold valves on PS and SB

A connection separate from the cargo manifold located more outboard on PSand SB

SET010000002952

The oil record book for machinery space operationsmust be completed on a tank to tank basis whenever which of theseoperations take place?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II, III, VII

I, II, IV, V

III, IV, VI, VII

III, IV, V, VI

SET010000002955

The oil record book for cargo/ballast operations ontankers shall be completed, on a tank to tank basis, whenever which ofthese operations has taken place?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II, III, V, VI, VIII, X, XI, XII, XIII

I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII, IX, X

I, II, IV, V, VII, VIII, IX, X, XI, XII

I, II, III, V, VI, VII, VIII, IX, X, XI

SET010000002956

Regulation 23 of Marpol Annex I is concerned withthe hypothetical outflow of oil from tankers. What is understood by this?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The total accumulated amount of oil discharged into the sea by a tanker

The quantity of the oil spilt which may be caused due to main Cargo pipe orconnecting hose rupture during loading or discharging

The oil discharged into the sea in the case of side damage or bottom damage

The outflow of oil via the pump room sea chests due to untight valve sets

SET010000002962




For the calculation of hypothetical oil outflow, creditshall be given to double bottom tanks, full or empty, when cargo is carriedin tanks above. Partial double bottoms are credited.....

1)

2)

3)

4)

according to the percentage of the cargo tank they cover.

as 0.3 times the percentage they cover.

as non-existent.

as providing sufficient protection for the tanks above.

SET010000002963

The volume of any one centre tank on a tanker shallnot exceed ....................... cubic metres?

1)

2)

3)

4)

40,000

45,000

50,000

55,000

SET010000002965

Under Marpol, the IOPP certificate of any ship mustbe supplemented by...........

1)

2)

3)

4)

endorsements for annual surveys.

endorsements for intermediate surveys.

a record of construction and equipment.

compliance certificates for the oily water separator, incinerator and sewageplant.

SET010000002973

The IOPP certificate shows under whichgovernment authority it was issued as well as .........

1)

2)

3)

4)

the date of build and place.

the date of keel laid and place.

the designation of organisation authorised by the government.

the type of intended voyages by the ship.

SET010000002974




Which of these items are listed in the Record ofConstruction and Equipment for a ship other than an oil tanker?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, III, IV, V, VII, IX

II, III, IV VI, VIII, IX

I, II, III, IV, VI, VII

I, II, III, VI, VII, VIII

SET010000002975

Which of these items are listed in the Record ofConstruction and Equipment for an oil tanker?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II, III, IV, VI, VIII, IX, X, XII

I, II, III, IV, V, VIII, IX, XI, XII

II, III, V, VI, VII, IX, X, XI, XII

I, II, III, IV, V, VII, VIII, X, XI

SET010000002976

Which of these items must be recorded in the OilRecord Book -Part I, concerning the disposal of oil residues (sludges)?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, III, VI

I, II

I, II, VI

II, III, IV

SET010000002981

Which of these items concerning non-automaticdischarge overboard of bilge water from machinery spaces must berecorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, III, VI

III, IV, V

I, II, VI

I, II, III

SET010000002982




Which of these items concerning the operation ofmachinery spaces must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I?

1)

2)

3)

4)

II, III, V, VII

I, II, V, VI

I, III, VI, VII

II, IV, VI, VII

SET010000002983

Which of these items concerning automaticdischarge overboard of bilge water from machinery spaces must berecorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II, V, VI

II, III, V, VII

II, IV, VI, VII

I, IV, V, VII

SET010000002984

What entries must be made in the Oil Record Book -Part I (machinery space operations) about the condition of the OilDischarge Monitoring and Control system?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The time when the system was started and the time when the system wasstopped.

The time when the system was started, the time when it was stopped and theppm of the effluent discharged.

The time when the system was started and stopped, the ships speed and theppm of the affluent discharged.

The time of system failure, the time that it was made operational again andthe reason for failure.

SET010000002985

Which of these items concerning accidental or otherexceptional discharges of oil must be recorded in the Oil Record Book -Part I?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II, V, VII

I, III, IV VI

I, II, III, V

I, II, V, VI

SET010000002986




What entries must be made in the Oil Record Book -Part II (cargo / ballast operations - tankers) about the loading of cargo oil?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Place of loading, loading on top of sludge, loading rate, total quantity

Time of commencement of loading and time of completion, total quantity of oilloaded

Place of loading, type of oil loaded and identity of tanks, total quantity of oilloaded

Place of loading, quantity of cargo loaded and quantity of ballast disposed off

SET010000002987

What entries must be made in the Oil Record Book -Part II (cargo/ ballast operation - tankers) about the internal transfer ofcargo during the voyage?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Total quantity prior to transfer and total quantity after transfer on board,quantity transferred

Identity of tanks involved, quantity transferred and if tanks were emptied.

Time, ship's position, quantity transferred

Time, ship's position and speed, quantity transferred, tanks involved

SET010000002988

Which of these items about crude oil washingoperations must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part II (cargo/ballast operations - tankers)?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, III, IV, VI, VII, VIII, X, XI

I, II, III, V, VII, VIII, IX, XI

I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, IX

I, II, III IV, V, VI, VIII, X

SET010000002990

Which of these items about the ballasting ofdedicated clean ballast tanks must be recorded in the Oil Record Book -Part II (cargo/ ballast operations - tankers)?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II, III, IV, V, IX, X

I, II, IV, V, VIII, IX, X

I, III, IV, VI, VIII, IX, X

I, II, III, IV, V, VII, IX

SET010000002992




Which of these items about the cleaning of cargotanks must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part II (cargo/ ballastoperations - tankers)?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II, IV, V, VIII

I, II, III, VI, VII

II, III, IV, V, VI

II, III, IV, VII, VIII

SET010000002993

Which of these items about the discharge of dirtyballast must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part II (cargo/ ballastoperations - tankers)?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II, III, V, VI, VIII, X, XI

I, II, IV, V, VII, VIII, IX, X

I, II, III, IV, V, VII, VIII, XI

III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII, IX, X

SET010000002994

Which of these items about the disposal of residuesand oily mixtures not otherwise dealt with must be recorded in the OilRecord Book - Part II (cargo/ ballast operations - tankers)?

1)

2)

3)

4)

II, V, VI

I, III, V

I, IV, VI

I, II, V

SET010000002995

Which of these items about the discharge of ballastfrom dedicated clean ballast tanks must be recorded in the Oil RecordBook - Part II (cargo/ ballast operations - tankers)?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, III, IV, V, VIII, IX, X

I, II, III, VI, VII, VIII, X

II, III, V, VI, VIII, IX, X

I, II, III, IV, V, VII, X

SET010000002997




On tankers, segregated ballast tank and clean waterballast systems have reduced the amount of ......

1)

2)

3)

4)

time that the ships spend in port.

time spent cleaning cargo tanks.

time spent on cargo and ballast operations at sea and in port.

oil getting into the sea.

SET010000003013

Pick 3 operations from this list which, whenconducted on tankers, may lead to a pollution incident?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, V, VI

I, III, V

II, IV, V

II, III, VI

SET010000003021

When starting to ballast on non-SBT tankers thereis potential for pollution, in that oil remaining in cargo piping may backflowto the sea via the sea chests. Which of these preventative measuresshould be taken?

1)

2)

3)

4)

II, IV

I, V

III, IV

III, V

SET010000003032

Pump room sea chest valve leaks are a commoncause of pollution on tankers due to leak back of oil in port. Whatpreventive measures must be carried out to prevent any pollution from thiscause?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Put up a static head on the sea chest valves and see if the piping drains offindicating a leak.

Open up the drains on the ballast pump and see that there is a leak withsuction valve of ballast pump open and sea chest valves closed.

The outboard sea valve is tested by opening the drain between the outboardand inboard sea valves which are in series.

The suction filter drain cock or vent cock is to be opened indicating that thereis pressure on the suction line with sea valves closed.

SET010000003034




During all cargo oil loading/discharging or bunkeringoperations as well as during oil transfers, oil spill equipment should be........

1)

2)

3)

4)

kept near the deck manifold and be used in accordance with the chief officer'sinstructions.

readily available in a place known to all crew members for immediate use bythe assigned deck party.

kept in the emergency headquarters to be used in accordance with theinstructions of the responsible person.

kept in the vicinity of the cargo transfer or bunker transfer hoses near themanifold connections and be used if required by the emergency party.

SET010000003037

For oil spill containment on tankers, spilt oil on deckmust be dumped in the slop tank or other receptacle tank. Which of thefollowing arrangements must be checked or maintained?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, III, IV, VI

II, III, IV, V

I, II, III, V

II, III, IV, VI

SET010000003038

Dump valves fitted to manifold trays on tankersshould be ......

1)

2)

3)

4)

connected to flexible hoses fitted to receptacle drums.

checked regularly that they can be easily opened.

tested regularly for leakages.

fitted with caps to ensure that they are not leaking.

SET010000003039

Manifold trays on tankers should be checkedregularly to ensure that......

1)

2)

3)

4)

they are clean, that the dumping drains are free and operational, that watercollected is drained off.

they are clean , they are free of corrosion, that drain plugs are not frozen.

no rust has accumulated in the bottom, that the drain cocks are open.

the stripping suction pipe is free, the suction valve is operational, that nowater has collected in it, that the drain plugs are closed.

SET010000003040




When filling the final cargo tank at the end ofloading on tankers, which of these precautions should be taken in order toavoid pollution?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II, III, V, VII

I, II, IV, VI, VII

II, III, V, VI, VIII

I, II, IV, V, VIII

SET010000003045

After oil cargo loading/discharge or bunkering,draining of shore lines, hoses and loading arms may be done underpressure provided which of these precautions are followed?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, III, IV, VI, VII, VIII

I, II, III, V, VII, IX

II, IV, V, VI, VIII, IX

II, III, IV, V, VII, VIII

SET010000003046

Pollution incidents have been caused by leakingpipe lines (corrosion on bottom), faulty dresser couplings, valve flanges,leaking manometer connections etc. To prevent these what preventiveactions should be taken?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Inspect pipelines frequently.

Change dresser couplings and flange packings, O-rings and seal rings atregular intervals.

Inspect piping in particular on bottom and replace corroded sections, changedresser couplings and flange packings, O-rings regularly.

Hydrostatic pressure tests should be frequently carried out at maximumpressure, including COW lines.

SET010000003047

Which of these items is the recommendedprocedure for testing cargo lines on tankers?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II, IV, VII

I, II, V, VI

II, III, IV, VII

I, II, V, VII

SET010000003048




During Marpol inspections by port state controlinspectors, ships have been detained because .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

the engine room bilges were found dirty.

the engine room bilge lines were found dirty.

the oily water separator filters were found dirty.

the sludge tank was found to be full.

SET010000003050

During Marpol inspections by port state controlinspectors, ships have been detained because .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

an oil film was found in the overboard discharge pipe of the oily bilge waterseparator.

an oily mixture was found in the internals of the bilge pump.

oil was found leaking from the main/auxiliary engines crankcase doors.

lubricating oil was transferred in port.

SET010000003051

Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibitedexcept when some conditions are satisfied. One of these conditions for atanker is that ......

1)

2)

3)

4)

the tanker is within a Special Area.

the tanker is not within a Special Area

the tanker is within a Designated Zone

the tanker is not within a Designated Zone

SET010000002847

Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited,except when some conditions are satisfied. One of these conditions for anoil tanker is that ....

1)

2)

3)

4)

the tanker is more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest land.




SET010000002848



CO5-MARPOL Annex 1 STCW Operational - Common

Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited exceptwhen some conditions are satisfied. One of these conditions for a tankeris that....

1)

2)

3)

4)

the tanker is loaded.

the tanker is in ballast condition.

the tanker is tank cleaning.

the tanker is en route.

SET010000002849

For existing tankers, the total quantity of oildischarged into the sea should be no more than ..................... of the totalquantity of the particular cargo of which the residue formed part.

1)

2)

3)

4)

1/15000

1/25000

1/50000

1/100000

SET010000002850

The instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content ofa tanker shall not exceed.....

1)

2)

3)

4)

30 litres per nautical mile




SET010000002851

For new tankers, the total quantity of oil dischargedinto the sea shall not exceed ................ of the total quantity of theparticular cargo of which the residue formed part.

1)

2)

3)

4)

1/10000

1/15000

1/25000

1/30000

SET010000002852




What is the meaning of the term " CombinationCarrier "?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A general term for vessels carrying more than one kind of cargo, examplereefer-container, log-bulk etc.

A ship designed to carry either oil products or crude oil in bulk or in parcels

A ship designed to carry either oil or solid cargoes in bulk

A cargo ship that has product oil tanks, example palm oil tanks

SET010000002853

According to Marpol, what does the term "oil "mean?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Any grade of crude oil

Any grade of crude oil or fuel oil

Any grade of crude oil, fuel oil or refined products

Petroleum in any form including crude oil, fuel oil, sludge oil, oil refuse andrefined products

SET010000002854

According to Marpol, what is the meaning of theterm "oily mixture "?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A mixture with oil content above 15 ppm



A mixture with any oil content

SET010000002855

Under Marpol, can a chemical tanker be consideredan oil tanker?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No.

Yes.

Yes, when it is carrying petrochemicals.

Yes, when it is carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk.

SET010000002856




According to Marpol, what is the meaning of theterm "oil fuel"?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A cargo of heavy fuel oil , intermediate fuel or diesel oil

A cargo of refined oil for combustible purpose in thermal machinery or boilers

A cargo of refined oil with flashpoint above 60 degree C

Any oil used on board in connection with the propulsion and auxiliarymachinery.

SET010000002857

Does the definition of an "oil tanker " apply to a gascarrier?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Yes, it does

No, it does not

Yes, when carrying chemicals or petrochemicals

Yes, when carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk

SET010000002858

According to Marpol, what does the term "new ship"mean?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A ship for which the building contract was placed after 31 December 1995

A ship for which the keel was laid or was in any similar stage of constructionafter 30 June 1976

A ship which was delivered after 31 December 1979

All of the other options apply

SET010000002859

What does the "instantaneous rate of discharge ofoil content " mean, according to Marpol?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The total quantity of oil discharged at any moment

The total rate of oil discharged per hour divided by 3600

The rate of oil discharge in litres per hour at any instant, divided by the speedof the ship in knots at the same instant

The total quantity of oil discharged, divided by the mileage covered during thetime of discharge by the ship

SET010000002860




What is the best description of a "special area" asdefined by Marpol?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An area with particular traffic characteristics where extra precautions arerequired

An ecological endangered area where no oil mixture is to be discharged atany time

A sea area where, for recognised oceanographical and ecological conditions,and in view of traffic, special prevention is required

A sea area where, in view of its particular dense traffic, no overboarddischarge of any oily mixture is allowed

SET010000002861

What is the meaning of "slop tank" as defined byMarpol?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A tank used for tank cleaning provided with heating coils

Any tank where slops or sludges are collected

The two most aftward fitted wing tanks or the most aftward fitted centre tank

A tank specifically designed for the collection of tank drainings, washings orother oily mixtures

SET010000002862

Which description given is nearest to the descriptionof clean ballast as defined by Marpol?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Its oil content is NIL and consequently would not leave any traces upon thesurface of the water or emulsion beneath the water surface.

If discharged from a stationary ship in clean calm water on a clear day will notproduce visible traces of oil on the water surface nor emulsion below

Its oil content is no more than 50 ppm and will not produce visible traces onadjoining shorelines, nor emulsion in the sea.

Its oil content is no more than 100 ppm and it will not produce visible traceson the shore lines.

SET010000002863

Which is nearest to the Marpol description ofsegregated ballast?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Ballast water that cannot be pumped through cargo oil piping and for whichcargo pumps cannot be used

The ballast water introduced in a tank which is completely separated from thecargo or fuel oil system and permanently allocated to ballast

The clean ballast water which can only be pumped via segregated lines bythe clean ballast pump

The ballast carried in the clean ballast tank, pumped via the segregatedballast pump

SET010000002864




In order for a tanker to be called a "new oil tanker "according to Marpol, the date on it's building contract would read....

1)

2)

3)

4)

after 1st June 1979.

after 31st of December 1980.

after 1st January 1981.

after 1st June 1982.

SET010000002865

Marpol defines Crude Oil as....

1)

2)

3)

4)

a liquid hydrocarbon mixture occurring naturally, whether treated or not,irrespective of whether distillate fractions were removed or added.

a liquid hydrocarbon from which certain distillate fractions were removed.

a liquid hydrocarbon to which certain distillate fractions were added.

a non-treated liquid hydrocarbon mixture from which neither distillate fractionswere removed nor added.

SET010000002866

Every oil tanker of ....... grt and above and everyother ship of ...... grt and above shall be subject to Marpol (IOPP) surveys.

1)

2)

3)

4)

500, 1000

400, 700

250, 500

150, 400

SET010000002867

The initial Marpol (IOPP) survey carried out before aship enters service, in order to ensure compliance with the applicableregulations, shall include.....

1)

2)

3)

4)

a complete survey of all piping.

a complete survey of all wing tanks, centre tanks and slop tanks.

a complete survey of its structure, equipment, fittings, systems arrangementsand materials, in so far as the ship is covered by this Annex.

a complete survey of the associate pumping and piping systems, including oil-discharging monitoring system, oil filtering and separating systems.

SET010000002868




Periodical Marpol surveys are to be carried out atintervals as specified by the administration. These intervals are not toexceed.....

1)

2)

3)

4)

two years.

two and a half years.

three years.

five years.

SET010000002869

At least one survey must to be carried out duringthe validity of the IOPP certificate. This shall ensure that the equipment,pumps and piping systems including ODME are in order. What is thissurvey called?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The Midterm survey

The Intermediate survey

The Annual survey

The Special survey

SET010000002870

If mandatory annual surveys are established by theAdministration, how will it affect unscheduled inspections carried outaccording to Marpol?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The unscheduled inspections shall no longer be obligatory

Only one unscheduled inspection per year is required

Unscheduled inspections are required once every two years

Two unscheduled inspections are required during a 5-year period

SET010000002872

Who may carry out MARPOL Surveys?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Port-State Control Inspectors

Coast Guard Inspectors

Surveyors nominated by Administrations or organisations recognised byAdministrations

Approved ship's officers

SET010000002873




Who may carry out Marpol Inspections?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Officers authorised by the Government having jurisdiction over the port inwhich the ship is located, generally referred to as Port State Inspectors.

Coast Guard officers.

Surveyors nominated by recognised organisations.


SET010000002874

What is the meaning of a "harmful substance" underMarpol?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Oils and fuels

Hydrocarbons in any form

Petroleum products and petrochemicals

Any substance creating harm to health and life or able to damage amenities.

SET010000002875

What does "discharge" means in relation to harmfulsubstances as defined by Marpol?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Pumping, emptying or emitting from a ship.

Spilling, leaking or escaping from the ship.

Dumping or disposal from the ship.

Any release how ever caused.

SET010000002876

What is the meaning of "an incident" according toMarpol?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The actual or probable discharge into the sea of oil or of an oily mixture.

The actual or probable discharge into the sea of a harmful substance oreffluents containing such substances.

The probable discharge into the sea of oil or of an oily mixture.

The actual discharge into the sea of a harmful substance or effluentscontaining such substances.

SET010000002877




Penalties under the law for violation of Marpolrequirements shall be.....

1)

2)

3)

4)

imposed to warn against the global problem of pollution.

adequate in severity to discourage violations and shall be equally severeirrespective of where the violation occurs.

imposed by all countries, the severity depending on where the violationoccurs.

in all cases most severe.

SET010000002878

A new oil tanker of 20,000 tons deadweight andabove, which satisfies the requirements for Segregated Ballast Tanks withprotective location as well as COW, may be designated as a.......

1)

2)

3)

4)

crude oil tanker.

crude oil / product carrier.

product carrier.

petrochemical / product carrier.

SET010000002881

A new oil tanker of 20,000 tons or above, satisfyingthe requirements SBT and PL, but not fitted with COW, should bedesignated as a ................................. on the IOPP certificate.

1)

2)

3)

4)

crude oil tanker

petrochemical tanker

product carrier

crude oil / product carrier

SET010000002882

A new oil tanker of 20,000 tons dwt and above butless than 30,000 tons dwt, NOT fitted with SBT and PL, should bedesignated as a ........................... on the IOPP certificate.

1)

2)

3)

4)

product carrier

crude oil tanker

petrochemical tanker


SET010000002883




A new oil tanker of 70,000 dwt and above, satisfyingthe requirements of SBT, may be designed as a .............................on theIOPP certificate.

1)

2)

3)

4)

crude oil tanker

product oil carrier

crude oil / petrochemical tanker


SET010000002884

How would an existing oil tanker of less than 40,000tons dwt be designated on the IOPP certificate?

1)

2)

3)

4)

As a crude oil tanker

As a crude oil / product carrier

As a crude oil / petrochemical tanker

As a product carrier

SET010000002885

For an existing tanker of 40,000 tons dwt andabove, satisfying the requirements of SBT, what should the designationbe on the IOPP certificate?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Crude oil tanker

Crude oil / petrochemical tanker

Crude oil / product carrier

Product carrier

SET010000002886

Discharge of oily mixtures from machinery spacebilges of tankers is prohibited except when, amongst other requirements,which of the following equipment is fitted?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment

50 ppm Bilge Water Separator with alarm system

15 ppm oily bilge water separator with alarm system

Interface oily water detector

SET010000002888




When shall the IOPP Certificate cease to be valid?

1)

2)

3)

4)

If significant alterations have taken place in the ship's construction withoutsanction.

If significant alterations have taken place to fittings, equipment orarrangements without sanction.

If significant alterations have taken place to materials without sanction.

Any of the other options.

SET010000002889

When alterations to the ship's construction,equipment, materials , fittings or arrangements are carried out withoutsanction, the IOPP certificate ceases to be valid. What is the exception?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Improvement in ship's construction

The direct replacement of equipment and fittings

Modification of arrangements as long as purpose and lay-out does not deviatefrom Marpol requirements

Replacement of monitoring equipment as long as it is approved by theAdministration

SET010000002890

Amongst other requirements, what kind ofarrangement is required for a tanker in order to be allowed to dischargeoily mixtures into the sea?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Double hulls

15 ppm oil filtering equipment

A slop tank arrangement

Segregated ballast tanks

SET010000002892

An oil tanker is prohibited from discharging oilymixtures into the sea except when certain conditions are satisfied. Whichof the conditions mentioned here must be satisfied?

1)

2)

3)

4)

II, III, V, VII, IX, X, XI

II, III, VIII, IX, X, XII

II, IV , VI, VIII, X , XII

I, IV, V, VII , VIII, X, XII

SET010000002893




A ship other than a tanker of 400grt and above, butless than 10,000grt, cannot discharge oily mixtures from machineryspaces, unless certain conditions are satisfied. Which of these conditionsmust be satisfied?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, IV, VI

II, V, VII

II, III, VI

II, IV, VIII

SET010000002894

What is the maximum oil content of a mixture whichmay be discharged into the sea when the ship is not in a special area?

1)

2)

3)

4)

10ppm

15 ppm

50 ppm

100 ppm

SET010000002895

Is it permitted to introduce dillutants or to applyother chemical treatment to oily mixtures prior to discharging these intothe sea?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Dillutants are allowed

Oil dispersants are allowed

Not allowed at all

Concentration of chemicals only 100 ppm

SET010000002896

The Marpol regulations prohibit discharges of oilmixtures at sea. The regulations will not apply if the discharge is the resultof damage arising from which items in this list?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, IV

II, V

III, VI

IV, V

SET010000002902




Marpol regulations prohibit oily mixture dischargesat sea. The regulations do not apply if the discharge is the result ofdamage to the ship or its equipment. What is the exception?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Collision or groundings

Intent to cause damage, or recklessly and with knowledge that damage couldprobably result

Crew negligence

Damage to ship and equipment due to operational error

SET010000002903

It is possible to discharge substances containing oil,approved by the Administration, (eg. oil dispersants) for the purpose ofcombating specific pollution incidents, into the sea. Under which of theseconditions?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II, V

I, III

II IV V

III , IV

SET010000002904

For new tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above, thecapacity of the segregated ballast tanks shall be such that, at any part ofthe voyage, the ships draught and trim meet which of these requirements?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II, IV. VII

I, III, IV, VI

I, II, IV, V

I, IV, V, VII

SET010000002905

New tankers of 20,000 dwt and above shall in nocase carry ballast water in cargo tanks, except when which of thesecircumstances arise?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II

II, V

III, V

IV, V

SET010000002906




For the purpose of determining the capacity of theclean ballast tanks in tankers, which tanks may be included?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Segregated ballast tanks only

Fore and after peak tanks as well as segregated ballast tanks

Cofferdams as well as segregated ballast tanks

Segregated ballast tanks, fore and after peak tanks as well as cofferdams.

SET010000002909

Under which conditions are fore peak tanks, afterpeak tanks and cofferdams allowed to be included in the total capacitydetermination of CBT's for tankers?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Provided an oil separating system of 15 ppm is to be fitted on board

Provided oil discharge monitoring equipment with automatic stop when 15ppm level is exceeded is to be fitted

Provided the protective location of the tanks is ensured

Provided they are to be connected with permanent piping to the ballast watersystem

SET010000002910

If an oil tanker is used for the storage of oil and itsmachinery modified to immobilise the ship, what are the requirements forSBT, CBT, PL and COW?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The requirements for SBT do not apply

The requirements for SBT and PL do not apply

The requirements for SBT, PL and CBT do not apply

The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply

SET010000002914

If an oil tanker is used to receive dirty ballast fromoil tankers, what are the requirements for SBT, CBT, PL and COW?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The requirement for SBT does not apply

The requirements for SBT and PL do not apply

The requirements for SBT, Pl and CBT do not apply

The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply

SET010000002915




One of the requirements for an oil tanker operatingwith Dedicated Clean Ballast shall be that it is equipped with.......

1)

2)

3)

4)

an oil content meter.

segregated ballast tanks and PL.

a crude oil washing system.

two separate slop tanks.

SET010000002916

The regulations for existing tankers for SBT, CBTand COW shall not apply if the tanker is engaged in specific trades,provided reception facilities are existing in ports. What document is to beendorsed?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The bill of lading

The ship's IOPP certificate

The charter party

The oil record book

SET010000002922

Existing oil tankers which comply at all times withSBT draught and trim requirements without the use of ballast water, maybe considered to comply with SBT requirements in full, provided which ofthese items apply?

1)

2)

3)

4)

II, V, VI

I, II, VI

II, IV, V

III, IV , VI

SET010000002924

What is the purpose of Regulation 13 E - Rules forProtective Location of Segregated Ballast Tanks on Oil Tankers?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To reduce the bending moments on tankers.

To reduce the shear forces on tankers.

To facilitate trim and draught corrective operations on tankers.

To provide a measure of protection against oil outflow in the event ofgrounding or collision.

SET010000002925




For Protective Location of Segregated ballast tanks,which of these items apply?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II, VI, VIII

II, IV, VI, VII

III, V VI, VIII

I, III, VI, VII

SET010000002926

Regulation 14 of Marpol states that no ballast watershall be carried in any fuel oil tank. What is the exception?

1)

2)

3)

4)

For exceptionally long voyages, when the ship's bunkers are depleted andweather conditions are deteriorating.

In the event of voyage repairs being carried out on board ships.

Ships with special nature of trade which stay for a long time at sea, forexample: tugs, fishing boats.

If the double bottom fuel tank is ruptured, the fuel tank may be filled withballast if stability requires this.

SET010000002927

Under Marpol, can a ship carry oil in the fore peaktank?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Only tugs

Only fishing vessels

Only tugs and fishing vessels

No, not on any vessel

SET010000002928

Under Marpol, slop tanks shall have the capacity toretain the slop generated by tank washings, oil and dirty ballast residues.Their total capacity shall not be less than ......% of the tank capacity.

1)

2)

3)

4)

3

2.5

1

5

SET010000002929




In an existing tanker, which tanks can bedesignated as slop tanks?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Any tank fitted with overboard discharge facilities.

Any tank closed to the atmosphere and fitted with an oily water separationfilter.

Any tank separated from the ship's side by a distance of at least 3 metres.

Any tank provided with adequate means for collecting dirty ballast residueand tank washings from the cargo tanks.

SET010000002930

At least two slop tanks are required for....

1)

2)

3)

4)

new and existing oil tankers above 150,000 tons dwt.

new oil tankers of 70,000 tons dwt and above.



SET010000002933

Which of these are the requirements for an OilDischarge Monitoring and Control System?

1)

2)

3)

4)

II, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII

I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII, IX


I, II III, V, VI, VII, VIII

SET010000002934

No oil discharge monitoring equipment is to be fittedon tankers if trading in specific areas or within 50 miles from the nearestland, provided that which of these items apply?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, III, IV, V, VIII

I, II, III, V, VII

I, II, III, IV, VII

I, II, III, IV, V

SET010000002937




Under Marpol, any ship of 10,000 tons gross andabove shall be fitted with which of these items of equipment for oily-waterseparation and oily mixture discharges?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I

II

III

IV

SET010000002940

Any ship of 400 tons gross and above but less than10000 tons, which does not carry ballast water in fuel oil tanks shall befitted with a ............... oil filtering equipment for engine bilge discharge.

1)

2)

3)

4)

15 ppm

30 ppm

50 ppm

100 ppm

SET010000002941

Which of these design requirements must be met byoil filtering equipment fitted on ships of 10,000 grt and above?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, III, VI, VII

I, II, III, IV

II, III, V, VII

I, III, V, VI

SET010000002943

In the event of accidental or exceptional discharges(for example allowed discharge in order to save life), a statement shall bemade in the oil record book explaining what?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The amount and the specifications of the oil discharged

The report of the accident indicating precautions

The circumstances of and the reasons for the discharge

The amount discharged and the reasons for it

SET010000002957




Each operation as specified by regulations must benoted in the oil record book without delay and.......

1)

2)

3)

4)

the entries match operations completed, after which it is signed by theMaster.

when the operations are completed, will be signed by the Officer in chargeduring the time of the operation.

the Chief Officer is to sign when the operations are completed and becountersigned by the Master.

will be signed by the Officer or Officers in charge of the operation and eachcompleted page will be signed by the Master.

SET010000002958

Where is the Oil Record Book to be kept on board?

1)

2)

3)

4)

In the Master's cabin

On the bridge

In the ship's office

At a place where it is readily available

SET010000002959

Who can certify true copies of Oil Record Books?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Port Authorities

A Notary Public

The Officers of the Flag State

The Master

SET010000002960

Of the four categories of discharge associated withthe operation of offshore platforms, for which type or types is Marpol73/78 applicable?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Type I and Type IV

Type I only

Type IV only

Types I, III and IV

SET010000002961




Which of the following oils is not an asphaltsolution?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Blending Stocks

Roofers Flux

Solvent

Straight run residue

SET010000002969

Which of the following products is not listed under"oils" in Appendix I of Marpol Annex I?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Clarified

Road Oil

Automotive

Spindloe oil

SET010000002970

Which of the following products is not listed as"gasoline blending stock" in Appendix I of Marpol Annex I?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Alkylates fuel

Flashed feed stock

Reformates

Polymer fuel

SET010000002971

Which of the following products is not listed under"gasolines" in Appendix I of Marpol Annex I?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Fuel oil No 1

Fuel oil No 1 D

Fuel oil No 2

Fuel oil No 4

SET010000002972




The Record of Construction and Equipment has achapter about "Tanks for Oil Residues (Sludges)". What information isrecorded in this chapter?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The location and capacity of the sludge tanks

The capacity of the sludge tanks and the pumping arrangements

The number and capacity of sludge tanks and means of connection to opendeck sludge connection

The total tank capacity and the means for disposal of oil residue in addition tothe provision of sludge tanks

SET010000002978

The Record of Construction and Equipment forships other than tankers contains information in Chapter II about oildischarge from the machinery space and fuel tanks. Which of these itemsare included?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII

II, III, IV, VI, VII

I, II, III, IV, V, VII


SET010000002979

If ships other than tankers have spaces constructedand utilised to carry oil in bulk of a capacity of .......... or more, theregulations of Annex I for oil tankers apply.

1)

2)

3)

4)

100 T

200 cubic metres

400 T

500 cubic metres

SET010000002980

There are 6 annexes to MARPOL 73/78 (Annex I toVI). They deal with pollution caused by........

1)

2)

3)

4)

I = Oil, II = Sewage, III = Garbage, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V =Noxious liquids in bulk, VI = Air pollution.

I = Sewage, II = Noxious liquids in bulk, III = Oil, IV = Harmful packagedsubstances, V = Air pollution, VI = Garbage.

I = Oil, II = Noxious liquid in bulk, III = Harmful packaged substances, IV= Sewage, V = Garbage, VI = Air pollution.

I = Garbage, II = Air pollution, III = Sewage, IV = Harmful packagedsubstances, V = Noxious liquid in bulk, VI = Oil.

SET010000002998




Annex II of Marpol 73/78 deals mainly with......

1)

2)

3)

4)

the construction, ballast procedures, category of ballast and the operationalprocedures of petroleum tankers

the pollution hazards from chemical tankers and their arrangements fordischarge of cargo residues

the labeling and packaging of harmful substances carried as packages

the handling and discharge of garbage

SET010000002999

Annex IV of Marpol, deals with sewage. How does itaffect shipboard operations concerning processing and treatment ofsewage?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It is required by the United States only and an approved sewage plant mustbe installed on board

The regulations are not yet universally in force, but a number of countrieshave adapted them and have stringent regulations

Discharge is for the time being allowed anywhere as long a sewage plant ison board

Only a collecting tank is required for all countries for the time being

SET010000003000

How do the requirements of Marpol stand in relationto national or port regulations?

1)

2)

3)

4)

They are the same for any country which has ratified the Marpol convention

National regulations in the ports visited may be more stringent and must becomplied with.

Only Japan and the United States have additional regulations to be compliedwith.

Only Australia has additional regulations to be complied with.

SET010000003001

Marpol Annex IV concerning sewage is not yet inforce, but a number of countries (for example USA) have adapted it andhave stringent regulations. The regulations concern which of these items?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II, III, V, VII

I, II, IV, VI, VIII

I, III, V, VII, VIII

II, III, IV, V, VI

SET010000003002




Which of these waters are the Special Areas asdefined by Marpol Annex V?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II, III, IV, VI, VIII, X, XIII

I, III, IV, V, VII, IX, X, XIII

I, II, III, V, VII, VIII, X, XIII

I, II, IV, V, VIII, X, XII, XIII

SET010000003003

According to Annex V of Marpol , no garbage canbe thrown overboard inside the Special Areas. Which is the exception?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Paper ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 12 miles offshore.

Glass ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 25 miles offshore.

Paper, metal and glass ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 25 milesoffshore.

Comminuted (ground up) food waste beyond 12 miles offshore.

SET010000003004

Marpol garbage disposal regulations outsideSpecial Areas specify that, within 3 miles from the nearest land and in allinland waters.....

1)

2)

3)

4)

you cannot throw paper, crockery, rags, glass metal or food overboard unlessground to less than 25 mm.

you cannot throw anything overboard.

you cannot throw plastics, dunnage, lining and packing materials that floatoverboard.

you cannot throw plastics overboard.

SET010000003005

Garbage disposal regulations outside special areasspecify that dunnage, lining and packing materials that float......

1)

2)

3)

4)

may not be thrown overboard at any time.

may be thrown overboard outside 25 miles offshore.



SET010000003006




Garbage disposal regulations outside special areasspecify that paper, crockery, rags, metal , glass and food may be thrownoverboard within 3 to 12 miles offshore, provided it is ground to less than......... in size.

1)

2)

3)

4)

5mm

30 mm

25 mm

10mm

SET010000003007

Garbage disposal regulations outside special areasspecify that plastics......

1)

2)

3)

4)

cannot be thrown overboard within 25 miles offshore.



cannot be thrown overboard at any time.

SET010000003008

Garbage disposal regulations outside special areasspecify that paper, crockery, glass, metal, food and rags, bigger in sizethan 25 mm may only be thrown overboard outside .......... miles offshore.

1)

2)

3)

4)

25

12

3

10

SET010000003009

Outside special areas there are three ways ofdisposing of garbage produced on board ships. From this list, choose thethree ways?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II, IV

II, III, V

I, III, VI

I, IV, V

SET010000003011




Which of these items should be included in an onboard pollution prevention training program?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II, V, VII

II, III, IV, VI

I, IV, VI, VII

I. III, V, VI

SET010000003017

To prevent pollution you should look at how theoperations that may lead to pollution are conducted on board your shipand ask yourself 3 questions. What are these questions?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, III, V

I, II, III

I, II, V

II, IV, VI

SET010000003019

There is potential for pollution when starting to takeballast on non-SBT tankers, because oil may backflow into the sea via thesea chests. In order to prevent this, which notice should be placed on theballast pump?

1)

2)

3)

4)

START PUMP BEFORE OPENING SEA SUCTION

ENSURE PIPING IS CLEANED PRIOR STARTING PUMP

FLUSH PIPING THROUGH PRIOR TO TAKING BALLAST

START PUMP WITH DISCHARGE VALVES CLOSED

SET010000003033

In order to contain oil spills Gutter Bars (Fish Plates)should be regularly inspected to make sure that......

1)

2)

3)

4)

they are correctly fitting.

the fastenings are not worn.

they have not developed cracks or holes.

the coating is intact.

SET010000003041




Tank overflows while loading oil cargo or bunkeringare one of the most common causes of oil pollution. Which five of theseitems are the main preventive measures against tank overflow?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II, III, VI, VII

II, III, V, VI, VII

I, III, IV, V, VI

II, IV, V, VI, VII

SET010000003042

Topping off during oil cargo loading or bunkering isa most critical operation. Which five of these precautions or actions mustbe taken?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I, II, III, V, VIII

I, III, V, VI, VII

II, IV, VI, VII, VIII

II, III, V, VI, VIII

SET010000003043

During Marpol inspections by port state controlinspectors, ships have been detained because.......

1)

2)

3)

4)

no up to date deck port log was kept.

no pollution placards were posted.

no electrical drawing of the oily bilge separator alarm was posted.

no instructions to operate the oily bilge water separator were posted.

SET010000003049

These items are standard inspection items forMarpol, as given in guidelines to inspectors and surveyors. Which itemdoes not belong?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Item II - does not belong

Item V - does not belong

Item VI - does not belong

Item VII - does not belong

SET010000003052



CO7-ISM Code STCW Operational - Common

What is the ISM or International SafetyManagement Code?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An international management code for the safe operation of ships and forpollution prevention as adopted by the IMO.

The International Ship Management Association's code for navigationalsafety.

The international code for accident prevention and safe working practices.

The international code for transportation of cargoes safely on board ships, asregulated by Marpol Annex III.

SET010000002749

Under the ISM Code, what is understood by theShipping Company or "The Company"?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The Owner

The Manager

The Bareboat Charterer

Could be any of the other options.

SET010000002750

What is meant by a "Safety Management System"?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A system which eliminates all causes for accidents or near misses on boardship.

The implementation on board ship of emergency response training bydocumented training methods.

A documented shipboard system which lists each and every known shipboardhazard to safety, health and the environment.

A structured and documented system enabling personnel on board toimplement the company safety and environment protection policy.

SET010000002751

Under the ISM code, what is meant by a non-conformity?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Lack of comfort leading to health risks.

Not conforming with safe working practices which may lead to accidents.

A situation which indicates the non-fulfillment of a specific requirement.

A situation where safety awareness or safety equipment is lacking.

SET010000002752




What is meant by a major non-conformity under theISM code?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A fire or explosion hazard or any hazard which poses a threat to life.

A serious threat to the environment due to the discharge of oil, chemicals ortoxic substances from the ship.

A total lack of discipline on board whereby the authority of the master isdiminished.

A deviation from the ISM code which poses a serious threat to safety of theship or personnel or to the environment.

SET010000002753

The safety management objectives of the Companyshould, among other things, include .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

continuous improvement of safety management skills of personnel includingpreparing for emergencies related to safety and environmental protection.

hiring of outside training companies to conduct on-board safety training of itsshipboard personnel.

holding life boat drills on alternate lifeboats where boats are lowered into thewater every week.

conducting a campaign on board against smoking and introduce smoke freeareas on board.

SET010000002756

The safety management objectives of the Companyshould, among other things, provide for .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

shipboard trainers hired from outside the Company who have the requiredqualifications.

safety working shoes, winter underwear, safety torches and parkas.

safe practices in ship operation and a safe working environment.

supply of all safety equipment within one month of requisition date.

SET010000002757

Safety management objectives of the Companyshould, among other things, establish .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

a dictatorial regime on board.

a cooperative and informative atmosphere on board.

sources of information concerning operational pollution prevention for jointdepartmental use and consultation in case of emergency.

safeguards against all identified risks.

SET010000002758




The SMS (Safety Management System) shouldensure, among other things, that applicable codes, guidelines andstandards recommended by ........................... are taken into account.

1)

2)

3)

4)

the IMO, and Flag-State administrations

Classification Societies

maritime industry organisations


SET010000002759

The Safety Management System should ensure inthe first place....

1)

2)

3)

4)

that the life saving appliances are well maintained on board.

compliance with mandatory Rules and Regulations.

that all Marpol requirements are complied with.

that Boat and Emergency Station Bills are posted.

SET010000002760

The ISM code aims to ensure that safe practicesare taken into account in ship operation through .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

written procedures and work instructions.

training by qualified instructors.

videos and books.

regular on board inspections by the Company's shore based personnel.

SET010000002761

The ISM code aims to ensure that safe practicesare taken into account in ship operation through written procedures.These requirements include the following information:- ......

1)

2)

3)

4)

the defined levels of authority and lines of communication between andamongst shore and shipboard personnel.

the procedures for reporting accidents and non-conformities with theprovisions of the Code.

the provisions to prepare for and respond to emergency situations andprocedures for internal audits and management review.


SET010000002762




The functional requirement for a SafetyManagement System is to develop, implement and maintain a systemwhich includes the following :- ....

1)

2)

3)

4)

1) maintain a correspondence system ship/shore 2) issue the requiredLetters of Instruction (Fleet Letters) to the ship.

1) a safety and environmental protection policy 2) instructions andprocedures to ensure safe operations and protection of the environment.

1) safe navigation and Rules of the Road 2) instructions to masters and chiefengineers 3) office staff home telephone numbers.

1) contact addresses and telephone numbers of Port-State Control ofcountries visited 2) contact addresses of Flag State authorities.

SET010000002763

Under ISM, the Company should establish...................... to describe how the objectives of the ISM code will beachieved.

1)

2)

3)

4)

a safety and environmental policy

company regulations

company newsletters

circulation of informative guidelines

SET010000002764

Under the ISM code the Company must ensure thatthe Safety and Environmental Policy is ....

1)

2)

3)

4)

known and implemented by all masters and chief engineers.

known by all ships officers.

known and implemented by all Officers and members of the ships crew.

known and maintained at all levels of the organisation both ship based as wellas shore based.

SET010000002765

The safety objectives and requirements of aCompany may be .......................... standards required by the ISM code.

1)

2)

3)

4)

set above

deviating from

a substitute for

set below

SET010000002766




A Company's safety management objectives andrequirements, which are set above the standards of the ISM code, shouldbe ....

1)

2)

3)

4)

totally disregarded since not enforceable.

encouraged and supported.

erased as far as excessive standards are concerned.

discouraged.

SET010000002767

It is the responsibility of the Company to define anddocument the company's .................................., which forms an integralpart of the Safety Management System.

1)

2)

3)

4)

trading policy objectives

legal policy objectives

ethics and environment objectives

safety management objectives

SET010000002768

Under ISM, the holder of the DOC or Document ofCompliance is the company which......................... the ship.

1)

2)

3)

4)

owns

has chartered

has mortgaged

has assumed responsibility for the operation of

SET010000002769

Under ISM, can a company contract with thirdparties to manage specific ship related activities such as manning,technical support or maintenance?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Yes, it is allowed.

No, it is not longer allowed.

Yes, only for manning.

Yes, only for technical support and manning, not for maintenance.

SET010000002770




Under ISM, if the Company has subcontractingarrangements for manning, technical support or maintenance, how manyDocuments of Compliance are to be issued?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Only one DOC can be issued to the Company.

One DOC is issued to the Company and one for each subcontractor.

One DOC is issued to the company and one DOC is issued to the manningcompany only.

One DOC is issued to the Company and one DOC is required for themaintenance as well as for the technical support company, not for manning.

SET010000002771

Under ISM, any responsibility imposed on theCompany by the ISM Code which is subcontracted......

1)

2)

3)

4)

becomes the responsibility of that subcontractor.

remains the responsibility of the Company.

becomes the joint responsibility of the Company and the subcontractor.

is to be defined contractual as to who has the responsibility beforehand.

SET010000002772

Under ISM, during assessment for issue andcompliance with a DOC the auditor must be satisfied that the company isin control of.....

1)

2)

3)

4)

the subcontractors' insurance system.

all activities concerning the Safety Management System which have beensubcontracted.

the subcontractors' personnel and resources.

the financial portfolio of the subcontractors.

SET010000002773

Under ISM, the company should define anddocument the responsibility, authority and interrelation of all personnelwho manage, perform and verify work relating to and affecting safety andpollution prevention. How?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By wall posters in the accommodation of the affected ships.

By notice sheets to be posted on the notice boards in the Crews and OfficersMessroom.

By legal notices in the media, defining the Company Board responsibility andcommand flow chart.

By charts and/or job descriptions to identify positions related to safety andpollution prevention activities for each functional area.

SET010000002774




Under ISM, what is the role of the DesignatedPerson as defined by the ISM Code?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To inspect the ship at least once every six months and to report all mattersconcerning safety and environmental protection to the management.

To write the safety manuals and to follow up on all safety related requisitionsrequested by the ship.

To ensure the safe operation of each ship and to provide a link between thecompany and those on board.

To monitor and if necessary to build up better safety relationships betweenthe Authorities and the ship's staff.

SET010000002775

Under ISM, what kind of support is to be providedto the Designated Person in order to carry out his functions?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An executive salary and a company car

Adequate resources and shore based support

Freedom to travel worldwide at will


SET010000002777

Under ISM, the responsibility and authority of theDesignated Person should include.....

1)

2)

3)

4)

being a member of the Board of the Company.

having overall control over all company departmental heads.

monitoring the safety and pollution prevention aspects of the operation ofeach ship.

final control over all shipboard operations and maintenance activities.

SET010000002778

Under ISM, what qualifications are required by theDesignated Person?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A university degree

Twenty years seagoing experience

A master's certificate

Appropriate knowledge and experience associated with verification andcontrol of safety and pollution prevention requirements of the ISM code

SET010000002779




Under ISM, is shipboard presence required by theDesignated Person?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Frequent lengthy stays on board are required

Every 2 to 3 months

As may be necessary

Is not required at all

SET010000002780

Under ISM, who is responsible for implementing theCompany's Safety and Environmental Policy on board?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The Designated Person

The Master

The senior Officers

The entire crew

SET010000002781

Under ISM, which methods can the Master use toimplement the Company's Safety and Environmental policy?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Implementation of all existing IMO and Marpol rules

At his own discretion taking into account the trading pattern and the workloadon the ship, as well as weather conditions

As defined and documented by the Company

He should discuss the methods to be used with the senior officers and theshipboard safety committee

SET010000002782

Under ISM, how could it be assessed whether ornot the Master has effectively implemented the Safety and EnvironmentalProtection policy as defined by the Company?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By the state of cleanliness on board

By judging the morale of the officers and crew on board

Through interviewing officers and crew

By looking at the lifeboats, fire fighting equipment and at the oily waterseparator

SET010000002783




Under ISM, what methods should be used tomotivate the crew to observe the Safety and Environmental protectionpolicy?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Ensure that the crew understand how they will personally benefit from theimplementation as well as encouraging perception of ownership.

Ensure that the crew understands the dangers present on board and theheavy fines to be paid for pollution.

Ensure that the crew understands that they will be dismissed and will have topay their own air fare if they do not observe the policy.

Ensure that copies of the Company's policy are given to all shipboardpersonnel.

SET010000002785

Under ISM, the Master must implement theCompany's Safety and Environmental policy and should issue appropriateorders and instructions in a clear and simple manner. How should this tobe done?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By calling the ship's complement together and give short orders in clearEnglish.

By telling each and every crew member what to do exactly in a clear voice.

By Standing Orders, Bridge night order book, as examples.

Tell what is expected in a casual and amicable way during social gatheringsto officers and crew.

SET010000002787

It is the Master's responsibility to verify that thespecific requirements (procedures and instructions) regarding the SafetyManagement System are observed. Who should actually verify this onboard?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The Master

The Master and Officers

The Designated Person.

The Chief Engineer

SET010000002788

What are the best means of verifying that specifiedrequirements (procedures and instructions) regarding the SafetyManagement System are observed?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By inspecting the Deck and Engine work book daily by the Master.

By computerising all specified requirements and have an officer assigned asinput controller.

By use of a check list for verification of actions/activities of crew members.

By dividing the responsibility amongst officers who have to keep their ownSafety Work Book.

SET010000002789




It is the Master's responsibility to review the SafetyManagement System and report its deficiencies to ......

1)

2)

3)

4)

the Classification Society.

the Port State control of the next port of call.

the Flag State authorities.

the shore based management.

SET010000002790

The Master's review reporting on the SafetyManagement system should include any deficiencies and may include......

1)

2)

3)

4)

proposals for corrective action and recommendations for improving the SMS.

a list of unsatisfactory crew members who are not to be rehired by theCompany.

a list of keen and safety and environmental aware crew members who are tobe promoted.

the officer's and crew's appraisal reports.

SET010000002791

Whenever the Master, in his role as the responsibleperson for on-board safety, finds a deficiency in the Safety Managementsystem relevant to the ships operation, he should....

1)

2)

3)

4)

make note in the log book of this deficiency.

inform the P & I club.

correct the deficiency and make note of the correction applied in the officiallog book.

inform the Company.

SET010000002792

When should the Master review the SafetyManagement System and report to the Company?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The Company should set a standard interval for such reviews

Prior to change of command

Whenever there is a deficiency noted on board

Prior to the arrival of the external auditor every year

SET010000002793




Should the Master's authority be emphasized in theSafety Management system?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The overriding responsibility of the Master is self evident and need not to berepeated in the SMS.

The Company should ensure that the SMS operating on board the shipcontains a clear statement emphasizing the Master's authority.

The Master is to be mentioned as the juridical person in command of thevessel.

The Master is to be mentioned as the Responsible Person in charge ofimplementing the SMS.

SET010000002794

Under ISM, the overriding authority of the Masterapplies....

1)

2)

3)

4)

in emergency and extreme circumstances.

in normal circumstances.

in case of oil spill clean-ups.

in both normal and extreme circumstances.

SET010000002795

It should be checked that the Company hasdocumented that the Master has overriding responsibility and authority asrequired......

1)

2)

3)

4)

by the International Association of Classification Societies.

by the Company's Main Policy Objective.

by the SOLAS Convention.

by the Shipowner's Trust Fund.

SET010000002796

Verification of the Master's qualifications should bedone firstly by....

1)

2)

3)

4)

medical examination.

drug and alcohol test.

interview of the candidate with emphasis on safety and environmentalawareness.

confirmation of the validity of his certificates in compliance with the STCWconvention.

SET010000002798




The Company should ensure that the Master isinformed of all requirements relating to safety and environmentalprotection by......

1)

2)

3)

4)

reminding him time to time.

having the Designated Person sent on board at specified intervals.

including such requirements in operating instructions.

having the Superintendents prepare monthly information sheets.

SET010000002800

The Master is to be fully conversant with theCompany's SMS and should be informed of all requirements throughformal meetings with the......

1)

2)

3)

4)

shore management.

Port state inspectors.

senior Classification Society surveyors.

P & I club representatives.

SET010000002802

The Master must be given the necessary support sothat he can perform his duties safely. If the Master reports deficiencies inthe SMS, the company should......

1)

2)

3)

4)

make financial assistance available to the Master to correct the deficiencies.

call in outside contractors to look at these deficiencies and rectify/repair thesame.

reward the Master for his diligence.

respond to identified deficiencies in the SMS.

SET010000002804

The Company should ensure that each ship ismanned with ........................ seafarers in accordance with national andinternational requirements.

1)

2)

3)

4)

safety conscious and diligent

intelligent and healthy

drug and alcohol abstaining

qualified, certified and medically fit

SET010000002805




Manning requirements and qualifications are part of................. with which the Company should be familiar.

1)

2)

3)

4)

the shipping business

the manpower industry

National and International requirements

crew management responsibilities

SET010000002806

The Company should establish procedures toensure that personnel transferred to new assignments related to safetyand environment protection are given familiarisation training. What aredefined as new assignments?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Another ship

Promotion

A different job


SET010000002809

Instructions which are essential must be identified,documented and given to newly assigned personnel prior to sailing. Whatare "essential instructions"?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Those that clearly define the crew members role within the SMS and insurethat they are prepared prior taking up their duties on board

SMS manual extracts, the safety manual to be read by each incomingcrewmember

The role in the shipboard organisation, dayworker or watchkeeper, whichwatch assigned to.

Allotting crew cabin, linen, towels, instruction as to use of messrooms andbathrooms

SET010000002810

Familiarisation for personnel transferred or on newassignments could be accomplished by.......

1)

2)

3)

4)

on board training in a supernumerary capacity.

observing overlap while vessel in port.

visual aids such as manuals, operating instructions and videos.


SET010000002812




The choice and level of detail to assistfamiliarisation to new or newly assigned crewmembers will depend upon....

1)

2)

3)

4)

the rank of the newly assigned crewmember.

the intelligence quotient of the newly assigned crewmember.

the individual experience with the new assignment and the jobresponsibilities.

the age of the seaman and the number of years worked at sea.

SET010000002813

If individuals require essential familiarisation prior tosailing....

1)

2)

3)

4)

it will be the Master's duty to assess as such and initiate a training program.

then the company should identify such requirements and develop anappropriate plan.

they cannot take shipboard duty at all until they prove themselves qualified forthe job.

they should serve a full contract of at least ten months in a lower rank prior totake up the new position.

SET010000002814

The Company should ensure that all personnelinvolved in the SMS have an adequate understanding of relevant rules,regulations, codes and guidelines. How could such information becommunicated?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Through written instructions.

Described in the job responsibilities.

Formal discussions with company representatives.


SET010000002815

The Company should identify the individual(s)having the responsibility to define training needs appropriate to specifictasks, taking into account....

1)

2)

3)

4)

previous training, experience and required proficiency in operation of the ship.

familiarity with new equipment, familiarity with equipment when transferred todifferent type vessel.

drills for emergencies, results of internal auditing.


SET010000002816




The Company should establish procedures for theship's personnel to receive relevant information on the SMS and theamount of documentation should be determined by......

1)

2)

3)

4)

the size of the Company.

the requirements of the Charterers.

whatever is necessary to ensure that all appropriate shipboard personnelunderstand their respective roles.

the type of vessel and the trading pattern.

SET010000002817

.Under SMS, sufficient instructions in a suitablelanguage need to be verified, as well as ensuring an understanding ofthem by the crew. How can this be verified?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The crew is to be recruited in English speaking countries or will have to passand examination.

Videos on the correct pronunciation of English need to be available on board.

The crew must be proficient in their own national language and have basicunderstanding of the language in use on board.

By witnessing an exercise.

SET010000002818

Concerning the ability of the ship's personnel tocommunicate effectively in the execution of their duties related to theSMS, documented evidence must be available......

1)

2)

3)

4)

on the procedures required for effective communication and what verificationis carried out on board.

on the educational level of each crewmember.

on the medical examination of each crewmember.

on the ability of each crewmember to read and write in English.

SET010000002819

When developing plans and instructions for keyshipboard operations with safety and pollution prevention as primaryobjectives, the focus is on......

1)

2)

3)

4)

economy.

finance.

prevention.

response to accidents.

SET010000002820




Procedures for key shipboard operations shouldhave safety and pollution prevention as primary objectives and shouldinclude, among other things.....

1)

2)

3)

4)

methods to lower the lifeboats.

measures to mitigate identified risks.

efficiency of the propulsion machinery.

accuracy of the trim and stability calculations.

SET010000002821

Concerning developing plans and instructions forkey shipboard operations, it is expected that the Company has identifiedrisks associated with......

1)

2)

3)

4)

the shipping industry's cost structure.

the carriage of liquid oil cargoes in bulk.

the particular type of vessel and it's trade.

drugs and alcohol misuse.

SET010000002823

Which of the following tasks and occurrences canbe excluded as possible risks to the safety of the ship and pollution of theenvironment?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cargo shifting, collision, explosion

Fire, flooding, grounding

Inerting, tank cleaning, gas freeing

Heavy weather damage, loss of propulsion, loss of steering

SET010000002824

The Company should establish procedures toidentify, describe and respond to ...................emergency shipboardoperations.

1)

2)

3)

4)

potential

theoretical

assumed

occuring

SET010000002826




A company is expected to have documentedemergency procedures applicable for use onboard the particular type shipbeing operated, including the duties and responsibilities of thecrewmembers and......

1)

2)

3)

4)

the methods of rescue available.

shipboard communication methods available.

the methods of reporting casualties to the Authorities.

the ways of combating a worst case scenario.

SET010000002827

In addition to routine drills prescribed inInternational and National regulations, drills should also include......

1)

2)

3)

4)

emergency situations such as identified potential emergency shipboardsituations.

fire drills in port.

boat drills at sea.

diving exercises under the ship.

SET010000002828

The scope of drills should exercise the company'sashore and on board personnel and develop familiarity with a particularemergency. Documented evidence of drills should exist whichdemonstrate.......

1)

2)

3)

4)

that all the kinds of drills were carried out.

that the ships staff has followed the correct procedures in notifying the shorestaff.

that the Company has been able to respond effectively.

that all shore staff, office staff and subcontractors, manning agents and repairoutfits were effectively involved .

SET010000002829

The Company should have available shoresideorganisational structure, resources means and procedures forcommunications and equipment for responding to a shipboardemergency. This means that......

1)

2)

3)

4)

a very large communications network is required.

the Company needs offices spread out over the globe.

a 24-hour contact has to be available.

the office is to be staffed by Emergency Response Teams 24 hours a day.

SET010000002830




The SMS should include procedures ensuring that.................... are reported to the company, investigated and analysed withthe objective of improving safety and pollution prevention?

1)

2)

3)

4)

illness and injury

cargo operations and ballast operations

non-conformities, accidents and hazardous situations

crew changes

SET010000002831

The Company should have ................. forresponding to non-conformities identified from internal audits and duringroutine operation of the ship.

1)

2)

3)

4)

printed labels

inventory cards

a toll free telephone number

procedures

SET010000002832

The Company should establish procedures toensure that the ship is maintained in conformity with the provisions of therelevant rules and regulations and with....

1)

2)

3)

4)

the cooperation of the Master.

the approval of the London Salvage Association.

any additional requirements which may be established by the Company.

the by-laws of the relevant P & I club.

SET010000002833

Objective evidence is required to confirmconformance with established maintenance requirements, inclusive.....

1)

2)

3)

4)

of a computerised planned maintenance system.

of a computerised maintenance program for diesel engines.

of documented procedures and instructions for the onboard work routines andverification of their implementation by the appropriate personnel.

of keeping work record books and inventories of deck and enginedepartments up to date.

SET010000002834




Under the SMS, as part of shipboardresponsibilities, there should be routine inspections of.....

1)

2)

3)

4)

all machinery and ships equipment in use.

the accommodation.

machinery, ships equipment and structural integrity of the ship.

all crews belongings, luggage and items stowed in crew cabins.

SET010000002835

Shipboard personnel, as part of day to dayoperation of the ship, should be expected to correct non-conformitieswhenever possible. In this respect, what are "Non-Conformities"?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Damage.

Defects, malfunctioning.

Deficiencies.

Any one the other options.

SET010000002836

The Company should have procedures establishedfor corrective action. Corrective actions involve solutions which......

1)

2)

3)

4)

guarantyee that there is no recurrence of a non-conformity.

may reduce or prevent occurrence of a non-conformity.

investigate who was at fault and put the blame on the person(s) involved.

punish the persons guilty of neglect without taking any other actionafterwards.

SET010000002837

The Company should establish procedures underSMS to identify equipment and technical systems of which the suddenfailure may result in hazardous operations. Once identified......

1)

2)

3)

4)

a rigid maintenance program is to be established for this equipment.

tests and other procedures should be established to ensure reliability.

it must be ensured that each and every component of these systems andequipment is carried as spare on board.

these items are checked at least once a week by the Master.

SET010000002838




The testing and maintenance of stand by equipmentand inactive systems associated with alternatives should be part of theCompany's maintenance plan. Example of tests are......

1)

2)

3)

4)

operation of alarms and emergency shut-downs.

pre-arrival and pre-departure tests.

emergency and safety equipments tests (eg EPIRB, VHF, CO2 detectors).

Any or all of the other options.

SET010000002839

The Company should establish and maintainprocedures to control all documents which are relevant to the SMS. TheCompany should ensure that: 1) ................. 2) ................ 3) .....................

1)

2)

3)

4)

1) Valid documents are available 2) Changes to documents are reviewed andapproved by authorised personnel 3) Obsolete documents are removed

1) Documents are in the Master's safekeeping only 2) Documents areauthorised by the Classification Society 3) Documents are authorised by P & I

1) Documents are kept confidential by the Master 2) the Master reviews thedocuments 3) the Master implements the contents of documents.

1) Documents are approved by authorised personnel 2) Documents are to bereviewed by the Master 3) Documents are to be kept safe.

SET010000002840

The documents used to describe and implement theSMS may be referred to as the......

1)

2)

3)

4)

Ship Management Manual.

Safety Management Manual.

Shipboard Instruction Manual.

Ship Maintenance Manual.

SET010000002841

The Company should carry out ................................to verify whether safety and pollution prevention activities comply with theShipboard Management System.

1)

2)

3)

4)

inspections by third party consultants

external safety audits

drydock Inspections

internal safety audits

SET010000002842




SMS Management reviews should be initiated atleast by......

1)

2)

3)

4)

recommendations based on statutory/classification surveys and outdatedSMS in the light of new rules/ regulations brought in force.

analysis and investigation of accidents, results obtained due implementationof SMS.

changes in the market strategy, social and environmental conditions.


SET010000002843

Personnel carrying out audits should be...................... the areas being audited.

1)

2)

3)

4)

experts in

familiarised with

independent of

very conversant

SET010000002844

A .................................. should be issued for everyCompany complying with the requirements of the ISM code by theAdministration, or by the Organisation recognised by the Administration .

1)

2)

3)

4)

Safety Management Certificate

Document of Compliance

International Shipmanagement Certificate

Safety and Environmental Protection Certificate

SET010000002845

When verified that the Company and its shipboardmanagement operate in accordance with the approved SMS, a .................should be issued to the ship by the Administration or organisationrecognised by it.

1)

2)

3)

4)

Document of Compliance

Safety Management Certificate

Credibility Certificate

Certificate of Responsibility

SET010000002846



EO1-Use Hand and Power Tools for Fabrication and Repair STCW Operational - engineer

What is the fastening device shown at the left sideof the drawing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A beam clamp.

An angle iron fastener.

A frame clamp.

A support fastener.

SET010000001776

What is the measuring instrument shown on the lefttop ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An outside calliper.

An outside pipe calliper.

A Dornier calliper.

A Vernier calliper.

SET010000001784

What is the accuracy of the measuring instrumentshown on the top left ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1/10th to 1/20th millimetre

1/20th to 1/25th millimetre

0.1 to 0.5 millimetre

0.1 to 0.25 millimetre

SET010000001785

Suppose you need to draw a circle of 186 mmdiameter on metal or on a packing sheet. How would you do this using thecompass shown top centre ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Measure 186mm on packing, draw 2 lines through the centre.

Set opening of compass legs to 93 mm using a steel ruler.

Indicate straight line with points 0mm, 93mm and 186mm on packing.

Project first a hexagon on packing or steel plate.

SET010000001787




What is the accuracy of a micrometer shown topright ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0.1 to 0.2 millimetres.




SET010000001789

What is the measuring device shown at the bottom?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A tracing instrument.

A right angle plane tracer.

An angular tracer.

A 90 degree angle projector.

SET010000001790

What is the measuring device shown in the top andwhat is it used for ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A thread gauge. To measure thread size on bolts and studs.

A bolt thickness gauge. To measure the size of bolts.

Thread thickness gauge. Measure clearance of bolts and nuts.

Thread wear down gauge. Measures wear-down on bolts / nuts.

SET010000001791

What measuring device is shown in the bottom leftcorner ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A pipe calliper.

An inside tracer.

An adjustable inside calliper.

A bore calliper.

SET010000001792




What is the purpose of the calliper shown in thebottom left corner ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Measuring piston ring gaps.

Measuring fuel pump lifts.

Measuring inside diameters of hydraulic pipes.

Measuring inside diameters or gaps.

SET010000001793

What is the measuring device shown in the rightbottom corner ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A flange calliper.

A pipe calliper.

An adjustable pipe calliper.

An adjustable outside calliper.

SET010000001794

How will the tool shown at the top be powered if it isto be used on tankers ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By battery power, 12 Volt maximum.

By AC power 110 Volt, 60 Hz maximum.

By compressed air 8.5 kg/cm2 maximum.

By compressed air 3.5 kg/cm2 maximum.

SET010000001821

For what are RECOIL-LESS HAMMERS used ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To assemble tight fitting parts.

To chisel deep grooves in metal.

To hammer on ring spanners.

To test the foundation bolts of engines.

SET010000001828




What kind of tool is shown top left and for what is itused ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A ratchet spanner / Used on main engine piston crowns.

A torque spanner / Used on foundation bolts.

A forged torque spanner / Used to hammer nuts.

A forged ring spanner / Used to be hammered by a sledgehammer.

SET010000001834

What is the tool shown upper right ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A bearing cap-wrench.

A purifier assembly wrench.

An orifice removal wrench.

A hydrant wrench.

SET010000001835

What tool is shown bottom left and for what is itused ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Articulated socket wrench/ Out of centre extension.

Square ratchet wrench / 45 degree out of line wrench.

Flexible socket spanner / For sunken nuts removal and fitting.

Flexible ratchet wrench / As extension for ratchets.

SET010000001836

What kind of tool is shown right bottom and intowhat does it fit ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A bar wrench / It fits into exhaust gas pipe fastening bolts.

An angle wrench / It fits into cylinder cover plugs.

A socket bolt wrench / It fits into Allen Bolts (Allen keys).

A torque wrench / It fits over nuts.

SET010000001837




What kind of wrench is shown upper left ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An adjustable spanner.

A spring wrench.

A Stillwell adjustable wrench.

A Stilson wrench.

SET010000001838

What kind of tool is shown upper right ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A Stilson wrench.

A pipe wrench.

An adjustable nut wrench.

An adjustable vice grip wrench.

SET010000001839

What is the tool shown bottom left ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A ratchet spanner.

A flexible ring spanner.

A forged flexible star-spanner

A torque ring spanner.

SET010000001840

What kind of tool is shown top right ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A star spanner, double forged.

A mechanic's spanner.

A common bolt spanner, double forged.

A double ended open jaw spanner.

SET010000001842




What is the tool shown top left ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A flat mechanic's double spanner.

A double ended ring spanner.

A double flat spanner.

A forked double spanner

SET010000001843

What kind of tool is shown bottom left ? How can itbe extended ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A star spanner / Extended by torque bar.

An open spanner / Cannot be extended.

A double hexagon spanner / Extended by rod.

A single ended ring spanner / Extended by a pipe or tube.

SET010000001844

What kind of tool is shown bottom right bottom ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A combined open ended spanner and socket wrench.

A flat ratchet spanner.

A socket wrench forked spanner.

A single ended forked ratchet wrench.

SET010000001845

What kind of assembly does the upper left pieceand the upper centre piece make ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A socket wrench assembly.

A ratchet spanner.

A ratchet lever assembly.

A ratchet torque assembly.

SET010000001846




What kind of tool is shown on the bottom left cornerof the picture and when is it used ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A rod spanner / For cylinder cover tightening.

An extended spanner / When the nut is found frozen.

A hexagon fork spanner. / To apply extra force when tightening.

A pinchbar spanner / When there is no side space available.

SET010000001848

What kind of tool is shown bottom centre ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An adjustable pocket spanner.

A pipe wrench.

A shifting spanner.

A Stilson wrench.

SET010000001849

On what equipment should the wrench shownbottom right be used ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

On bolts and nuts.

On broken studs.

On large diameter pipes and shafts.

On electric motor couplings.

SET010000001850

The tools shown here are ................?

1)

2)

3)

4)

engineer's tools.

electrician's tools.

duty engineer's and watchkeeper's control room tools.

welder's tools.

SET010000001851




What is the tool shown top left called and by whomis it mostly used ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Welding rod pliers / fitters and welders.

Manometer curved pliers / engineers.

Instrument long nose pliers / Automation and control engineers.

Curved long nose pliers / Electricians.

SET010000001852

What is the tool shown top right and by whom is itused ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Combination pliers / For general use.

Electrician's pliers / By the electrician.

Mechanical pliers / By the engineers and fitters.

Flat nose pliers / By the electrician.

SET010000001853

What is the tool shown bottom left and by whom is itused ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Inside circlip pliers / By engineers.

Outside circlip pliers / By engineers.

Round point pliers / By electricians.

Eye nose pliers / By the electrician.

SET010000001854

What kind of tool is shown bottom left ? What is itsuse ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Mason's chisel / To break up cement boxes.

Blacksmith's chisel / To cut steel bars and rods.

Hot chisel / To cut bolts and nuts.

Cold chisel / A general purpose cutting and splitting tool.

SET010000001856




If the welding torch and the oxygen/acetylenepressure regulators are fitted in the engine room workshop, to whatshould they be connected ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The oxygen and acetylene bottles.

Oxygen and acetylene pipe lines.

Gas bottles depending the material to weld.

Safety valves.

SET010000001863

When igniting the welding torch, how would youproceed ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Open acetylene, ignite, than adjust flame with oxygen.

Open oxygen and acetylene, than ignite

Open acetylene, ignite, open oxygen than adjust flame

Ignite whilst controlling acetylene, open oxygen, adjust flame

SET010000001864

What is the gas welding equipment shown right side?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A heavy duty welding torch.

A blow-by torch.

A cutting torch.

An illumination torch.

SET010000001865

How should oxygen and acetylene bottles betransported. ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

In a safety net, well secured..

In a special provided stand with clamps.

With the caps secured by gas-tight tape.

In an upright position.

SET010000001866




Depending on the plate thickness to be cut youshould increase ................?

1)

2)

3)

4)

the acetylene flow.

the oxygen flow.

the oxygen and the acetylene flow.

the nozzle size.

SET010000001867

If you are welding in the workshop, you must ensurein advance that the bridge is told and that .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

the Chief Engineer is informed as well.

the emergency fire pump is started.

the fire extinguishers of the engine room platform are not expired.

the fire alarm for the workshop platform is switched off.

SET010000002139

What is the function of this hydraulic stressing toolwhen fastening and unfastening bolts/nuts on an engine ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To fasten or unfasten the nut.

To press the part to be fastened together or down so that the nut can betightened by hand.

To apply pressure on cylinder head or bearing so that the bolts/nuts can betightened by hand.

To elongate the bolts at required stress value so that the nuts can betightened to the position to ensure correct pre-tensioning.

SET010000002427

The "scleroscope" is used to determining ...........

1)

2)

3)

4)

the "hardness " of a metal..

the "thickness" of a metal.

the "brittleness" of a metal.

the existence of cracks in metal.

SET010000002469




Which of these four screws is a fillister head screw?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No 1

No 2

No 3

No 4

SET010000002605

What type of screw is No. 2 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A hexagon head screw.

A button head screw.

A flat head screw.

A fillister head screw.

SET010000002606


1)

2)

3)

4)




A flat head screw.

SET010000002607


1)

2)

3)

4)



A flat head screw.


SET010000002608




For cutting hard materials, metal saws with............................... blades should be used ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

large pitch.

small pitch.

sharp angle teeth.

dual angle teeth.

SET010000003155

When starting to tap a hole, how is the processchecked for perpendicularity?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By sighting.

By spirit level.

By try square.

By straight edge.

STCW20K1N28GGBN

What general name is given to files which removemaximum metal in the shortest time?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Single cut .

Draw file.

Double cut.

Bastard.

STCW217KM30OJSW

The figure shows welded tee joints. Whatpreparation is required for No.2 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Single bevel

Double bevel

Double V

Double U

STCW219SD31LKRC




When fitting new bottom ends to a small dieselengine, the bottom end bolts have no locking devices. Which of thefollowing should be fitted.

1)

2)

3)

4)

Taper pins

Bifurcated taper pins

Parallel pins

Split pins

STCW21FT6AFI774

The sketch shows the rollers for a pyramid rollingmachine. Which is the idler?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No.1

No.2

No.3

No.4

STCW21FZCVB3XTN

What device is fitted to prevent component gasesmixing in hoses?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A relief vale.

A stop valve.

A by-pass valve.

A hose check valve.

STCW21X2OHTRESM

The diagram shows four types of machine screws.Identify the cheese head screw.

1)

2)

3)

4)

No.1

No.2

No.3

No.4

STCW21Y5JTTWC7J




Identify the powered hand tool No. 2 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Drill

Grinder

Screwdriver

Input wrench

STCW21ZXEEJEVEI

Perspex is an example of a thermoplastic, How isthis best heated prior to bending?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Heat in an oven.

Heat in boiling water.

Flame heat.

Hot air stream.

STCW2232YUQ5SGQ

It is required to make a drip tray. What machinewould be used?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Powered brake press.

Rolling machine.

Hand operated folding machine.

Nibbler.

STCW225D2WAYACK

In readiness for use, a good scraper would have it'scutting edges?

1)

2)

3)

4)

GroundOil stoned

GroundOil stoned

HonedSand stoned

PolishedSand stoned

STCW23CA31SB6J2




A method of joining two plastics together is bysolvent welding. What is this process?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Application of a thin film of adhesive to joining surfaces.

Adhesive is applied and dissolves the plastic material being joined.

A heating tool is applied with pressure to required join.

A high frequency current is applied to clamps at the join.

STCW23GRTCMGCC7

When gas cutting a mild steel plate, what does thesize of nozzle used depend upon?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Thickness the of plate

The gases used

Impurities in the material

Gases remaining in the cylinder

STCW23KJ3AMFFGO

The sketch shows a partially completed knocked upjoint made from 0.5 mm plate. Which direction of bending completes thejoint?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No.1

No.2

No.3

No.4

STCW23VWX0W819K

.A short box girder is fabricated from 8 mm steelplate. What edge preparation is required for No.2 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

None.

Single bevel Closed corner.

Double bevel closed corner.

Double U.

STCW24348JWGQ7J




Welding fumes can be dangerous. When welding inthe workshop how is welding rendered safe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By respirator.

By extraction.

By ventilation.

By extractor welding gun.

STCW24BEWAWC5PN

Which set of equipment is required to mark out thekeyway of a 30 mm diameter shaft?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Porthole glassSlip gauges

Dial gaugeVee block

Polish flat barSlip gauges

Surface plateVee block

STCW24SOIBVKSZO

A blind hole in a valve casing requires to be tapped12 mm. Which tap(s) would be used?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Plug.

Second and plug.

Taper and plug.

Taper, second and plug.

STCW25O6RCE5Q9P

For the fillet weld shown, what is the throat length?

1)

2)

3)

4)

ad

ae

Db

af

STCW25UZ4V98JIM




A crankcase weld requires detailed inspection whileon passage. How would this be carried out?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By x-ray.

Visually.

By dye penetrant.

By magnetic particle.

STCW25VUPBQ11D5

Which gas is NOT commonly used as a fuel whencutting steel plate?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Propane.

Acetylene .

Natural gas.

Helium.

STCW274OZYVC11J

When bonding together two metal components,what is the correct sequence?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Clamp together.Add activator to epoxy resin.

Add activator to epoxy resin.Clamp together.

Clean and rough surfaces.Add activator to epoxy resin.

Clean and rough surfaces,Add activator to epoxy resin.

STCW27KKW1W3ZAL

When gas welding, which is the most likely cause ofa serious accident?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Touching hot metal.

Flying sparks.

Leaving torch on floor.

Not extinguishing when finished.

STCW284GA0BVUBA




For the square pyramid float component shown,which is the correct development?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No.1

No.2

No.3

No.4

STCW28D2G7HUUXW

Which of the materials listed can be cut using anoxygen fuel gas mixture?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Bronze.

Stainless steel.

Cast iron.

Mild steel.

STCW28GVIKAQ4KF

What is the limiting factor of a visual inspection of aweld?

1)

2)

3)

4)

There is none.

It will not show if penetration is correct.

It will not indicate blow holes.

It gives an indication only.

STCW28KXJQG1BLJ

When working with bonded resins what is theiruseable pot life?

1)

2)

3)

4)

2 to 3 minutes.

4 to 6 minutes.

9 to 10 minutes.

11 to 14 minutes.

STCW28P49ZNMOR7




What general name is given to files used forfinishing?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Single cut .

Draw file.

Second cut.

Smooth.

STCW28RR0WK54Y3

Which column gives the correct factors for a cleancut edge preparation?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Flame adjustment.Speed of travel.



Flame adjustment.Angle of nozzle to plate.

STCW28Z3ZCWKU2D

Which of the following size nominations is mostcommonly used?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Actual size.

Basic size.

Nominal size.

Limit of size.

STCW29C2GAELYN4

What is the plate thickness limit for hand-operatedfolding machines?

1)

2)

3)

4)

2.5 mm

3.0 mm

3.5 mm

4.0 mm

STCW29S6HY373IP




Which system uses a tungsten electrode, causingan arc between itself and the metal to be cut?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Electric arc cutting.

Molten arc cutting.

Arc cutting.

Plasma arc cutting.

STCW2A350NYT9H7

A repair to a compressor requires a plate of theform illustrated to be designed. Which illustration is dimensioned to bethe correct standard.

1)

2)

3)

4)

No.1

No.2

No.3

No.4

STCW2AHSI5XTMIT

The speed and feed for a 20 mm diameter reamerwould be?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Same as a drill.

75% less than a drill.



STCW2AJGOG8COP1

A scriber should not be used for marking out?

1)

2)

3)

4)

When material is copper.

When material is to be bent.

When material is to be hot worked.

When material is plastic.

STCW2B72M2B3DMD




Hoses are easily damaged and require special carefor long life, but what are they reinforced with?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Canvas.

Cotton.

Nylon.

Wire.

STCW2BQI32QE7QV

The diagram shows four types of socket headscrews. Identify the socket shoulder screw.

1)

2)

3)

4)

No.1

No.2

No.3

No.4

STCW2BSP0IZXHC0

What dictates the size of drill hole required prior tocutting an internal thread?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The core diameter.

The outside diameter.

The thread form.

The thread pitch.

STCW2C1G5V9CY5N

When welding at a bench, which list of equipmentwould be used?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Leather glovesLeather apron

Leather glovesBoiler suit



STCW2C206HD4B8P




Which of the following effects could be reduced ifhand powered tools were used?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Over familiarityUse of safety glasses

FatigueLoss of concentration

DistractionUse of hard hat

Injury to handsTools correctly sharpened

STCW2CQ627O6TPU

What effect will an undersized vee width have onthe form produced?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Outside bend may fracture.

Inside bend may fracture.

Outside bend may be scuffed.

Inside bend may be polished.

STCW2CW5NQWZXN9

Which correctly identifies a full acetylene cylinder ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

170 bar right hand thread black colour.

170 bar right hand thread blue colour.

15 bar left hand thread maroon colour.

7.5 bar left hand thread red colour.

STCW2DECFF7EA0Q

Which material is difficult to weld due to porosity?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cast iron.

Low carbon steel.

Medium carbon steel.

High carbon steel.

STCW2DJAANZ9SJH




When out of use temporarily, how should theworkshop surface plate be stored?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Covered with grease.

Covered with a wooden cover.

Wiped with an oiled rag.

Covered with a cloth sheet.

STCW2DU3I35JI8S

A 1.3 m long slot is to be marked off on the floorplate but only a 300 mm straight edge is available. How is this overcome?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By using a cardboard template.

By using a piece of wood.

By using a length of tape.

By using a chalk line.

STCW2E4QZERXZWY

What is the softening temperature for PVC?

1)

2)

3)

4)

100°C

105°C

110°C

115°C

STCW2EM9XYFMLPD

Which type of examination reveals pin holes, slaginclusion and lack of fusion?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Dye penetrant.

Visual.

Fluorescent penetrant.

Macroscopic.

STCW2F428WSUD3I




What is a trammel used for?

1)

2)

3)

4)

For cutting out joints

For scribing large circles

Substitute if dividers are unavailable

For marking off pipes

STCW2F5V7SR3EOF

A frustrum of a hexagonal pyramid is shown. Whichdrawing goes to the left of the figure in third angle projection?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No.1

No.2

No.3

No.4

STCW2F82H2IU515

What is the effect of low pressure cutting oxygen?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Combustion will not occur.

Melting point will not be reached.

The melt will not be blown out.

The cut will be ragged at edges.

STCW2F9VSUL8Q0U

The Vernier protractor gives an angular accuracyof?

1)

2)

3)

4)

7 minutes of angle.

5 minutes of angle.

1 minute of angle.

3 minutes of angle.

STCW2FPQFVSBD3I




Dimensions are read from the bottom of the drawingbut if this is not possible what is the next choice?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Turn drawing clockwise 45. reading from RH side.

Turn drawing anti-clockwise reading from RH side.

Turn drawing anti-clockwise reading from LH side

Turn drawing clockwise reading from RH side

STCW2FQCUOJH2FM

After sharpening a twist drill, which points are themost important to check?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Web sizeRake angle

LandOverall length

Clearance angleChisel edge angle

Flute lengthFace of drill

STCW2G7H4XSRAMA

When fitting a blade into a hacksaw, which directionshould the teeth be pointing relative to the handle?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Towards the handle.

Towards if blade is fitted at 90 degrees to normal

Towards if blade is fitted at 180 degrees to normal

Away from the handle.

STCW2GHDT9AS04A

In the following gas flame temperatures, which isthe oxy-acetylene?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1880°C

2770°

2820°

3200°C

STCW2GIM105RNBA




During a plasma cutting process the workpiece wasnot totally penetrated. What would be the most likely problem?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Speed of cut too high.

Speed of cut too low.

Current is too high.

Metal is too porous.

STCW2GPTBUZPRNN

What is shown in No. 1 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Small circle guide.

Roller guide.

Spade guide.

Radius bar.

STCW2GR4B6L5R95

How does the brake press differ from the otherforming machines?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Uses rollers

Uses male and female formers

Can pierce only

Can crop only

STCW2GX3FLBQBP4

When using third angle projection, viewing thecomponent from x, which drawing will be above the front elevation?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A

B

C

D

STCW2HCSBBX2SJN




A flashback arrester has been triggered. Which isthe correct sequence to follow after this event?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Ascertain cause of activationClean, if necessary

Clean, if necessaryCheck equipment

Ascertain cause of activationCheck equipment

Check equipmentOpen up flashback arrester

STCW2HF5WRGIEDO

When self-secured joints are to be made, which toolis most useful?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A press.

A folder.

Tin snips.

A rubber headed hammer.

STCW2HVXQ3O5CNX

Which table best describes the flexible hacksawblade?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Only teeth hardenedReasonably non-rigid

Only teeth hardenedEasily broken if misused

Only teeth hardenedEasily broken if misused

Only teeth hardenedReasonably non-rigid

STCW2I0I0POKEM5

If a gas pressure gauge is over-pressured andbursts, what feature minimizes damage?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The flexible back.

A relief valve.

A bursting disc.

Auto shut off valve.

STCW2I25FLS99YI




The sketch shows the two scales of a Verniercaliper. What degree of accuracy will a measurement have?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0.01

0.02

0.03

0.04

STCW2I38BISZF8V

When two pieces of metal at right- angles arewelded together, what weld is used?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Fillet

Butt

Bevel

Lap

STCW2I6JTGYDRHK

What condition must exist in order to cut using anoxygen fuel gas mixture?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Slow oxidation.

Rapid oxidation.

Slow temperature rise.

Low velocity jet.

STCW2IQRDL0ZNDG

Why is a high pressure blow pipe unsuitable for usein a low pressure system?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The nozzle sizes are different.

The oxygen pressure differs.

The acetylene pressure differs.

Both gas pressures must be equal.

STCW2IZTXGBJR8K




The engine room workshop carries different types ofhacksaw blades. Which blade should be used to cut sheet metal?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Tooth pitch = 6/cm

Tooth pitch = 8/cm

Tooth pitch = 10/cm

Tooth pitch =14/cm

STCW2J8Q6FQPQHL

A centre punch has a 60° point for?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Ease to see.

Use as scriber.

Long life.

Accurate marking.

STCW2JDPNM927SU

What type of ball- bearing is shown in theillustration?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Shallow groove.

Two-way thrust.

Heavy duty.

Deep groove.

STCW2JFGA1N5KQ7

If two pieces of metal are welded together whilelaying in the same plane, this is known as?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A lap weld.

A corner weld.

A fillet weld.

A butt weld.

STCW2JSDKBBD1UO




Which table would give the best checklist followingan arc welding process, checking for:

1)

2)

3)

4)

FusionUndercutting

FusionUndercutting

Slag inclusionFusion

UndercuttingSurface pin holes

STCW2JUSQ7VYO43

In the system of limits and fits shown, on what basishas the drawing been made?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Interference fits.

Shaft basis fits.

Hole bases fits.

Clearance fits.

STCW2K1PIJNHI3W

A white metal lined bearing is to be fitted on to ashaft. Which combination would be used?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Use a flat scraper with engineer's blue on bearing.

Use a flat scraper with engineer's blue on shaft.

Use a half-round scraper with engineer's blue on shaft.

Use a half-round scraper with engineer's blue on bearing.

STCW2K5QH16VPTH

For the fillet weld shown, what is the throat length?

1)

2)

3)

4)

ab

ac

ad

de

STCW2KIB3LXX1OF




What is the greatest danger when working withsheet metal?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Plate is too large.

Plate is too heavy.

Edges are sharp.

Space to manoeuvre is usually restricting.

STCW2L4QT9TQGKH

A flat chisel requires tempering; which temperatureand colour is correct for this process?

1)

2)

3)

4)

240°C dark straw.

250°C light brown.

260°C dark brown.

280°C purple.

STCW2LBUJICPDTY

Thick plates require a multi-run weld. Which type ofruns are used?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No.1

No.2

No.3

No.4

STCW2LN95IOZOZ0

Identify the powered hand tool in No. 1 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Drill

Grinder

Screwdriver

Input wrench

STCW2LXHKO0TNEE




The square to round section shown requires atemplate. What forms the triangular base line from which the true lengthsare obtained?

1)

2)

3)

4)

aba1

a1a2

a2ab

axab

STCW2MZ36ZRB1ZA

How is the emergency stop button indented onworkshop machinery, for example, the lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Large round head with light emitting diode insert.

Large round head painted green.

Large round head painted red.

Large round head painted yellow.

STCW2NP5NBJJWDA

In electric arc welding, what purpose does the theelectrode coating serve?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It provides a gas shieldReduces splatter

Gives a variable arcReduces splatter

Allows damp electrodes to be usedGives a stable arc

Controls the metallurgical propertiesAssists penetration

STCW2NPHNHV236C

Which of the four bearings shown provides positivelocation?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No.1

No.2

No.3

No.4

STCW2NVH9U0G55X




The figure shows welded tee joints. Whatpreparation is required for No.3 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Double U

Double bevel

Single bevel

Single U

STCW2NY7MJ2150B

All mechanical cutting devices have the same basicfeatures. These are?

1)

2)

3)

4)

One moving blade

One fixed blade

Two moving blades

One moving and one fixed blade

STCW2O6T2D6RP45

The engine room workshop has a bench shear.What is the maximum thickness of mild steel it will cut?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1 mm

3 mm

5 mm

7 mm

STCW2OG0Y6JPM0A

For the cover shown, what length of plate isrequired?

1)

2)

3)

4)

350.2 mm

348.4 mm

345.1 mm

343.7 mm

STCW2OMYGNEZMQR




How does a two-stage pressure regulator giveprecise control?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Both stages are adjustable

First stage only is adjustable

Second stage only is adjustable

Automatical regulation of both stages.

STCW2OOE6A24XQS

When using a centre lathe what operation could ahacksaw be used for?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cutting off.

Shaping.

Cutting threads.

Removing burrs.

STCW2P93BK8QUMF

A chisel is refurbished and requires the cutting endto be tempered after hardening. How is this achieved?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Heat to 230.CQuench in oil.

Heat to 280.CQuench in oil

Heat to 260.CQuench in water

Heat to 250.CQuench in water

STCW2PAF6NQH4TD

In the following, which gives advantages only foradhesive bonding?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Needs good surfaces/no protruding parts.

Poor electrical conductivity/may act as an insulator.

Toxic hazards/reduced galvanic action.

Weight reduction/may join thin sheet.

STCW2PEP944J7WT




What is significant about the spring-back hacksawblade?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It can be bent into a circle over its length.

It is a compromise between the flexible and all-hard blade.

It is only available with a large tooth pitch.

It is only suitable for use in a power saw.

STCW2PFD56JOCDT

The drawing of an engine mechanism componentgives some surfaces as angles. How would these angles be marked out?

1)

2)

3)

4)

With a steel rule.

With dividers.

With odd leg callipers.

With a vernier protractor.

STCW2PFMDTIGVJX

An acetylene welding cylinder is packed withcharcoal and charged with acetone. At 15 bar by how many times will itabsorb its own volume ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

275 times

325 times

375 times

425 times

STCW2QB20FVE8TD

A short box girder is fabricated from 8 mm thicksteel plate. What edge preparation is required for No.1 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Double bevel 60°

Double bevel 45°

Single bevel 60°

Single bevel 45°

STCW2QN8LDHHINZ




Which of the tables of defects would lead to porosityin a welded joint?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Welding current too low.Speed of travel too fast.

Damp electrode coating.Damaged electrode coating.

Wrong electrode angle.Incorrect joint set up.

Welding current too high.Incorrect root gap.

STCW2QT18MPXQ6V

What feature of a good weld is indicated by No.4 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Good penetration.

Blend with parent metal.

Contour even and regular.

Backing bar has been used.

STCW2QU5VM7CU1K

Mild steel plate 2 mm thick bent in vees wouldproduce an approximate inside bend radius of?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1.0 mm

1.5 mm

2.0 mm

2.5 mm

STCW2R369MM855M

What is the system called which gives explicitinstructions on drawings which cannot be misinterpreted?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cumulative effect.

Geometrical tolerancing.

Limits and fits.

Tolerances.

STCW2RDYVBW3S9H




When carrying out a repair using a bonded resinwhat precautions should be observed?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Use gloves, do not smoke,use barrier cream and use safety goggles.

Use gloves, ensure below flash point of material, use brush and use safetygoggles.

Use gloves, use stirrer, take care opening tins and use safety goggles.

Use gloves, use brush use barrier cream and use safety goggles.

STCW2RKA0JZV1ZW

Looking at the drawing, can this component bemade?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Yes.

No - material is not given.

No - scale is not given.

No - relevant dimensions are missing.

STCW2SI37QXI6EI

Which is the preferred table to be checked toensure a sound weld is produced during an arc welding process?

1)

2)

3)

4)

ElectrodeArc length

ElectrodeArc length

Arc lengthWelding current

Arc lengthElectrode angle

STCW2TBLE8NHCZR

What presents the greatest danger whensharpening a chisel on a grinding machine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Wrong grade of wheel.

Worn wheel.

Exsessive rest clearance.

Using too much force.

STCW2TC0W690CQ4




When tempering a cold chisel, at which part of thechisel is the flame directed?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The cutting edge.

The hammer end.

Mid-way.

The beginning of the tapered portion.

STCW2TSJABRI1D1

What may be done to improve the finishedappearance of a self-secured joint?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Caulk.

Solder.

Burnish.

Fit edging wire.

STCW2TWN6LYKHPP

What special care do an engineer's dividers need :

1)

2)

3)

4)

Keep oiled.

Keep screw thread clean.

Always use same leg in centre pop.

Protect points when not in use.

STCW2TYGNL7E3QO

Thermoplastic type adhesives soften when subjectto heat, are fusible and soluble. They are not suitable for?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Leather.

Wood.

Aluminium.

Fabrics.

STCW2UGBH2QCB44




The ventilation trunk shown goes from square toround section. What does its development look like?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No.1

No.2

No.3

No.4

STCW2UO2V8ROJXO

To make a single grooved seam from 1 mm plate, inwhat order would the following operations be carried out?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Set to thicknessHook together

FoldHook together

FlattenSet to thickness

FoldSet to thickness

STCW2UQ888MPI7C

In the method of datum dimensioning (sometimesknown as parallel dimensioning), what is the advantage over conventionaldimensioning?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Makes machining easier.

Improves positional accuracy.

Reduces the marking out time.

Ignores conventions.

STCW2VC23BIBCJY

What is the attachment shown in No. 2 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Small circle guide.

Roller guide.

Spade guide.

Radius bar.

STCW2VQ3S4QAMA8




The safety features for a welded acetylene gascylinder are?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Spring load relief valve.

Bursting discs.

Fusible plugs.

Gas loaded relief valves.

STCW2VZT5HLWBWQ

The sketch shows the configuration of a pinchbending roll. How does this operate?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Roller No. 2 rises

Roller No. 1 is lower

Rollers No. 2 and No. 3 rise

Roller No. 3 rises

STCW2W8N70JUCS6

A short box girder is fabricated from 18 mm thicksteel plate. What edge preparation is necessary for No.3 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Double bevel

Single bevel

None

Single U

STCW2W9NI91X14N

A component with a working temperature of 325°Cis to be joined using epoxy resin. Which of the following is suitable?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Epoxy silicone.

Epoxy phenolic.

Epoxy nitrile.

Phenolic nitrile.

STCW2WCNAGJR786




The figures show welded tee joints. Whatpreparation is required for No. 1 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Single V

Double V

Double U

None

STCW2WFVTTAMV74

Prior to welding, plate edges are prepared to?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Allow filler to the flow.

Give economical use of the filler.

Give a flat surface to the filler.

Allow maximum penetration of the filler.

STCW2WIFTXKZB7Z

Which system of welding uses a shield of Argon anda non-consumable electrode?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Gas metal arc.

Metal inert gas.

Manual metal arc.

Tungsten inert gas.

STCW2WWN5OFQ3D3

For a particular welding arrangement, the decisionis to use a manifold system. Why would this be chosen?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Because of the long time span of welding

The discharge rate is too high from single bottle

Better stability when using large bore nozzles

Cost - two cylindersare cheaper than one

STCW2WXQM7EN59P




Plates of less than 6 mm thickness (T) have noedge preparation but what ratio of (T) is the gap?

1)

2)

3)

4)

T/6

T/4

T/2

T/1

STCW2X3BPD7VE5G

When tempering use is made of the microscopicoxide film formed on the surface, in what sequence does change occur?

1)

2)

3)

4)

StrawBrown

StrawPurple

BrownPurple

PurpleStraw

STCW2X7VQ46STND

A 90°centre punch is specifically designed to?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Act as a pin punch.

Pop mark for drilling.

To scribe.

Give long life.

STCW2YIL3SOGSVQ

Given a set of odd-leg calipers and a small cork,what use is the cork?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cork is used as centre when marking out.

Cork is to protect the point.

Cork has the same properties as silica gel and prevents corrosion.

Cork is a sales gimmick.

STCW2YYP8RDEN11




In the sketches, which view is incomplete?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No.1

No.2

No.3

No.4

STCW2YZ70TQCS9I

If a view is projected in a direction which is nothorizontal or vertical, what name is given to the view?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An auxiliary view.

An isometric view.

An elevated view.

A pictorial view.

STCW2Z48WF2RADW

Sketch shows a gas cutting blowpipe. What iscontrol No. 1 used for?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Acetylene control.

Pre-heat oxygen.

Mixing gases.

Cutting oxygen.

STCW2ZBSDFRK630

What does the geometrical tolerancing shown in thedrawing refer to?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Flatness.

Roundness.

Screw thread.

Squareness.

STCW2ZZ7EU6KN4M



EO2-Characteristics of Electrical Systems and Equipment STCW Operational - engineer

What is the maximum number of 50 W bulbs youwould recommend to be connected to a 220 V outlet fused with a 10 Afast blowing fuse?

1)

2)

3)

4)

20

46

44

22

SET010000000001

What is the normal output voltage range of aninsulation meter ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Between 200 and 300 Volts




SET010000000006

Which of the following statements is correct?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The resistance of a human body increases in a humid atmosphere.

The resistance of a human body is unaffected by humidity.

The resistance of a human body decreases if the applied voltage isincreased.

The resistance of a human body is unaffected by applied voltage.

SET010000000009

What is the normal resistance of the human body?

1)

2)

3)

4)

4,000 Ohms at 25 Volt



5,000 Ohms at any voltage

SET010000000010




Can a current as low as 25mA kill a human being?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Yes, but only if applied for a long period.

Yes, but only if the applied voltage is high enough.

Yes, but only from an AC source.

No, not a fit healthy person.

SET010000000011

How many ohms make one megohm?

1)

2)

3)

4)

100,000

1,000,000

1,000

10,000,000

SET010000000012

Express 125mA in amperes?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0.00125 A

1.25 A

0.125 A

0.0125 A

SET010000000013

A ship's electrical system is usually the so-called"insulated neutral" type. What does this means?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The system's zero voltage point is connected to the frame of the generator.

The system is totally insulated from the ship's hull.

The system is totally insulated from the ship's 220V distribution system.

The system does not have a neutral point.

SET010000000014




How will an earth failure be noticed in an insulateddistribution system ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The fuse in the faulty circuit will blow.

The fuse located in the system's neutral point will blow.

The voltage will drop in proportion to the earth leakage.

The system insulation meter will indicate a drop in resistance.

SET010000000015

What is the purpose of a preference load trippingsystem ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To disconnect important equipment before a short circuit can cause damage.

To re-connect essential equipment after a black out.

To disconnect non-essential equipment in case of generator overload.

To trip a generator if the load becomes too large.

SET010000000017

What is the purpose of an instrument transformerinstalled on the generator main bus-bars?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To measure the generator output voltage

To measure the generator output current

To measure the temperature of the bus-bar

To prevent bus-bar overload

SET010000000018

What will happen if the connections between anammeter and an instrument transformer located on the generator mainbus-bars are disconnected ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The ammeter will go to zero.

The ammeter will go to maximum.

The ammeter will read zero and the instrument transformer will quicklybecome over heated.

Nothing will happen.

SET010000000019




What does the symbol in the diagram show?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A PNP transistor.

A thyristor.

A NPN transistor.

A double pole transistor.

SET010000000021


1)

2)

3)

4)

A zener diode

A thyristor

A bridge rectifier

A diode

SET010000000022


1)

2)

3)

4)

A zener transistor.

A rectification diode.

A zener diode.

A regulating diode.

SET010000000023

What can the component showed in the picture beused for?

1)

2)

3)

4)

As a frequency stabiliser.

As a voltage stabiliser.

As a temperature stabiliser.

As a light emitter.

SET010000000024




What does the symbol show?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A light absorber.

A light emitting diode.

A heat absorber.

A heat measurer.

SET010000000025


1)

2)

3)

4)

A circuit that is connected to a DC source.

A circuit that is not allowed to be earthed.

A circuit that is connected to earth.

A circuit that is connected to earth if a short circuit occurs.

SET010000000026

What does the symbol in the picture show?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A capacitor

A battery (single cell)

An AC power supply

A switch

SET010000000027

What does this symbol show?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An OR gate.

A NOR gate.

A NAND gate.

An AND gate.

SET010000000028





1)

2)

3)

4)

An OR gate.

A NOR gate.

A NAND gate.

An AND gate.

SET010000000029


1)

2)

3)

4)

A double amplifier.

A latch.

A lock amplifier.

A latch rectifier.

SET010000000030

What is the total resistance of the three resistorsshown in the diagram?

1)

2)

3)

4)

150 Ohm

250 Ohm

300 Ohm

200 Ohm

SET010000000031

What will the total resistance of the four resistorsshown in the diagram?

1)

2)

3)

4)

200 Ohm

250 Ohm

300 Ohm

400 Ohm

SET010000000032




Calculate the current "I" in the diagram?

1)

2)

3)

4)

100 mA.

0.01mA.

1.0 A.

0.01 A.

SET010000000033

What is the total resistance of the two resistorsshown in the diagram?

1)

2)

3)

4)

400

300

200

100

SET010000000034

What resistance does RS have to be for thecombined resistance of the circuit to be 50 Ohm?

1)

2)

3)

4)

100 Ohm

200 Ohm

20 Ohm

50 Ohm

SET010000000036

What is the function of the circuit shown in thediagram?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A full wave rectifier.

A half wave rectifier.

A zero point meter.

A transformer balance adjuster.

SET010000000037




From the sample diagrams shown, choose thecorrect voltage waveform measured across the load.

1)

2)

3)

4)

1

2

3

4

SET010000000038

What is the symbol in the picture show?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A NPN diode.

A PNP diode.

A PNP transistor.

A NPN transistor.

SET010000000043

Which of the following four materials is the bestelectrical conductor ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Copper.

Brass.

Silver.

Steel.

SET010000000044

An electrical heater is marked 220 V, 4400 W. Whatis the resistance of the heater?

1)

2)

3)

4)

220 Ohm

11 Ohm

22 Ohm

110 Ohm

SET010000000045




Two electrical heaters both marked 220 Volt and2200 W are connected in series to a 220 Volt supply with a 10 A fuse.What will happen?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The fuse will blow.

The heaters will produce twice their normal heat output.

The heaters will produce half of their normal heat output.

The heaters will be damaged as the voltage is different from their markedvoltage.

SET010000000046

When is it necessary to take into the considerationthe internal resistance of a multi-meter?

1)

2)

3)

4)

When the resistance in the circuit to be measured is very high.

When the resistance in the circuit to be measured is very low.

When the frequency of the circuit become very high.

It is not necessary to consider multi-meter resistance.

SET010000000047

Which of the following components can be used asan voltage stabiliser?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A coil.

A PNP transistor.

A zener diode.

An OR gate.

SET010000000048

In the diagram, if E is set to 15 Volt, Uz will be 12Volt. What will Uz become if E is increased to 20 Volt?

1)

2)

3)

4)

17 Volt

16 Volt

12 Volt

20 Volt

SET010000000049




What is the circuit shown here used for?

1)

2)

3)

4)

As an amplifier.

As an rectifier.

As a voltage regulator.

To measure a DC current.

SET010000000050

Choose the correct Boolean equation for the circuitshown.

1)

2)

3)

4)

E = ((A*B) + (C*D))

E = ((A+B) + (C*D))

E = ((A+B) * (C+D))

E = ((A*B) * (C*D))

SET010000000052

Choose the correct Boolean equation for the circuitshown.

1)

2)

3)

4)

E =((A+B) * (C+D))

E =((A*B) * (C*D))

E =((A+B) + (C+D))

E =((A*B) * (C+D))

SET010000000053

What is component X called ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A converter.

An integrator.

An invertor.

A rectifier.

SET010000000054





1)

2)

3)

4)

The windings of a three pole DC shunt motor.

The windings of a three phase AC " Y " connected motor with earthed neutral.

The windings of a three pool DC " Y " connected motor.

The windings of a three phase " D " connected motor.

SET010000000058

What does this symbol show ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A three phase "Delta" connected motor.

A three phase DC connected motor.

A three phase " Y " connected motor.

A three phase compound AC motor.

SET010000000059

What is the purpose of the circuit shown in thediagram ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To light the lamp when the coil is de-activated.

To operate the relay coil A with buttons 1 and 2.

To prevent relay coil A becoming over-heated.

To change direction of the motor connected to coil A.

SET010000000060

Choose the correct Boolean expression for theoutput at D.

1)

2)

3)

4)

D = A+ B + C

D = A + (B * C)

D = A * B * C

D = A - (B * C)

SET010000000062




Which formula gives the correct Boolean expressionfor the component shown?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1

2

3

4

SET010000000063

Which option gives the correct output for the gateshown?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1

2

3

4

SET010000000065

Which option gives the correct output for the gateshown?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1

2

3

4

SET010000000066

Which option gives the correct output at A ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0 minus 1

0

0 times 0

1

SET010000000067




What will happen when switch D is closed?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Relay A will activate.

Lamp E will de-activate.

Relay B will de-activate.

Lamp E will activate.

SET010000000068

What conditions are needed for relay A to beactivated ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Relay B activated and switch F closed.

B de-activated and switch F and G closed.

Switch G open and relay B activated.

Switch F closed and relay B activated.

SET010000000069

How can lamp E be turned on?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By closing switch D.

By closing switch C.

By closing switch D and switch F at the same time.

Lamp E cannot be turned on.

SET010000000070

How will coil C be activated ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

When both D and E are closed.

When D, E and F are closed.

When E and A are closed.

When A and B are closed and either D or E are closed.

SET010000000071




When will coil C be activated ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

When E is closed and D is open.

When E is closed and relay F activated.

When relay F is activated.

When A and B is closed and D is open.

SET010000000072

What does the symbol "A" represent?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A differential amplifier.

An operational amplifier.

A summing amplifier.

A flip-flop amplifier.

SET010000000073

What is the function of the circuit shown here?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A digital summarizer.

A summing operational amplifier.

An integrating operational amplifier.

A differential amplifier.

SET010000000075

What is the purpose of the circuit shown here?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To measure low frequent current.

To measure the resistance of RL.

To measure voltage E.

To calibrate resistance Rv.

SET010000000077




If the resistances RL and Rv are equal, what will bethe voltage Vm? (Assume R1 = R2)

1)

2)

3)

4)

E divided by R1 + R2

E = Vm

(R1*R2) + (RV*RL)

Zero

SET010000000078

What does the symbol shown here represent ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An American standard NAND gate.

A European standard AND gate.

A European standard NAND gate.

An American standard NOR gate.

SET010000000080

What does the symbol shown here represent ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An American standard invertor.

A European standard converter.


A European standard OR gate.

SET010000000081

What does this symbol represent ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A European standard NOR gate.

An American standard NAND gate.


An American standard NOT gate.

SET010000000082




What does this symbol represent ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An American standard AND gate.

A European standard AND gate.



SET010000000083

What will be the output " A " in this circuit?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0

0 + 0

1 * 0

1

SET010000000084

What will be the output " A " in this circuit?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1

0

1 + 1

inverted

SET010000000085

The specific gravity of the cells in a lead acid batteryfor the emergency generator is found to be 1.250. What action would youtake?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Top up with water.

Refresh with the addition of new acid.

Check the charging system and if possible increase the charging rate.

No action is required.

SET010000000089




Complete the sentence. Ships normally use an ACinsulated neutral distribution system because....

1)

2)

3)

4)

it limits fault current.

an earth failure on one phase will not cause protective devices like fuses andcircuit breakers to trip.

it reduces cable size.

it reduces switch gear ratings.

SET010000000095

What type of probe is most suitable to measure themain engine exhaust temperature?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A PT100 (Platinum wire resistance) probe.

A T802 (Thermistor) probe.

A NiCr/NiAl -type K (Thermocouple) probe.

A mercury thermometer probe.

SET010000000096

Why should an electronic digital meter be used tomeasure voltage in electronic circuits?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Because it's easier to read.

Because it's not affected by interference.

Because the voltage for electronic circuits can only be sensed by anelectronic meter.

Because the input resistance of the meter is high enough not to affect thecircuit under test.

SET010000000097

What type of electrolyte is used in a nickel cadmiumbattery?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Dilute sulphuric acid.

Distilled water.

Potassium hydroxide solution.

Dilute hydrochloric acid.

SET010000000098




In the "Ward/Leonard" method of DC motor speedcontrol, how is the motor direction changed?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Reversal of generator polarity.

Reversal of motor field polarity.

By reversal of the rotation of the generator

By switching the motor armature connections

SET010000000099

A flat lead acid battery can be revived by.....

1)

2)

3)

4)

Filling with dilute sulphuric acid and trickle charging.

Adding "battery restorer".

Adding distilled water.

Trickle charging.

SET010000000104

Sulphation in a lead acid battery occurs as a resultof:

1)

2)

3)

4)

Lack of trickle charging.

Incomplete charging.

Heavy discharging.

Fast charging.

SET010000000105

What safety protection measure should be takenwhen connecting a multimeter to an unknown voltage source?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Set the multimeter to DC.

Set the multimeter to AC.

Set the multimeter to AC and highest voltage range.

Set the multimeter to DC and highest voltage range.

SET010000000106




Which of the four alternatives shown gives thecorrect voltage output across component C when a step change in voltageis applied to the circuit?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A

B

C

D

SET010000000108

Which of the four alternatives shown gives thecorrect voltage output across component L when a step change in voltageis applied to the circuit?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A

B

C

D

SET010000000109

What is a diode?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A conductor.

A semi-conductor.

An insulator.

A part conductor.

SET010000000110

Which two symbols in boxes A to D have the samefunction ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A

B

C

D

SET010000000111




The state of charge of a lead acid battery is bestindicated by......

1)

2)

3)

4)

its ampere hour capacity.

an individual cell voltage.

its total cell voltage.

the specific gravity of the electrolyte.

SET010000000117

The basic unit of measurement of inductance isthe......

1)

2)

3)

4)

Ohm

Henry

Farad

Coulomb

SET010000000118

Battery rooms must be ventilated because it......

1)

2)

3)

4)

prevents sulphation during discharge.

supplies oxygen.

dissipates explosive gases.

prevents formation of moisture and condensation.

SET010000000119

What kind of values can change continuously?Pressure and temperature are examples.

1)

2)

3)

4)

Digital values.

Humpless values.

Binary values.

Analog values.

SET010000000122




Which one of the following devices uses theprinciple of electromagnetic induction ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A rectifier.

A transistor.

A transformer.

A rheostat.

SET010000000127

What happens in a circuit when the voltage remainsconstant and the resistance increases ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The current decreases.

The current increases.

The current remains the same.

The current increases by the square of the increase in resistance.

SET010000000131

Electric current is defined as the flow of electronsthrough a conductor. This is measured as.....

1)

2)

3)

4)

Voltage.

resistance.

inductance.

amperage.

SET010000000132

One kilo-watt is equal to......

1)

2)

3)

4)

1.25 horse power.

1.34 horse power.

1.50 horse power.

2.00 horse power.

SET010000000134




A horse-shoe magnet has ...........

1)

2)

3)

4)

3 poles.

4 poles.

2 poles.

no poles.

SET010000000135

What kind of device measures pressure andconverts it to an electrical signal ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A transducer.

A reducer.

A transformer.

A pressure rectifier.

SET010000000136

A micro-processor is:

1)

2)

3)

4)

another name for a computer.

a CPU integrated circuit.

another name for a calculator.

a computer's random memory.

SET010000000137

What is the purpose of the capacitors used acrossthe output of a DC power supply ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

They act as a permanent load.

They prevent overload.

They filter out ripple.

They increase the output frequency.

SET010000000138




The resistance in a wire decreases if ..............

1)

2)

3)

4)

the temperature of the wire increases.

the cross-sectional area of the wire increases.

the length of the wire increases.

the applied voltage decreases.

SET010000000139

Which of these materials can be used to insulatemagnetic flux ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Ceramic.

Rubber.

None of these.

Porcelain.

SET010000000142

What is the main difference between a relay and acontactor ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A contactor is designed to handle heavier loads.

A relay is series connected but a contactor is parallel connected.

A contactor is series connected but a relay is parallel connected.

A relay can only operate with DC voltage but a contactor can operate withboth DC and AC.

SET010000000144

Voltage multiplied by current equals......

1)

2)

3)

4)

resistance.

capacity.

power.

efficiency.

SET010000000149




If the resistance of a circuit doubles while theapplied voltage remains constant, the current will be ..........

1)

2)

3)

4)

doubled.

halved.

remain the same.

quadrupled.

SET010000000150

What is the voltage across A and B?

1)

2)

3)

4)

6 volts

18 volts

24 volts

12 volts

SET010000000151

What is the voltage across A and B?

1)

2)

3)

4)

6 volts

12 volts

18 volts

- 6 volts

SET010000000152

What is the current I3?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I1 - I2

I1

I1 + I2

I2

SET010000000153




This diagram shows the characteristics of a......

1)

2)

3)

4)

transistor.

capacitor.

diode.

rectifier.

SET010000000154

This diagram shows the characteristics of a .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

diode.

transistor.

zener diode.

thyristor.

SET010000000155

This symbol represents a .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

PNP transistor.

field effect transistor.

thyristor.

diac.

SET010000000156

This drawing shows the structure of a .........

1)

2)

3)

4)

FET transistor.

diode.

bipolar transistor.

light activated SRC.

SET010000000158




This drawing shows the structure of a .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

PNP transistor.

flip-flop gate.

thyristor.

zener diode.

SET010000000159

What is component number 2?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A thyristor.

A diac.

A triac.

A FET transistor.

SET010000000160

What is component number 3?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A junction diode.

A diac.

A triac.

a FET transistor.

SET010000000161

What is the function of component number 1?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To regulate the capacity over the triac.

To lower the inductance across resistance RL.

To regulate the firing of the diac diode.

To limit the voltage across resistance RL.

SET010000000162




What is this circuit used for ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To test the back firing of the triac.

To test the opening voltage across the diac.

To regulate the power across resistance RL.

To regulate the voltage across component number 3.

SET010000000163

An ideal operational amplifier is characterised by...........

1)

2)

3)

4)

infinite input impedance.

zero output impedance.

infinite bandwidth.

all the other options.

SET010000000165

Which of the following statements is most correct fora resistor ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An increase in temperature varies the resistance.

An increase in temperature has no effect on resistance.

An increase in temperature decreases resistance.

An increase in temperature increases resistance.

SET010000000169

TTL is the abbreviation for a family of .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

Integrated analog circuits.

Integrated digital circuits.

Integrated amplifying circuits.

Integrated differential circuits.

SET010000000170




A triac circuit is used to regulate the brightness of a220 V 60W bulb. What is the advantage of this circuit ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The power losses are almost zero.

The bulb will give about 10% more light.

The bulb will last about 30% longer.

The bulb will produce 30% less heat.

SET010000000173

What is this component shown called ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An integrated rectifier.

A diode.

A transistor.

A capacitor.

SET010000000300

What is the purpose of the lines on this component?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To identify the type of component.

To indicate the resistance and the resistance variance of the component.

To indicate the resistance of the component.

To indicate the maximum inductance which can be applied.

SET010000000301

What type of component is this ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A resistor.

A capacitor.

A variable resistor.

A diode.

SET010000000302




What is the name and application of this component?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A transistor for high power.

A high frequency diode.

A diode for high power applications.

A diode for light emitting applications.

SET010000000303

What is the name of this component ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A high power diode.

A low power diode.

A high power transistor.

A high power half-wave rectifier.

SET010000000304

Which statement is correct ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The TTL family of integrated circuits consume less current than the CMOSfamily of integrated circuits.

A CMOS integrated circuit is a non-digital switching system.

A TTL integrated circuit has a low processing speed.

The CMOS family of integrated circuits consume less current than the TTLfamily of integrated circuits.

SET010000000311

What is the normal operating voltage of a TTLcircuit ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

12 volts

5 volts

8 volts

24 volts

SET010000000312




What is this component ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An NPN transistor.

A P channel junction transistor.

An N channel junction transistor.

A PNP transistor.

SET010000001092


1)

2)

3)

4)

A P channel junction transistor.

A P channel diode.

An NPN transistor.

An N channel junction transistor.

SET010000001093

Which of the two transformers will provide anelectrically insulated voltage E2 from the source voltage E1 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Number 1.

Number 2.

Neither.

Both.

SET010000001094

Which of the two transformers can be used forregulating the size of voltage E2 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Number 1.

Number 2.

Both.

Neither.

SET010000001095




Which of the two transformers are safer forregulating the voltage E2 in order to avoid electrocuting ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Number 1.

Number2.

Both the same.

Neither.

SET010000001096

In both circuits Voltage E is the same and allresistors R have the same value. In which circuit will the current begreater?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Circuit 1

Circuit 2

Both circuits will have the same current value.

The currents will be the same but the Voltage will be higher in 1.

SET010000001098

Voltage form number 2 represents the output from aDIAC in a DIAC/TRIAC voltage regulator. What is the voltage used for ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To close the TRIAC.

To fire a light diode.

To fire the TRIAC.

To reverse the TRIAC voltage.

SET010000001105

The pressostat shown in the picture controls thecut-in/cut-out of a pump. To what part of the pump's electric motor wouldthis be connected ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The main contactor.

The timer.

An auxiliary relay.

An overload relay.

SET010000001799




What is the electrical function of the pressostatshown here ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Pressure to open contact.

Pressure to close contact.

Pressure to cross-connect contact.

Pressure to either close contact or open contact depending on how it isconnected.

SET010000001800

In this schematic diagram of a fluorescent lamp, inwhat location is the BALLAST fitted, if (1) and (2) are the supply terminals?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Between points 3 and 4.




SET010000002222

Between which points on this schematic diagram ofa fluorescent lamp is the STARTER fitted ?

1)

2)

3)

4)





SET010000002223

In this schematic diagram of a fluorescent lamp,through which points is the electric current absorbed by the lamp duringNORMAL operation (lighting)?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Through points 3 and 4.




SET010000002224




What is item No 11 called, shown here in thisfluorescent lamp assembly ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The starting box or switching box.

The base.

The lamp fitting or holder.

The lamp body or lamp box.

SET010000002226

What is shown by item No 3 on this electric motor ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Shaft sleeves.

Ball bearings.

Dust throwers.

Seals.

SET010000002249

What is shown by item No 5 on this electric motor ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The outer casing.

The ventilation air passage grids.

The motor cover.

The inspection plates.

SET010000002251

A battery of dry cells consists of 8 cells connected inseries. Each cell has an E.M.F. of 1.5 Volt and an internal resistance of0.5 Ohm. If the cells are connected to a resistance of 1.2 Ohm, whatcurrent flows ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1.8 Ampere

2.3 Ampere

2.8 Ampere

3.1 Ampere

SET010000002272




What is the resistance of a heating element of 2kWatt, 220 Volt ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

24.2 Ohm

9.09 Ohm

44 Ohm

11 Ohm

SET010000002279

Determine the resistance of three resistorsconnected in STAR in a resistance box with 3 terminals? Resistance AB= 20 Ohm, resistance BC = 30 Ohm, resistance CA = 40 Ohm.

1)

2)

3)

4)

R1 = 15 Ohm, R2 = 5 Ohm, R3 = 25 Ohm

R1 = 10 Ohm, R2 = 18 Ohm, R3 = 22 Ohm

R1 = 12 Ohm, R2 = 8 Ohm, R3 = 22 Ohm

R1 = 10 Ohm, R2 = 10 Ohm, R3 = 30 Ohm

SET010000002281

In oil type circuit breakers, what is the purpose ofthe oil ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To act as insulation.

To smother the arc.

The release of hydrogen gas in the oil will extinguish the arc.

All of the options.

SET010000002290

In the worst case, an electric shock of as low as 15milli-amps will .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

be totally harmless.

give you a faint shock.

burn your skin.

be fatal.

SET010000002292




What will happen when an earth fault occurs on oneline of an insulated distribution system ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The line will short circuit with the earth and the line fuse trips.

The system will be in overload and both line fuse trip.

No fuses will trip, the system is isolated from the earth.

The opposite line fuse will trip due overload.

SET010000002296

A single phase motor has a full load current of 28 A.What will be the rating of the branch fuses?

1)

2)

3)

4)

34 Amps

56 Amps

63 Amps

112 Amp

SET010000002301

A voltmeter with 5,000 ohm internal resistancereads 10 volts at full scale. What resistor needs to be put in series toincrease its range to 150 volts ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

7500 Ohm

35000 Ohm

70000 Ohm

165000 Ohm

SET010000002304

The low voltage side of a welding transformer hastwo turns and delivers 300 A. If the primary side has 30 turns, how muchcurrent flows through it ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

10 Amps.

15 Ampere.

20 Amps.

30 Amps.

SET010000002306




Two 30 Ohm resistors are connected in parallel.What is their combined resistance?

1)

2)

3)

4)

15 Ohm

30 Ohm

20 Ohm

60 Ohm

SET010000002321

An electric appliance takes 2500 Watt. The electriccurrent is 15 Ampere. What is the resistance of the load ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

8.2 Ohm

9.4 Ohm

10.5 Ohm

11.11 Ohm

SET010000002329

How many diodes are there in a single phase fullbridge rectifier ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Two

Three

Four

Six

SET010000002333

In an emergency insulation resistance readingslower than normal can be acceptable, but what would the allowableminimum be ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0.5 Meg Ohm

1.0 Meg Ohm

5.0 Meg Ohm

10.0 Meg Ohm

SET010000002344




What voltages are accredited standard secondaryvoltages for voltage transformers. ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

240 Volt and 220 Volt.




SET010000002362

Current transformers supply ampere meters and thecurrent operated coils of instruments with a standard current of either...........

1)

2)

3)

4)

2 or 1 Amps.

5 or 1 Amps.

20 or 5 Amps.

20 or 5 milli-amps.

SET010000002363

What is the required minimum Megger test readingfor MCCB' S circuit breakers ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1 - 3 Megohm

4 - 6 Megohm

5 - 8 Megohm

7 - 10 Megohm

SET010000002364

What is the purpose of the cable gland in addition toproviding a watertight seal ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To provide a gas tight seal.

As bulkhead or penetrating plate reinforcement.

To allow minor sliding movements of the cable.

To maintain the mechanical properties of the cable.

SET010000002365




What is the purpose of the part circled red ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To protect the motor from water.

To cover the fan of the motor.

To cover the lubrication inlet.

To cover the speed regulator.

SET010000002459

A Wheatstone Bridge is used to measure anunknown resistance in relation to what?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A voltage drop.

A current imbalance.

Kirchoff's Laws.

A known resistance.

STCW20CYHYVS3DD

What is power?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The mount of work done.

The rate of energy dissipation.

The capacity for doing work.

The generated current.

STCW20HVD24MVT0

Which of the following is not a requirement for theNavigation light distribution board?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Double pole switch.

Always supplied from batteries

Audible and visual lamp failure alarm

Location on the Bridge

STCW20MRKN0K9Q7




What are valence electrons?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Outer orbiting electrons.

Contained in the nucleus.

Orbiting electrons.

Positively charged electrons.

STCW20S08464BZX

In one complete cycle of a single phase ofalternating current how often is the voltage at zero?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Never

Once

Twice

Three times

STCW20VDS4YNLW7

How will the plastic insulation in a cable be affectedif the temperature exceeds 100 degrees C.?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The insulation is likely to be severely damaged.

Nothing as the insulation is designed to withstand more than 500 degrees C.

The life-span of the cable will be reduced in accordance with the conductorlife span formula.

The insulation resistance is increased as the heat will remove any trace ofhumidity.

STCW219MBUQCMPA

When will the resistance in a wire decrease?

1)

2)

3)

4)

When the temperature of the wire increases.

When the cross-sectional area of the wire increases.

When the length of the wire increases.

When the applied voltage decreases.

STCW21HFIMJPIEC




How will an earth failure be noticed in an insulateddistribution system?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The fuse in the faulty circuit will blow.

The fuse located in the system's neutral point will blow.

The voltage will drop in proportion to the earth leakage.

The system insulation meter will indicate a drop in resistance.

STCW21S9XG3T4GO

Why must each voltage system have it's own earthfault lamps?

1)

2)

3)

4)

In case of failure of one set

To accurately locate the earth fault

To make tracing the earth easier

Earth faults are not transmitted through the transformers

STCW220OMYD2Q79

In a fluorescent lamp what is used to improve thepower factor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Capacitor

Mercury gas

Coil

Thyristor

STCW226MQZZD1TQ

A ship's electrical system is usually the so-called"closed insulation" type. What does this mean?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The system's zero voltage point is connected to the frame of the generator

The system is totally insulated from the ship's hull

The system is totally insulated from the ship's 220 V distribution system

The system does not have a neutral point

STCW228T1ZF9SUI




In incandescent lights what is the filamentconstructed from?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Nickel

Carbon

Tungsten

Chromium

STCW22F8EXZ2LKM

Why must both primary and secondary windingshave independent earth leakage detection?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To accurately locate the earth.

There is no electrical connection between the two.

To allow for different leakage current levels.

Because of the difference in Voltages.

STCW22PVWBY66HX

The size of any electrical conductor should be suchthat the voltage drop at full load will not exceed what percentage?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1 %

2 %

3 %

5 %

STCW232IY3XKZVA

Which conductor would produce the greatestinductance?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Plain coiled.

Coiled with copper core.

Coiled multi strand.

Coiled with iron core.

STCW234T7PNV6P9




In the formula e = B l ØSin . What does sinrepresent?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Average rotational velocity.

Cycles/ second.

Maximum rotational velocity.

Instantaneous rotational velocity.

STCW23DLDZPQWQM

When using a Megger Tester to test equipmentrated 440 Volt, what test voltage should you ensure that the instrumentindicates?

1)

2)

3)

4)

250 volts

500 volts

750 volts

1000 volts

STCW23FT6U7LZ1R

Which law governs the relationship betweenpotential difference and current?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Coulomb's law

Lenz' law

Ohm's law

Kirchoff's current law

STCW23P7HFLXCW4

How will an earth failure be noticed in an insulateddistribution system?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The fuse in the faulty circuit will blow

The fuse located in the system's neutral point will blow

The voltage will drop in proportion to the earth leakage

The system insulation meter will indicate a drop in resistance

STCW24VF2JIRGBB




Which of the following is most likely to cause anearth indication?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A switched off motor has developed a short circuit.

A deck fitting has been affected by seawater.

Emergency generator, which is on stand-by, has been splashed withseawater.

Earth fault on the navigation lights.

STCW253PB2OVYUB

When using an ohmmeter to find a short circuit,which meter reading indicates the fault?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Infinity.

100 megohm.

1 megohm.

Zero.

STCW258OGEOMTVW

At maximum voltage what angle is the conductorcutting the magnetic field?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0 degrees

45 degrees

90 degrees

180 degrees

STCW25OEGE8ZKPM

A Wheatstone Bridge is a precision instrument usedmostly to measure:

1)

2)

3)

4)

Capacitance.

Resistance.

Inductance.

Amperage.

STCW265MB8H7WX0




Voltage multiplied by current equals what?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Resistance.

Efficiency.

Power.

Reactance.

STCW26FIA6GKXZX

When is an atom considered to be a positivelycharged ion?

1)

2)

3)

4)

When electrons are gained.

When electrons are lost.

When it has positive electrons.

When it has positive protons.

STCW26SUQ1U1D27

What is the required minimum Megger test readingfor MCCB' S circuit breakers?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1 - 3 Megohm

4 - 6 Megohm

5 - 8 Megohm

7 - 10 Megohm

STCW27N5D0QZPW6

What term describes the effective value of analternating current?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Mean

Average

RMS

Peak

STCW27Q348NRW7Q




Which measuring device should always beconnected in series with a circuit?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Ohmmeter.

Ammeter.

Wattmeter.

Voltmeter.

STCW27U0QAYQ6TD

What is the unit of magnetic flux?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Farad

Henry

Coulomb

Weber

STCW27W8GT8YI4G

How is a Voltmeter connected in a circuit?

1)

2)

3)

4)

In series.

In series with a resistance.

In parallel.

In parallel, combined with a resistance.

STCW283IET04FJV

If a 2kW heater is on for four hours, how muchenergy is used?

1)

2)

3)

4)

24mJ

28.8mJ

36.6mJ

40mJ

STCW283QJAIQRCH




What do good insulators have in common?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Large number of electrons.

Positive electrons.

Stable atomic structure.

Negative nucleus.

STCW287AMWQXAGL

In a non-reactive circuit which statement applies?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Impedance is greater than resistance.

Impedance is less than resistance.

Impedance is zero.

Impedance is equal to resistance.

STCW28PJ2UXSPSF

Which law states that the sum of the potentialdifferences is equal to the sum of the E.M.F.s?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Coulomb's Law

Ohm's Law

Lenz' Law

Kirchoff's Voltage Law

STCW28RA167ETO5

What may happen if a Megger tester is used tomeasure the insulation in a circuit containing electronic components?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The Megger may give an indication on how much current the circuit willconsume.

The components in the circuit may be destroyed.

The wrong internal resistance may be shown.

The connections between components will show a high insulation value.

STCW295T180DJAA




What is the danger of fitting too high wattage lampsin flameproof fittings?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Seal could be damaged by extra heat.

Increase in surface heat of fitting.

Extra power could overload the cable.

Internal heat generated will damage the fitting.

STCW29BD66JZVMJ

When two masthead lights are fitted what is therequired relationship between them?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Both must be at the same level.

Frd must be at least 4.5 metres higher than the aft.

Frd must be at least 2 metres higher than the aft.

Aft must be at least 4.5 metres higher than the frd.

STCW29IYR5APJYJ

When both a fuse and breaker are used on onecircuit, when will the fuse blow?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A break in the motor winding.

A very high short circuit current.

Continuous moderately high over-current.

An earth fault.

STCW29OFVOA163U

Why is the battery maintenance of suchImportance?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To comply with the planned maintenance requirements.

The batteries are the last resort back-up system.

They are an item of survey equipment.

To ensure there is a continuity of supply to the navigation lights.

STCW29THRTVAP5X




Which of these materials can be used to insulatemagnetic flux?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Rubber.

Ceramic.

None of the other options.

Porcelain.

STCW29TPYTTQ7DM

Which of the following is the most suitable for useas a magnet?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Stainless steel.

Soft iron.

Copper.

Nickel.

STCW2A4NKNV2JKP

In series connected resistors which value remainsconstant?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Voltage.

Current.

Resistance.

Reactance.

STCW2B82VJJDGIQ

How will the plastic insulation in a cable be affectedif the temperature exceeds 100 degrees Celsius?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The insulation is likely to be severely damaged.

Nothing as the insulation is designed to withstand temperatures of more than500 degrees Celsius.

The life-span of the cable will be reduced in accordance with the conductorlife span formula.

The insulation resistance is increased as the heat will remove any trace ofhumidity.

STCW2CT9DTFFVDY




In the worst case what would be the effect a 25milli-amps electric shock?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Totally harmless

Give a mild shock

Burn the skin

Could be fatal

STCW2D5JDUWW9IA

Two resistors of 6 ohm & 3 ohm are connected inparallel across an EMF of 12V, what is the circuit current?

1)

2)

3)

4)

2 A

6A

3A

9A

STCW2DIJXP1QM3Q

If a p.d. of 24V exists across a 15 Ohm resistorwhat is the current?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0.6amps

3.6amps

1.2amps

1.6amps

STCW2DPZR5YYW2O

If a 100 metre length of 1.25 mm dia. wire has aresistance of 30 Ohm, what length of the same wire of 0.75 mm dia. willhave a resistance of 25 Ohm?

1)

2)

3)

4)

35 metres

20 metres

25 metres

30 metres

STCW2DY29JHQISJ




What danger is associated with excess shaftmagnetism?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Failure of the generator to self excite.

Damage to shaft bearing surfaces.

Arcing at commutator.

Insulation breakdown.

STCW2E5HR8HG4S0

Using lead/acid batteries what is the minimumnumber of cells required to produce 24V?

1)

2)

3)

4)

12

24

6

16

STCW2ENO5JCHFJU

Which law states that the sum of currents arriving ata junction is equal to the sum of currents leaving the junction?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Ohm's Law

Lenz' Law

Kirchoff's Current Law

Faraday's Law

STCW2ER1O1VZ2CV

What is the unit for inductance?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Henry

Weber

Farad

Coulomb

STCW2ERTR8YRQA5




What is the electrolyte in a conventional lead/acidbattery?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Distilled water.

Dilute Sulphuric acid.

Dilute Hydrochloric acid.

Potassium hydroxide.

STCW2F4CQATBH0H

What happens to the current if the resistance of acircuit doubles while the applied voltage remains constant.

1)

2)

3)

4)

Doubled.

Halved.

Remains the same.

Quadrupled.

STCW2FSJ6GXKZCC

What will happen when an earth fault occurs on oneline of an insulated distribution system?

1)

2)

3)

4)


The system will be in overload and both line fuses trip.


The opposite line fuse will trip due overload.

STCW2G3VZQ8QOXX

What is the maximum allowable temperature fornormal Class A insulation type?

1)

2)

3)

4)

45 degree C

55 degree C

80 degree C

105 degree C

STCW2G4UF9LWUK6




What is the purpose of an instrument transformerinstalled on the main bus bars?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To measure the generator output voltage.

To measure the generator output current.

To measure the earth leakage.

To prevent bus-bar overload.

STCW2GK9AAAUAU2

What is the danger of naked lights in the batterylocker?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Reaction with the gases to form a toxic mixture.

They may damage the battery casings

The batteries give off highly flammable hydrogen gas.

The batteries give off hydrogen sulphide making the air explosive.

STCW2GOR3PHUNR8

What causes the EMF variation in an AC alternator?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Flux density.

Changing polarity.

Velocity of conductor cutting flux.

Component of velocity at 90° to flux.

STCW2GOWJZ5YLDI

What is energy?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Capacity to carry out work.

Rate of doing work.

Amount of work done.

Transfer of power.

STCW2GR0F99IVHW




Give the reason why shore power and ship's powershould never be run in parallel?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Ship's supply is in STAR, shore supply is in DELTA

The shore frequency is rigid, the ship's frequency is not

No common earth is available

Voltage drop from shore is different from the ship

STCW2HBWYJW3UXU

How is an Ammeter connected in a circuit?

1)

2)

3)

4)

In series.

In series with a resistance.

In parallel.

In parallel with a resistance.

STCW2HF6L6UUVIH

Why do ships normally use an AC insulated neutraldistribution system?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It limits fault current.

An earth failure on one phase will not cause protective devices like fuses andcircuit breakers to trip.

It reduces cable size.

It reduces switchgear ratings.

STCW2I25RBMK3U4

What produces an induced E.M.F.?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Change in voltage.

Change in flux linkage.

Change in current.

Change in resistance.

STCW2IA46P0LI8A




What is the wire made from in an HRC fuse?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Platinum

Tungsten

Silver

Nickel

STCW2IGY3LBAC42

In an emergency, what would be the lowestacceptable insulation resistance readings?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0.5 Meg Ohm

1.0 Meg Ohm

5.0 Meg Ohm

10.0 Meg Ohm

STCW2IMW6CD1V0H

What is the normal output voltage range of aninsulation meter?

1)

2)

3)

4)


Between 1,000 and 10,000 Volts



STCW2IZ6XXBM5OC

What is the purpose of the cable gland in addition toproviding a watertight seal?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To provide a gas tight seal

As bulkhead or penetrating plate reinforcement

To allow minor sliding movements of the cable

To maintain the mechanical properties of the cable

STCW2J4YC4Y7NFE




Why should an earth failure be checked and clearedas soon as possible?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It may damage the monitoring instruments.

There may be a circulating current around the vessel's hull.

The Unattended Machinery Space (UMS) certificate may be withdrawn.

A conflicting earth failure may occur and cause fuses to blow.

STCW2JB5B1JPY71

What kind of device measures pressure andconverts it to an electrical signal?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A transducer.

A transponder.

A transformer.

A transceiver.

STCW2JOAUUT41QZ

What law states that induced EMF always opposesthe change producing it?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Lenz

Faraday

Fleming

Coulomb

STCW2JSNNR2IN6V

What is impedance?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Total resistance in an electrical circuit.

Resistance provided by the cable in an electrical circuit.

Induction of an electrical circuit.

Induced E.M.F. of a circuit.

STCW2JWFH6R7K9N




Which of the following four materials is the bestelectrical conductor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Copper.

Brass.

Silver.

Steel.

STCW2K1DLRRBI2Y

How much energy is dissipated when a 2A currentis passed through a 50 ohm resistor for 3 minutes?

1)

2)

3)

4)

24kJ

30kJ

33.3kJ

36kJ

STCW2KL3V24Y6FM

What is the unit for energy?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Watt

Coulomb

Joule

Ohm

STCW2KM2D85AK0H

Which statement is true for induced E.M.F.?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Always equal to the current.

Always resists change in current.

Always assists change in current.

Is a function of resistance.

STCW2KVZIENXYE4




How can a Voltmeter measure a variety of voltagevalues?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By connecting a shunt in series.

By connecting a shunt in parallel.

By connecting a capacitor in series.

By connecting a capacitor in parallel.

STCW2L4F92U25GL

What do wire size numbers indicate?(e.g. sizes 10,12 etc.)

1)

2)

3)

4)

Wire section in square millimetres.

Wire outside diameter in millimetres.

Retrogressive numbering in " AWG".

Progressive numbering in Amps.

STCW2LC3WJIQPWE

In parallel connected resistors which value remainsconstant?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Impedance

Reactance

Voltage

Current

STCW2LGQQVXJUDA

What gases are present in the modernincandescent lamp?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Vacuum.

Argon and Nitrogen.

Argon and neon.

Neon and Nitrogen.

STCW2LWGTGAQ1ZI




What is the advantage of a delta-star woundtransformer?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Can transform higher loads.

Allows cycle changing.

Allows an earthed secondary winding.

Allows an earthed primary winding.

STCW2M76TNI62QF

What are ideal conditions for taking insulation testreadings of a motor or alternator?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Hot after stopping.

Cooled down to hand-warm.

Cooled down to ambient temperature.

Running.

STCW2M8DZWEW93H

Which of the following would you expect to find atthe main switchboard?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Insulated rubber matting.

Insulated grab rails.

Suitable extinguisher.


STCW2ME0FF2JCOF

Using Fleming's Right Hand Rule what does thethumb indicate?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Direction of current in the conductor.

Direction of the magnetic flux.

Direction of movement of the conductor.

Direction of the excitation current.

STCW2MJNK0D4JQ5




What governs induced EMF in a conductor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Flux density.

Rate of cutting flux.

Rate of change of magnetic flux.

Magnetic strength.

STCW2MT8IT5LIEU

Two resistors of 6O ohm & 3O ohm are connectedin parallel across an EMF of 12V, what is the effective resistance?

1)

2)

3)

4)

20 ohm

4.5O ohm

9O ohm

6O ohm

STCW2N28AY2MWOH

Why are Arc chutes fitted in circuit breakers?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To extinguish the arc and prevent carbon formation

To isolate the breaker segments so the arc does not blow over

To control the temperature and molecular structure of the arc

To confine the arc, control its movement and provide rapid cooling

STCW2NOTRZIZAKK

In the formula e = B l ØSin. What does 'e'represent?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Maximum voltage

Average voltage

Instantaneous voltage

RMS voltage

STCW2NVSQFTCZ5G




For value 0 - max in the AC sin wave how far doesthe rotating vector (phasor) travel?

1)

2)

3)

4)

180 deg.

90 deg.

270 deg.

360 deg.

STCW2O4JJAOT1F4

In a purely resistive circuit what is the phasedifference between voltage and current?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0 degrees.

90 degrees.

180 degrees.

45 degrees.

STCW2OAQ5HQ8FDR

The ratio of active power to apparent power isknown as?

1)

2)

3)

4)

RMS voltage.

Power factor.

Angle of phase difference.

Circuit inductance.

STCW2OU5FRVJWIH

Why is a ballast resistor fitted in fluorescent lamps?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Pre heat the electrodes.

Provide high starting voltage.

Stabilize current and power.

Performs all of these functions.

STCW2P2UH5IK05N




In one cycle of 3-phase AC how often is voltage atpeak value?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Six times

Twice

Three times

Always

STCW2P7D0SLAE5U

In an incandescent lamp how much of the energy isconverted to light?

1)

2)

3)

4)

80%

60%

40%

20%

STCW2PCAQR4JVW2

In internal alleyways what is the light spacingregulation?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Lights spaced at 1.5 X alleyway height.

Lights spaced every 2 metres.

Lights spaced at 2 X alleyway height.

Lights spaced every 2.5 metres.

STCW2PHG1K0B4PX

On an electrical drawing what symbol representsimpedance?

1)

2)

3)

4)

R

I

Z

L

STCW2PWQY91MVZK




How will an earth fault be noticed in an insulateddistribution system?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The fuse in the faulty circuit will blow

The fuse located in the system's neutral point will blow

The voltage will drop

The system insulation meter will indicate a drop in resistance

STCW2QRVVYYXXFV

In what situation is Induced EMF given by theformula e=Blv?

1)

2)

3)

4)

When a conductor rotates in a magnetic field.

When a single conductor cuts a magnetic field in a straight line.

When a conductor is rotated between opposing magnets.

When a magnet is rotated in a coiled conductor.

STCW2QTXJZ6XSSH

What happens in a circuit when the voltage remainsconstant and the resistance increases?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The current decreases.

The current increases.

The current remains the same.

The current increases by the square of the increase in resistance.

STCW2QUO15C9GUB

What would be the S.G. of a fully charged battery?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1.12

1.2

1.28

1.36

STCW2QYVTM0805E




In the AC sin wave what is the periodic time?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Time for zero to max voltage.

Time for zero to zero voltage.

Cycles/second.

Time for one complete cycle.

STCW2RBPXUAFWK8

What is the amplitude of the AC sin wave?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Peak value.

Cycle length.

Cycles/second.

Phasor value.

STCW2RCXA1QJ8CY

What is the normal output voltage range of aninsulation meter?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Between 200 and 300 Volts.




STCW2SYEPM9EH0T

Which of the following is a requirement for theNavigation lighting distribution board?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Fuse located on the main switchboard.

Alarm must sound in the engine room.

An alternate supply must be available.

Indicator lamps must be in series with the navigation light.

STCW2T83U1VHFWO




What units is impedance expressed in?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Henry

Ohm

Farad

Weber

STCW2T8HL8K46QL

Two resistors of 6O ohm & 3O ohm are connectedin parallel across an EMF of 12V, what is the current in each resistor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

2A & 4A

3A & 6A

1A & 2A

0.66A & 1.33A

STCW2TO2H0K4OZS

In oil type circuit breakers, what is the purpose ofthe oil?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Acts as insulation.

To smother the arc.

To release hydrogen gas in the oil will extinguish the arc.


STCW2TSXVMKF8CB

Induced E.M.F. is out of phase with current by whatdegree?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0 degrees

180 degrees

90 degrees

60 degrees

STCW2UHTDS5IN39




On an electrical drawing what symbol representsInductance?

1)

2)

3)

4)

F

I

R

L

STCW2V03QR73ZJD

What is a Clamp meter used for?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To measure current in a single cable.

To measure cable resistance.

To measure current in a three phase cable.

To measure cable voltage.

STCW2VEQUFFRK45

If the effective resistance of a circuit is 8 ohm andcurrent from source is 1.5A what is the E.M.F.?

1)

2)

3)

4)

6V

24V

12V

9V

STCW2W4KU650O2M

What is a multi meter used for?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To measure resistance.

To measure voltage and resistance.

To measure voltage, resistance and current.

To measure voltage and current.

STCW2WGSR6FXKGS




If magnet pole faces are 3cm X 4cm and have fluxdensity of 0.417T, what is the flux?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0.5mWb

0.4mWb

0.7mWb

0.55mWb

STCW2WILJE8BFY0

Except when used as bus-bars, which conductornumber (AWG), or larger should always be stranded?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No 6 AWG

No 8 AWG

No 10 AWG

No 12 AWG

STCW2WJCJFWNSGR

How does the RMS voltage compare to peakvoltage?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0.666 of peak value

0.707 of peak value

0.805 of peak value

0.777 of peak value

STCW2WUUW62QW9S

In a three-phase system why is a resistor fitted inseries with the earth detection lights?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To limit the earth current.

To protect the earth lights.

To provide an easier path for the earth current.

To lower the voltage at the earth lights.

STCW2WZGF49GCQD




What is the unit of lighting intensity?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Lumen.

Candela.

Angstrom.

Lambert.

STCW2X61TAIRAXN

A voltmeter with 5,000 ohm internal resistancereads 10 volts at full scale. What resistor needs to be put in series toincrease its range to 150 volts?

1)

2)

3)

4)

7500 Ohm

35000 Ohm

70000 Ohm

165000 Ohm

STCW2XJJFU04TQO

An electrical heater is marked 220 V, 4400 W.What is the resistance of the heater?

1)

2)

3)

4)

220 Ohm

11 Ohm

22 Ohm

110 Ohm

STCW2XP3SI7BHFL

What is the unit for power?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Ohm.

Watt.

Coulomb.

Joule.

STCW2XRBIKYYAGY




Why should an earth failure be checked and clearedas soon as possible?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It may damage the monitoring instruments.

There may be a circulating current around the vessel's hull.

The Unattended Machinery Space (UMS) certificate may be invalid.

A conflicting earth failure may occur and cause fuses to blow.

STCW2XTQKZ1CGNE

What problem can arise from auto starting electricequipment?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Overload the generator prime mover.

Trip preferential trips.

Trip reverse power trip.

Over speeds the generator prime mover.

STCW2Y0A56ZEBCF

What law determines the direction of induced EMF?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Faraday.

Fleming.

Lenz.

Weber.

STCW2YJTCEAPNVY

How can an Ammeter measure a variety of currentvalues?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By connecting a shunt in series.

By connecting a shunt in parallel.

By connecting a capacitor in series.

By connecting a capacitor in parallel.

STCW2YKTP7PZI3D




Which one of the following devices uses theprinciple of electromagnetic induction?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A variable capacitor.

A transistor.

A transformer.

A rheostat.

STCW2Z1CXHFGP4V

What is the continuity resistance of a heatingelement of 2 kWatt, 220 Volt?

1)

2)

3)

4)

24.2 Ohm.

9.09 Ohm.

44 Ohm.

11 Ohm.

STCW2Z3FXC048S7

What would a clamp type ampere meter read ifclipped around a 3-core cable known to carry 100 Amps to a 3-phaseelectric motor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

100 Amps

33.33 Amps

300 Amps

0 Amps

STCW2Z4ZMRMXE1I

With reference to a magnet what is Hysteresis?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Magnetic strength in relation to current.

Lag of flux compared to field strength.

Permeability of the magnet material.

Reluctance of magnetic material.

STCW2ZA9NQXRXIY



EO3-Operate Main Machinery and Control Systems STCW Operational - engineer

What is component number 3 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The cooling water inlet.

The lubricating oil outlet.

The cooling water outlet.

The air vent valve.

SET010000000612

Which part is the valve guide?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Number 1

Number 2

Number 3

Number 4

SET010000001047

Which part is the exhaust gas receiver ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Number 1

Number 6

Number 7

Number 8

SET010000001050

Which part is the exhaust valve ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Number 1

Number 2

Number 4

Number 6

SET010000001051




What is part number 3 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The air chamber

The combustion center

The combustion chamber

The piston glider

SET010000001052


1)

2)

3)

4)

The air receiver

The scavenging air box

The air filter

The air cooler

SET010000001053

What is part number 8?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The air box

The air filter

The cooler inlet

The air cooler

SET010000001054

Which part is the turbine wheel ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Number 4

Number 7

Number 8

Number 9

SET010000001056




Which part is the auxiliary fan ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Number 6

Number 7

Number 9

Number 10

SET010000001057


1)

2)

3)

4)

The turbine wheel

The blower

The turbine outlet

The blower ring

SET010000001058

What is the most likely cause if the main engineexhaust temperature increases in one cylinder only ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The engine is overloaded.

The main engine RPM is too high.

Faulty fuel injector.

Cooling water restriction.

SET010000001059

Pressure in the combustion chamber can bereduced by .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

a piston ring failure.

a burnt piston top.

a leaking exhaust valve.


SET010000001061




Temperature in the combustion chamber will bereduced by ....

1)

2)

3)

4)

a defective fuel valve.

a low air pressure.

lubrication low pressure.

not using the auxiliary fan.

SET010000001062

What is likely the reason if the exhaust temperatureis increasing in all cylinders of the main engine ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A faulty fuel valve.

A cracked liner.

Rising scavenging air temperature.

Broken piston ring.

SET010000001063

Which of the following would most likely account fora decrease in main engine scavenging air temperature?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An increase in air volume.

A rising air temperature in the air cooler.

A dirty turbine wheel.

A decrease in air volume.

SET010000001064

What does a pressure drop across the scavenge aircooler indicate ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Increased engine room temperature.

Fouling of cooler air side.

Fouling of the cooling water system.

A reduced cooling water flow.

SET010000001065




Exhaust temperature increasing on all main enginecylinders indicates....

1)

2)

3)

4)

The air system is fouled.

The exhaust system is fouled.

The scavenging ports are fouled.

Any of the these faults.

SET010000001067

The turbo charger turbine wheel is rotated by........

1)

2)

3)

4)

pressured air supplied by blower number 10.

inlet air coming from the inlet filter.

exhaust gas from the exhaust manifold.

any of the other options.

SET010000001068


1)

2)

3)

4)

A double valve.

A three way valve.

A thermostat.

A controllable thermostat.

SET010000001073

What part is the de-airating tank ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Number 1

Number 4

Number 6

Number 7

SET010000001074




Pipe number 8 is connected to the salt watercooling system. Why ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To operate the cooling system with salt water during cleaning of the freshwater generator.

To back flush the cooling water system.

For use in an emergency only.

Any of the other options

SET010000001075

What liquid is used to clean the turbo charger of alarge low speed main engine? (high speed air side, half speed gas side)

1)

2)

3)

4)

Oil.

Water.

A chemical mixture of oil and water.

A chemical mixture of acid and water.

SET010000001076

What is the purpose of part number 6 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To prevent an increase in water pressure.

To be an extra expansion tank.

To prevent accumulation of air in the cooling system.

To measure difference of pressure before and after the cooler.

SET010000001078

If the cooling water temperature goes below it'srecommended value, what can happen ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Condensation of sulphuric acid on the cylinder walls

Condensation of lubricating oil on the cylinder walls

The engine cannot be started again

The fuel pumps may be clogged

SET010000001081




If the cooling water temperature exceeds itsrecommended value, what can happen ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Too much lubricating oil film will form on the cylinder walls which will createblack exhaust smoke

The blower will slow down

A less effective lubricating oil film is formed on the cylinder walls

The expansion tank will be emptied

SET010000001082

What is item "V" ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A flow control valve.

A viscometer.

A fine filter.

A steam trap.

SET010000001619

What is item "M" ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The fuel flow meter.

The by-pass valve.

The magnetic filter.

The manometer.

SET010000001620

What is the function of valve "PR" in this fuel circuit?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A safety blow-off valve in case of Emergency Stop.

A fuel drain valve in case of engine shut-down.

A de-gassing/ HP gas release by very high fuel temperature.

A constant pressure regulating valve.

SET010000001621




What are the parts marked "F" ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Fine filters.

Magnetic filters.

Automatic filters.

Any of the these.

SET010000001622

What grade of fuel does the temperature of the dailytank suggest is in use ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Intermediate or heavy fuel oil (1500 - 3500 sec redwood 1).

Marine diesel.

Distillate diesel.

Gas oil.

SET010000001623

When in UMS mode of engine room operation, atwhat intervals should the HFO daily tank be drained via valve "D"?

1)

2)

3)

4)

At 08.00hr and 17.00hr as well in last evening round prior UMS operation.

Every 4 hours.

Twice a day.

Once a day.

SET010000001625

Fuel of 180 cst is in use on board. Fuel of 380 cst isnow being bunkered. How will this affect the reading of thermometer "T" ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Temperature will increase when 380 cst fuel is used.

Temperature remains constant, same fuel pump viscosity.

Temperature will decrease when 380 cst fuel is used.

None of the other options.

SET010000001627




If the outlet temperature "Tout" is kept constant at65 degrees C and during normal sea speed the inlet temperature "Tin"is62 degree C, what would "Tin" show during engine slow down ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Inlet temperature "Tin" will decrease.

Inlet temperature "Tin" will be kept constant by controller.

Inlet temperature "Tin" will fluctuate.

Inlet temperature "Tin" will increase.

SET010000001629

What is item "J" ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A Water Strainer.

The Jacket Cooling Water Pump.

The Piston Cooling Water Pump.

The Sea Water Cooling Pump.

SET010000001630

If the Jacket Cooling Water expansion tank leveldrops rapidly whilst Full Ahead on passage, what could cause this?

1)

2)

3)

4)

There is a leakage in the lube oil cooler.

There is an internal leakage on the engine.

Cracked cylinder head.

Malfunctioning thermostatic valve.

SET010000001631

What kind of Jacket Cooling water system is shownhere ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An open circuit

A free closed circuit

A forced circuit

None of the other options

SET010000001632




What absorbs the impact of the up-and-downmovement of the piston telescopic pipes in this water flow system ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The expansion tank.

The construction of the buffer tank.

The air cushion in the buffer tank.

The up and downward movement of the indicating flaps.

SET010000001633

If the system pressure is 3.5 kg/cm2, what will bethe pressure in the buffer vessels ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Exactly the same, 3.5kg/cm2

Higher than 3.5 kg/cm2.

Lower than 3.5 kg/cm2.

Fluctuating around 3.5 kg/cm2

SET010000001634

Why is there an indicating flap "IF" (shown witharrow up and arrow down) fitted on the outlet of the piston cooling waterbuffer tank ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To indicate if the pump is running

To indicate that the engine is running

To indicate that the buffer air in the system is in order.

To indicate that buffer air and water flow are in order.

SET010000001635

What will happen to the level of the expansion tankif the engine slows down or stops ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The level will decrease.

The level will increase.

The level will at first decrease but increases again.


SET010000001636




What are items "F" ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Flow controllers.

Thermostatic valves.

Filters.

Flow meters.

SET010000001638

How are the crosshead bearings on this Dieselengine supplied with lubricating oil?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Direct from the lub oil main line.

From the camshaft lub oil line.

Via the main bearing, crankshaft, bottom end bearing and connecting rod.

Independently.

SET010000001639

How is the gear train lubricated on this Dieselengine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Via the crankshaft.

Via the camshaft system.

By its own independent lub oil cicuit.

Direct from the common lub oil circuit.

SET010000001640

How is the thrust bearing lubricated on this Dieselengine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Via the crankshaft.

Via the camshaft.

Direct via the main lub oil line.

By its own independent supply system.

SET010000001641




Which of the following components is NOT directlylubricated by the lubricating inlet supply line?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The crosshead bearing.

The main bearings.

The thrust bearing.

The gear train.

SET010000001642

What is the function of the valve PR close to thelubrication oil pump ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To keep the oil temperature constant.

To absorb pump vibrations.

To keep the oil pressure constant.

To act as a high pressure safety valve.

SET010000001643

What kind of temperature control system is fitted inthis lubrication oil system ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Controlling the outlet by regulating the inlet

Controlling the outlet by regulating the outlet

Controlling the inlet by regulating the inlet

Controlling the inlet by regulating the outlet

SET010000001644

What is the function of the lubrication oil sump tank?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To collect the system oil in use.

To act as as buffer tank of the system oil in use.

As supply source of the system oil.

All of these.

SET010000001646




What type of scavenge air system is applied to thisdiesel engine ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Loop scavenging

Uniflow scavenging

Compounded scavenging


SET010000001647

When does the exhaust valve "EV" open ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

When the piston is at bottom dead point.

When the piston moves upward.

At the end of the working stroke.


SET010000001648

Which type of exhaust manifold feeds thisturbocharger ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Constant pressure type.

Booster type.

Impulse type.

Split type.

SET010000001649

What is the function of drain valve "D" ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To release the air when the engine is stopped.

To drain the oil from the manifold.

To drain hydrocarbons and avoid explosion.

To drain the moisture from the manifold.

SET010000001650




Which thermometer always indicates the highesttemperature in the turbocharger ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

TEB

TE

TE1

TE5

SET010000001651

What do you think would be a reasonable scavengeair pressure for this engine running at full speed ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

25 kg/cm2

7.0 kg/cm2

1.25 kg/cm2

0.25 kg/cm2

SET010000001652

What might be a reasonable value for the scavengeair temperature of this diesel running at full speed ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

420 degrees C

75 degrees C

45 degrees C

28 degrees C

SET010000001653

Under normal running conditions, what pressure isthe exhaust gas entering the exhaust gas turbocharger "ET" ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Under a vacuum.

Under high pressure.

Under slight overpressure.

Under atmospheric pressure.

SET010000001654




What kind of fuel oil system is shown here ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A heavy fuel oil system.

A blend fuel oil system.

A marine diesel oil system.

A gas oil system.

SET010000001655

What is the component marked "BUC" ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The Basic Unit Controller

The Blend Unit Controller

The Blend Unit Calorifier

The Base Unit Calorifier

SET010000001656

Over which components does the Blending UnitController act in order to blend fuel of the required viscosity?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The diesel oil and heavy fuel oil booster pumps.

The diesel oil and fuel oil inlet valves of the blender.

The steam inlet and return by-pass valves of the fuel heater.

All of these.

SET010000001657

Where does the blending of fuels take place in thissystem ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

In units DP and FP

In unit H

In unit BU

In unit BUC

SET010000001658




What are the components marked "M" ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Manometers

Magnetic shut-off valves

Microprocessors

Flow meters

SET010000001659

What are the components marked "F" ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Flow meters.

Fuel filters.

Fuel pumps.

Fuel heaters.

SET010000001660

Which part of this system is usually heated to 65degree C ? Study the picture.

1)

2)

3)

4)

The blending unit BU.

The blending unit controller BUC.

The unit H.

The HFO daily tank.

SET010000001661

What is the component marked "P" ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The fresh water pump.

The lub oil pump.

The piston cooling pump.

The sea water pump.

SET010000001662




On a small diesel engine how would pump "P" bedriven ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By "V" belt from the crankshaft.

By an electric motor.

By gears driven from the crankshaft.

By gear drive from the main output shaft.

SET010000001663

What is the component marked "W" ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A water strainer.

A WAX by-pass temperature controller.

A water by-pass buffer.

A manual 3-way water by-pass valve.

SET010000001664

How is the exhaust gas turbocharger cooled inrelation to the engine ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

In series with the cylinders.

In line with the cylinders.

In parallel with the cylinders.

In tandem with the cylinders.

SET010000001665

If the output of this auxiliary diesel increases, say by30 %, how will the thermometer readings on the outlet side of engine andturbocharger change ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

They will slightly decrease (by 10 to 30 degrees C)

They will remain the same

They will slightly increase (by 20 to 50 degrees C)

They will greatly increase (by 80 to 100 degrees C)

SET010000001666




For this auxiliary diesel fresh water system, whatmethod of temperature control is used ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Controlling the outlet by regulating the inlet.

Controlling the outlet by regulating the outlet.

Controlling the inlet by regulating the inlet.

Controlling the inlet by regulating the outlet.

SET010000001667

What is the purpose of the auxiliary dieselrenovating lubrication oil tank ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To collect used auxiliary diesel lubrication oil and purify it for reuse

To act as a purification stand-by tank for the auxiliary diesel sump tanks

To store auxiliary diesel fresh lube oil.

To act as a collecting tank for non-reusable auxiliary diesel lube oils

SET010000001696

What is the purpose of the Main Engine Dirty Oiltank ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To act as collecting tank from Main Engine scavenge drains

To act as collecting tank for dirty oil from the Main Engine intended forpurification

To act as a collecting tank for all non-reusable oils

To act as a drain tank of the piston rod stuffing boxes

SET010000001697

What description best fits the Main Engine Lub. Oilsump tank ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A collecting and buffer tank of the Main Engine system oil

A Main Engine system oil reserve tank

A collecting tank for main engine dirty oil used by the Main Engine

An overflow tank of the Main Engine system oil

SET010000001698




What do all the lubrication oil tanks that areconnected the lubrication oil purifiers have in common ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

They all contain extremely dirty oils.

They all contain the same grade of oil.

They all contain in-service oils.

They all contain waste oils.

SET010000001700

What is the usual inlet temperature of Main Enginelubricating oil to the purifier (Tin) ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

70 degree C

75 degree C

85 degree C

95 degree C

SET010000001701

Suppose Lubrication Oil Purifier No 2 is runningM.E.L.O. sump tank to M.E.L.O. sump tank. Lubrication Oil Purifier No 1 isnow to be set up for the other tank purification, which set up is notpossible ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Aux Diesel Renovating Tank to Renovating tank

M.E. Dirty Oil Tank to Dirty Oil tank

M.E. Dirty Oil tank to Lub. Oil sump tank

M.E. Lub Oil sump tank to Dirty Oil Tank

SET010000001703

Where and how would you take sample of the oilfrom the Main Engine sump tank?

1)

2)

3)

4)

At the sample cock on delivery side of the M.E. Lub Oil Pump.

From the suction filter drain of the M.E. Lub Oil Pumps.

After the purifier when running sump to sump and M.E. running.

In port when engine is stopped taken directly from the sump tank.

SET010000001704




During manoeuvring with the main engine, what isthe arrangement for starting air supply by the main air compressors ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No 1 and No 2 compressors on "AUTO".

One compressor on "AUTO", the other on "MANUAL"

No 1 and No 2 compressor on "MANUAL".

Both compressors started at the local start position as required.

SET010000001921

In what part shown on this scavenge air schematicdiagram is heat converted into mechanical power ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

In part 2, the turboblower.

In the main engine.

In part 1, the exhaust gas turbine.

In part 5, the scavenge air blower.

SET010000001939

In which part indicated on this scavenge airschematic is mechanical power converted to thermal power ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

In the main engine

In the turboblower and scavenge air blower (no 2 and no 5)

In the exhaust gas turbine (no 1)

In the exhaust gas boiler

SET010000001941

In an "impulse type" exhaust gas turbocharger, theexhaust gases of the main engine ....

1)

2)

3)

4)

are entering into a spacious exhaust gas manifold.

are driving only one single turbocharger.

are led in pipe groups directly and separately to the turbocharger.

are led to two or three sections of the exhaust gas manifold.

SET010000001943




On which unit of the scavenge air system is anautomatic drain fitted ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

On the exhaust gas boiler.

On the turbo blower.

On the scavenge air blower.

On the scavenge air manifold.

SET010000001945

Why can the temperature of the scavenge air afterthe scavenge air cooler not be lowered below a given temperature andwhy has the temperature to be regulated above this value ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To avoid cracking of the cylinder liner.

To maintain the thermal efficiency of the diesel.

To avoid misfiring and starting problems.

To avoid condensate and water entering the engine.

SET010000001946

In a constant pressure type turbocharger theexhaust gas enters the turbo charger via ....

1)

2)

3)

4)

the grids of the common exhaust gas manifold.

the grids of two or more exhaust piping groups.

a separate manifold for each turbocharger.

nozzles on each individual exhaust pipe.

SET010000001948

For a turbo charger is running at full speed, whatwould be a usual oil sump temperature on the turbine side ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

35 to 45 degrees C

45 to 50 degrees C

55 to 65 degrees C

72 to 82 degrees C

SET010000001949




In the Main Engine sea water circuit why are theLub Oil and the Scavenge air coolers fitted in front of the jacket and pistonwater coolers ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

They need more cooling water.

The Lub Oil and Scavenge air temperatures are lower.

The Scavenge air and Lub Oil coolers have by-pass valves fitted.

For ease of installation.

SET010000001957

How frequently are the tanks (item number 3) of thisfuel oil schematic diagram refilled ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

They are constantly refilled by the fuel purifier.

They are refilled once per day.

They are refilled only when required.

They are refilled twice a week.

SET010000001976

What would be the temperature of the oil in thesettling tank (item number 3) shown in this fuel oil arrangement?

1)

2)

3)

4)

45 to 60 degree C

30 to 45 degree C

60 to 80 degree C

Above 80 degree C

SET010000001977

What is item number 4 of this fuel oil arrangementdrawing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A fuel strainer.

A fuel transfer pump.

A heater.

A booster pump.

SET010000001978




What is item number 5 of this fuel arrangementschematic drawing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A fuel oil transfer pump

A fuel oil booster pump

A fuel oil ball filter

A fuel oil purifier

SET010000001979

At sea, what should be the level in tank number 2 ofthis fuel arrangement schematic drawing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Variable, depending time of the day

Between 2/3 and 3/4 full

Full

Between 1/2 and 3/4 full

SET010000001980

Which of the following system set-ups are possibleusing the fuel arrangement shown here ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Settling to Daily, Daily to Daily tank

Daily to Settling, Settling to Settling tank

Settling to settling, Daily to Daily tank

Settling to Daily, Settling to Settling tank

SET010000001981

What is the usual temperature of a fuel oil (HFO)daily tank?

1)

2)

3)

4)

40 to 50 degree C

50 to 60 degree C

60 to 75 degree C

80 to 90 degree C

SET010000001982




Which of the following are not necessarily fitted on aHFO settling tank?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A drain valve (Spring loaded)

Quick closing shut-off valves (remote operated)

A thermometer

A remote tank gauging system

SET010000001983

Which of the following alarms on UMS operation arenot necessarily provided on the Fuel Oil Daily Tank (HFO) ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Daily tank low temperature

Daily tank low level

Daily tank high Level

Daily tank high temperature

SET010000001984

When you read a crankshaft deflection figure andthe + sign is indicated, for example +4, this means that ....

1)

2)

3)

4)

the crankpin location is 4/100 mm out of centre.

the crankwebs have opened up by 4/100 mm.

the crankwebs have closed in by 4/100 mm.

the main bearing on one side is 4/100 mm greater than the other.

SET010000002019

What are the two most important factors influencingthe crankshaft deflection readings?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Condition of ballast tanks and temperature of engine.

Bearing wear and bedplate alignment.

Bedplate alignment and condition of after peak.

Ballast tank condition and bedplate alignment.

SET010000002020




A cylinder of a large diesel engine is 900 mm indiameter and the firing pressure is 80 bar. What is the force exerted onthe piston at this firing pressure ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

508,680 kg

635850, kg

487,334 kg

299,074 kg

SET010000002031

What is the purpose of a safety valve fitted in thecylinder cover of a diesel engine ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To open in port so the engine cannot be started.

To drain off water and condensate from the cylinder.

To release gas from the cylinder by operating turning gear.

To release excessive gas pressure from the cylinder.

SET010000002034

What force makes a safety valve of a diesel engineopen?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The starting air pressure admitted in the cylinder.

The exhaust gas pressure.

The fuel pressure to the cylinder head.

The pressure inside the combustion space.

SET010000002035

At which moment exactly does the safety valve of adiesel engine open?

1)

2)

3)

4)

At top dead point of the cylinder by max firing pressure.

When too much starting air is admitted.

When the gas pressure in the engine exceeds the spring pressure.

When fuel was retained previously in the cylinder.

SET010000002036




In which stage of its working process is this two-stroke diesel engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Compressing.

Firing.

Gas expanding.

Scavenging.

SET010000002038

What type of engine is shown here?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A two stroke diesel with loop scavenging.

A two stroke diesel with spiral scavenging.

A two stroke diesel with uniflow scavenging.

A two stroke diesel with piston underside scavenging.

SET010000002039

If you are taking crankshaft deflections, for whichposition will you list the reading which was last taken if the engine turnscounterclockwise ? Right is PS, left is SB.

1)

2)

3)

4)

Zero

P

S

TS

SET010000002040

What is the structural lay-out of this diesel engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Foundation, one-piece motor block.

Separate bedplate, columns, cylinder block for each cylinder.

Separate bedplate, one part crankcase and cylinder block.

One unit foundation and bedplate, separate cylinder block.

SET010000002041




A piston of this type is composed of the followingmain parts:-

1)

2)

3)

4)

piston body, piston flange, piston crown.

piston crown, piston rod, piston skirt, intermediate piece.

piston crown, piston body, piston rings.

piston, piston rings, telescopic piping.

SET010000002044

What would you call the assembly fitted on thepiston rod, which fits into a flange on top of the crankcase block openingthrough which the piston rod moves in order to secure tightness ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The piston underside valves.

The scavenging air valve box.

The piston rod stuffing box.

The crankcase sealing assembly.

SET010000002045

During normal operation, the telescopic piping ofthis diesel engine's piston are sliding up and down into ....

1)

2)

3)

4)

the crankcase cooling space.

compressed air vessels.

piston cooling water piping.

telescopic buffer vessels.

SET010000002046

What type of diesel engine is shown here ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A four stroke supercharged engine.

A four stroke trunk type engine.

A two stroke crosshead type engine.

A two stroke trunk-piston type engine.

SET010000002048




What type of scavenge system is in use in thisdiesel engine ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A uniflow scavenge system.

Loop scavenging.

Diverted scavenging.

Combined scavenging.

SET010000002049

What type of turbocharger would be fitted to thisengine ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An impulse type.

A constant pressure type.

A dual entry type.

A radial inlet type.

SET010000002051

What type of diesel engine is shown here ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A four stroke trunk type engine.

A four stroke flanged type engine.

A two stroke trunk type engine.

A two stroke suspended engine.

SET010000002052

How are the inlet, exhaust valves and rocker armsactuated on this engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Directly lifted by the cams acting on pushrods.

Hydraulically lifted by cam activated servo unit.

Pneumatically lifted via cam activated air booster.

Indirectly lifted by cam via tumbler lever.

SET010000002053




In this diagram if left is portside and right isstarboard and during the taking of crankshaft positions the rotation iscounterclockwise, in what position is the engine crankshaft now shown ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Between TP and P

Between P and S

Between S and TS

Between TS and TP

SET010000002054

Which grade of fuel oil can be used in this kind ofengine (built after 1990) ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Marine diesel or distillate diesel oil.

Blend or intermediate fuel oil.

Heavy fuel oil.

Any of these fuels.

SET010000002055

What is the purpose of the starting valve fitted onthe cylinder head of a diesel engine ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To allow starting air of 25 kg/cm2 into the cylinder when starting.

To block the fuel and air supply unless in "START" position.

To allow air from the main air bottle to enter the cylinder directly.

To activate the main air starting valve fitted on the engine.

SET010000002056

At what moment will the cylinder head starting airvalve, shown here, open and allow 25 bar to flow into the cylinder ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

When the control air on top is vented by the starting cam.

When control air is supplied to the top connection.

When the main starting air is opened from the bottle.

When 25 kg/cm2 air is supplied on top by manoeuvring.

SET010000002057




How is the air-tightness of the sliding piston (movedby control air pressure and spring) ensured in starting air valves of thistype ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Teflon seals are fitted.

O-ring seals are fitted.

Piston rings are fitted.

Labyrinth seals are fitted.

SET010000002058

What kind of periodic activity needs to be carriedout on the main engine prior to manoeuvering with regard to the startingair system ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Open up the main and cylinder head starting valve and clean pistons.

Check if the valves are moving freely with a torque spanner.

See that the cyinderl starting valve is moving by air hose connection.

Grease the valves by grease cup or grease gun, drain moisture.

SET010000002059

How are starting air valves made gas tight in thecylinder heads of diesel engines ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By face to face, hydraulic pressure applied.

They are screwed into the cylinder head and asbestos sealed.

Teflon or Viton seal rings are fitted.

A copper gasket is fitted.

SET010000002060

What kind of scavenging is shown on the top leftdrawing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Transversal scavenging.

Loop scavenging.

Cross scavenging.

Single valve uniflow.

SET010000002062




What kind of diesel scavenging system is shown onthe top centre drawing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Four-way uniflow.

Transversal.

Cross scavenging.

Loop scavenging.

SET010000002063

What kind of diesel scavenging system is shown onthe top right drawing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Loop scavenging.

Traverse scavenging.

Cross scavenging.

Uniflow scavenging.

SET010000002064

What kind of scavenging system is shown on thebottom left drawing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Transverse scavenging.

Cross scavenging.

Loop scavenging.

Uniflow scavenging.

SET010000002065

What kind of scavenge air system is shown on theright bottom drawing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Uniflow scavenging.

Cross scavenging.

Loop scavenging.

Balanced scavenging.

SET010000002066




Loop scavenging, cross scavenging and traversescavenging are called ..................... scavenging, as opposed to UNIFLOWscavenging.

1)

2)

3)

4)

MULTIFLOW.

DIVERSE FLOW.

REVERSE FLOW.

INVERSE FLOW.

SET010000002067

What preparations are required regarding PISTONSand CYLINDER LINERS of a diesel engine prior to departure stand-by?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Preheat cylinders and pistons, turn engine, turn cylinder lubricators.

Close safety valve, put out turning gear, open air bottles.

Open starting air, start booster pump, start stern tube pump.

Open indicator cocks, close safety valve, turn lubricators.

SET010000002069

What should be observed when you make alubrication check of the engine forced lubrication oil system ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The level in the oil sump tank.

The condition of the oil in the sump tank by test kit.

Uniform oil flow from bearings, top ends, guides, gear train.

That the oil pressure on the top position manometer is correct.

SET010000002070

At what times during the sea voyage is the mainengine in state of readiness for manoeuvring?

1)

2)

3)

4)

In shallow waters.

By reduced visibility.

In all emergency situations.

All of these.

SET010000002122




What determines the amount of fuel pumped perstroke with this fuel pump ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The lifting height of the plunger.

The setting of the overflow valve.

The setting of suction and overflow valve.

The rotating angle of the plunger in the barrel.

SET010000002425

How is the timing adjusted on this type fuel pump?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By the suction valve setting.

By the delivery valve setting.

By the plunger rotation.

By the fuel cam setting.

SET010000002426

The fuel delivery pipe between fuel pump andinjector, is shown here as a red interrupted line. For " UMS " classedvessel, how is this pipe best described ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It is manufactured from Austenit Steel and has flame/smoke detectors fitted inthe vicinity.

It is manufactured of high tensile steel and has to have thermal insulationfitted.

It needs to be a shielded pipe so that in case of rupture the fuel leakage canbe contained and the alarm sounded.

It must be provided with sensors so that the corresponding fuel pump cuts outin case of rupture.

SET010000002429

What is the mechanism that moves the injectionneedle upwards in the injector and causes the injector to spray fuel underpressure into the cylinder ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The lifting pressure of the pump plunger.

The mechanical force of the fuel cam.

The hydraulic pressure in the fuel line.

The balance pressure obtained by the injector spring.

SET010000002430




If you want to obtain a higher lift-off pressure in theinjector, you can ..................

1)

2)

3)

4)

tension the injector spring more.

tension the fuel pump spring more.

adjust the fuel pump cam to advance.

adjust the fuel oil cam to retard.

SET010000002432

The engine to which this fuel pump is fitted is...........

1)

2)

3)

4)

an auxiliary engine fuelled by heavy fuel oil and driving an alternator.

an auxiliary engine fuelled by diesel oil driving an alternator.

a main engine with direct coupled shaft and propeller.

a main engine with controllable-pitch propeller.

SET010000002433

The upward movement caused by the fuel cam istransferred to the plunger via the ................... on the fuel pump.

1)

2)

3)

4)

plunger spring

roller

barrel

cam lever

SET010000002434

The injector seen in the drawing is best describedas ........................ type injector.

1)

2)

3)

4)

a heavy fuel oil

a diesel oil

a forced circulation

a water cooled

SET010000002435




The end of the pumping action of this fuel pump isdetermined by the position of the ...... ............ .

1)

2)

3)

4)

pipe plunger.

suction valve.

overflow valve.

fuel cam.

SET010000002436

Crankshaft distortions need to be measured and arereferred to as ................. .

1)

2)

3)

4)

crankshaft distortion readings.

crankshaft deflection measurements.

crankshaft misalignment calibrations.

Any of these answers.

SET010000002437

In a trunk type piston, the gudgeon pin is subject totwo forces. What are these forces ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Exhaust pressure and combustionl force.

Linear and and rotating motion.

Vertical force and horizontal force in line with crankshaft rotation .

Combustion pressure and crankshaft torque.

SET010000002439

Which of the following refers to the distancebetween the piston top at BDC and TDC?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The cylinder distance.

The stroke.

The compression clearance.

Any of these.

SET010000002441




In an engine operation, what is the effect called thatdescribes the unstable operation of the governor that will not maintain asteady state condition ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Hunting.

Sensitivity.

Deadbeat.

Stability.

SET010000002442

The fundamental difference between a 2-stroke anda 4-stroke engine is in the number of:

1)

2)

3)

4)

piston strokes each one needs to complete a revolution.

piston strokes each one needs to complete a combustion cycle.

strokes in each combustion cycle.

combustion events occurring in each stroke.

SET010000002443

The force tending to twist the material such as theforce on a shaft is called............

1)

2)

3)

4)

tensile stress.

compressive stress.

bending stress.

torsional stress.

SET010000002444

What is the effect of temperature on the specificgravity of a fuel oil?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The higher the temperature the higher the specific gravity.

The lower the temperature the higher the specific gravity.

The higher the temperature the lower the specific gravity.

The lower the temperature the lower the specific gravity.

SET010000002450




What part shown in this diagram ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A crosshead bearing.

A piston and rings.

A piston filter.

A connecting rod.

SET010000002458

In a 4 cycle engine the inlet valve begins to openwhen the piston is ....

1)

2)

3)

4)

at BDC on the firing stroke.

after TDC on the suction stroke.

just before BDC on the suction stroke.

just before TDC on the exhaust stroke.

SET010000002484

In a 4 cycle engine the exhaust valve opens whenthe piston is .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

at BDC on the suction stroke

just before TDC on the exhaust stroke

jusbefore BDC on the power stroke.

at BDC on the compression stroke

SET010000002485

In a naturally aspirated 4 cycle diesel engine theexhaust valve is open for a period of ..................

1)

2)

3)

4)

180 degrees.

200 degrees.

250 degrees.

160 degrees.

SET010000002486




What is the purpose of counterbore in a cylinder?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To facilitate piston overhaul

To have good an effective combustion

To prevent the piston ring from wearing a shoulder in the cylinder

To distribute the oil film evenly over the cylinder surface

SET010000002489

The ash content of a fuel oil is significant because it....

1)

2)

3)

4)

indicates the quantity of energy released by burning a unit amount of the fuel.

is useful for determining proper atomization temperatures.

reflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil.

is non-combustible and remains partly in the engine.

SET010000002492

An engine's fuel pump supplies fuel in excess of thefuel consumed and this excess fuel is returned to the pump suction via the.....

1)

2)

3)

4)

non-return valve.

pressure regulating valve.

fuel rack.

plunger.

SET010000002493

Clearing a cylinder of exhaust gases by forcing in acurrent of air which provides clean air for the next compression stroke iscalled .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

expansion.

compression.

scavenging.

cycle.

SET010000002495




Which part of the mechanical governor ismanipulated by the servo-motor to increase or decrease engine speed ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The linkage to the fuel rack.

The sensitivity band.

The compensating spring.

The dashpot.

SET010000002508

What do you call the gauge that measures theconcentric position of the crankshaft or rotor shaft in its bearing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A bridge gauge.

A slip gauge.

A shafting gauge.

A poker gauge.

SET010000002513

What are the indications of excessive cylinderclearance in a small diesel engine? I Loss of power. II Misfiring. IIIWhite exhaust smoke.IV Excessive consumption of lube oil.

1)

2)

3)

4)

II, III and IV

I, III and IV

I, II and III

I, II and IV

SET010000002516

In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the four strokeof the piston required to complete one cycle which must take place inregular order. The second stroke ................ .

1)

2)

3)

4)

expels the burned gases.

draws air into the cylinder.

compresses the air.

is the power stroke.

SET010000002517




The narrow band of speed variation through whichthe governor makes no correction and refers to the sensitivity of thegovernor is known as the ..............

1)

2)

3)

4)

speed droop.

sensitive band.

dead band.

isochronous band.

SET010000002556

The third stroke of four-stroke diesel engine iscalled the ...........

1)

2)

3)

4)

compression stroke.

power stroke.

air stroke.

expansion stroke.

SET010000002557

The last stroke of two-stroke diesel engine is calledthe .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

power stroke.

air stroke.

ignition stroke.

compression stroke.

SET010000002558

What is pipe No 1 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The cooling water outlet

The cooling water inlet

The lub oil inlet

The lub oil outlet

SET010000002601




What is component No 5 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The lub oil inlet

The oil purging valve

The fresh water purger

The Sediment drain

SET010000002602

What is part No 4 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The cooling water space.

The sacrificial anode.

The tubeplate.

The tubestack.

SET010000002603

What is Part No 7 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The sediment tapping valve.

The cooling water drain valve.

The high pressure Lub oil inlet.

The water temperature gauge.

SET010000002604

As a rule of thumb, the time interval for automaticdesludging of lubricating oil purifiers fitted on sumps of trunk-type enginesshould be set at ..................hours.

1)

2)

3)

4)

1 to 2

2 to 4

4 to 6

6 to 8

SET010000003109




In diesel engines, cylinder lubrication has theprimary function of .............. .

1)

2)

3)

4)

forming a film between liner and rings, acting as a sealing barrier to preventthe escape of combustion gases and reducing friction between parts.

ensuring that cylinder liner and piston are well oiled so that they will notoverheat.

cooling the piston which would otherwise overheat and ensure that the carbonbetween the piston rings is cleared away.

flushing the carbon residue from the piston skirt and wash it down into thescavenge space.

SET010000003137

A diesel engine block is made of ............... anddoes not permit welding.

1)

2)

3)

4)

stainless steel.

mild steel.

cast iron.

tempered steel.

SET010000003138

Broken piston rings on diesel engines, if not visiblybroken, can be identified because ..............................

1)

2)

3)

4)

the ring or groove clearances have worn in excess.

the piston crowns have developed hot spots and burning marks over thesurface.

the piston skirts show marks of burned oil.

they are darker in colour and lack elasticity when pushed towards the insideof their grooves.

SET010000003139

Fire in the scavenging chambers of diesel enginesmay be caused by combustion of carbon deposits accumulated over anextended period due to .................

1)

2)

3)

4)

excessive lubrication of the cylinder liner.

blocked stuffing box drain piping or worn stuffing box wear rings or sealingrings.

slow combustion caused by poor injection.

wrong grade fuel oils used for extended period in the engine.

SET010000003140




When checking the tightness of nuts and boltsduring a diesel engine crankcase and hold-down bolt inspection, thequickest and most effective method is ............

1)

2)

3)

4)

checking bold clearances with feeler gauges.

tapping the nuts and bolts with a hammer.

checking the stress on the locking plates or split pins.

checking the tightness using torque spanners.

SET010000003141

Diesel Engine crankcase oil mist detectors aredesigned to analyse ............. .

1)

2)

3)

4)

the concentration of oil vapours in the crankcase.

the temperature of the bearings in the crankcase.

the temperature of the oil in the crankcase.

fire risk in the crankcase.

SET010000003142

The direction of flow of cooling water in an engine isalways .......... .

1)

2)

3)

4)

from top to bottom.

from left to right.

from bottom to top.

from right to left.

SET010000003144

On all ships it is possible to cool the propulsionmachinery directly by the ............ .

1)

2)

3)

4)

main fire pump.

ballast pump.

after peak cooling water.

salt water pump (main sea water pump).

SET010000003145




Experience and feedback shows that excessive oillosses in an engine installation are most frequently caused by ............. .

1)

2)

3)

4)

losses in oil coolers.

malfunctioning of the valves during the cleaning of the filters of the lubricatingoil system.

excessive oil in the cylinder being burned during combustion (defectivepiston/scraper rings).

any of the other options.

SET010000003146

Which part of a diesel engine keeps the enginespeed constant regardless of the engine load ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The flywheel.

The manoeuvring controller.

The vibration damper.

The governor.

SET010000003147

Automatic shutdown of the main diesel enginealways acts on the .........

1)

2)

3)

4)

governor.

control air supply.

fuel supply.

manoeuvring disc.

SET010000003148

Putting additives into diesel engine cooling water isprimarily designed to prevent ....

1)

2)

3)

4)

overheating.

freezing.

leakages.

scaling.

SET010000003149




If the main engine jacket cooling water expansiontank level drops rapidly, what could this indicate?

1)

2)

3)

4)

There is a leak in the jacket cooling water cooler.

There is an internal leak in the engine.

There is a leakage in external piping.

Any of these.

SET010000004709

How is the exhaust gas turbocharger cooled inrelation to the engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

In series with the cylinders.

In line with the cylinders.

In parallel with the cylinders.

In tandem with the cylinders.

SET010000004714

Why is it important to slow down the main engineRPM while water washing the turbocharger ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To protect the blower side.

To protect the bearings.

To protect rotor blades from damage.

To protect the exhaust gas economizer.

SET010000004715

Your vessel is entering a tropical area and highhumidity is expected. What should you do to avoid condensation in themain engine's air cooler ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Operate the engine with slightly open drain cocks, scavenging to get rid ofwater.

Decrease the air temperature so proper draining can be achieved from the aircooler.

Increase scavenging air temperature to above dew point.

Reduce speed.

SET010000004717




When all preparations have been made to ensurethat the main engine is operational prior to departure, what will be the finaltest to be carried out ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Put out the turning gear and turn the lubricators.

Blow indicator cocks, test reversing of engine, short firing kick.

Close safety valves, blow indicator cocks, fill air bottles.

Open air to engine, drain air bottles, blow indicator cocks.

SET010000004724

To avoid the possibility of a scavenge fire whatimportant check is to be carried out every watch and more frequently if adamaged piston ring is suspected?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The cylinder lubrication.

The exhaust gas temperature.

The scavenge drain flow through.

Overhear the cylinder for noise.

SET010000004726

The water cooling space on the turbocharger isdamaged and you have no spares. The cooling water must be closed.What steps would you take to ensure least possible damage?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Run the engine at lower speed with the turbine drains open.

Open turbine drains and tell the duty engineer to pay special attention forabnormalities.

Remove rotor assembly and fit the sealing plate.

Shut off cooling water and run at reduced rpm.

SET010000004730

Paint spraying has been carried out in the engineroom while the engine was running and the turbocharger was notprotected. This could cause which of the following ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Higher than normal scavenging air pressure.

Higher than normal revolutions on the turbocharger.

Lower than normal revolutions on the turbocharger.

Higher then normal exhaust gas temperatures.

SET010000004731




After how many hours would you consider changingthe turbocharger bearings, even though all appears to be normal ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

4000 hours.

12000 hours.

25000 hours.

30000 hours.

SET010000004732

The turbocharger (constant pressure) is making"whoofing" noises. What might be the cause ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A strong counter current.

Heavy seas from astern.

A faulty turbocharger bearing.

One or more leaking exhaust valves.

SET010000004733

The revolutions on the turbocharger have increasedduring the night with an unmanned engine. This could be caused by........... .

1)

2)

3)

4)

the viscosity of the fuel being high.

the wind and current being favourable.

the wind and current holding the vessel back.

poor combustion due to malfunction of fuel valves.

SET010000004735

Which of these could cause a problem with surgingin the turbocharger ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Dirty scavenging air cooler on the air side.

Worn bearings on the turbocharger.

Lubrication oil pump is malfunctioning.

Dirty rotor blades and nozzle ring.

SET010000004736




Which of the following is the distance between thepiston and the cylinder head when the piston is at bottom dead center ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Combustion clearance.

Cylinder clearance.

Compression clearance.

Any of these.

SET010000004738

With full load on the main engine, the RPM of theturbocharger is too low. What may be the cause ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Dirty nozzle ring.

The lubricating oil pump is malfunctioning.

The diffuser ring is damaged.

Exhaust temperatures on the main engine are too high.

SET010000004743

The lubricating oil on the exhaust side of the turbineblower gets dirty after only a few hours in service. What can the reason be?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The wrong type of oil used.

Cooling water leak into oil space..

Labrynth seal leaking exhaust gas into the oil.

Damaged/worn turbine side bearing.

SET010000004745

After water washing the turbocharger exhaust side,the blower starts to vibrate. What has happened ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The foundation bolts for the blower unit are loose.

The rotor blades are damaged or the blades are not properly cleaned.

The inlet filer is partly clogged.

The water drain for washing system is clogged.

SET010000004746




The charge air pressure is low, what is the mostlikely cause ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Dirty scavenge duct.

Dirty air inlet filter.

Leaking air inlet valves..

Cooling water temperature is too high.

SET010000004747

If you want to obtain a higher spray-off pressure onthe injector, what should you do ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Tension the injector spring more.

Tension the fuel pump spring more.

Adjust the fuel pump cam to advance.

Adjust the fuel pump cam to retard.

SET010000004748

If you are going to enter the engine's crankcase,how should you secure the engine after you have closed the main startingair valve?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Close absolutely all valves on the starting air bottle.

Engage the turning gear on the engine.

Close all starting air valves and post a warning notice on the start air bottle.

Keep a man posted in the control room to watch that nobody tries to start theengine.

SET010000004754

Inspection of the crank bearing shows the bearingshell was black and hard with patches of black incrustations which hadworn grooves in the journal. What could be the cause?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Water in the lubricating oil during service.

Dirt in the lubricating oil.

The wrong casting of bearing shell.

Bearing shell service time exceeded.

SET010000004755




When carrying out piston overhaul, why it isimportant to clean the ring grooves properly?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To make the ring fit in the groove.

All rings must be changed to make a perfect sealing.

So that the piston rings can move freely in the grooves.

To make sure gas pressure can enter freely on top of and behind the pistonring .

SET010000004756

During operation of the main engine, the exhausttemperature increases on one of the cylinders. The turbocharger startssurging and smoke is coming from the inlet air filter. What is the probablecause ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Scavenge box fire.

High back pressure in the exhaust system.

Turbocharger failure.

Fuel valve seized in open position.

SET010000004757

You are experiencing blow-by on the main enginebut, due to operational circumstances, it is impossible to stop and carryout a piston overhaul. What is the correct action to take ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No action is necessary.

Reduce speed and closely monitor exhaust temperature on the affected unit.

Increase cylinder oil consumption.

Reduce speed temporarily and increase cylinder oil supply.

SET010000004758

You have installed a new bearing in the mainengine. What is the necessary action to take during the running in period?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No action is required to be taken.

Allow for one hour running with appropriate temperature monitoring of thebearing.

Allowance must be made for a running in period with reduced speed andcareful temperature monitoring.

Stop after 30 minutes running and hand feel the bearing.

SET010000004759




You are experiencing major surging in the freshwater cooling system. What could be the reason?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The cooling water temperature is too low.

You have a cracked liner, or cover.

The expansion tank is empty.

The fresh water-circulating pump is malfunctioning.

SET010000004760

Why is it important to check the timing on thecylinder oil lubricators ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To get the right amount of oil into the cylinder.

To avoid excess lubrication.

To avoid high temperature in the combustion chamber.

To get the oil into the cylinder when the piston is in the correct position.

SET010000004761

Why is the tightening of the timing chain important ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To get the right timing on the chain.

To reduce vibration in the chain.

To avoid wear down of chain and chain wheel teeth and a potentialbreakdown.

To reduce the noise level.

SET010000004762

What will the effect be if a fuel injector valve isdripping after completion of injection ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Better combustion.

Damage to piston & liner.

Less carbonizing.

Greater output of the engine.

SET010000004764




How is the opening pressure (setpoint) adjusted in afuel injector valve ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By length of stroke.

By camshaft regulation.

By oil pressure.

By spring adjustment.

SET010000004765

Why blow the engine over on starting air before astart?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To be sure that water has not collected in the fire cylinders.

To be sure that no parts are loose, or that the engine is blocked from rotation.

To get fresh air into cylinders ensuring a safe start of the engine.

To be sure that all indicator cocks are closed and there is no passage into thecombustion chamber.

SET010000004766

You have a cylinder liner with 8 outlet holes forcylinder lubrication, how many clogged holes can you tolerate ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0

1

2

3

SET010000004767

What do you consider to be the most important taskon completion of maintenancework on the piston?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Starting the auxiliary blower to ventilate the scavenging belt, the cylinderliners, to ensure that the engine has sufficient fresh air to start.

Starting the engine to see that it rotates.

A search inside the crankcase for tools and rags.

Patching up destroyed paintwork on the crankcase doors.

SET010000004768




A clogged or dirty lubrication oil filter can best bedetected by .......... .

1)

2)

3)

4)

visual inspection of the filter elements.

a decrease in oil viscosity.

the pressure drop across the filter.

high lube oil temperature.

SET010000004769

What can happen with lubrication oil cooled pistonsif you stop the lubricating oil pump immediately after you stop the engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)


Overheating of the piston and oil coke deposits in the cooling chambers.

The oil flashpoint will change.

You preserve the oil sealings in the piston.

SET010000004770

You have checked the oil viscosity in an auxiliaryengine with the viscosity test kit. The result shows that the viscosity ishigh. What will you do ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Decrease the cooling water temperature for the oil.

Increase the cooling temperature for the oil.

Increase the lubrication oil pressure.

Clean the system and change the oil.

SET010000004771

You have checked the oil viscosity in an auxiliaryengine with the viscosity test kit. The result shows that the viscosity is low.What will you do ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Clean the system and change the oil.

Increase the lubrication oil temperature.

Start to purify the oil.

Decrease the lubrication oil temperature.

SET010000004772




What could cause engine oil to turn a "milky"colour?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Overheating.

Water contamination.

Fuel contamination.

The oil is old.

SET010000004773

If you have a fuel injector nozzle with 10 holes, howmany clogged holes are acceptable ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0

1

2

3

SET010000004776

Lapping a valve and valve seat together means.............. .

1)

2)

3)

4)

adjusting the overlapping of the inlet and exhaust valves.

grinding the valve against the valve seat to obtain a uniform sealing surface.

machining the valve in a lathe.

repairing by welding.

SET010000004780

Why do diesel engine manufacturers recommendgrinding the valve seating surface with a half degree difference to thevalve seat?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To prevent pitting of the valve seat.

To minimize heat transfer between seat and housing.

To improve sealing between valve and seat.

To avoid sticking between valve and seat during high load operation.

SET010000004781




What steps are to be taken in chronological order tostabilise a governor of a diesel engine after overhaul ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Adjust speed (P) setting, than integrating, next differentiating from zero.

Set integrating to MAX, then adjust speed (P) and differential D.

Set integrating to MAX, differentiating to MIN, adjust speed (P) upward.

Set integrating and differentiating to MAX, set speed (P) from zero upwards.

SET010000004792

You notice the sump level in an engine hasincreased and no new oil has been added. What action would you take ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Drain some oil from the engine.

Reduce the load and start the purifier.

Stop the engine and check for fuel or water leaks.

Check the level regularly.

SET010000004796

The timing of the engine is delayed and the exhausttemperatures are high. How would you expect this to affect theturbocharger ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cause increased turbocharger revolutions.

Cause surging of turbocharger.

Cause higher air and gas temperatures after the turbocharger.

Cause decreased turbocharger revolutions.

SET010000004798

Why is a slow speed two stroke diesel the mostsuitable for a single fixed pitch propeller vessel?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Less complicated than medium speed engines

More fuel-efficient

Affords a better engine layout

Easier to reverse and no propulsion gearbox required

STCW20FVMAWVI3F




What is the best way of preventing scavenge fires ina slow speed two stroke diesel?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Keep scavenge spaces clean.

Ensure fuel injectors are maintained.

Maintain correct cylinder lubrication.

Burn only the specified grade of fuel.

STCW20SDYLZGVBD

What determines delivery pressure on a Bosch typefuel pump?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The spring setting on the fuel injector.

The length of stroke of the fuel pump.

The position of the fuel pump control rack.

The fuel cam profile.

STCW216YRW68PD7

What is the most likely cause of reduction in Dieselengine compression pressure?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Piston scraper ring wear.

Worn valve rocker gear.

Leaking exhaust valve.

Build-up of carbon deposits.

STCW217HLYQ2ILY

In a trunk piston Diesel engine how is the pistoncooled?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Separate piston cooling oil supply.

By a dedicated piston supply line.

By jacket cooling water.

By the crankcase oil spraying on the underside of the piston.

STCW219KEIW565J




What is the main purpose of turning gear on a largeslow speed diesel engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

For inspection and overhaul of engine components.

To prevent the engine turning.

To position the engine for starting.

To check ease of turning before starting.

STCW21B5I6573HH

What is the effect on the fuel injector atomisation ifthe oil temperature is too high?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Carbon forming on the burner tips distorting flame shape.

Insufficient excess air.

Smoke at uptake.

Damage to refractory and overheating.

STCW21CP2L9K9XN

During regular manned watch keeping in the engineroom how often should the daily service tank drain be checked?

1)

2)

3)

4)

At beginning of the watch.

At the end of the watch.

At beginning of the watch and if water is evident, every hour.

Every two hours.

STCW21ED5ZFU8JN

What calibrations are taken to determine piston ringwear on a Diesel engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Radial thickness of ring and butt gap in unworn cylinder.

Radial and axial thickness of ring.

Internal diameter when positioned in unworn cylinder.

Ring/groove clearance and butt gap in unworn cylinder.

STCW21FHXLMNM66




What operates on an Otto cycle?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Steam power plant.

Two stroke diesel engine.

Petrol engine.

Gas turbine.

STCW21NAOUWOG6C

On a medium speed four-stroke engine what is anindicator of engine performance?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Peak cylinder pressure.

Exhaust temperature.

Maximum engine rpm.

Compression pressure.

STCW21QTDUWJLD3

What is an indication of a leaking heat exchangeron the jacket cooling water system?

1)

2)

3)

4)

High jacket water temperature.

Inadequate coolant flow.

Low alkalinity readings.

High chloride readings in the jacket water.

STCW221GBWQN4PT

What seal is used between turbo charger turbineand bearings?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Gaco type lip seal.

Mechanical seal.

Labyrinth with charge air seal.

Plain shaft sleeve.

STCW2251ESW1P74




What is meant by the M.E.P. of a Diesel engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Maximum cylinder pressure.

Mechanical efficiency.

Average cylinder pressure.


STCW22BLV8O3X52

An auxiliary diesel Engine cylinder head valve guideis shown. Which are the correct guide dimensions for the nominal sizesshown?

1)

2)

3)

4)

00 : 27.00

12.00 : 27.0411.96 : 26.96

11.92 : 27.0511.81 : 27.04

11.65 : 27.2111.60 : 27.23

STCW22T0197L411

What would you do if the engine OIL MISTDETECTOR alarm goes off indicating abnormal oil vapour in thecrankcase?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Slow down then stop engine and cool down for at least half an hour.

Investigate the oil pressure under slow down condition of engine.

Feel all crankcase doors and camshaft block for hot spot.

Stop engine at once and open crankcase doors to vent vapour.

STCW237PZ7HYVR3

What is the distance between the piston and thecylinder head when the piston is at bottom dead centre?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The combustion clearance.

The cylinder clearance.

The compression clearance.

The valve clearance.

STCW244O4OU7RHB




How is the gudgeon pin removed on a trunk pistonengine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Heat the piston with a soft flame.

Heat the piston using water or oil.

Hammer using brass dolly and supporting piston.

Force out with an extractor.

STCW247LU9GZCYY

In what area of the scavenge air system is heatconverted into mechanical power?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The charge air compressor.

In the main engine.

The exhaust gas turbine.

The scavenge air cooler.

STCW24S9OL39JRO

Where will the Diesel engine exhaust temperaturebe the highest?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Before the turbo blower.

At the cylinder head.

At the turbo blower outlet.

At the exhaust port manifold.

STCW24W3PMZ089V

What simple crack test can be applied to bottomend bolts?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Dye penetrant test.

Ultra sonic test.

Suspend and ring with hammer.

Tensile test.

STCW25CTUJQXQC1




What is the most usual damage caused by a brokentiming chain on a Diesel engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Broken valve stems.

Broken connecting rods.

Bent push rods.

Broken camshaft.

STCW25DTQI44WDJ

What is the purpose of the injector leak-offconnection?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To relieve excess fuel pressure.

For fuel leaking past the delivery valve.

For fuel leaking past the injector needle valve.

To prevent water-cooling entering the fuel space.

STCW25JB2UUAKXQ

Why must the scavenge air temperature bemaintained above a low temperature limit?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To avoid cracking of the cylinder liner.

To maintain the thermal efficiency of the diesel.

To avoid misfiring and starting problems.

To avoid condensate and water entering the engine.

STCW25QBAEGRJB5

If jacket water alkalinity keeps dropping what couldbe the cause?

1)

2)

3)

4)

More chemical additive required.

Possible cracked liner/head or leaking head joint.

Circulating pump not providing sufficient flow.

Jacket water temperature is too high.

STCW25QC4CKRJ7T




For " UMS " classed vessels, how must the HP fueldelivery pipe be constructed?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It is manufactured from Austenitic Steel and has flame/smoke detectors fittedin the vicinity.

It is manufactured of high tensile steel and has to have thermal insulationfitted

It needs to be a shielded pipe and in case of rupture the fuel leakage must becontained and the alarm sounded.

It must be provided with sensors so that the corresponding fuel pump cuts outin case of rupture.

STCW25QWTLNEYN0

When taking a set of Diesel engine crankshaftdeflections why are two reading taken at BDC position?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The second is taken to check the accuracy of the first reading.

The position of the con rod makes a single reading at BDC impossible.

It is not possible to read the dial gauge accurately in one position.

During the rotating of the crankshaft the reading may vary.

STCW25QYLFPOSYX

A ship makes an observed speed of 17 knots. Theengine speed is calculated to be 17.5 knots. What is the propeller slip?

1)

2)

3)

4)

28.5 %

285 %

.0285 %

2.85 %

STCW260WJJPXIVC

What is the first indication of a broken exhaust valvespring on a Diesel engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Low exhaust temperature.

Smoking exhaust.

Blow back through the turbo charger.

High exhaust temperature.

STCW2671BTV7HHI




What is the normal material used for Diesel enginecylinder liners?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cast steel Cast iron.

Mild steel. Alloy steel.

Mild steel.

Alloy steel.

STCW26G7VCO5FRE

What is the main function of the lub oil primingpump on a Diesel engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Stand-by lub oil pressure pump.

Circulate oil system for starting.

Circulate oil after overhaul.

Priming lub oil filters after cleaning.

STCW26XQ9NPS9CK

What is referred to as 'masking' of Diesel engineinlet and exhaust valve heads?

1)

2)

3)

4)

When the valve edge becomes very thin.

When the valve seat becomes recessed into the head.

Build up of carbon on valve seats.

Build up of carbon on the valve stems.

STCW26YOJHYUQ6J

What could be the purpose of checking the fuelpump spill position on a 4stroke Diesel engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To check the amount of fuel the pump will deliver.

To check the position the fuel pump ceases delivery.

To check the start point of injection

To check the tightness of the pump delivery valve.

STCW27FF7VB5FHO




What can affect the TBN of diesel lub oil?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Wear of bearings

Wear of liner and rings

Fuel dilution

Wear of valves and rocker gear

STCW27IRQBY36BG

What determines a Diesel engine's mechanicalefficiency?

1)

2)

3)

4)

I.H.P./B.H.P.

B.H.P./I.H.P.

B.H.P. - I.H.P.

I.H.P. - B.H.P.

STCW27IYLDXS2J7

Why is it so important to maintain air start lines clearof oil?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Air start valves could jam.

Air start distributor valve could seize

Increased risk of fire in compressed air

Joints could be damaged.

STCW27MZ80YIC5S

In the formula for calculating engine power,P.L.A.N., what does N represent?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Number of power strokes per second

Engine revolutions per minute

Number of engine cylinders

Number of the indicator spring

STCW27NIQBNIQAY




How is the timing (degrees advance) adjusted on aBosch type fuel pump?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By the suction valve setting.

By the delivery valve setting.

By the plunger rotation.

By the fuel cam setting.

STCW27SCJLZS9EX

What is the narrow band of speed variation throughwhich the Diesel engine governor makes no correction to fuel setting?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Speed droop.

Sensitive band.

Dead band.

Isochronous band.

STCW27XW8R1DT1C

What is the final engine test before starting the mainengine for departure?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Put out the turning gear and turn the lubricators.

Blow indicator cocks, test reversing of engine, short firing kick.

Close safety valves, blow indicator cocks, fill air bottles

Open air to engine, drain air bottles, blow indicator cocks

STCW28075H80HSB

What will happen to the level of the expansion tankif the engine slows down or stops?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The level will decrease

The level will increase

The level will at first decrease but increases again

Nothing will happen

STCW28C9FLHACVG




On a trunk piston engine how are the connectingrod side thrusts absorbed?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By the gudgeon pin bearing.

By the crankpin bearing.

By the piston and cylinder liner.

By the crosshead bearing.

STCW28TVY06RYIR

Why is the charge air cooled after leaving thecharger?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To lower the exhaust temperatures.

To remove water vapour.

To allow more air to enter the combustion space.

To prevent overheating of the turbocharger.

STCW291MFQKZLTX

In a constant pressure type turbocharger how doesthe exhaust gas enter the turbo charger?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Via a single, common exhaust gas manifold.

Via two or more exhaust manifold groups.

A separate manifold for adjacent exhausts.

Via separate individual cylinder exhaust pipes.

STCW295F4X2ZM2T

Where is the fuel injector leak-off connection fed?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Into the oily bilge collection tank.

Into the 'in use' daily service tank.

Into the fuel bunker tanks.

Into the fuel oil separator suction.

STCW295HRK89UN6




Why would a check on Diesel engine cylindercompression pressure be made?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To check the mechanical condition of valves and piston rings.

To assess the engine efficiency.

To enable the engine power to be calculated.

To check the efficiency of the turbo charger.

STCW298ON8ZJHKN

Why is the ash content of a fuel oil significant?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Indicates the quantity of energy released by burning a unit amount of the fuel.

Is useful for determining proper atomisation temperatures.

Reflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil service system.

Is non-combustible and remains partly in the engine.

STCW29G51WVWXMM

What is the fundamental difference between a 2-stroke and a 4-stroke engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Number of piston strokes each one needs to complete a revolution

Number of piston strokes required to complete a combustion cycle

Number of power strokes each combustion cycle

Number of exhaust strokes each combustion cycle

STCW29RD0A41NBN

The best way to ensure engine speed governorstability is to allow a given ratio of what?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Stability.

Sensitivity.

Speed droop.

Compensation.

STCW2A3D3TXMS0Y




What is the largest source of energy loss in a dieselengine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Mechanical loss in bearings and piston.

Heat loss through the cooling water.

Heat loss through the exhaust gas.

Radiated heat loss from the engine.

STCW2A4U1C50H23

What is the purpose of the crosshead bearing?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To transmit piston power more directly to the crankshaft.

To prevent con rod side thrust being transmitted to the piston.

To assist in lubricating the top end bearing.

To prevent lub oil being deposited on the cylinder liner walls.

STCW2AF91DNDIE9

What could cause jacket water contamination of luboil in a trunk piston engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cracked cylinder head.

Damaged piston rings.

Cracked piston.

Leaking liner sealing rings.

STCW2AJB0Q1WZNC

What is the main advantage of a CP propellerinstallation?

1)

2)

3)

4)

More efficient propeller coefficient.

Engine can be run at constant, uni-directional speed.

Higher engine rpm.

Less starting air consumption.

STCW2AVIWLXVN8P




When in UMS mode of engine room operation, atwhat intervals should the HFO daily tank drain be checked?

1)

2)

3)

4)

At 0800, 1700 and in the final check round prior to closing for UMS operation.

Every 4 hours.

Twice a day.

As required.

STCW2AX6B4W09UH

Where is the temperature sensor fitted for the jacketwater temperature controller?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cooler outlet.

Engine inlet.

Pump outlet.

Engine outlet.

STCW2AXEWWR8MCT

What is the simplest method of checking the fuelinjection point on a 4 stroke Diesel engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Checking fuel pump plunger movement with dial gauge.

Checking fuel pump plunger movement with depth gauge.

Remove 'D' valve and use spill method.

Direct from the fuel pump cam position.

STCW2BBXR1Z3DEA

What is the purpose of the Main Engine Dirty Oiltank?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Collecting tank from Main Engine scavenge drains

Collecting tank for dirty oil of Main Engine intended for purification.

Collecting tank for all non-reusable oils.

Drain tank for the piston rod stuffing boxes.

STCW2BG9B6R0QMF




Under what condition is the scavenge air cooled inthe scavenge air cooler?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Constant volume (Isochoric condition)

Constant pressure (Isobaric condition)

Adiabatic condition

Isothermal condition

STCW2BGKN7S9W1Z

What important contribution does Nitrogen have tothe combustion process in a Diesel engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Acts as a catalyst to the combining of oxygen and the hydrocarbons.

Assists in the cooling process during combustion.

Prevents the deposition of damaging elements on valves and seats.

Assists in mixing the charge air with the atomised fuel.

STCW2BRV4Y0EN13

What should be the first action on discovering amain engine malfunction?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Inform the Chief Engineer

Inform the Bridge watch keeper

Stop the engine and attempt to rectify the fault

Slow the engine, check pressures & temperatures

STCW2BUL68G3YEB

How is expansion allowed for in large diesel engineexhausts?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By sliding securing mounts.

By sliding section of piping.

By the selection of materials and construction to minimize expansion.

By the fitting of steel bellows pieces.

STCW2BV18X0M0BS




Where does maximum wear take place on thecylinder liner of a Diesel engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Mid position.

At the bottom of the piston stroke.

At the top where the top ring changes direction.

At the top where the scraper ring changes direction.

STCW2BWONUGT1VK

After work on the fuel system what must be carriedout?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Filters renewed.

Injectors changed.

System bled through at the injectors.

System bled through at main filters.

STCW2BXRR1J71XT

Why is a by-pass fitted to the cooling water line ofthe charge air cooler?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To prevent the air temperature going too high.

To maintain the jacket water temperature.

To prevent overcooling of the charge air.

To allow increased Jacket water flow to the water spaces.

STCW2C3TXOGSX8P

What does a decreasing scavenging airtemperature mean?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An increase in air volume.

A rising air temperature in the air cooler.

A dirty turbine wheel.

A decrease in air volume.

STCW2C5A9BNK6NR




How can crankcase overpressure be checked?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Inspecting the crankcase relief valves.

Checking the crankcase breather outlet.

Checking the crankshaft seals.

Checking fuel pump tappet seals.

STCW2CAO0WTPIEP

How is expansion of the Diesel engine cylinder linerallowed for?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Liner and entablature expand together.

Liner absorbs stresses caused by expansion.

Liner is free to expand at its lower end.

Entablature absorbs expansion stresses.

STCW2CBHJUWJ8NA

When taking performance figures on a 4 strokeDiesel engine, how is the quantity of fuel delivered by each pumpdetermined?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By the governor position.

By the position of each fuel rack.

By the position of the fuel control lever.

By the cylinder peak pressure.

STCW2D7YIR51W5T

After fitting a new cylinder liner to a 2 -stroke enginewhich of the following steps should be taken?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Run the unit on no load for 24 hours.

Reduce the cylinder oil flow.

Reduce the cylinder load.

Bring up to full load as soon as possible.

STCW2E4LCEMI78I




What does the Jacket Cooling Water expansiontank level dropping rapidly indicate?

1)

2)

3)

4)

There is a leakage in the jacket cooling water system.

Jacket water cooling pump failure.

Cracked cylinder liner.

Sudden change of engine load.

STCW2EB2B0OAQTL

On a Bosch type fuel injection pump how does therack adjust the fuel delivery?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By altering the effective stroke of the plunger.

By increasing the delivery pressure.

By altering the opening and closing of the delivery valve.

By altering the length of time the fuel pump roller contacts the cam.

STCW2F0QR3Y3S3V

In a 4-stroke diesel what is referred to as valveoverlap?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The total opening period of inlet and exhaust valves.

Period when injection and inlet valve are open together.

Period when both inlet and exhaust valves are open together.

Period when injection and exhaust valve are open together.

STCW2F2GF7EWTUZ

A Main Engine revolution counter reads 69,980 at0800; at noon the counter reads 90,932, if the clocks are advanced 20mins. during the watch what was the average rpm during the 8-12 watch?

1)

2)

3)

4)

115.6 rpm

87.3 rpm

98.4 rpm

77.2 rpm

STCW2F60G50MR9Y




If water is detected in the generator crankcase whatis the most likely source?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Leakage from the transfer passage between cylinder block and heads.

Leakage from cylinder head outlet connections.

Leaking tubes in oil cooler.

Leakage from cracked cylinder liner or perished liner sealing rings.

STCW2F7EDNORZ4W

Upon what cycle is the modern diesel enginebased?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Rankine.

Dual combustion.

Ideal cycle.

Otto cycle.

STCW2FKWZ6FDPU1

What test would indicate turbo blower condition?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Analysis of lub oil sample.

Low charge air pressure.

High charge air temperature.

Turbo run down time after stopping engine.

STCW2FPR23WADLV

What is the most likely causeof a low exhausttemperature on one cylinder of a Diesel engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A defective fuel valve.

Low air pressure.

Charge air pressure too high.

Cooling water temperature too low.

STCW2FTGY0GD2ZR




On a large, slow speed diesel engine what wouldbest describe the bottom end bearings?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Direct lined.

Wrapped bushes.

Solid insert liner.

Thick walled.

STCW2FVKTSL0N4T

How does the turbo-charger improve engineefficiency?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Increasing the charge air pressure

Improving the scavenging of the combustion space

Deliver more volume of air to the combustion space

Utilize exhaust gas energy

STCW2FXG8O7AG22

What is the term for the volume taken up duringpiston travel on a 4 stroke Diesel engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Compression volume.

Piston volume.

Swept volume.

Scavenge volume.

STCW2G9P0CTJDML

On a set of crankshaft deflection readings, whatwould a reading of +4 signify?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The crankpin location is 4/100 mm out of centre

The crank webs have opened up by 4/100 mm

The crank webs have closed in by 4/100 mm

The main bearing on one side is 4/100 mm greater than the other

STCW2GKMMQYYG5N




What is specific fuel consumption?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Fuel consumption per hour.

Fuel consumption for specific speeds.

Fuel consumption per kilowatt-hour.

Fuel consumption at specific power.

STCW2H0WIPUG2TT

What is the most likely reason for high exhausttemperatures in all cylinders of a Diesel engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A faulty fuel valve.

A cracked liner.

Rising scavenge air temperature.

Broken piston ring.

STCW2HGCSQ16AV3

What fuel contaminant is potentially most damagingto a Diesel engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Water.

Sludge.

Bacterial growth.

Suspended solids.

STCW2I0JLLV0WA9

How are starting air valves made gas tight in thecylinder heads of diesel engines?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By face to face, hydraulic pressure applied.

They are screwed into the cylinder head and asbestos sealed.

Teflon or Viton seal rings are fitted.


STCW2IETSXA2K0D




If slight water contamination of lub oil is confirmedwhat action should you take?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Run the purifier, checking the water outlet and submit a further sample foranalysis.

Locate the water leak and renew the oil charge.

Run the purifier continuously.

Submit a further sample for analysis after one months running.

STCW2IH5HQJ2UQJ

What do we determine from the indicator card tocalculate IHP of a Diesel engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)


Firing pressure.

Mean effective pressure.

Mean height of the diagram.

STCW2IZLW9KX4D5

How is temperature controlled in a jacket water heatexchanger?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Seawater bypassing the heat exchanger.

Jacket water bypassing the heat exchanger.

Regulating the sea water inlet valve.

Regulating the sea water outlet valve.

STCW2J59OVJTOVS

What percentage excess air would you expect withgood combustion in a Diesel engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

None.

0 - 10%.

10 - 20%.

30 - 50%.

STCW2JNPU7VTE4R




What would result from high charge airtemperatures?

1)

2)

3)

4)

All exhaust temperatures would rise.

Charge pressure would increase.

Cylinder head relief valves would lift.

Jacket water temperature would rise.

STCW2JX2B97JH0X

Why should anti- friction greases not be used oncylinder head nuts?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Enables them to be over tightened.

Contaminates the engine lub oil.

Increases the actual pressure exerted at the set torque reading.

Allows them to loosen in use.

STCW2JZGKQ8HKMZ

What is the purpose of the Main Thrust bearing?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To absorb axial engine thrust.

To transmit propeller thrust to the ship's hull.

To provide forward and aft location for the propeller shaft.

To prevent propeller thrust damaging engine bearings.

STCW2K9HKFJ6UWA

What could indicate a cracked cylinder head orliner?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Increased fuel consumption.

Increased lub oil consumption.

Presence of water in the lub oil.

Sudden overheating of the jacket water expansion tank.

STCW2KAGYLTFIQ3




What is the purpose of the starting valve fitted onthe cylinder head of a diesel engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To allow starting air of 25 bar into the cylinder if applicable.

To block the fuel and air supply unless in "START" position.

To allow air from the main air bottle to enter the cylinder directly.

To activate the main air starting valve fitted on the engine.

STCW2KF7RKY5H84

How are bottom end bearing clearances taken on alarge Diesel engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

With feeler gauges.

Taking leads.

Measure crankpin and bearing diameters.

Compare thickness to new bearing.

STCW2KOV75MFL1W

Which part of the mechanical governor does theservomotor actuate to alter engine speed?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The linkage to the fuel rack.

The sensitivity band.

The compensating spring.

The dashpot.

STCW2LE2TJQPZWB

What is the most important step on detecting ascavenge fire?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Increase coolant flow to engine.

Increase cylinder lubrication to affected unit.

Stop engine.

Reduce engine revs, shut off fuel to affected unit.

STCW2LOC3C8LVHB




During overhaul what two piston ring dimensionsare taken?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Butt gap and radial depth.

Axial thickness and radial depth.

Axial thickness and butt gap.

Butt gap and axial clearance.

STCW2MJ1EB8X4AJ

What formula gives engine efficiency?

1)

2)

3)

4)

P.L.A.N.

Engine power/fuel energy.

Fuel energy/P.L.A.N.

Calorific value/B.H.P.

STCW2ORJLZ8H935

In an "IMPULSE TYPE" exhaust gas turbocharger,how do the exhaust gases enter the turbine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Via a spacious, single exhaust gas manifold.

From both sides of the turbine.

Via manifold groups led directly and separately to the turbine.

Via manifolds into a common entry chamber.

STCW2P8L9N8FL5J

What is the original power that moves the injectionneedle upwards in the injector and causes the injector to spray fuel underpressure into the cylinder?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The lifting pressure of the pump plunger.

The mechanical force of the fuel cam.

The hydraulic pressure in the fuel line.

The balance pressure obtained by the injector spring.

STCW2PCL7NZAIPX




How does the cooling water flow through theengine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Inlet the lower liner and outlet at the cylinder heads.

Inlet at the cylinder heads and out let at the liners.

Inlet at the turbo charger and outlet at the cylinder heads.

Inlet at the cylinder heads and outlet at the turbo blower.

STCW2PHWETC16NV

What is meant by an engine's critical speed?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Maximum allowable engine rpm.

Engine rpm at which the engine must not be operated for long periods.

Minimum allowable engine rpm.

Engine rpm that must be attained before the engine will fire.

STCW2PQXJD01B2H

What material are Diesel engine cylinder blocks andcovers normally constructed from?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Fabricated steel.

Cast iron.

Cast steel.

Gunmetal.

STCW2QF46N8EMA9

What should be carried out before starting a Dieselengine that has been stopped for a period?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Check the reversing mechanism.

Turn over on air with indicator cocks open.

Check the governor operation.

Bar over by hand for several revolutions

STCW2QG5HHPZ8KV




What is the most commonly used fuel injectionpump on large diesel engines?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An M.A.N. type fuel pump

A Ricardo type fuel pump

A Bosch type fuel pump

A Curtis type fuel pump

STCW2QM444IRCU5

How is the fuel injection timing altered on a Dieselengine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By altering the injector setting.

By altering the fuel pump lift.

By moving the camshaft position.

By adjusting the camshaft drive chain.

STCW2QNTO9K6J3T

In the formula for calculating engine power,P.L.A.N., what does P represent?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Maximum cylinder pressure.


Pressure at mid power stroke.

Mean cylinder pressure.

STCW2RCGEWTLO0L

What determines the amount of fuel delivered by aBosch type fuel pump?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The stroke length of the fuel pump.

The fuel cam profile.

The rotational position of the fuel pump plunger.

The fuel pump plunger top clearance.

STCW2RDJEEI2E8W




For how long is the exhaust valve open in a 4-stroketurbo charged engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

150 degree

280 degree

200 degree

320 degree

STCW2RNLSEG6EX5

What could indicate a choked heat exchanger onthe jacket water system?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Low jacket water flow.


High exhaust temperatures.

Low seawater pressure.

STCW2RNULJIT5NA

What could cause the turbo inlet exhausttemperature to be higher than cylinder exhaust temperature?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Poor combustion.

Incorrect injection timing.

Engine overloaded.

This is normal.

STCW2SKOFNM4VM6

What is the most significant effect of fuel oilcontamination of the lub oil?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Increases viscosity.

Increases flashpoint.

Removes additives from the lub oil.

Decreases flashpoint.

STCW2SVDIF3O64O




What type of compression takes place in a 4-strokediesel engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Isothermal

Isobaric

Adiabatic

Polytropic

STCW2SXJ6JQBM55

In a 2 stroke engine what controls the admission ofcharge air?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Upper edge of piston.

Camshaft position.

Position of lower piston skirt.

Air inlet valve operation.

STCW2T7X60YMAE9

What percentage of Nitrogen is present in theengine intake air?

1)

2)

3)

4)

75.5%

70.5%

60.5%

65.5%

STCW2TK4LK2PWJU

In a fuel oil service system where would the reliefvalves discharge?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Re-circulating line or pump suction.

Simplex fuel oil strainer.

Settling tanks.

Slop retention tanks.

STCW2TXTXUFYVB0




What would indicate a cracked cylinder liner orhead?

1)

2)

3)

4)

High exhaust temperature.

Low exhaust temperature.

High lub oil consumption.


STCW2U9DI61EO6T

Should water be circulated through the main engineduring port stay, and if so, why?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No, as this would result in extra water consumption.

Yes, as the engine has to be ready to start at any time.

Yes, to maintain the engine temperature.

No, in case of a leak developing in the system.

STCW2UNS7A3GOJA

What could be the consequence of inadequatevalve tappet clearance?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Exhaust valve leaking causing possible damage to seat and valve.

Accelerated valve gear wear.

High exhaust temperatures.

High jacket water temperatures.

STCW2UVUJRM75SL

What is the purpose of the injection pump deliveryvalve?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To meter the delivery rate.

To adjust the injection pressure.

To adjust the injection timing.

To maintain injection pressure in the HP fuel line.

STCW2UZL7ST76VV




What would represent an average specific fuelconsumption for a four-stroke diesel?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0.15kg/kW hour.

0.30kg/kW hour.

0.25kg/kW hour.

0.20kg/kW hour.

STCW2VAK5CFR2L2

What is the purpose of the expansion tank in aDiesel engine jacket cooling water system?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To allow for leakage in the system.

To take up the difference of water pressure with changes of temperature.

To act as a spare tank in case the pressure is dropping.

To take up the difference of water volume with changes of temperature.

STCW2VG09AMW5AQ

In the case of a serious main engine malfunctionwhat would be your course of action?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Slow down the engine and attempt to rectify the fault.

Attempt to rectify the fault.

Inform the bridge watch keeper before taking any action.

Stop the engine immediately and investigate the cause.

STCW2VI7X2JPIY4

What part of the 4-stroke diesel cycle is adiabatic?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Compression stroke.

Combustion period.

Exhaust stroke.

Suction stroke.

STCW2VUCH94RWEH




What is the maximum allowable for Diesel enginecylinder liner wear?

1)

2)

3)

4)

2% of liner diameter.

0.2% of liner diameter.



STCW2VVI5JNEDG3

What are the main constituents in Diesel engineexhaust gas?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Carbon monoxide, Nitrogen and Sulphur Dioxide.

Nitrogen, Carbon Dioxide and water vapour.

Nitrogen, Carbon Monoxide and Sulphur Dioxide.

Carbon Dioxide and un-burnt Oxygen.

STCW2VVVSEUD9GT

For a turbo charger running at full speed, whatwould be a usual oil sump bath temperature on the turbine side?

1)

2)

3)

4)

35 to 45 deg C.

45 to 50 deg C.

55 to 65 deg C.

72 to 82 deg C.

STCW2W5NHZ13C79

If fuel contamination of lub oil is confirmed whataction must you take?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Change the complete lub oil charge.

Rectify the fuel leak and purify the oil.

Purify the oil and send off another sample for analysis.

Rectify the source of contamination and change the oil.

STCW2W9IAV864K6




What material are Diesel engine piston ringsmanufactured from?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cast iron.

Carbon steel.

Cast steel.

Alloy steel.

STCW2X3BJA7PJXJ

What represents the available energy in a fuel?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Flash point.

Octane rating.

Calorific value.

Cetane number.

STCW2X6P8FVWRN5

How should diesel engine exhaust temperatureschange?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Remain steady under fluctuating load.

Alter according to engine load.

Rise as engine rpm rises.

All remain the same.

STCW2XNGL2447BI

In the formula P.L.A.N. how is 'N' derived for adouble acting two stroke?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Eng rpm/60.

Eng rpm/30.

Eng rpm/120.

Eng rpm/240.

STCW2YUYQN2IMGF




What is the effect that describes unstable operationof the engine governor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Dead band.

Insensitivity.

Hunting.

Oscillation.

STCW2YXL0ZJVEUF

Which of the following records the cylinder pressureexisting at various positions throughout the engine cycle?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A Timing diagram.

An Indicator diagram.

A Temperature diagram.

A Cycle diagram.

STCW2ZBRH25RN5B

Under what engine conditions are indicator cardstaken?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Low power.

At normal full load.

At 75% full load.

At any engine loading.

STCW2ZITP91SLHQ

During a crankcase inspection what check shouldbe made on the lub oil?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The level in the oil sump tank.

The condition of the oil in the sump tank by test kit.

Uniform oil flow from bearings, top ends, guides, and gear train.

That the oil cooler inlet is clear.

STCW2ZKQZO9TRGO




What item is always found on diesel engine lub oilsystems?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Low lub oil pressure shutdown.

Centrifugal oil filters.

Stand-by lub oil pump.

Reduced pressure feed to rocker gear.

STCW2ZRNRQTSQX4

If lub oil analysis results indicate fuel dilution whatshould be the first action?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Renew the lub oil charge.

Operate the lub oil purifier.

Locate and rectify source of contamination.

Take another set of samples and send off immediately.

STCW2ZZB9V6EHW2

The relief valve is fitted in the position shown toprevent overpressure..............

1)

2)

3)

4)

if the main air start valve jams in the closed position.

should the actuating piston leak.

if astern is selected when the engine is moving ahead.

if the cylinder head air start valve jams in the open position.

VIDTL5IWGB6NMWF

A boiler burner fails each time it is started withfailure indicated as "flame failure". Indicate the most likely reason.

1)

2)

3)

4)

The fan motor is faulty.

The fuel oil temperature is too high.

The flame cell is dirty.

The electrode cables have the wrong output voltage.

SET010000000091



EO4-Operate Auxiliary Machinery and Control Systems STCW Operational - engineer

The engine room high level bilge alarm keepssounding every few minutes even though the bilge is empty. What actionwould you take ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Change the setting on the alarm printed circuit board.

Check the function of the level switch and the printed circuit board for thisalarm group.

Disconnect the alarm and see if it helps.

Start the bilge pump.

SET010000000092

What is component number 3 called?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A spring adjuster.

A spring tensioning washer.

A valve cover.

A spring plate.

SET010000000577

What is "chatter" in a safety valve ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The first leakage before the valve opens.

A failure of a safety valve to re-seat.

A metallic hammering noise.

A hissing sound indicating that a safety valve is leaking.

SET010000000583

Which part is the brine cooler ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

D

H

K

C

SET010000000598




Should water be circulated through the main engineduring a port stay, and if so why ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No, as this would result in extra water consumption from main engine waterleaks.

Yes, as this will maintain watertight condition of hoses and connections.

Yes, circulating the auxiliary jacket water will maintain the main enginetemperature.

No, as this will prevent the auxiliary engines attaining the correct temperature.

SET010000001080

What is part number 1 called ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The drainage tank.

The expansion tank.

The service tank.

The settlement tank.

SET010000001083

Which part is the heater ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Number 1.

Number 2.

Number 3.

Number 4.

SET010000001085

Which of the two drawings shows two seriesconnected purifiers?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1.

2.

Neither.

Both 1 and 2.

SET010000001086




Where is the inlet for the unclean oil ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Area 1.

Area 3.

Area 4.

Area 6.

SET010000001106


1)

2)

3)

4)

The chamber.

The paring disc.

The distributor.

The bowl hood.

SET010000001107

Which part is the paring disc?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Part 2.

Part 3.

Part 4.

Part 6.

SET010000001108


1)

2)

3)

4)

The paring disc for processed oil.

The spring support.

Disc stack support bearing.

The water paring disc.

SET010000001109





1)

2)

3)

4)

The disk holder.

The disc stack.

The paring disc.

The distributor vanes.

SET010000001110

Where is the separation carried out ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Position number 1.

Position number 2.

Positioin number 7.

Position number 5

SET010000001113

What kind of temperature control mode is fitted here?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Controlling outlet by regulating the inlet.

Controlling outlet by regulating the outlet.

Controlling inlet by regulating the inlet.

Controlling inlet by regulating the outlet.

SET010000001637

Which kind of cooling water system is used with thiscompressor ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Forced sea water cooling.

Open free flow sea water cooling.

Forced fresh water cooling.

Free flow fresh water cooling.

SET010000001668




What is indicated by position "I" at both of thecylinders ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Water inlet of Intercoolers.

Water inlet of cylinders/intercoolers.

Water inlet of cylinders.

Water inlet of aftercoolers.

SET010000001669

Suppose the delivery air pressure of thiscompressor is 30.0 bar. What class of compressor could this be ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A service air compressor.

An instrument air compressor.

A working air compressor.

A starting air compressor.

SET010000001670

What are the units marked "C" fitted on bothcylinders ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Aftercoolers.

Intercoolers.

Cylinder blocks.

Cooling water vessels.

SET010000001671

When is manual by-pass valve of this compressorcooler "CW" operated?

1)

2)

3)

4)

During normal running to keep the temperature constant.

In the case of a cooler tube leaking.

In cold climates to avoid moisture.

When the compressor is new/overhauled with new rings.

SET010000001672




This drawing indicates the timing of the unloaderand drains of a compressor. After how many seconds will the compressorpump at full capacity ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

7 seconds.

12 seconds.

14 seconds.

Between 7 and 12 seconds.

SET010000001673

When starting a compressor, why is it necessary forthe unloader to be activated before the drain valves are closed ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

So the pumping action can blow the drains through.

To avoid the safety valves blowing.

To avoid air blowing in the bilges.

To prevent the compressor from tripping.

SET010000001674

Why is it necessary to start a compressor with thedrains open ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To hear that it is delivering pressure and the unloader is working.

To get rid of all the dirt inside.

To blow clear any moisture from the compressor discharge.

To avoid overloading the electric motor.

SET010000001675

On what part of the compressor does the unloaderact and in what way ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It keeps the suction valves open.

It keeps the suctions valves closed.

It keeps the delivery valves open.

It keeps the delivery valves closed.

SET010000001676




What would be the pressure in the air bottle whichactivates the "PC" and "S" connecting the unloader line with c and a ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Between 6.5 and 8.5 bar.


Between 0 and 8.5 bar.


SET010000001679

In which kind of compressor is this type of pistonassembly fitted ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Refrigeration compressor.

CO2 compressor.

Service air compressor.

Oil-free instrument air compressor.

SET010000001680

What is the purpose of the stuffing box in thiscombined piston compressor assembly ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To keep the air of the pumping space separated from the guide.

To prevent oil from being pumped up to the pumping piston.

As sealing between pumping cylinder and guide cylinder.

All of these.

SET010000001681

In this oil-free compressor, of what material are thepiston rings of the pumping piston "P" made ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Chrome plated.

Slotted chromium.

Plain cast iron.

Carbon.

SET010000001682




If you increase fuel flow to the purifier usingcapacity control valve CC, what other action must you take?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Increase the flow from the settling tank to the purifier.

Throttle steam to the HFO service tank.

Adjust back pressure with back pressure valve BPV.

Drain the service tank at shorter intervals.

SET010000001689

What type of pump is the HFO purifier feed pump P?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A centrifugal pump.

A gear pump or worm pump.

A piston pump.

A vane pump.

SET010000001690

How is pump "P" driven from the purifier ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By V-belt.

By electric motor.

By shaft drive with replaceable sheer pins from the purifier crankcase.

By direct gear drive from the purifier crankcase.

SET010000001691

What is item "F" ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A flow meter.

A flow control device.

A normal mesh filter/strainer

A fuel shut-off solenoid.

SET010000001692




When using marine diesel oil with a density of about0.87, what would be the inlet temperature of the fuel to the purifier ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

30 degree C.

40 degree C.

60 degree C.

85 degree C.

SET010000001693

What is the ideal temperature to maintain the dieseloil daily tank and how is this achieved ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

45 degree C, by circulating the fuel with the purifier tank.

45 degree C, by application of steam heating.

65 degree C, by application of steam heating.

65 degree C, by circulating the fuel with the purifier tank.

SET010000001694

When you start a purifier it takes several minutes toaccelerate to full speed since the power from the electric motor istransferred by ..................... to the purifier.

1)

2)

3)

4)

a plate clutch

a magnetic coupling

a centrifugal clutch

a rotating coupling

SET010000001707

Which of the following alarms may sound after theautomatic de-sludging cycle is completed and the purification of the oilrestarts ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The overflow alarm.

The water seal alarm.

The oil high temperature alarm.

The oil high pressure alarm.

SET010000001708




In what kind of machinery would this type of glandpacking never be used ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Steam valve spindles.

Refrigerating installations.

Sea water or freshwater pumping equipment.

Fuel oil or Lubricating oil systems.

SET010000001738

What do you call this device?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A safety lifting valve.

An overpressure blow-off valve.

A straight non-return valve.

A scavenge air valve.

SET010000001741

What is the required temperature in the ship's fishroom ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

From 0 to - 5 degree C.

From -20 to - 25 degree C.

From -15 to - 20 degree C.

From -5 to -10 degree C.

SET010000001751

What is the required temperature in the ship's dairyroom ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

From 0 to +3 degree C.

From +3 to +5 degree C.

From -2 to +2 degree C.


SET010000001752




What is the required temperature in the ship'svegetable room ?

1)

2)

3)

4)





SET010000001753

What parameter is controlling the capacity controlsystem of this domestic refrigerating compressor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The temperature in the refrigerated rooms.

The temperature and back-pressure of the condensor.

The suction pressure of the compressor.

The discharge pressure of the compressor.

SET010000001755

Freon is being phased out gradually as arefrigerant. Why ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Because it is too expensive.

Because it is being replaced by more efficient refrigerants.

Because it has a damaging effect on the Earth's ozone layer.

Because under certain conditions it is toxic.

SET010000001756

How are the solenoid valves "S" (fitted before theevaporating banks) controlled ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By the pressure of the evaporating liquid.

By the defrost control panel.

By the evaporator gas outlet temperature.

By the temperature inside the refrigerated compartments.

SET010000001759




What is the state of the refrigerant which flows fromthe condenser to the solenoids and the expansion valves ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It is hot and undercooled.

It is under condenser pressure and undercooled.

It is below condenser pressure and condensed.

It rises above the condenser pressure and decreases in temperature.

SET010000001760

Why is there an oil separator "OS" fitted as shownhere ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Because Freon absorbs oil and it needs to be separated.

To separate the oil dragged with the Freon from the compressor.

To separate oil during compressor start-up.

To collect the oil before stopping the compressor.

SET010000001761

What is the function of the low pressure cut-outfitted on the same manometer line as manometer "SM" ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

As safety shut-down device. Inspection and reset are required.

Purely as cut-in/cut-out device by low capacity. No reset required.

As safety power tripping device. Solenoids "S" will also close.

As alarm device only without shut-down function.

SET010000001762

What is the function of the high pressure cut-outfitted on the same manometer pipe as manometer "DM" ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

As safety cut-out with additional alarm function . Manual reset required.

As operational cut-out when condenser pressurised prolonged.

As electrical overload and alarm, auto reset.

As alarm device only.

SET010000001763




What is the function of the oil differential pressurecut-out fitted between the manometer pipes of manometers "P" and "SM"?

1)

2)

3)

4)

As temporary cut-out.

As high temperature warning.

As warning/cut out due to oil foaming.

As a low lub oil pressure cut-out.

SET010000001764

If during your watch the air-conditioning compressorcuts-out because of high discharge pressure, what are you going to checkimmediately ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

If the accommodation vent fan has tripped.

The level of the receiver, to see if the Freon has escaped.

That there is sufficient cooling water to the condenser.

Ice formation on the evaporating unit.

SET010000001766

Why is there a receiver fitted below the condenserof an air-conditioning unit unlike on the condenser of the domestic fridgesystem ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Because the air-conditioning does not run in winter climates.

To store spare Freon.

Because there is more chance of leakage and Freon escape.

Because the capacity is larger.

SET010000001767

You are notified that it is getting hot in theaccommodation and the air conditioning is not working. What do youcheck immediately ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

If the aircon compressor is still running.

If suction and discharge pressures on the compressor are normal.

If the accomodation vent fans are running.

If there is sufficient refrigerant in the system.

SET010000001768




When should the recirculation of air from theaccommodation be set to 100 % and the fresh air intake totally closed ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

When outside temperature is more than 30 degree C.

During cargo operations or cargo transfer in port or at sea.

When outside temperature is more than 36 degree C.

When vessel is moored at an oil refinery.

SET010000001769

What is the most important item of maintenancerequired to ensure maximum efficiency of the accomodation airconditioning plant?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Clean the central air conditioning fan unit intake suction filters.

Ensure always that there is sufficient Freon in the receiver.

Ensure the evaporator unit remains ice free.

Clean the sea water side of the condenser every 2 months.

SET010000001770

What kind of metal must never be allowed to comein contact with Freon liquid or Freon gas and why ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Chromium, it will overheat.

Iron, it will be rapidly wasted by the Freon.

Aluminium, it dissolves in contact with Freon.

Copper, it has a harmful effect on the Freon.

SET010000001774

What type of pump is referred to in the drawing asan "H.S. PUMP" ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Higgins-Simpson pump.

Hydraulic solenoid pump.

Hele-Shaw pump.

High suction pump.

SET010000001805




What is the function of the valves "PR" fittedbetween the Port and Starboard cylinders ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To return any excess oil back to the suction of the pump.

To act as automatic by-pass valves when the steering gear is stopped.

To be opened to allow emergency steering.

To relieve excess pressure, absorbing shock and preventing damage.

SET010000001806

When will the Hele-Shaw pump commencepumping action ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

As soon as the electric motor is started.

As soon as the pilot system is started on the bridge.

As soon as point "Z" moves.

As soon as the telemotor pump is started.

SET010000001807

When a command is given to this steering gear,what happens ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The spring "S" will be compressed or elongated.

The valves "PR" will activate, building up hydraulic pressure.

Point "X" will move, in turn moving point "Z", controlling the pump delivery.

The hydraulic pumps will start.

SET010000001809

What is the purpose of spring "S" fitted betweenpoint "Y" and the Trunion block of the steering gear ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To elongate and compress and keep point "Y" in place.

To absorb the clearance of the Trunion with the rod "X-Y".

Ensuring flexibility by absorbing vibrations and clearances.

To avoid sudden movements and overload.

SET010000001810




What is to be checked during a drydocking period toensure that any upward movement of the rudder will be contained anddamage to the steering gear will be avoided ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The rudder stock carrier bearing clearance.

The pallister bearing clearance.

The upper and lower pintle jumping bar clearances.

The pintle bearing clearances.

SET010000001811

Which action of the steering gear pumps is feasible?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Pressure to cylinders A and D , return oil from B and C.

Pressure to cylinder A, return oil from D.

Pressure to cylinders A and B, return oil from C and D.

Pressure to cylinders A and C, return oil from B and D.

SET010000001812

During normal operations, the command rod "C"pushes point "Z" and the control rod off centre so that the "HS" pumpsstart pumping and the steering gear moves. When will it stop moving ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

When the command rod "C" stops moving.

When the command rod "C" moves in opposite direction.

When the trunion point "Y" pushes point "Z" back to its original position.

When the rudder angle indicator corresponds to the command.

SET010000001814

What should you observe when inspecting thesteering gear during your watch ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The oil level in the oil tank, see that there is no oil leakage.

The greasing of trunion and Pallister bearing is adequate.

No abnormal noise or vibrations, pump power consumption normal.

All of these.

SET010000001815




This electric circuit is part of the Steering GearControl System, in which the output is either 1 or 0 as either solenoid 1or2 is energized. It is an example of what kind of circuit ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A Wheatstone Bridge.

Two double resistor circuits balanced by the solenoids.

Two Potentiometers with amplifier relays.

A booster aggregate.

SET010000001816

The first potentiometer of this electric commandsystem is located on the bridge. By what mode might it be actuated?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By hand steering.

By push button steering.

By automatic steering via the auto-pilot.

By any of these steering methods.

SET010000001817

What is the principle in which oil/water separationtakes place in this cascade tank ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By separation frames.

By directional change and centrifugal action in triple-action.

By acceleration through chambers.

By acceleration and gravitation.

SET010000001858

This steering gear telemotor system is drawn in theneutral position, rudder amidship. This means that ......... .

1)

2)

3)

4)

pump "P" is not pumping.

the double check valves are blocked.

the capacity control is at zero.

neither solenoid "S1" or "S2" is energised.

SET010000001859




What is the purpose of the double check valvesfitted in this telemotor system ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To keep the rudder locked in the desired position.

To maintain the set pressure in the system.

To avoid oil blockage and stickiness.

To avoid pipe rupture due to sudden movements.

SET010000001860

What is the purpose of the capacity control on thetelemotor of a steering gear ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To keep the oil delivery quantity of the pump constant.

To keep the outlet pressure and capacity to react constant.

To keep the electric capacity between parameters (absorption).

To keep the oil delivery quantity to the telemotor ram constant.

SET010000001861

How might this steering system be actuated?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By automatic gyro steering.

By push-button steering.

By hand steering.

By any of these.

SET010000001862

What type of boilers are fitted (one only shown) tofeed this turbine installation ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Scotch type boilers.

Water tube boilers.

Cochran type boilers.

Exhaust dissipation boilers.

SET010000001868




Item "H' of the drawing indicates ............................of this turbine installation ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

the distributor.

the steam filter.

the manoevring stand.

the steam reducer.

SET010000001870

This installation consists of the following turbinecombination :

1)

2)

3)

4)

a high pressure and a low pressure turbine.

a turbine system with ahead and astern manoevring capability.

the H.P and L.P turbine acting in tandem to one reduction gear.

All of these.

SET010000001871

What are items "R" and why are they required ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Thrust bearings. To catch axial force and propel the ship.

Reducing block bearings. As turbine shaft support.

Coupling flanges. To allow disassemble of pinion gears.

Flexible couplings. To allow flexibility between HP and LP turbines.

SET010000001872

Why is steam allowed to position - J' - of the turbine"J " ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It is the steam regenerating line.

It is the steam gland feeder line.

It is the steam to the astern turbine.

It is the parallel reduced steam line.

SET010000001873




Why are components "S" required ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To transform rotating power into axial power.

To absorb the vibrations on the propeller.

To reduce high turbine speed to propeller speed.

To enable maximum fuel efficiency of the turbine installation.

SET010000001874

Of what is this finned pipe a part ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Of an exhaust gas boiler steam generator.

Of an exhaust gas boiler economiser.

Of an exhaust gas boiler superheater.

Of any of the other options.

SET010000001877

What is the purpose of the fins fitted on this steampiping ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

As "Harmonica" piping, to make the piping flexible.

To increase the heated surface of the piping.

To allow for expansion with temperature differences.

To absorb the vibrations existing in the funnel.

SET010000001878

After sometime, scale build-up is unavoidable insteam generating coils. How is it removed ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By cleaning with boiler tube brushes.

In the drydock by chemical engineers.

Bythe circulation of chemicals by small pump in port.

By flushing with the boiler water circulation pump.

SET010000001879




How is this finned piping of an exhaust gas boilerfastened in the boiler wall ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It is caulked.

With a screwed coupling.

It is expanded.

It is welded.

SET010000001880

How is the soot which will accumulate between thefinned piping of an exhaust gas boiler removed ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By sand blasting in the drydock.

By high pressure water jet washing at 3000 psi.

By chemical cleaning with pump in port.

Soot blowing at sea, water washing in port.

SET010000001881

What would you do if water was found leaking atsea from the exhaust gas boiler and it is found to be from a leaking finnedtube pipe from the steam generating unit ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Plug the pipe.

Plug the section/ bank.

Put the entire steam generating bank out of commission.

Put the exhaust gas boiler out of commission.

SET010000001882

By which unit is the combustion intensity in thisboiler controlled ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By pressostat controlled fuel admission solenoids.

By the regulating valve "R".

By the compound regulator.

By the position of the air flap.

SET010000001883




What kind of burner would be fitted to this boiler ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A high speed jet burner.

A rotating cup burner.

A steam assisted burner.

A rotating nozzle burner.

SET010000001884

What is the purpose of "S" fitted in the fueladmission line to the rotating cup burner of this boiler ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Emergency stop / Boiler failure cut-out for any reason.

Fuel admission by operation/ Fuel block by stop/emergency.

Keeps fuel to burner open in normal firing mode via photocell.

All of these.

SET010000001885

What is the main purpose of the photocell "P" fittedin the burner front casing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To energise the fuel solenoid "S" when comustion is satisfactory.

To cut-out the boiler if water level is low.

To maintain the correct fuel/air ratio.

To detect firing of the pilot burner "PB".

SET010000001886

If the stand-by indicating light is energised on thecontrol panel of this boiler burner, what does it indicate?

1)

2)

3)

4)

That the boiler is ready to be fired and no alarm conditions exist.

That an alarm condition extists.

That the pilot burner is in operation.

That the fuel is circulating and at the temperature ready to fire.

SET010000001887




What is the function of the "Boiler Firing Switch"fitted on the control panel of this boiler burner ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To isolate the electric power to the control panel.

To open the fuel valve to the burner.

To change from stand-by to firing mode and fire-up the boiler.

To fire the boiler on manual in emergency.

SET010000001888

What is happening when the "PURGING" indicatinglight is illuminated on the control panel of the boiler burner ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Purging air in boiler with flap "F" full open, solenoid "S" and "PB" closed.

Pump "P" is purging the fuel over pressure valve "R".

Both air and fuel are admitted over "F" and "S" , ignition will start.

The boiler starts firing and the photocell will activate.

SET010000001889

What burner equipment item operating when theignition indication light is illuminated on this boiler's control panel ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The fuel solenoid "S"

The recirculating valve "R".

The compound regulator "CR"

The pilot burner "PB"

SET010000001890

The firing or the flame indicating light on the controlpanel of this boiler burner control panel shows that ............

1)

2)

3)

4)

the pilot burner has fired.

ignition is taking place.

fuel is admitted to the main burner.

the boiler is operating normally.

SET010000001891




The flame failure lamp on the control panel of thisboiler burner will illuminate when ...................

1)

2)

3)

4)

the pilot burner fails to fire the main burner.

the flame is being smothered by water in the fuel.

the flame is dark due to incorrect fuel/air ratio.

Any of these faults.

SET010000001892

What is the purpose of the restart button which youwill find fitted to the control panel of this boiler's burner?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To be pressed after low water cut-out.

To be pressed after restarting the feedwater pump.

To be pressed after flame failure.

To be pressed after the forced draught fan trips.

SET010000001893

Which of the following conditions is a lock-outcondition which will consequently illuminate the lock-out indicating lampfitted to the control panel of the boiler burner light up ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Burner not correctly secured in position.

Low fuel oil pressure.

Low water level.

Any of these faults.

SET010000001895

If you fire the boiler and it misfires repeatedly,indicating flame failure, what are you going to check first?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The boiler water level is at the correct level.

The fuel oil pressure and temperature are correct.

The photocell is clean in sight glass "G".

The ignitor rods, clean the ignitor tips if necessary.

SET010000001896




What do you think should be the temperature onthermometer "T" during normal operation of this boiler ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

45 to 50 degree C.

60 to 65 degree C.

90 to 100 degree C.

125 to 130 degree C.

SET010000001897

Prior to carrying out any work on boiler burners, youshould isolate them. What is understood by this ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

You must ensure that all electrical power supplies are shut off.

You must ensure that all fuel line valves are shut and fuel drained.

You must ensure that funnel uptake flap is closed.

All of these.

SET010000001898

What is item "A" in the steam lay-out drawing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The main 7.0 bar pressure reducing valve.

The 7.0 bar - 3 bar pressure reducing valve.

The 7.0 bar steam pressure relief valve.

The 3.0 bar steam pressure relief valve.

SET010000001899

What is item "B" in this steam lay-out drawing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The 7.0 bar pressure reducing valve.

The 3.0 bar pressure reducing valve.

The 7.0 bar manifold safety valve.

The 3.0 bar manifold safety valve.

SET010000001900




What is item "C" in this drawing of the steam lay-out?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The 7.0 - 3.0 bar steam reducing valve.

The main steam reducing valve.

The main safety blow-off valve.

The 3.0 bar safety blow-off valve.

SET010000001901

What is item "D" in this drawing of a steam lay-out ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A stem pressure reducing valve.

A steam balancing valve.

A blow-off valve.

A safety relief valve for the low pressure manifold.

SET010000001902

The exhaust steam line of one of the consumersshown in this drawing will not return via the atmospheric condenser butdirect via a water trap to the hot well. Which one ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Viscorator.

Purifiers.

M.E. heating.

Laundry.

SET010000001905

In a split, reduced steam manifold, one manifold ofpressure 7.0 bar, the other3.0 bar. From which manifold are the returns taken direct to the hotwell?

1)

2)

3)

4)

From the 7.0 bar manifold.

From the 3.0 bar manifold.

From either the 7.0 bar or the 3.0 bar manifold.

Neither.

SET010000001911




Why is there an air vent provided on theatmospheric condenser ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To blow off excess steam.

To avoid vacuum and keep atmospheric pressure.

To prevent the hotwell from steaming up.

To de-airate, to avoid corrosion.

SET010000001912

What is the purpose of a steam trap, shown as "ST"on thre drawing?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To retain the steam and let the water pass.

To retain the water and let the steam pass.

To let steam and water pass only under atmospheric pressure.

To let water pass only under a vacuum.

SET010000001913

What is this funnel like pipe fitted below theevaporating surface of the boiler water ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A feedwater funnel.

A blow down funnel.

A boiler water sample drain funnel.

A skimming plate.

SET010000001917

When skimming-off, which valve will you fully openfirst and close last, whilst operating the other valve throttled ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The inner valve open first full and close last after operation.

The inner valve open first, the outer valve close last.

The outer valve open first and close last after operation.

The outer valve open first and the inner valve close last.

SET010000001918




How do you carry out skimming operations on theboiler water ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Blow the water down until steam gushes out.

Slowly with feedwater pumps stopped.

Four to five repeated blows of about 5 seconds each.

When the boiler steam pressure has been reduced to atmospheric pressure.

SET010000001919

Which main air compressor is normally used to topup the main air bottles ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Main air compressor No 1.

Main air compressor No 2.

Main air compressor No 1 or No 2.

Main air compressor No 1 and No 2.

SET010000001920

During vessel manoeuvring, which Main Air Bottlesare used ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No 1 Main Air Bottle.

No 2 Main Air Bottle.

No 1 or No 2 Main Air Bottle.

No 1 and No 2 Main Air Bottle.

SET010000001922

What are items "NR " fitted after the compressors?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Demisters.

Oil separators.

Safety valves.

Check valves.

SET010000001924




What kind of filling valves are fitted on all the airbottles ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

High pressure gate valves.

High pressure scew lift valves.

High pressure remote-control valves.

High pressure S.D. check valves.

SET010000001925

What is item "M" fitted in the discharge line of theInstrument Air Compressor (I.A.C.) ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An oil separator.

An automatic drain valve.

A moisture separator.

A drain valve.

SET010000001926

What is the primary purpose of drain valves "D"fitted on all air bottles ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To blow the bottles empty if required.

To remove dirt from the bottle.

To remove water and condensate from the bottle.

To remove excessive oil from the bottle.

SET010000001927

Which of the fittings listed below is NOT usuallyfitted on a compressed air bottle ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A thermometer.

A pressure gauge.

A safety valve.

A drain valve.

SET010000001928




What is item "A.D." in the main air supply line fromthe Instrument Air Bottle ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An air drain.

An air safety discharge valve.

An air dryer.

An air pressure safety device.

SET010000001929

What are items "CP" fitted in the Working Air andInstrument Air supply lines ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Pressure capacity vessels.

Condensate pots.

Constant pressure vessels.

Pressure relief units.

SET010000001930

Suppose you find that the safety valve of theWorking Air Bottle blows off at a pressure in excess of 8.5 bar. Which ofthe causes listed below is NOT a possible cause for this lifting of thesafety valve ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Compressor unloader is stuck in loading position.

Setting of cut-in / cut-out pressostat wrongly adjusted or defective.

Pressure reducing valve from main air bottle defective or stuck.

Insufficient air consumption by the working air consumers.

SET010000001932

In what kind of machinery do you find this type ofvalve fitted ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Main engine scavenge air manifold.

Ventilation air ducts.

Air compressors cylinder heads.

Auxiliary diesel crankcase door explosion relief valves.

SET010000001933




What is part No. 3 of this valve ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A valve flexible disc.

A feather spring plate.

A disc connecting plate.

A suction/discharge plate disc.

SET010000001934

How do you to make this valve air tight duringoverhaul ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By fitting O-rings on seat plate 5.

By machining the seat of valve disc 4 and seat plate 5.

By fitting cupper gaskets to the valve body.

By lapping and polishing valve disc 4 and seat plate 5.

SET010000001935

How is this type of valve kept in place in the cylinderhead of an air compressor ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It is screwed into the valve space of the cylinder head.

It is secured to the cylinder head by bolts.

It is fitted in a valve housing which is bolted by a flange onto the cylinderhead.

It is kept in place by a collar flange, bolted on the cylinder head

SET010000001937

How is the valve shown here made air tight in thecylinder head of the compressor ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No joint, both faces lapped to each other.

An O-ring of perbunan is fitted between valve and seat.

A general purpose joint is fitted.


SET010000001938




Why is it important that the exhaust gas boilerbypass flap to exhaust is operated when the main engine is running atreduced or manoeuvring speed on Heavy Fuel Oil. ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To ensure proper firing of the engine.

To ensure starting of the engine.

To avoid backpressure on the engine at low speed.

To avoid corrosion in the exhaust gas boiler.

SET010000001947

If the auxiliary seawater pump "AS" fails, whichpump should be used to cool the condensers ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Fire Pump "FP ".

General Service Pump "GSP".

Hydrophore Pump "HP".

Main Sea Water Pump(s) "MS".

SET010000001953

If the reefer condenser pump "PP" fails, which pumpwould you use to supply cooling water to these reefer condensers ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Fire Pump "FP'

General Service Pump "GSP"

Auxiliary SW PUMP "AS"

Any of these pumps may be used.

SET010000001954

If the auxiliary condenser is not in use for anyoperation at sea, which pump should be used to cool the atmospheric anddumping condensers?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The General Service Pump "GSP".

The Fire Pump "FP".

The Reefer Condenser pump "PP".

By the Main Seawater Pump "MS".

SET010000001955




If the dirty oily water mixture fills chamber 1 of thisseparation bowl, where will the clean oil be found ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Item 2 in the bowl.

Item 3 in the bowl.

Item 4 in the bowl.

Between item 2 and item 4.

SET010000001960

What liquid substance is present in chamber 1 ofthis oil- water separator ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Clean oil.

Water.

Dirty oil.

Oil/water mixture.

SET010000001961

If a dirty oily/water mixture is entering chamber item1 of this separator, where will the dirt settle ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

With the liquid item 3.

On the bottom item 4.

With the liquid item 2.

On the separation plate between liquids 2 and 3.

SET010000001962

Which force is acting to separate water from oil inthis separator ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Centrifugal force.

Gravitational force.

Kinetic energy.

Chemical potential.

SET010000001963




Where will the dirt collect which is separated fromthe oily water mixture in this Sharples separator, shown left ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

On the inner mantle of the cylindrical bowl.

On the oil/water separation plate.

On the bottom of the cylindrical bowl.

Near separating plate flushed off with water.

SET010000001964

Where will the dirt collect from the oily water mixtureif separated by the centrifugal disc type separator, shown right ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

On the cylindrical surface of the bowl.

On the bottom of the bowl.

On the top separation plate between oil and water.

In between the discs.

SET010000001965

The Sharples separator, shown left and the Disctype separator, shown right, both run at high RPM. But which runs at thehighest speed ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Both run at the same RPM.

The Sharples runs at a higher RPM.

The DISC type runs at a higher RPM.

It depends for which kind of oil gravity either is used.

SET010000001966

The Disc type oil separator can usually separatewater from oil when processing oils between which density ranges ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0.845 to 0.965.

0.78 to 0.98.

0.87 to 0.95.

0.84 to 0.945.

SET010000001968




If insufficient water sealing is present (blue colour)in the bowl of this separator, what will be the effect ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Water will discharge with the clean oil.

Insufficient oil will be pumped through the purifier.

The purifier will overflow oil on the water side.

The high temperature alarm will activate.

SET010000001970

What should be the thermal efficiency of this kind oftube heat exchanger ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

between 32 and 46 %.



100 %.

SET010000001972

If the heated medium of this heater is oil and theheating medium is steam, excess steam supply or insufficient oil flowcould cause excessive .................... in the heater.

1)

2)

3)

4)

deformation.

pitting.

corrosion.

carbon formation.

SET010000001973

Why is a heavy flywheel (item number 7) requiredon this starting air compressor ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To absorb the large torsional forces (2 cylinder).

To absorb the vibrations due to high speed (900 - 720 RPM).

To accelerate evenly when starting.

To avoid stalling when drain and unloaders close.

SET010000001985




Suppose the rated delivery pressure of this main aircompressor is 25 bar, what would be the delivery pressure of the firststage cylinder ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

12.5 bar.

15 bar.

8.3 bar.

5 bar.

SET010000001986

Which parts of a refrigeration plant are shown here?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Compressor, dryer, evaporator.

Compressor, oil separator, evaporator.

Compressor, collector, condenser.

Compressor, oil separator, condenser.

SET010000001988

What type of condenser is fitted to this refrigerationunit ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A fin coil air fan cooled type.

An air duct cooled type.

A sea water cooled type condenser.

A fresh water cooled type condenser.

SET010000001989

To which type of installation would you find theserefrigeration components fitted ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Reefer ship cargo installations.

Ships accommodation air conditioning plants.

Engine control room air conditioning plants.

Small domestic refrigeration units.

SET010000001990




How is the capacity of this type of refrigerationinstallation controlled ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By the compressor unloader.

By the expansion valve.

By the solenoid valve.

No capacity control is fitted.

SET010000001991

How are the components of this type of refrigerationsystem joined together ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By flared piping connections.

By screwed piping connections.

By flanged piping connections.

By soldered piping connections.

SET010000001992

What is the correct name of part number 1 shownhere ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A thermo-balanced expansion valve.

A thermodynamic expansion valve.

A thermostatic expansion valve.

A thermo-controlled expansion valve.

SET010000001993

What size of refrigeration installation is shown here?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A large installation (reefer cargo).

A medium size installation (accommodation aircon).

A smaller size installation(provision rooms, small air conditioning units).

A very small cabinet refrigerator unit.

SET010000001996




What kind of medium is found in the line to whichsafety blow-off valve part No 3 is fitted (red line) ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Hot superheated gas of high pressure.

Hot saturated gas and oil.

High pressure wet gas.

Resaturated high pressure gas.

SET010000001997

What is part No 5 of this refrigerator compressordrawing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A cylinder head spaces plate.

A valve plate.

A distance collar.

A cylinder head gasket plate.

SET010000001999

What kind of material is NEVER used for the pistonsof a refrigeration compressor ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cast Iron.

Light alloy.

Perlite steel.

Pure aluminium.

SET010000002000

How is lubrication arranged in this refrigerationcompressor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By attached crankcase lub. oil pump.

By splash lubrication.

By a cylinder lubricator.

By independent lubricating pump.

SET010000002001




If the suction and delivery valves are closed for testand the compressor is losing gas pressure rapidly (indicating a leak),which part would you suspect first?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The valve plate gaskets.

The crankcase door gasket (fitted on block No 1).

The flanged pipe gauge connections.

The shaft seal (item No 7).

SET010000002002

What is part No. 7 of this refrigerated compressor ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A flexible type shaft seal.

A carbon ring type shaft seal.

A chemical resistant box seal.

A spring tensioned bellow seal.

SET010000002003

Which type of suction and delivery valves woul befitted in this type compressor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A cylindrical combination suction/delivery valve.

Vane type valve plates riveted on valve plate.

One each cylindrical suction and delivery valve.

Spring controlled poppet valves.

SET010000002005

In what capacity range are refrigerationcompressors of this type found (shaft input expressed in Kilo Watts) ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

300 W to 1.5 kW.

2.5 kW to 7.5 kW.

5 kW to 15 kW.

25 kW to 65 kW.

SET010000002007




Is capacity control feasable on this compressor ? Ifyes, how would it be arranged ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No, capacity control system cannot be fitted.

Yes, capacity control valve acts on the unloader by suction pressure.

Yes, by throttling the suction valve.

Yes, by setting the expansion valve.

SET010000002008

What is part No. 3 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The sterntube.

The stern.

The rudder.

The transom.

SET010000002013

What is the shaft called to which the propeller isfastened ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The main engine shaft.

The stern shaft.

The intermediate shaft.

The tail shaft.

SET010000002014

How is the propeller fitted onto its shaft, so as toavoid it from slipping ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It is bolted on the flange of the drive shaft.

It is locked into slots on the drive shaft.

It is keyed onto a tapered shaft.

Wires are fitted through the securing holes of shaft and propeller.

SET010000002015




What part is fitted under the propeller cone ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The propeller seal.

The propeller locking bar.

The propeller nut.

The rope guard.

SET010000002016

What metal is the stern tube usually lined with?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Aluminium brass.

Gunmetal.

White metal.

Phosphor bronze.

SET010000002017

How would this stern tube bearing be lubricated ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By grease.

By water supply.

By a closed lubricating oil system.

It is self lubricating.

SET010000002018

If refrigerant gauges are calibrated in AbsoluteCorresponding Temperature, can these gauges be used for anyrefrigerant in any refrigerating system ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Can be used for Freon 12 or Freon 22 only.

Can be used for any refrigerant.

Can be used for any refrigerant except AMMONIA.

Are calibrated for only one refrigerant.

SET010000002022




What is the shape of stern tube seals (forward andaft) ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

They are flat gaskets between flanges.

They are square in form and diagonally cut.

They are round in form and in one piece (O-ring type).

They are lip seals and in one piece.

SET010000002024

Which are the stern tube bearing parts on this typeof stern tube?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The cylindrical steel tube aft.

The forward and aft plummer blocks.

The forward and the aft bearing bushes (liners).

The cylindrical steel tube with white metal lining and oil supply system.

SET010000002025

What is the purpose of the 3-way cock part No. 7 inthe stern tube oil circuit ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To remove air from the system.

To fill oil in the system.

To drain the oil from the stern tube and sample.

To change over from main to forward stern tube sealing circuit.

SET010000002026

Why is the stern tube header tank fitted above thesea water level ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To ensure lubrication of the after stern tube seal.

To ensure lubrication of the forward stern tube seal.

To avoid oil being spilled overboard.

To avoid sea water entering the stern tube.

SET010000002027




Steam produced by a boiler whose temperature isabove that corresponding to its pressure is referred to as..............?

1)

2)

3)

4)

dry steam.

regenerated steam.

bled steam.

superheated steam.

SET010000002061

What liquid is present in collecting point 11 at thebottom of the fresh water generator evaporator shell?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Ejector water.

Brine.

Fresh water.

Sea water.

SET010000002077

What is the purpose of the sea water pump item No.13 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To supply sea water to the condenser.

To drive the air ejector of the evaporator.

To supply water to be evaporated.

To cool the evaporator.

SET010000002079

What is the source of energy used to convert saltwater into fresh water in this fresh water generator ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The vacuum and ejector pump item 13.

The seawater pump supplying the evaporating water item 14.

The ejector pump and seawater pump combined.

The waste heat from the main engine.

SET010000002080




How is a vacuum created in the fresh watergenerator ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By the condensing effect in the condenser.

By pumping or educting out the brine.

By the vapour eductor driven by the ejector pump.

By the differential temperature of fresh and sea water.

SET010000002081

What is item No 9 shown here fitted betweenevaporator and condenser of this fresh water generator ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A desalinator unit.

A water filter assembly.

A water deflector.

A heating cap.

SET010000002083

What is the required salinity of the fresh waterproduced as drinking water onboard ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Below 20 ppm.

Below 50 ppm.

Below 7 ppm.

Below 2 ppm.

SET010000002084

What is the maximum salinity allowable (in ppm) forwater produced by this fresh water generator when it is to be used inmedium pressure water tube boilers ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

20 ppm.

15 ppm.

7 ppm.

2ppm.

SET010000002085




If the FW generator is producing water with salinityof 5 ppm and is changed to produce water of 2 ppm, this is mainlyachieved by .....................

1)

2)

3)

4)

slowing down production by opening the vacuum breaker valve.

decreasing production by lowering fresh water supply from M.E.

decreasing sea water cooling to the condenser.

throttling sea water feed supply to the evaporator.

SET010000002086

What should be the level in the sight glass of theaccumulated fresh water in the fresh water generator ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

One inch from the bottom.

Two inches from the top.

Half level.

Between one fourth and half level.

SET010000002087

What is the ideal temperature difference betweeninlet and outlet on this evaporator?

1)

2)

3)

4)

2 to 4 degree C.

4 to 6 degree C.

6 to 8 degree C.

8 to 12 degree C.

SET010000002088

What type of pump is the distillate water pump, itemNo 7, and at what pressure is it discharging the liquid?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Vane pump, under pressure.

Centrifugal pump, under vacuum.

Centrifugal pump under pressure.

Vane pump, under vacuum.

SET010000002089




Prior to starting the distillate pump, item No 7, it isnecessary to make sure that ............................ in order to avoid thepump running dry.

1)

2)

3)

4)

water is visible in the sight glass of the evaporator.

the discharge valve of the pump is shut.

the vacuum in the evaporator is still minimum.

the evaporator is full and under presuure.

SET010000002090

When starting up a fresh water generator it oftenhappens that the distillate pump fails to pump out the produced water.This could be caused by ...............

1)

2)

3)

4)

the vacuum being too high in the fresh water generator.

the fresh water generator being too high.

an air leak on the shell and grease needs to be applied.

the pump is drawing in air through a leaking shaft seal.

SET010000002091

When taking over the watch as duty engineer, whatwould you check first, before inspecting the plant condition?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The engine room bilges.

The log book entries from the previous watch.

The fire alarm monitoring equipment.

The Chief Engineer's standing orders and special instructions.

SET010000002126

Whilst taking over of the watch, besides verifyingstanding orders and the actual condition of the plant, tank levels andoperations, what other important matter should you verify?

1)

2)

3)

4)

That the bilges of all wells pumped.

What is the firefighting equipment in state of readiness.

If any workis being performed in the engine room.

Where are the leakages in pipes, tanks and equipment.

SET010000002127




In reefer installations the cooling effect is producedby lowering the pressure of the refrigerant so that .................

1)

2)

3)

4)

the liquid will be able to absorb heat from the surroundings.

the liquid will be able to expand to gas.

its boiling point is reached and it will be able to absorb heat.

it will be able to be compressed again and give off heat.

SET010000002133

In this nozzle/flapper assembly (part of a pneumaticcontrol system) at what distance away from the nozzle does the flapperneed to be moved in order not to have any influence on the NBP (nozzleback pressure) ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

h = 0.4 D.

h = 0.25 D.

h = 0.5 D.

h = D.

SET010000002143

What is the meaning of the pressure indicated byNBP on this nozzle/flapper assembly ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Normal Basic Pressure.

Nominal Balance Pressure.

Nozzle Back Pressure.

Nozzle Balance Pressure.

SET010000002144

What is the most common reason for malfunctioningor erratic functioning of a pneumatic nozzle/flapper assembly ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The nozzle is worn out.

The flapper is broken or distorted.

Dirty air passages of restrictor and nozzle.

Oil or moisture in the back pressure line (NBP).

SET010000002145




If the flapper is pushed against the nozzle so that h= 0, what will the reading of NBP become ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0 psi.

20 psi.

3 psi.

15 psi.

SET010000002146

This characteristic shows that only linear part a-bcan be used. This means that the normal effective travel of the flapper isonly ............... for the full measuring range.

1)

2)

3)

4)

0.005 mm.

0.01 mm.

0.05 mm.

0.10 mm.

SET010000002147

What pneumatic control device is shown here?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A pneumatic flapper/nozzle assembly.

A pneumatic controller.

A pneumatic amplifier.

A pneumatic booster aggregate.

SET010000002150

Which important pneumatic control accessory isshown here ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A pressure regulator.

An amplifier.

An nozzle / flapper assembly.

A transmitter.

SET010000002163




What is the most common reason for malfunctioningof a pneumatic amplifier ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Gasket No 8 blown.

Diaphragma No 7 bursts.

Valve stem No 6 defective.

Internal passages blocked by oil mixed with dirt.

SET010000002166

This shows a pneumatic control unit which formsthe basis of pneumatic control engineering. It is ...............?

1)

2)

3)

4)

a pneumatic transmitter assembly.

a totaliser or summator unit.

a nozzle/flapper assembly with amplifier.

a pneumatic basic controller unit.

SET010000002167

These small pneumatic pipes are connected to thedifferent parts of pneumatic system so they can be easily dismantled,using ...................?

1)

2)

3)

4)

clamps with bellow packing.

retainer springs and silicon.

plugs and O-rings.

sleeves and copper gaskets.

SET010000002168

Which part shown here is the nozzle in thispneumatic assembly ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Part No. 2

Part No. 3

Part No. 4

Part No. 5

SET010000002169




What will be the existing pneumatic pressure inconnecting pipe item No 6 from flapper nozzle assembly to the pneumaticamplifier ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Between 2 and 2.75 psi.

Between 3 and 15 psi.

20 psi.


SET010000002170

What is the output pressure of this pneumaticamplifier ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

7 to 15 psi.

3 to 15 psi.

15 to 25 psi.

3 to 20 psi.

SET010000002172

What pneumatic device is shown here ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A proportional controller.

A proportional transmitter.

A feedback amplifier.

A feedback controller.

SET010000002178

What is the name of the bellow P, which indicatesits purpose ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Absorbing bellow.

Equalising bellow.

Feedback bellow.

Lifting bellow.

SET010000002179




If we shift the nozzle/flapper assembly to the left sothat the length of "a" is half of length "b", to what level will L' rise before itstabilizes ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Twice the height from level L.

Half the height from Level L.

1/4th the height from level L.

Four times the height from level L.

SET010000002185

What is the level difference between L and L' calledin this process ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The span.

The range.

The amplification.

The offset.

SET010000002186

The working pressures used by pneumatic controlcomponents are between 3 and 15 psi. What are the equivalent currentsused by electric control equipment ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Between 0 and 20 mA or 4 and 20 mA.

Between 10 and 50 mA or 15 and 50 MA.

Between 20 and 60 mA or 25 and 75 mA.

Between 0 and 5 or 3 and 9 mA.

SET010000002205

Alternator temperature indicators often givingreadings in degrees Fahrenheit. If a reading is 80 degrees F, how manydegrees Celsius is this ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

23.8.

26.6.

29.2.

32.7.

SET010000002346




The two valves shown on the left of this picture arecalled flat valves and give a high throughput for a small lift in height. Theyare mostly used for ...........................

1)

2)

3)

4)

process stability, for a certain percentage in lift changes the throughput by thesame percentage.

self correcting flow valve, by changing pressures in the system the throughputthe same.

open - close regulation.

a stop (zero flow) valve.

SET010000002406

The two valves shown in the centre of the drawingare .....................

1)

2)

3)

4)

pear shaped valves.

flat top valves.

linear valves.

equi-percentage valves.

SET010000002407

The two valves on the left of this picture are................., the two valves on the right are ............... valves.

1)

2)

3)

4)

flat top, linear.

pear shaped, equi-percentage.

linear, curved.

linear, equi-percentage.

SET010000002409

In addition to pressure, Freon gauges are calibratedin:

1)

2)

3)

4)

absolute pressure.

absolute corresponding temperature.

superheated gas temperature.

saturated gas temperature.

SET010000002445




In a refrigeration system the method of reducing thecapacity without reducing the compressor speed is called:

1)

2)

3)

4)

hot gas by-passing.

short cycling.

hot pressure by-passing.

low pressure by-passing.

SET010000002446

When the evaporator coils are located directlyinside the refrigerated space the system is known as..............

1)

2)

3)

4)

an indirect system.

a low pressure system.

a double evaporator system.

a direct system.

SET010000002447

An abnormally hot suction line in a refrigeratingplant may be due to.............

1)

2)

3)

4)

insufficient refrigerant.

too much refrigerant.

too much oil in circulation.

high latent heat of evaporation.

SET010000002448

Low alkalininity of boiler water or the presence offree oxygen, or both may result in .............

1)

2)

3)

4)

scale.

corrosion.

foaming.

priming.

SET010000002468




Flash point of oil is the temperature at which............

1)

2)

3)

4)

It will ignite in the cylinder.

condensation occurs.

it should be stored in a pressurised tank.

flammable vapours form at its surface.

SET010000002470

Kinetic energy of a body is due to its .............

1)

2)

3)

4)

position.

temperature.

motion.

horsepower.

SET010000002472

Which of the following is a unit of work?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Pounds per minute.

Kilograms per minute.

Kilogram meters.

Foot-pounds per minute.

SET010000002473

Power is the work done ..........

1)

2)

3)

4)

per unit of acceleration.

per unit of force.

per unit of time.

per unit of distance.

SET010000002474




Which of the combustible elements of fuel oil is amajor source of boiler corrosion?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Oxygen.

Sulphur.

Hydrogen.

Carbon.

SET010000002475

A hydrazine test is conducted on boiler water tocheck for ...........

1)

2)

3)

4)

sulphates.

excess oxygen.

phosphates.

nitrates.

SET010000002477

Saturated steam produced by a boiler should beseparated from moisture ................

1)

2)

3)

4)

by the superheater.

by cyclones.

by passing through the dry pipe.

in the turbine steam trap.

SET010000002480

The Specific Heat of water is ...........

1)

2)

3)

4)

One

10 degree F

100 degree C

greater than 212 degree F

SET010000002482




The unit of measure used to express the chloridecontent of boiler water is ...............

1)

2)

3)

4)

PPM.

gms per cc.

pH.

micro-ohm.

SET010000002487

What do you call the valve that prevents steampressure from exceeding the allowable working pressure?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The safety valve.

The steam regulator valve.

The steam pressure reducing valve.

The main steam stop valve.

SET010000002491

The relief valves in a fuel oil service systemdischarge to either the service pump suction or to the ..............

1)

2)

3)

4)

recirculating line.

simplex fuel oil strainer.

settling tanks.

slop retention tanks.

SET010000002499

Testing boiling water for chloride content willindicate the amount of ............

1)

2)

3)

4)

solids in the water as a result of sea water contamination.

phosphate present in the water.

dissolved solids in total present in the water.

alkalinity level.

SET010000002500




Under normal conditions, how is the superheatedsteam outlet temperature regulated?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By diverting part of the flow through the desuperheater.

By varying the combustion air.

By regulating the water supply temperature.

By replacing the burners nozzles.

SET010000002501

Which of the following is the neutral PH value ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0

7

9

7.5

SET010000002512

Steam which is in physical contact with the boilingwater from which it is being generated is called ..................

1)

2)

3)

4)

unsaturated steam.

pure steam.

wet steam.

saturated steam.

SET010000002515

The atmospheric pressure is accurately indicated bya .........

1)

2)

3)

4)

Bourdon gauge.

hygrometer..

manometer.

barometer.

SET010000002519




When a fresh water generator condenses watervapour into water it ....................

1)

2)

3)

4)

emits latent heat of fusion.

emits latent heat of evaporation.

absorbs latent heat of fusion.

absorbs latent heat of evaporation.

SET010000002521

The heat used to change a liquid to a vapour iscalled 'latent heat of ..............'

1)

2)

3)

4)

fusion

evaporation

absorption

transmission

SET010000002522

A refrigerant gives up heat when it ............

1)

2)

3)

4)

evaporates.

condenses.

vapourises.

boils.

SET010000002523

The lowest temperature obtained in a refrigeratorsystem is the temperature of the .........

1)

2)

3)

4)

evaporator coil.

liquid in the condenser.

receiver cooling water temperature.

liquid in the evaporator.

SET010000002524




Refrigerating or cooling effect is produced by..............

1)

2)

3)

4)

the pressure change of the refrigerant.

the boiling refrigerant changing to a vapour.

increasing the pressure of the refrigerant.

lowering the pressure of the refrigerant.

SET010000002525

The two main types of refrigeration systemevaporators are called ............

1)

2)

3)

4)

wet and dry.

dry and flooded.

finned and tube.

short and extended.

SET010000002526

The greatest decrease in the temperature of arefrigerant is at the ...............

1)

2)

3)

4)

expansion valve.

evaporator.

condenser.

receiver.

SET010000002527

When Freon is leaking from a refrigerating system,a halide torch flame will turn .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

blue.

yellow.

green.

orange.

SET010000002528




A receiver in a refrigeration system is used to............

1)

2)

3)

4)

separate oil from the refrigerant.

store the refrigerant.

cool the hot gases.

condense the refrigerant.

SET010000002529

When used with reference to a refriferation or airconditioning system ambient temperature is the ..............

1)

2)

3)

4)

temperature of the space being cooled.

temperature of the air outside the spce being cooled.

temperature difference between the space being cooled and the outsidetemperature..

temperature of the machinery space.

SET010000002530

The temperature of a refrigerant is highest justbefore it enters the ..............

1)

2)

3)

4)

receiver.

condenser.

evaporator.

king valve.

SET010000002531

Moisture in a refrigeration system will cause a .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

low discharge temperature.

high suction pressure.

high suction temperature.

faulty expansion valve.

SET010000002532




The cooling effect in a refrigeration system isproduced by ............

1)

2)

3)

4)

lowering the pressure of the refrigerant.

increasing the pressure of the refrigerant.

boiling the refrigerant.

pressure changes to the refrigerant.

SET010000002533

Excess refrigerant in a refrigeration system isnormally removed from the .........

1)

2)

3)

4)

discharge side of the evaporator.

suction side of the system.

comprssor crackcase.

charging connection of the system.

SET010000002534

The indications of a faulty refrigeration compressorvalve are ..........

1)

2)

3)

4)

low head pressure-high suction pressure.

Any of these.

continuous running.

gradual or sudden decrease in capacity.

SET010000002536

High latent heat is desirable in a refrigerant so that...........

1)

2)

3)

4)

smaller compressors can be used.

smaller pipes can be used.

it will boil at low temperature.

a small amount of refrigerant will absorb a large amount of heat.

SET010000002537




When adjusting compressor V-belts ................

1)

2)

3)

4)

make them as tight as possible.

allow 12mm slack.

make the belt just tight enough to turn the pulley.

always replace the belt first.

SET010000002538

What will happen if brine in a refrigeration systemhas a high specific gravity ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It will freeze.

It will crystallize.


It will solidify.

SET010000002539

In a refrigeration system, a precooler is sometimesinstalled between the ..............

1)

2)

3)

4)

compressor and the condenser.

condenser and the expansion valve.

expansion valve and the evaporator.

evaporator and the compressor.

SET010000002540

Frost appearing at the high pressure side of athermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system is probably causedby ..............

1)

2)

3)

4)

the refrigerator box being too cold.

a dirty or iced-up expansion valve.

the condenser being too cold.

the head pressure being high.

SET010000002541




In all refrigeration installations, the cooling effect isproduced in the ..............

1)

2)

3)

4)

compressor.

evaporator.

condenser.

liquid reservoir.

SET010000002542

An automatically controlled Freon-12 compressorwill stop when the ....................

1)

2)

3)

4)

expansion valve closes.

expansion valve opens.

solenoid valve closes.

solenoid valve opens.

SET010000002546

If the compressor discharge in a refrigerationsystem becomes frosted, the probable cause is ...........

1)

2)

3)

4)

the expansion valve being improperly set.

the refrigerant flooding back.

the compressor cuts out too frequently.

a faulty king valve.

SET010000002547

In the refrigeration system, the low pressure sidewould be from ..............

1)

2)

3)

4)

the outlet of the expansion valve to the suction of the compressor.

the discharge of the compressor to the inlet of the expansion valve.

the outlet of the condenser to the inlet of the expansion valve.

the outlet of the condenser to the outlet of the expansion valve.

SET010000002548




When used in operating accomodation airconditioning systems, humidity is a measure of ...............

1)

2)

3)

4)

temperature.

evaporation.

latent heat.

water vapour content.

SET010000002549

What is the other name of the brine-circulatingsystem of refrigeration?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Closed system.

Expansion system.

Indirect system.

Direct system.

SET010000002550

In a refrigeration system, a fluid that serves only asa heat carrier is called the .........

1)

2)

3)

4)

condensing refrigerant.

secondary refrigerant.

vaporizing refrigerant.

primary refrigerant.

SET010000002551

When ordering an expansion valve for arefrigeration system which of the following information is necessary ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Size and pressure.

Size, tonnage, temperature and pressure.

Pressure and temperature.

Size and tonnage.

SET010000002553





1)

2)

3)

4)

A pressure reducing valve.

A exhaust valve.

A safety valve.

A non-return valve.

SET010000002568

What is part No. 1 called ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A shaft.

A spring.

A spindle.

A guide.

SET010000002569


1)

2)

3)

4)

A spring cap.

A valve cover.

A spring adjuster.

A spring retainer.

SET010000002570


1)

2)

3)

4)

A valve disk.

A valve disk holder.

A valve seat.

A spring supporter.

SET010000002572





1)

2)

3)

4)

The spring retention piece.

The spring cover.

The valve lid.

The spring guide.

SET010000002573

What is "simmer" in a safety valve ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

First leakage before the valve opens.

A metallic hammering noise.

A hissing sound indicating that a safety valve is leaking.

A failure of a safety valve to re-seat.

SET010000002576

How often should the operation of a boiler safetyvalve be checked ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

At each annual survey.

At each dry dock.

At regular intervals.

Only when the electronic checking system fails.

SET010000002577

What is component "A" called ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The evaporator.

The condensor.

The pump.

The compressor.

SET010000002578




What is component B called ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The evaporator.

The brine tank.

The condensor.

The suction tank.

SET010000002579

What is component C called ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The expansion valve.

The suction valve.

The pressure regulator.

The condensor valve.

SET010000002580

What is component D called ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The condensor coil.

The expansion coil.

The evaporator coil.

The superheater coil.

SET010000002581

What is component G called ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The freon tank.

The water tank.

The compressor receiver.

The liquid receiver.

SET010000002582




What are the four processes in a refrigeration cycle?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Suction / Compression / Expansion / Power.

Compression / Condensation / Expansion / Evaporation.

Evaporation / Expansion / Implosion / Condensation.

Condensation / Evaporation / Cooling / Compression.

SET010000002583

What is the function of the expansion valve ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To regulate the flow of refrigerant to the evaporator.

To reduce the pressure of the liquid refrigerant.

To increase the pressure of the liquid refrigerant.

To regulate the flow of refrigerant to the evaporator and to reduce thepressure of the liquid refrigerant.

SET010000002584

What is the function of the evaporator ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Transferring heat from the substance being cooled.

Evaporating humid air in the room or area being cooled.

Act as a heat exchanger between the hot refrigerant and the cooling medium.

To recycle used refrigerant.

SET010000002585

What is the function of the compressor ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To compress hot air.

To pump the liquid stored in the auxiliary refrigerant tank.

To compress the refrigerant.

To compress hot air and to pump the liquid stored in the auxiliary refrigeranttank.

SET010000002587




Which part in this diagram is the discharge valve ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Part B.

Part E.

Part G.

Part I.

SET010000002588

What is significant about an indirect refrigerationsystem ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It measures temperature in directly.

It uses a secondary refrigerant like brine to do the cooling.

It has an indirect circulation of cooling medium.

It uses ammonium instead of Freon as cooling gas.

SET010000002589

What is the function of the dehydrator in arefrigeration system ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To reduce risk of corrosion in the brine tank.

To take away humid sediments in the suction valve.

To absorb moisture usually present in the refrigerant.

To reduce moisture in the compressor house.

SET010000002590

Which part is the Adjusting bolt ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No 1.

No 2.

No 5.

No 6.

SET010000002634




What part is the diaphragm disc ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Part 6.

Part 3.

Part 2.

Part 4.

SET010000002636

Which part is the spring house ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Part 3.

Part 4.

Part 5.

Part 6.

SET010000002637

What is Part No. 7 called ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The disc.

The diaphragm.

The plate.

The rubber membrane.

SET010000002638

When taking over the engine room watch, youshould verify that the steering gear is ..............

1)

2)

3)

4)

operational and the ship is on course.

vibration free operation without oil leaks and that the unit is well greased andlubricated.

not running in overload or not overheating.

well ventilated.

SET010000003056




When taking over the engine room watch youshould verify that the pallister bearing carrying the rudder stock ............

1)

2)

3)

4)

is well greased and that no water ingress is noticeable.

has no jumping clearance.

has no axial clearance.

has sufficient clearance on the gland packing and is not scoring the liner orthe seat plate.

SET010000003057

When taking over the engine room watch youshould ensure that the stern tube oil gravity tanks .............

1)

2)

3)

4)

contain sufficient oil to maintain level during your watch.

contain oil to the correct level mark to ensure that there is no oil loss via thestern tube.

are changed-over from high to low or vice versa as required.

are at the required temperature and if hot, more water should be added to thestern tube.

SET010000003058

When taking over the engine room watch youshould ensure that the stern tube seal ...........

1)

2)

3)

4)

is supplied with cooling fresh water.

is supplied with cooling sea water.

is not leaking.

has not shifted inside the liner.

SET010000003059

When taking over the engine room watch youshould ensure that the stern tube shaft is ...........

1)

2)

3)

4)

not running hot.

exactly "hand warm ".

not vibrating and not running hot.

not twisted.

SET010000003060




When taking over the engine room watch youshould ensure that the intermediate shaft ..........

1)

2)

3)

4)

is polished and that the polishing mats are in place.

is adequately greased.

is at engine room temperature.

is vibration free.

SET010000003061

When taking over the engine room watch youshould ensure that the intermediate shaft bearings are ....

1)

2)

3)

4)

at the desired temperature, that adequate oil is flowing and that cooling watersupply is on.

not overheating, not leaking oil and that no white metal is spotted.

not running hot, the cooling water is not blocked and the oil is not dirty.

not hot or making any unusual noise and that the cooling water valve is open.

SET010000003062

When taking over the engine room watch, youshould check that the engine room supply fans ............

1)

2)

3)

4)

are well greased.

are covered by dirt screens.

are not overheating.

are running vibration and noise free.

SET010000003064

When taking over the engine room watch youshould check that the engine room fan's intake grids or intake filters............

1)

2)

3)

4)

are free of dirt or obstacles.

are properly bolted in place.

are cleaned with oil and grease remover.

are secured by wire mesh.

SET010000003065




When taking over the engine room watch, whatshould you check in the engine room workshop when no one is workingthere ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

That the fire alarm is switched off and that the electric power is switched off.

The fire alarm is switched on, the electric power to equipment switched offand any gas bottle valves are closed.

That the lights are switched off and the valves of the welding gas bottles areclosed.

That all lockers are closed, that workshop is locked and the lights switchedoff.

SET010000003066

When taking over the engine room watch, what areyou to check and verify concerning the bilges and any accumulated water?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The amount of water in the bilges, the Chief Engineer's standing orders andcheck for any accumulation and its source.

Check accumulation source and piping and check when the bilges were lastpumped .

Check dryness of bilges, water in accumulation tank (bilge tank) and verifywhether bilges were pumped.

Check from where the water or oil is originating and when the bilges were lastpumped.

SET010000003067

When taking over the engine room watch, whatshould you check concerning the operational heavy fuel oil purifier?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The flow-through capacity, the temperature on the inlet, the bearingtemperature and the Ferodo coupling.

The water seal (tank), the crankcase oil level ,the flow-through capacity, thefuel inlet temperature, the overflow pipe and the back pressure.

The attached fuel pump bearings, the fuel back pressure, the inlettemperature and the suction strainer.

The Ferodo coupling, the bearing temperature, the crankcase oil level, thepump bearing temperature and the setting of the timers.

SET010000003068

When taking over the engine room watch, whatshould you check concerning the heavy fuel supply to machinery andboilers ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

That the settling tanks and the daily service tanks are full.

That the settling tanks and daily tanks are at least for 75 % full.

The daily and settling tank levels, the purifier line-up and throughput, in orderto ensure at least sufficient fuel supply to last your watch

The temperatures of the settling tanks and daily tanks.

SET010000003069




When taking over the engine room watch, whatshould you check on the heavy fuel oil daily and settling tanks in additionto the supply capacity ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Air supply to the quick closing valves, the tank vent screens, the remote ordistance gauging system.

Compare the remote gauging system with tape sounding readings, drain themoisture off.

Verify the temperatures, check the tank vent screens, unclog the distancereading system.

The tank temperatures, drain the collected water off and verify if the quantityof water is normal.

SET010000003070

When taking over the engine room watch, whatshould you check concerning the operational lubricating oil purifier ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Check whether throughput is on maximum, check the water seal, check theoverflow/water flow off pipe, check inlet temperature and back pressure.

Check whether throughput is minimum, check the overflow pipe, checkwhether the alarm is activated.

Check the setting of the timers, check the inlet temperature, the backpressure, the bearing temperatures.

Check the Ferodo coupling, the bearing temperatures, the inlet temperatureand the back pressure.

SET010000003071

When taking over the engine room watch, whatshould you check on all engine room fresh water expansion tanks?

1)

2)

3)

4)

That the temperatures are normal and the tanks are not steaming up.

That the levels of the tanks are normal and if any abnormal additions duringprevious watches.

That the automatic filling or float systems are in good operational order.

That the chemical concentration of the water is correct.

SET010000003073

When taking over the engine room watch, whatshould you check concerning the hot well of the condensate/feedwatersystem ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Whether correct level, no excess of make-up water being supplied and thatthere is no steaming up.

Whether the cooling water supply is sufficient and that the level issatisfactory.

Whether the heating coil is in operation and that the automatic filling valve isworking to satisfaction.

Whether the filters are cleaned and that the chemical concentration of thewater is correct.

SET010000003074




When taking over the engine room watch, whatshould you verify concerning the sea cooling water supply system ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The suction pressure and the discharge pressures.

The cooling water system line setting and the sea water pressures to thedifferent components.

The cleanliness of the filters and the correct sea chests are in operation.

The sea water temperature and the sea water pressure.

SET010000003078

When taking over the engine room watch, whatshould you check on the operational boilers when the exhaust gas boileralone is providing the heat supply?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The soot blowers, the economiser and the boiler furnace.

The boiler water circulating pumps, the feedwater pumps and the feedwatertemperature.

The boiler water level, the steam pressure and the exhaust gas change overflap position or coil percentage used.

The economiser and superheater temperatures and the steam pressure.

SET010000003081

When taking over the engine room watch, whatshould you check on the oil fired boiler if this is in operation ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Steam pressure, water level, flame brightness, cleanliness of the photocellglass plus fuel temperature and pressure.

Furnace temperature, uptake gas temperature and smoke indicator.

Feedwater temperature, fuel oil pressure, CO2 content of uptake gases andflame brightness.

Feedwater temperature, steam pressure, water level, fuel pressure and CO2content of uptake gases.

SET010000003083

When taking over the engine room watch, whatshould you check concerning the main compressed air system ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

That the valves to the deck air fore and after are open.

That the air compressors are in a state of readiness with correct oil level inthe crankcase and air bottles are drained.

That the branch lines to the working and instrument air are correctly openedand at the desired pressure of 7.5 kg/cm2.

That the non-return valves from compressors to bottles are correctly set.

SET010000003084




When taking over the engine room watch, whatshould you check concerning the fresh water generator ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The vacuum percentage and the sea water temperature.

The difference between sea water inlet and outlet on the condenser and thefresh water inlet and outlet on the evaporator.

The sea water feed supply pressure, the eductor pressure, the fresh waterlevel in the collector and fresh water pump back pressure.

All of the operating parameters and the fresh water production in the last 4hours.

SET010000003085

During your watch you notice that the salinity of thefresh water produced by the fresh water generator has gone up togetherwith the output. You notice too that sea water temperature has dropped.What should you do ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Throttle the sea water flow to the condenser.

Throttle the fresh water flow to the evaporator.

Increase the flow to the eductors.

Increase the opening on the vacuum breaking valve.

SET010000003093

What are the most common faults resulting in failureto raise adequate vacuum in a fresh water generator ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Insufficient flow to eductors (pump pressure or eductor back pressure),leaking fresh water pump shaft seal, leak on casing or cover.

Dirty condenser, fresh water pump impeller wear rings worn, vacuum breakervalve worn.

Dirty evaporator, feed reducing valve blocked, by-pass valve of the freshwater to evaporator leaking, vacuum breaker faulty.

Reflector plate corroded, feedwater supply pipe blocked, blocked or dirtytubes in evaporator or in the condenser.

SET010000003094

What do you think is the most common cause ofpoor performance of fresh water generators ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Scaled/dirty heat exchangers, in particular the evaporator.

Underperformance of ejector and/or fresh water pump(s).

Worn brine or vacuum nozzles.

Internal corrosion of structural components of housing.

SET010000003095




Here is a list of activities which amongst otherthings you will have to perform when starting a fresh water generator.Which list is in the correct order ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Supply fresh water to evaporator, start fresh water pump, start ejector pump,supply coolwater to condenser.

Supply coolwater to condenser, supply fresh water to evaporator, start freshwater pump, start ejector pump.

Start ejector pump, supply cooling water to the condenser, supply fresh waterto the evaporator, start fresh water pump.

Start fresh water pump, start ejector pump, supply cooling water to condenserand fresh water to the evaporator.

SET010000003096

If when you start up a purifier it does not come up tothe desired revolutions, or it takes too long a time to come up to therequired revolutions, you should change the ..............

1)

2)

3)

4)

purifier ball bearings.

friction pad linings.

gravity disc.

O-rings and seal set of the bowl.

SET010000003097

The most common reason for overflow on purifiersis ..............

1)

2)

3)

4)

the wrong gravity disc.

dirt between purifier plates.

water seal broken.

ball bearings worn out.

SET010000003098

When the density of purified oil has increased, youshould ........

1)

2)

3)

4)

increase the temperature and decrease the gravity disc inside diameter.

increase the temperature and increase the gravity disc inside diameter.

decrease the temperature and decrease the gravity disc inside diameter.

Decrease the temperature and increase the gravity disc inside diameter.

SET010000003099




During start up of a purifier, how will you noticewhen the bowl has reached the required revolutions ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The crankcase rotating indicator will turn fast.

The vibrations on the purifier will increase.

The purifier will make a humming noise.

The starting amperage will drop sharply to normal (1/3 to 1/4) from thestarting current.

SET010000003100

Caution must be taken when handling purifierssince errors can cause great danger. Handle with due caution is requiredin operation, dismantling, assembling, inspection, maintenance. This isbecause .............

1)

2)

3)

4)

danger of electrocution from the electric power supply to driving motor,various control solenoids and other required operational controls is great.

oils and fuels cause fire and explosion when handled carelessly. This dangeris increase because the fuels and oils fed to purifiers is heated.

static electricity may be generated if parts are wrongly assembled causingexplosion within the purifier.

purifier bowls revolve at very high speed generating great centrifugal forces,careless handling causes danger of disintegration.

SET010000003101

If some part of a purifier bowl assembly is defective,what action should be taken ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Have it repaired on board if it can be done.

Send it to a qualified workshop for repair.

Order the specific bowl spare part.

Contact the makers for guidance and act on their advice only.

SET010000003102

The starting/ accelerating current of a purifier is............% of the normal operating current.

1)

2)

3)

4)

50

100

150

250

SET010000003103




The time interval for automatic sludge dischargefrom purifiers must be chosen correctly. In general the more frequent theinterval the better. Howeve too short intervals are inefficient and too longintervals...........

1)

2)

3)

4)

will also give bad efficiency.

may result in overflowing of the purifier due to clogging with dirt.

will result in difficult desludging due to adhesion of sludge.

may result in water seal depletion.

SET010000003104

As a rule of thumb, the time interval set forautomatic desludging of diesel oil purifiers should be ................ hours.

1)

2)

3)

4)

1 to 2

2 to 3

4 to 5

6 to 8

SET010000003105

As a rule of thumb, the time interval set forautomatic desludging of 380 cSt heavy fuel oil purifiers should be............... hours.

1)

2)

3)

4)

1 to 2

2 to 4

4 to 6

6 to 8

SET010000003106

As a rule of thumb, the time interval set forautomatic desludging of 180 cSt heavy fuel oil purifiers should be.............. hours.

1)

2)

3)

4)

2 to 3

1 to 2

4 to 6

6 to 8

SET010000003107




As a rule of thumb, the time interval set forautomatic desludging of lubricating oil purifiers used on crosshead typeengine sumps should be ................... hours.

1)

2)

3)

4)

1 to 2

2 to 4

4 to 6

6 to 8

SET010000003108

The factors which determine the selection of thesize of gravity disc for a purifier are ................................

1)

2)

3)

4)

the bowl speed, the oil temperature and throughput.

the specific gravity of the oil and the oil temperature.

the oil temperature, the sludge content and the specific gravity.

the oil temperature, the water and sludge content and the specific gravity.

SET010000003110

Oil purifiers can be used for purifying as well as forclarifying operations. The clarifying operation is referred to as ...........

1)

2)

3)

4)

the single phase liquid-liquid operation (water from oil).

the 3 phase liquid-liquid-solid operation, separating light from heavy liquids,as well as solids from light as from heavy liquids.

The 2 phase liquid-solid operation, separating dirt from oil.

The 2 phase solid-liquid operation, separating dirt from water and oil.

SET010000003112

The usual mode of series operation of two heavyfuel oil purifiers refers to .........

1)

2)

3)

4)

two identical machines being put separately from settling tank to daily tank athalf the feed rate through each purifier.

two identical machines being put from settling tank to 1st purifier, hence tosecond purifier, at half the throughput each purifier.

two identical purifiers being used for heavy fuel oil as well as for diesel oil, bychanging line system and gravity discs.

two identical machines being operated in series, the first as purifier, thesecond in line as clarifier with same throughput.

SET010000003113




If the oil flows out on the heavy liquid (water) side ofa purifier, the most likely reason is .........

1)

2)

3)

4)

that the gravity disc inside diameter is too big, or that the oil temperature hasdropped, increasing the density of the oil.

that the revolution of the bowl has slowed and the electric motor is inoverload.

that the amount of closing water for the bowl is insufficient.

that the operating water for the bowl has been turned off or the containingtank is empty.

SET010000003114

If the oil flows from the sludge outlet on an oilpurifier, the most likely reason for this is ...........

1)

2)

3)

4)

that the relief valve of the gear-type supply pump is working.

that air is being sucked into the suction piping of the lub oil pump.

that defects have developed in the vertical shaft parts or otherwise that therubber plate has hardened.

that the bowl has not been closed correctly, there is a fault in main seal ring,pilot valve or water supply for closing the bowl.

SET010000003115

When water is found mixed in the light liquid (oil)outlet of an oil purifier, the most likely reason is ..............

1)

2)

3)

4)

excessive supply of sealing water, feed rate too high and water outlet of oilclogged.

defects in the horizontal shaft parts.

water in the gear case.

that the relief valve of the oil supply attached pump has been set too high,causing overload.

SET010000003116

If you find that the feed rate of an oil purifier (itsthroughput) has reduced, the most likely reason for this is .............

1)

2)

3)

4)

insufficient delivery from the gear pump, the pump's relief valve is passing, aleaking suction pipe or blocked suction filter.

that the wrong type of gravity disc is fitted, the oil temperature is incorrect orthe heater is blocked.

that the amount of sealing water of the bowl is insufficient or the containingtank is empty or shut-off.

that the revolution speed of the bowl has slowed or the electric motor isoperating in overload.

SET010000003117




If the electric motor on an oil purifier is overloadedor has tripped, the most likely reason is ...............

1)

2)

3)

4)

that the rubber plate has hardened causing excessive supply of sealing water.

that there are defects in the driving system, clutch, gears or bearings.

that the discharge pressure on the light liquid outlet is set too high, or the oiltemperature has dropped.

that the amount of sealing water is insufficient or the sealing water timer iswrongly adjustment.

SET010000003118

When abnormal vibrations or sounds are noticedfrom an oil purifier, the most likely cause is ..................

1)

2)

3)

4)

that the oil seal for the horizontal shaft is worn or damaged.

that the bowl has failed causing contact with non-rotating parts or defects inhorizontal or vertical shaft parts have occurred.

that the gravity disc is the wrong size and/or oil inlet temperature is too low.

that the water outlet of the bowl is blocked causing imbalance in the purifierbowl.

SET010000003119

When inspecting purifier crankcase oil you find thatthe oil has emulsified or that the level of oil has dropped. The most likelyreason is ................

1)

2)

3)

4)

that the bowl revolutions have dropped and the purifier is working in overload.

that water is leaking in or oil is leaking out via the oil seal of the horizontalshaft.

that the safety joint of the oil pump is broken.

the bowl is leaking water on the main seal ring.

SET010000003120

If during your engine room watch you hear the boilerwater level alarm sound and you notice low water level, but the feedwaterpressure is normal, what should you do first ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Shut the boiler main steam stop valve.

Shut-off the steam heating to the tank consumers.

Open the by-pass feedwater check valves.

Start another feedwater pump.

SET010000003121




If during your engine room watch the steam supplyor steam pressure should fall for some reason, what should you checkfirst ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The fuel oil and lub oil purifiers.

The boiler water level.

The hotwell level.

The viscosity of the heavy fuel oil to consumers.

SET010000003122

If during your engine room watch, without anyprevious warning or alarm, the oil fired boiler trips due to "flame failure",what should you check first ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The cleanliness of the photocell.

The fuel oil temperature.

The fuel oil pressure.

The boiler water level.

SET010000003123

The reason for an oil fired boiler uptake emittingdark smoke could be .............

1)

2)

3)

4)

a faulty or dirty boiler nozzle tip or boiler fuel rotating cup.

the fuel / air ratio adjustment incorrect.

a restriction in the free air supply to the boiler fans, perhaps the engine roomvent fans are not running.

Any of these.

SET010000003124

Before starting soot blowing operations on boilers,you should ensure that ............

1)

2)

3)

4)

the safety valves are set correctly.

the boiler water level is at maximum.

the bridge is informed.

the boiler is manually fired.

SET010000003125




Boiler water chemical additives should be suppliedto the boiler via .............

1)

2)

3)

4)

the hotwell.

the hotwell through the chemical dosing pump.

the boiler circulating water inlet through the chemical dosing pump.

the chemical dosing line.

SET010000003126

Why is it dangerous to add chemicals directly intothe hotwell ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Danger from splashes on the eyes and skin.

It creates "hot spots" of chemical concentration in the feedwater which cancause structural harm.

The vapours developed are dangerous when inhaled.

The chemical concentration causes harm to the feedpumps.

SET010000003127

The main danger of feeding cold feedwater into aboiler is ..............

1)

2)

3)

4)

that it causes dangerous steam pressure drops.

that it causes stress in the vicinity of the inlet piping as well as corrosion.

that it can cause implosions.

that it causes oxygen depletion in the feedwater filling line.

SET010000003128

The use of boiler economisers ................

1)

2)

3)

4)

increases the boiler evaporating surface.

increases the overall boiler thermal efficiency.

decreases the steam consumption.

All of these.

SET010000003129




Before swinging-out a boiler burner for maintenanceor cleaning, you are to ensure that ...............................

1)

2)

3)

4)

the electrical power is switched off.

the fuel is isolated.

the boiler furnace is well ventilated or blown through.

All of these.

SET010000003130

Before raising steam in a boiler, you should ensurethat ............

1)

2)

3)

4)

the feedwater check valves are open.

the boiler water circulation valves are open.

the steam main stop valve is open.

the air vent cock is open.

SET010000003131

If there is a very sudden and large increase insteam consumption, how will the boiler water level behave ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It will drop drastically.

It will increase drastically.

It will at first drop suddenly, then increase drastically.

It will at first rise suddenly, then drop drastically.

SET010000003132

After a total black-out with an automatic powersupply system, what is the correct sequence for restarting the essentialpumps once the power is restored ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Main sea water pump, jacket CW pump, piston CW pump, lub oil pump,injector CW pump.

Jacket CW pump, piston CW pump, injector CW pump, lub oil pump, mainsea water pump.

Main lub oil pump, jacket CW pump, piston CW pump, injector CW pump,main sea water pump.

Injector CW pump, main sea water pump, jacket and piston CW pump.

SET010000003133




Water whith a pH value of 7 is referred to as.................

1)

2)

3)

4)

alkaline.

neutral.

acid.

basic.

SET010000003150

Hardness in feed water is mainly attributed to saltsof these metals ...........

1)

2)

3)

4)

Potassium and Iron.

Magnesium and Calcium.

Sodium and Aluminium.

Sulphur and Vanadium.

SET010000003151

All the ferrous components of a ship will sustainstrong corrosive action in the presence of ...........

1)

2)

3)

4)

acid waters.

alkaline waters.

steam.

turbulent water.

SET010000003152

The reason why two-stage starting air compressorsare used in preference to single stage compression is that .....

1)

2)

3)

4)

the power absorption by single stage compression would be too high.

the temperature developed by single stage compression would be too high.

the starting current of a single stage compressor would be too high.

the friction in a single stage compressor would be too high.

SET010000003153




From where should a boiler water sample be takenfor testing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

From the water space.

From the steam space.

Lowest part of the boiler drum.

From the drain cock.

SET010000004707

After boiler inspections and surveys, what is thefinal test carried out by the surveyor in order to accredit the safety valvesand boiler mountings ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Check the valves for corrosion.

Check the valve spindles for cracks.

Check safety valve blow-off pressure with boiler under steam.

Check the condition of valves and valve seats.

SET010000004729

On resuming normal purification after automatic de-sludging you frequently experience a high temperature alarm. What willyou do to avoid reoccurrence ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Increase capacity through the purifier.

Lower the set point of the oil temperature.

Fit or adjust (increase) time delay on the high temperature alarm.

Decrease capacity through the purifier.

SET010000004737

If oil is found in the auxiliary boiler water, whataction would you take other than isolating the leak ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Stop any chemical treatment.

Dose the coagulant.

Skim and blow down the boiler.

Dose the coagulant, skim and blow down the boiler.

SET010000004777




When an overhaul of a compressor is completedand the compressor is to be started for a test run, it is important to ...........

1)

2)

3)

4)

check the direction of rotation.

check that an open discharge line exists through to the receiver.

check that all air receiver outlets are closed during the test run.

check the maximum pressure of the capacity on run-up.

SET010000004779

How do you test the probes for the 15 ppm monitor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By immersing in oil.

By checking in air and immersing in water.

It is only necessary to clean them.

They have to be changed, onboard testing is not possible.

SET010000004785

What should you do if a purifier starts to vibratebadly?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Try to increase the flow.

Try to decrease the flow.

Check the vibration alarm.

Stop the purifier immediately.

SET010000004786

Why is it important to follow a maintenanceschedule for purifiers ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To improve the purifier's efficiency.

To prevent serious damage to main components.

The only maintenance necessary is cleaning of the bowl.

To comply with company regulations.

SET010000004787




What will you do if the plate exchanger leaks whenreturned to service after cleaning?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Tighten more.

Close the valves.

Dismantle the exchanger, check or renew packings.

Reduce pressure.

SET010000004788

On the air compressor crankcase there is a smallvalve that lets off pressure. What should be done if oil is present with theair?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Lower the sump oil level.

Check the clearance in the bearing.

Block off the valve.

Overhaul the compressor unit.

SET010000004790

A leak from the gland of a centrifugal pump is foundto be excessive. The correct procedure is to ...............

1)

2)

3)

4)

fit over size packing to the stuffing box.

tighten the gland as much as possible until the leakage stops.

regularly pump out the bilge well to which it is draining.

re-pack the stuffing box loosely with the correct size packing at the earliestopportunity.

SET010000004791

At what interval should boiler water testing takeplace ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Every eight hours.

Every fortnight.

Every day.

Every week.

SET010000004793




When opening a plate cooler for cleaning, howshould the bolts be removed ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Fully slacken and remove top ones first, then the middle and then the bottomones.

Fully slacken and remove the middle bolts first, then the top and then thebottom ones.

One by one, clockwise.

One by one, anti-clockwise.

SET010000004795

The plate heat exchanger is separated for cleaning,what should you do if the plates are thick with scale or other organicmaterial ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Change the plates.

Put the plates in water with cleaning chemicals. Use soft a brush or highpressure cleaner with care.

Use a high pressure cleaner with abrasives.

Use a wire-brush or metal scraper to clean the plates.

SET010000004797

For a low pressure boiler, testing shows the waterchloride level to be 1000 PPM. What action would you take ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No action needed.

Blow down boiler and check condenser for leakage.

Increase chemical dosage.

Decrease chemical dosage.

SET010000004799

What happens if the rudder is moved in a heavysea?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The main pressure relief valves lift.

The hydraulic motor absorbs the shock.

The over pressure is absorbed by system accumulators.

The telemotor pump prevents movement by increasing the hydraulicpressure.

STCW20541ETYQKJ




If the gauge glass indicates no water level in theboiler what should be your first action?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Check the operation of the feed pump.

Check the feed tank water level.

Shut off all the burners.

Blow down the gauge glass.

STCW21JEYNEQCH7

When starting an air compressor, why is itnecessary for the unloader to be activated before the drain valves areclosed?

1)

2)

3)

4)

So the pumping action can blow the drains through.

To avoid the safety valves blowing.

To avoid air blowing in the bilges.

To prevent the compressor from tripping.

STCW21OVNDBU8G6

Which fuel quality is measured in secondsRedwood?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Flashpoint.

Specific Gravity.

Viscosity.

Ash content.

STCW22B31WHTIFX

In a provison room refrigeration system what wouldbe the most likely cause of high compressor discharge pressure?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Failure of the expansion valve.

Ice formation on the evaporator coils.

Overcooling of the evaporator return.

Inadequate condenser cooling.

STCW22D46XQ5Y17




How is the quality of the distilled water from a freshwater generator improved?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Increasing the shell vacuum.

Decreasing the seawater feed to the evaporator.

Slowing down the output of the evaporator.

Decreasing the jacket water flow to the evaporator.

STCW22TBQH80OF8

What would be fitted to relieve excess refrigerationcompressor pressure?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Pressure relief valve to atmosphere.

Pressure relief valve to suction line.

Bursting disc to compressor suction.

Bursting disc to condenser inlet.

STCW22XTZLEA950

How are boiler tubes secured in the end plates?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Welded

Expanded

Screwed

Screwed collar on the outside of the plate

STCW23QSFD08J3F

What purpose is the fuel oil settling tank?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To settle out water.

To settle out sludge.

To settle out suspended solids.

To settle out all impurities.

STCW23VIFAELAOJ




What damage could be caused to the boiler byraising steam too quickly?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Damage to furnace refractory.

Excess soot deposits on cold tube surfaces.

Distortion of the shell due temperature differential.

Leaking tubes where expanded into the shell.

STCW247G322XOEL

What action would you take if the boiler waterChloride readings are too high?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Add more chemical to the feed water.

Blow down the boiler regularly until readings are acceptable.

Drain and refill the feed water tank.

Increase frequency of testing.

STCW248EPT84T89

What is the desired salinity of the fresh waterproduced as drinking water onboard?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Below 20ppm.

Below 50ppm.

Below 10ppm.

Below 5ppm.

STCW24N06X4CPXD

What is meant by 'Isothermal' expansion?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Expansion during which heat must be added.

Expansion at constant temperature.

Expansion during which heat is lost.

Expansion at constant pressure.

STCW24V4QZ0WJ50




Which of the following is the most likely cause of arestriction at the expansion valve?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Oil being carried over with the refrigerant..

Blockage in the filter/drier unit.

Moisture in the system.

Insufficient gas charge.

STCW250EPCJWFLT

Which is the least harmful of these refrigerants?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Freon 12.

Freon 22.

Ammonia.

Carbon Dioxide.

STCW25EFSHE9XHC

What of the following is the most damaging toriveted mountings?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Leakage through the rivets.

Rusting of the rivet heads.

Raising steam too quickly.

Chloride levels too high.

STCW26D8GA6KMCE

What action should you take in the case of an boileruptake fire?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Operate soot blowers to extinguish fire.

Increase air supply to burn fire out.

Shut off burners, shut down fans and close off air supply.

Shut down burners but maintain fans to clear fire.

STCW26JG11U13Y1




How is temperature controlled in a steam oil heater?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Steam supply pressure reduced.

Steam inlet valve throttled.

Oil flow increased.

Steam outlet valve throttled.

STCW26M6KJFXVVS

What is the usual pressure adjustment method onboiler safety valves?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Set bolt and locknut.

Removable shim packs.

Different rate springs.

Set spring pressure with machineable adjustment rings.

STCW279JQFG77BI

What is the function of a Viscotherm in the fuelsystem?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To control the fuel temperature.

To regulate the fuel pressure.

To control viscosity by altering temperature.

Controlling fuel pressure and temperature.

STCW27K9H6FIKQL

What slows the rudder movement when therequested position is reached?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The steering wheel transmitter.

The rudder control receiver unit.

The hunting gear feedback signal.

The rudder telemotor control.

STCW27SB9R0KO2W




What regular maintenance is required on the boilerburner?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Renewing of the electrodes.

Overhauling of the shut-off valves.

Cleaning of the burner tips.

Cleaning and resetting of the air register.

STCW282DUBT0Y2M

What liquid is present in the collecting point at thebottom of the evaporator?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Ejector water.

Brine.

Fresh water.

Sea water.

STCW287ASUDFAXX

What service is most suitable for the use of rotarycompressors?

1)

2)

3)

4)

High pressure, low volume.

High pressure, high volume.

Low pressure, low volume.

Low pressure, high volume.

STCW28PP31N3MIN

What is the first action when flashing up a boiler?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Start up the water feed pump.

Purge furnace with air.

Clean the burner nozzle.

Lower the oil pressure.

STCW296H4GARF0M




What percentage CO2 in the uptake is present ingood combustion?

1)

2)

3)

4)

10%

12%

15%

25%

STCW2AQBSXC8CXJ

In a single stage air compressor what is themaximum practical delivery pressure?

1)

2)

3)

4)

7bar.

3bar.

10bar.

15bar.

STCW2ASNHIPFVBP

What percentage CO2 in the flue gases wouldindicate correct combustion?

1)

2)

3)

4)

5%

12%

7%

20%

STCW2BADKFFVPB3

What does the sight glass indicate in a refrigeratorsystem?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Operation of the expansion valve.

Condition of the filter drier unit.

Adequate refrigerant charge.

Efficiency of the condenser.

STCW2BDB6X70AOP




What compressed air supply valve must alwaysremain open?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Air to ship's whistle.

Air to deck services.

Air to starting air lines.

Air to workshop service.

STCW2BG6ASEHWDR

What is the purpose of the scum valves on theauxiliary boiler?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Removal of scum from the feed tank water.

Removal of scum from the drains observation tank.

Removal of scum from the boiler water surface.

Draining the boiler water to the bilge.

STCW2BN5M3P4HGW

What best describes the boiler "easing gear"?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Remote operation of stop valves.

Manual lifting arrangement of safety valves.

Reduction gearing to facilitate opening of main stop valves.

Feed control unit.

STCW2BQNU7HXVW3

In an electrically controlled hydraulic system whatdo the electrical controls replace?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The hunting gear.

Hydraulic control valves.

Hydraulic telemotor system.

Rudder feedback signal.

STCW2C48T9QOFM6




What is the correct S. G. for brine used as asecondary refrigerant?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1.05

1.1

1.25

1.5

STCW2CI3T3PQ612

What term is used to describe access holes to theboiler drum?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Inspection holes.

Drum access holes.

Manholes.

Furnace inspection panels.

STCW2CJ3JMXIO6N

What is the primary purpose of drain valves fitted onall air bottles?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To blow the bottles empty if required.

To remove dirt from the bottle.

To remove water condensate from the bottle.

To remove excessive oil from the bottle.

STCW2CQTCYEJ51E

What precaution must be observed when fitting newanodes to heat exchanger sea water spaces?

1)

2)

3)

4)

PTFE tape applied to the plug threads to enable easy removal.

Ensure the anode is as close as possible to the tube plate.

Ensure no damage is caused to the exterior surface of the anode.

Ensure good, clean contact is made between anode and Cooler body.

STCW2CVA2X8DR2E




What is the effect if the boiler fuel oil temperature istoo low?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Flame failure.

Fuel delivery pump cutting out.

Flame impingement and refractory damage.

Blocking of fuel filters.

STCW2CVPZ3HWJBC

What boiler mountings must be dismantled forinspection during survey?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Safety valves.

Gauge glass & valve components.

Feed water check valves.

All boiler mountings.

STCW2CWZ98OQ4OC

What condition would necessitate blowing down theboiler?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Water level too high.

Chloride readings too high.

Steam pressure too high.

PH reading below 7ppm.

STCW2D2TXK0WVK2

What is the maximum salinity for water produced bya fresh water generator when it is to be used in water tube mediumpressure boilers?

1)

2)

3)

4)

20ppm.

15ppm.

7ppm.

2ppm.

STCW2DHKILMZU99




What is the normal maximum starting air pressure?

1)

2)

3)

4)

50bar.

40bar.

30bar.

20bar.

STCW2E8WWCIPKFI

A hydrazine test is conducted on boiler water tocheck for............

1)

2)

3)

4)

Sulphates.

Excess oxygen.

Phosphates.

Nitrates.

STCW2EN39PX26M0

Why are some boiler tubes not plain cylindrical?

1)

2)

3)

4)

For extra strength.

To facilitate gas flow.

To give a greater heating area.

To reduce scale formation.

STCW2EPVVMQYFUG

How is a vacuum created in the fresh watergenerator?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By the condensing effect in the condenser.

By pumping or ejecting out the brine.

By the vapour ejector driven by the ejector pump.

By the differential temperature of fresh and sea water.

STCW2EQACNDGTI1




Upon what is the movement of the rudderdependant, when a helm order is given?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The degree of opening of the hydraulic bypass valve.

On the adjustment of the feedback rod connection.

On the distance the hydraulic control lever is moved by the floating link.

On the hydraulic pressure setting of the relief valves.

STCW2F6C1Z88FUF

What is the purpose of the automatic unloadingvalve when fitted to the air start compressor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Prevent the pressure relief valves from lifting.

Prevent damage to the valves when starting.

Avoid the first stage relief valves lifting when starting.

Avoid high starting current on the motor.

STCW2FBURMI7921

What equipment Operates on a Rankine Cycle?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Diesel engine.

Petrol engine.

Gas turbine.

Steam power plant.

STCW2FCVDT1G4JH

Where is the filter/drier unit fitted in the refirgerantline?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Between condenser and expansion valve.

Between expansion valve and evaporator.

On the compressor discharge line.

At the evaporator inlet.

STCW2FTY5ONZQW3




In the formula P.L.A.N. what is 'N' for a 4 strokediesel engine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

RPM.

RPM/120.

RPM/30.

RPM/60.

STCW2FVBL9A140U

What is a telemotor system?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Hydraulic actuation of steering rams.

Transfer of steering signals from wheel to steering gear.

Hand actuation of steering gear.

Steering gear feedback system.

STCW2GR8V1IV0V7

What does the telemotor receiver unit control?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Main steering motor control voltage.

Hydraulic operating pressure.

Speed of rudder movement.

Hydraulic pump delivery.

STCW2HHYM9FVY2U

What is the most dangerous effect on the boilerburner of water in the fuel?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Poor combustion.

Extinguishing of burner flame.

Damage to furnace refractory.

Loss of boiler efficiency.

STCW2HP6ZITI7K5




Where on the main starting air receiver would afusible plug be fitted?

1)

2)

3)

4)

On the underside.

Adjacent to the filling valve.

Next to the relief valves.

On the manhole door.

STCW2HRO90YR4IV

On what part of the air compressor does theunloader act and in what way?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It keeps the SUCTION VALVES open.

It keeps the SUCTION VALVES closed.

It keeps the DELIVERY VALVES open.

It keeps the DELIVERY VALVES closed.

STCW2HXFUKCDLMJ

What is the function of the relief valves fittedbetween main hydraulic cylinders?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To return any excess oil back to the suction of the pump.

To act as automatic by-pass valves when the steering gear is stopped.

To be opened to allow emergency steering.

To act as safety valves to absorb shock and avoid damage.

STCW2HZ94YDQV28

What is always fitted in instrument air supply lines?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An oil separator.

An automatic drain valve.

A moisture separator.

A drain valve.

STCW2IHOSIM4CRC




When should you make sure that loose gear inmachinery space is properly secured?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Prior to leaving port.

When you are warned by the bridge of bad weather.

After completion of every job.

At all times.

STCW2IIKJYOT3WJ

What would be a normal operating pressure of anauxiliary boiler?

1)

2)

3)

4)

6 - 9bar.

Below 5bar.

15 - 20bar.

Above 20bar.

STCW2J6GLPSDMOW

What is the most important purpose of the auxiliaryboiler on a modern diesel engine vessel?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Domestic water heating.

Accommodation heating.

Heating of heavy fuel oil.

Fresh water generation.

STCW2J7NZ1FCY3B

What is the function of the expansion valve in therefrigeration circuit?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To allow the expansion of the high-pressure gas before the condenser.

To reduce the pressure of the liquid refrigerant.

To increase the pressure of the liquid refrigerant.

To regulate flow and reduce the pressure of refrigerant to the evaporator.

STCW2JCI57WR1T2




What could be the effect of excess steam orreduced oil flow in an oil heater?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Deformation of tubes.

Eroding of tube ends.

Corrosion of tubeplates.

Carbon formation on tubes.

STCW2JMU52ZDV3E

In the case of air-cooled compressors what formdoes the cooler take?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Honeycombed radiator.

Vertical flattened pipes.

Finned circular pipes.

Horizontal box section pipes.

STCW2JXMV01S9UK

What is the purpose of air release valves on boilershell?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To expel air when raising steam.

To expel air when filling the boiler.

To vent the boiler when shut down.

To check when steam is being produced.

STCW2L39H2IWU99

In a single motor electrical steering system whatsupplies the main steering motor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Hydraulic power pack.

Electrical supply from a local motor/generator.

Mains electrical supply.

Hydraulic power delivered by the main steering motors.

STCW2L5S5ASWLPA




What is the most likely source of Chloridecontamination in the boiler feed water?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Feed water tank.

Fuel heater.

Drains cooler.

Accommodation heating.

STCW2L5Z22Y6TF6

In tankers an alternate hydraulic oil supply must beautomatically connected for the steering system within what time?

1)

2)

3)

4)

45 seconds.

2 minutes.

3 minutes.

5 minutes.

STCW2LF5XHR07VH

How is an air conditioning compressor normallyunloaded?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By holding open the discharge valves.

By throttling the suction valves.

By holding open the suction valves.

By throttling the suction valves.

STCW2LLIY0V1HNV

In a conventional rudder system when will leastpower be required to move the rudder?

1)

2)

3)

4)

With the vessel stationary.

With vessel moving astern.

Vessel full ahead at service speed.

With vessel moving slowly ahead.

STCW2MDEG5ZKDHY




What daily test should be carried out on boilerwater?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Dissolved oxygen.

Dissolved nitrogen.

Chloride content.

Sulphite content.

STCW2MF8NNNSHQW

What is the state of refrigerant leaving theevaporator?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Low-pressure liquid.

High pressure gas/liquid mixture.

Gas at high pressure.

Gas at low pressure.

STCW2MUIF61Z05W

What does the term volumetric efficiency refer to?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Mechanical efficiency.

Pumping efficiency.

Thermal efficiency.

Overall efficiency.

STCW2N1TLT2CDLF

On the fresh water generator why is a baffle platefitted between evaporator and condenser?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To cool the vapour.

To prevent carry over of brine.

To maintain the vacuum inside the shell.

To maintain the evaporator temperature.

STCW2N7RWHJ956X




What is the most dangerous effect of scale build upin the boiler water space?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Loss of boiler efficiency.

Overheating and deformation of furnace.

Damage to feed water valves.

Flame impingement on the furnace walls.

STCW2O59GAT128D

Why is the presence of oil particularly dangerous instarting air lines?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It may carbon up and choke the lines.

The high oxygen content makes it very explosive.

It may cause sticking of the air start valves.

It could affect the operation of the relief valves.

STCW2P1L0AL8TX5

What type of filling valve is fitted on all air bottles?

1)

2)

3)

4)

High pressure gate valves.

High pressure butterfly valves.

High pressure remote-control valves.

High pressure S.D. check valves.

STCW2PE1676S4M7

What is the possible consequence of too high awater level in the boiler?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Feed pump cutting out.

Carry-over of the boiler water.

Insufficient steam generation.

Boiler shutting down.

STCW2PEPGG8EB60




What does wheel movement control in an entirelyelectric steering system?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Hydraulic transmitter.

Current supplied directly to the electric steering motor.

The electrical balance of the wheel and steering motor rheostats. .

Current to the steering gear motor/generator.

STCW2PH805IMTHM

What is the steering system oil tank within thesteering pedestal?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Main hydraulic system header tank.

Lubrication tank for the steering gear linkage.

Reservoir for the telemotor system.

Header tank for the auto pilot control system.

STCW2PMMQV5HF9Q

What provides power to the hydraulic emergencysteering system.

1)

2)

3)

4)

Battery power to the entire steering system.

Emergency generator running main hydraulic pumps.

Manual operation of main pumps.

Accumulators in the hydraulic system.

STCW2PO5QDGY6MD

Which of the following is a system for controlling thesteering electrically?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Graduated stepper motors.

Ward Leonard System.

AC-DC rectification.

Compass repeater motors.

STCW2QE9P2PUEHZ




When testing boiler water for chlorides, what doesthe test indicate?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Solids in the water from sea water contamination.

Phosphate present in the water.

Total dissolved solids present in the water.

Alkalinity level.

STCW2QHDEG0M43A

What is the main advantage of vacuum productionof fresh water in the fresh water generator?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Less possibility of contamination.

Low cost of distillation equipment.

Simpler to operate.

Utilizes waste heat from the main engine.

STCW2QO9CRO7ZQF

How is "water hammer" best avoided in steamlines?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Fully open main stops and line valves when raising steam.

Open line valves as quickly as possible.

Ensure lines are drained and open valves slowly.

Leave main stops and line valves open when shutting down the boiler.

STCW2R30U0BEZKN

In a hydraulic telemotor steering system movementof the wheel.........

1)

2)

3)

4)

transmits electrical signal to the hydraulic actuator valves.

controls the main hydraulic pumps.

controls movement of the transmitter electric motor.

controls movement of the transmitter pistons.

STCW2RTR57FLULR




What is meant by radial vane type steering system?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Hydraulic pumps are vane type pumps.

Telemotor is vane type operation.

Rudder movement is via vanes mounted onto rudderstock.

Steering is via rotating propulsion unit.

STCW2RVL0WISKNJ

When commencing operation of the fresh watergenerator, what must you ensure before starting the distillate pump?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Water is visible in the sight glass of the condenser.

The discharge valve of the pump is shut.

The vacuum in the evaporator is still minimum.

The pump is primed via the priming line.

STCW2RVV8S8MTKE

If purifier does not attain full speed what could bethe likely cause?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Out of balance.

Bowl incorrectly assembled.

Motor running too slow.

Drive clutch slipping.

STCW2S9RL7KOHVL

Why are cylindrical boiler end plates of dishedshape?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Increased water capacity.

Better accommodates the furnace.

Stronger than flat plates.

Easier access to manhole doors.

STCW2SDHVCXFO0F




What is the plate material used in seawater, plateheat exchangers?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Stainless steel.

Cupro Nickel.

Titanium.

Bronze.

STCW2SV9LXJ3U91

Which of the following is a rotary compressor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Starting air compressor.

Emergency air compressor.

Diesel engine charge air compressor.

Control air compressor.

STCW2T8IJD4IVJ6

How far from the coast is it permitted to use Low-pressure evaporation to produce drinking water?

1)

2)

3)

4)

20 miles.

5 miles.

30 miles.

12 miles.

STCW2TEY9T02AY6

What maintenance is required for an 'Auto-Kleen'knife type filter?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Remove element and hand clean.

Periodically remove sludge from the filter base.

Remove element and renew.

Back flush the filter.

STCW2TQTET20F3H




What is the most important aspect ofcommunication with the Bridge?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Ballasting operations, cargo hold bilge pumping.

Executing of orders from the bridge.

Executing orders from and issuing warnings to the bridge.

Operation of fire fighting and life saving equipment.

STCW2TSK6PIHEDL

What is the state of the refrigerant at the condenseroutlet?

1)

2)

3)

4)

High-pressure gas.

High pressure liquid.

Low pressure liquid.

Gas/liquid mixture at evaporator pressure.

STCW2TU9YPMMSIN

What shutdown device might be fitted on aircompressors?

1)

2)

3)

4)

High air pressure.

Low first stage pressure.

Over speed.

High delivery temperature.

STCW2U2TX31817U

Why should refrigerator compressor oil be stored insmall capacity drums?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Ease of handling.

Ease of stowage.

Refrigerator oil is hygroscopic and should not be stored in part full drums.

Only small quantities are required.

STCW2U41O3QJ45Z




Why is it necessary to produce fresh water fromseawater?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To save cost.

To ensure purity.

Limited shipboard storage.

To make use of waste engine heat.

STCW2UBUB2YM9T7

What factors influence the vacuum inside the shellof a fresh water generator?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The temperature of the fresh water heating the evaporator.

The temperature of the sea water cooling the condenser.

The pressure of the ejector water on the vacuum ejector.

All of the given options.

STCW2UVC3LFGRVR

What controls the boiler feed water delivery?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Feed water tank level.

Steam demand.

Water level controll of feed pump delivery.

Water level control of feed water inlet valve.

STCW2VBCAKSI2PJ

In a refrigeration system what effect has thesolenoid stop valve?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Electrically shuts down the compressor.

Shuts off the refrigerant on the compressor suction line.

Operates the stop valve on the compressor discharge line.

Stops the refrigerant from entering the evaporator.

STCW2VMMQB4WYMO




When used as secondary refrigerant whatdetermines the brine S.G. required?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Amount of brine in circulation.

Carrying temperature of the cargo.

Type of primary refrigerant in use.

Capacity of refrigerant compressors..

STCW2VREKV4ROEB

What term is used for unequal distribution of burnerspray in the boiler furnace?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Flame impingement.

Furnace distortion.

Combustion air imbalance.

Unequal firing.

STCW2VRS3ZWGCNN

If fuel is dripping from the water outlet of the purifierwhat could be the cause?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Delivery pump not functioning correctly.

Discharge pump not functioning correctly.

Purifier needs cleaning.

Gravity ring is of the wrong size for the fuel being purified.

STCW2VS4GCVVFO0

Which is the correct sequence after starting thecompressor.

1)

2)

3)

4)

Compressor on load followed by drain valve closing.

Drain valve closes before compressor starts delivering.

Drain valve only operates on shutdown.

Drain closing and compressor starts delivering together.

STCW2VW4LXWTLXA




What type of valves are normally found in aircompressors?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Plate or disc valves.

Poppet valves.

Slide valves.

Piston controlled ports.

STCW2WOFA694KK7

Why are anodes fitted to the seawater side of heatexchangers?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To afford corrosion protection for the system pipes and valves.

To prevent scaling of the tubes and tube plates.

To afford corrosion protection to the sea water side of the heat exchanger.

To prevent the formation of marine growth in the water spaces.

STCW2WOW609M2OU

What mountings must be tested daily on steamingboilers?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Main feed water check valves.

Boiler blow down valves.

Safety valve easing gear.

Water level indicators.

STCW2WTHKW7LYTI

Can leaking stern tube seals be replaced when thevessel is afloat and if yes, how?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No, they can only be replaced in dry-dock.

Yes, with divers working under water whilst the forward seal is blanked.

Yes, ballast the ship until the stern tube is clear of the water.

Yes, but only the forward seal can be replaced.

STCW2WU5C79KHPY




What would your first action be if the boiler feedpump stopped?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Shut down the boiler burners.

Change over to the auxiliary feed pump.

Check the gauge glass readings.

Shut the main stop valves.

STCW2WZU9Y4TMZK

Why is the stern tube header tank fitted above thesea water level?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Ensure lubrication of the after stern tube seal.

Ensure lubrication of the forward stern tube seal.

To prevent bilge water entering the stern tube.

To avoid sea water entering the stern tube.

STCW2X4E2S2FPQJ

What material is the boiler shell constructed from?

1)

2)

3)

4)

High grade Molybdenum steel.

High tensile steel.

Good quality low carbon steel .

High carbon steel.

STCW2XISTCEWE3Z

When would both steering gear motors be runtogether?

1)

2)

3)

4)

When manoeuvring in confined areas.

When at anchor in a confined anchorage.

When on passage to minimise wear.

In the tropics to overcome the lowering of the oil viscosity.

STCW2XVER7Y8L5Z




What is the function of the boiler Low Level alarm?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Increase the feed water supply.

Sound alarm and shut down boiler burner.

Sound low level alarm.

Reduce the oil supply to the boiler burner.

STCW2XYU32MXTVZ

What liquid is used in thermometers for extremelylow temperatures?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Mercury.

Alcohol.

Inert gas.

Pentane.

STCW2Y02Y1B55NC

What is the purpose of hunting gear when referringto a hydraulic steering system?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To transmit hydraulic pressure.

To control hydraulic motor swash plate movement.

Provides feedback to the pump control.

Limits the speed of the rudder movement.

STCW2Y0DVZ6V2OQ

Where is the temperature of the refrigerant highest?

1)

2)

3)

4)

At the expansion valve.

At the compressor discharge.

At the condenser outlet.

At the compressor suction.

STCW2Y859K4MJF8




What is the main advantage of plate heatexchangers?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Easier to clean.

Cheaper to install.

More efficient and take up less space.

Require less maintenance.

STCW2YV2SZJ5HAL

Is it possible to blow down a steaming boiler?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No, this should never be carried out.

Only in an extreme emergency.

Yes but steam pressure should be maintained.

Yes but never allow the level to disappear from the gauge glass.

STCW2ZHXP3HIK3X

Suppose the delivery air pressure of a compressoris 30.0bar. Which service could this compressor be supplying?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A service air compressor.

An instrument air compressor.

A working air compressor.

A starting air compressor.

STCW2ZNOXU1Z5BQ

In steam power plant what supplies the energyinput?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The condenser.

The turbine.

The boiler.

The economiser.

STCW2ZU2YZWRE6D




Which of the following would indicate the steam trapin the drawing was operating correctly?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Inlet warm and drain hot.

Inlet and drain hot are both hot.

Inlet and drain are both cold.

Inlet hot and drain warm.

VIDTL3K93UM3T3T

Swirlyflo tubes would be used in which application?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Waste heat economiser tubes.

Auxiliary boiler smoke tubes.

Heat exchanger tubes.

Refrigerant condenser tubes.

VIDTLX82IJKR6AD

Which way will fluid pass through this valve ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

From B to A.

From A to B.

In either direction.

From A to C.

SET010000000573


1)

2)

3)

4)

A cover securing screw.

A pressure adjuster.

A vent screw.

A drain screw.

SET010000000880



EO5-Operate Pumping Systems STCW Operational - engineer


1)

2)

3)

4)

The pump shaft.

The motor shaft.

The pressure outlet.

An air seal.

SET010000000881


1)

2)

3)

4)

A pressure adjusting scew.

A drain plug.

An inspection plug.

A sacrificial anode.

SET010000000882

What part number is the pump shaft ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Number 2.

Number 1.

Number 5.

Number 4.

SET010000000884


1)

2)

3)

4)

The fresh water pump.

The fresh water generator.

The salt water generator.

The thermostat pump.

SET010000001069





1)

2)

3)

4)

The purifier.

The primary pump

The clarifier.

The suction filter.

SET010000001084

What type of pump is the pump "P" ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A centrifugal pump.

A piston pump.

A gear or worm wheel pump.

A vane pump.

SET010000001645

What do you call the tanks in which heavy fuel oil isstored on board ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Heavy fuel oil tanks.

Heavy fuel oil daily tanks.

Heavy fuel oil settling tanks.

Heavy fuel oil bunker tanks.

SET010000001683

What do you call the gate valves "MP", "MS", "AP","AS" located on deck ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Heavy fuel oil shut-off valves.

Heavy fuel oil manifold bunker valves.

Heavy fuel oil main bunker valves.

Heavy fuel oil tank valves.

SET010000001684




How is heavy fuel oil from the deeptank transferredto the bunker ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Via suction valve "S", the transfer pump, to discharge valve "D".

Via main bunker valve "B.V." to transfer pump "Tp".

Via own pumps "P1" and "P2", the main bunker valve "BV" to valve "D".

Via own pumps "P1" and "P2" to transfer pump "Tp".

SET010000001685

What is the name and function of the gate valve"BV" ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Main bunker valve, separates bunker manifold from Engine Room.

Bunker valve, separates suction and discharge manifold.

Bunker valve, separates bunker manifold from deeptank.

Main bunker valve, separates double bottom tanks.

SET010000001686

How is the free flow of HFO in the bunker tanksmaintained when the external temperature drops below it's pour point ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By transferring it on time to the HFO settling tank.

By circulating it with the transfer pump.

By heating the oil with steam via steam coils or steam banks.

By always ensuring that warm oil is bunkered.

SET010000001687

Which valve in the engine room must be kept closedif no bunker operations or transfer from the deep tanks are taking place ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The settling tank valve.

Valve "BV".

Valve "S".

Valve "D".

SET010000001688




What type of pump would normally be fitted atposition "P" ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A piston pump.

A centrifugal pump.

A vane pump.

A gear or screw displacement pump.

SET010000001699

What are items "V" ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Straight bilge gate valves.

Non-return screw down valves.

Vacuum suction boxes.

Vacuum flap valves.

SET010000001710

What are items "S" and what is their purpose ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Suction valves to pump the wells.

Strainers to stop dirt from entering the bilge system.

Suction boxes to retain priming water.

Elephant shoe to facilitate bilge pumping.

SET010000001711

What type of pump do you think is used for thepurpose shown here ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A gear pump.

A piston pump.

A vane pump.

A worm wheel pump.

SET010000001712




If you find it difficult to obtain suction whilst pumpingbilge well "A" which of the following actions would you take ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Check that bilge well valves "B","C" and "D" are properly closed.

Check that strainer cover of well "A" is not leaking.

Prime the pump with sea water.

All of these.

SET010000001713

What are items "W" ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Ballast water tanks.

Hold deep wells.

Side water tanks.

Cargo hold bilge wells.

SET010000001715

What is item "S" ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A mesh type strainer.

The sea suction valve of the pump.

A shut-off valve.

The automatic 15 ppm shut-down valve.

SET010000001719

What is shown here ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A Lubricating Oil pressure line filter.

A Fuel Oil pressure line filter.

A seawater, basket suction strainer.

A centrifugal filter.

SET010000001720




Which is the correct parts description list of thissuction filter ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1 = Filter cover, 2 = Filter mesh element, 3 = Filter body.

1 = Body cover, 2 = Cartridge, 3 = Cartridge housing.

1 = Top cover , 2 = Filter, 3 = Cast steel pressure body.

1 = Top sealing plate, 2 = Filter element, 3 = Cast Iron body.

SET010000001721

What ensures the tightness of the filter cover (1) tothe filter body (3) ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The vacuum created in the filter.

The clamp on top of the filter cover.

The filter's gasket.

The gasket pressed down by the filter cover's clamp.

SET010000001722

What type of filter is shown here ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A cartridge type pressure line filter.

A suction wire mesh filter.

A rotating filter.

A magnetic filter.

SET010000001723

What is the correct parts description list of thispressurised filter ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1 = Top plate, 2 = Mesh cloth, 3 = Housing.

1 = Filter cover, 2 = Ribbed filter cartridge, 3 = Filter body.

1 = Top cover, 2 = Element, 3 = Cast body.

1 = Filter top, 2 = Filter cloth, 3 = Housing body.

SET010000001724




What kind of valve is this ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A screw-down non-return valve.

A fixed non-return valve or check valve.

A high pressure control valve.

A high pressure stop valve.

SET010000001725

If the diameter of this valve is 60 mm on it's innerseat, what is the minimum fixed lift height ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

20 mm.

15 mm.

12.5 mm.

10 mm.

SET010000001726

What is the purpose of the screw cap (1) in thepicture ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To adjust the valve lift.

To access the valve.

To adjust the valve down if it is heard banging.

To manually close the valve.

SET010000001727

Which types of tank gauging are fitted here, if: 1 =Float reading on the tank, 2 = Measure tape reading, 3 = Sight glassreading, 4 = Distance reading, 5 = Pneumatic gauging.?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1, 3 and 5.

2, 3 and 4.

1, 2 and 3.

2, 3 and 5.

SET010000001728




What are parts 1 and 4 and what ensures the sealbetween them ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Part 1 = top plate, part 4 = casing, an O-ring.

Part 1 = valve cover, part 4 = valve body, a gasket.

Part 1 = valve plate, part 4 = cast body, a seal.

Part 1 = top cover, part 4 = valve casing, a joint.

SET010000001735

What type of valve is shown here ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A gate valve.

A non-return valve.

A check valve.

A screw-lift valve.

SET010000001736

What is this unit called ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A shaft seal gland and packing.

A mechanical shaft seal.

A segmented seal unit.

A flexible type rotating packing assembly.

SET010000001737

What type of valve is shown here ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A 90 degree gate valve.

An angle screw lift valve.

An angle screw-down valve (non return).

A 90 degree check stop valve.

SET010000001739




Where are you most likely to find this kind of valvefitted ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

On ballast lines.

In diesel engine starting air lines.

On refrigerating machinery.

On sea chests.

SET010000001740

What kind of valve is this ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A manually operated butterfly valve.

A gear operated butterfly valve.

A gear operated gate valve.

A worm wheel operated gate valve.

SET010000001742

How is the sealing ring (2) fitted on the butterflyvalve plate ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It is kept in place by a retaining ring secured by countersunks.

It is bolted on and secured by wiring.

It is glued on a separate removable ring.

It sits in a grooved bolted-on section.

SET010000001744

Where is this type of valve usually found ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

In piping with large flow but low pressure.

In piping of high pressure and large flow.

In piping of low pressure and low flow.

In piping of high pressure but limited flow.

SET010000001745




In what kind of piping would you find this type offilter ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

In fuel oil piping.

In sea water piping.

In starting air piping.

In bilge piping.

SET010000001748

What is the purpose of the drain cock (3) on thisfilter ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To drain the dirt out of the filter basket.

To take samples of the liquid.

To drain out the collected water.

To drain the filter before cleaning.

SET010000001749

What are items No. 2 and No. 6 called ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Bearing sleeves.

Water throwing seals.

Impeller wear rings.

Impeller support rings.

SET010000001795

This in terms of overall pump performance, what isthe most important negative effect if an impeller wear ring (No 6) is wornexcessively ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The pump will absorb excessive power, motor overload.

The pumping efficiency deteriorates, less output.

The pump starts vibrating, bearing damage will occur.

The housing will be attacked by cavitation.

SET010000001796




What type of centrifugal pump is shown here ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Multi-stage, medium speed.

Floating, self balancing, single stage.

Self priming, single stage, high speed.

Single stage, high speed.

SET010000001797

What do you think would be the RPM of the electricmotor driving this pump (Frequency on board is 60 Hz) ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

About 2300 RPM.

About 1500 RPM.

About 1150 RPM.

About 870 RPM.

SET010000001798

What would happen if the cooling water is shut offthe atmospheric condenser?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Steam will blow from the air vent.

The hot well will steam up.

Overpressure will occur in the condenser.

All of the given options.

SET010000001916

When are the high sea chests used ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

When the ship is deeply laden at sea.

When the ship is in shallow water.

When the ship is in ballast condition.

When the ship is in polluted waters.

SET010000001952




What type of filters are fitted to the high and low seachest suction lines ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Perforated plate filters.

Mesh wire filters.

Ball flush filters.

Backflow filters.

SET010000001956

Here are some capacities of sea water pumps.Which pump would be the Fire and Ballast Pump ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

410 m3/hour x 20 metres.

110/410 m3/hour x 70/35 metres.



SET010000001958

Here are some capacities of engine room waterpumps. Which one would be the Fresh Water Hydrophore Pump ?

1)

2)

3)

4)


0.5 m3/hour x 40 metres.



SET010000001959

What kind of heat exchanger is drawn here ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A single flow pipe tube heat exchanger.

A double flow or loop flow tube heat exchanger.

A finned bank block heat exchanger.

A plate battery heat exchanger.

SET010000001971




If you find a leak on one of the tubes of this heatexchanger, what should you do ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Weld the tube tight.

Put the heater out of commission.

Seal off the tube with plugs hammered in both tube ends.

Machine plugs and weld in place.

SET010000001974

What is the purpose of item No4, fitted to this pump?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It is a filter.

It is a balance valve.

It is a bleed-off valve.

It is a delivery control valve.

SET010000002093

When pumping cold oil with this pump, whatprecaution would you take?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Start/stop the pump frequently.

Throttle the discharge valve.

Scew back the spring pressure on the pressure regulating valve.

Throttle the suction valve.

SET010000002095

What are items No. 2 of this pump ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The driven end bearings.

The shaft seals.

Shaft collars.

The shaft locating collars.

SET010000002097




What are items No. 6 on this pump ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The thrust plates.

The shaft bearings.

The shaft plates.

The axial plummer pads.

SET010000002098

What is part No. 1 of this pump ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A metallic type mechanical seal.

Main shaft locating bush.

Main shaft bearing.

The shaft locking collar.

SET010000002099

What is item No. 1 of this type of pump lay-out ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The pump coupling unit.

The pump shafting system.

The pump driving arrangement.

The intermediate shaft assembly.

SET010000002102

What is item No. 4 on this pump assembly ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The outer casing.

The reinforcement frame.

The motor stool.

The pump top casing assembly.

SET010000002103




How is the vertical clearance of the impeller in thispump casing adjusted ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By adjusting distance/ height by screwed connection 2 on shaft.

By fitting shims between motor shaft and intermediate shaft.

By fitting shims on pump impeller.

By fitting shims in coupled part, item No 2 on shaft.

SET010000002104

Which pump parts are fitted in shaft assembly partNo. 3 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Mechanical seal, O-ring and water thrower.

Shaft sleeve and mechanical seal.

Mechanical seal and ball bearing.

Shaft sleeve and ball bearing.

SET010000002105

If you need to replace the mechanical seal on thispump, which parts would you dismantle and remove in order to giveaccess to the seal ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Remove motor and intermediate shaft, remove shaft flange.

Remove motor stool with motor and intermediate shaft complete..

Remove pump casing half, release coupling and take out pump assembly.

Remove intermediate shaft and shaft flange, take out pump assembly.

SET010000002106

When starting a centrifugal pump, in order to reducethe initial power surge, you should start the pump with ..............

1)

2)

3)

4)

the suction valve closed.

the discharge valve closed.

throttled suction valve.

throttled discharge valves.

SET010000002107




If it is noted after overhaul that the pump bearingsoverheat and it is verified that it is correctly assembled and no parts aretouching, the reason could be................

1)

2)

3)

4)

that the pump is not bled off properly.

there is insufficient liquid supply to the pump.

misalignment of the shaft.

an obstruction on the discharge side.

SET010000002112

On a reciprocating pump piston, the rings are madeof material with low elastic limit such as hard rubber, Bakelite etc. In orderto be able to fit them in the piston grooves you will need to ..............

1)

2)

3)

4)

use a special sliding tool.

apply grease or vaseline to slide the rings on.

heat them in boiling water for 20 to 30 minutes.

put them on top of the boiler casing to warm up.

SET010000002114

In which pipe lines would you expect to find anilluminated sight glass?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Lube oil pump discharge lines.

Tank overflow lines.

Fresh water return piping and condensate line.

Sea water lines to overboard.

SET010000002518

What is the component shown here ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A centrifugal pump.

A rotor screw pump.

A piston pump.

A screw compressor.

SET010000002559




What is part number 1 in this drawing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A seal ring.

The pump shaft.

A ball bearing.

An end cover.

SET010000002560


1)

2)

3)

4)

The pump shaft.

The cam shaft.

The distance piece.

The connecting rod.

SET010000002561


1)

2)

3)

4)

The gland packing.

The stuffing box.

A bearing.

A cooling pipe.

SET010000002562


1)

2)

3)

4)

The connecting rod.

The pump rotor.

The pump body.

A cooling pipe.

SET010000002563





1)

2)

3)

4)

The bearing holder.

The end cover.

The shaft seal.

The pressure relief valve.

SET010000002564

What is shown here?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A Non return valve.

A Two way valve.

A Triple flushing valve.

A Dynamic valve.

SET010000002566


1)

2)

3)

4)

The pump bearing.

The mechanical seal.

The water throw ring.

Shaft locking ring.

SET010000002609


1)

2)

3)

4)

The shaft key.

The shaft securing nut.

Impeller locking ring.

The shaft taper section.

SET010000002610





1)

2)

3)

4)

The propeller.

The housing.

The diffuser.

The impeller.

SET010000002612

What are the two main items in this drawing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A compressor and an electric motor.

An electric motor and a screw pump.

A hydraulic motor and a pump.

A centrifugal pump and an electric motor.

SET010000002613

What type of pump is shown here?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A piston pump.

A screw pump.

A centrifugal pump.

A vane pump.

SET010000002617


1)

2)

3)

4)

The lower shaft seal.

The lower shaft bush.

The Impeller securing washer.

The impeller securing nut.

SET010000002620




What is the purpose of Part No. 4 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To prevent liquid moving upward.

To hold the impeller and connect the motor.

To support the shaft.

To support the impeller.

SET010000002621

What is Part No. 6 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The impeller wear ring.

The diffuser vanes.

The impeller blade.

The thrust washer.

SET010000002622

What is shown in this drawing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A screw pump.

A centrifugal compressor.

A vane pump.

A centrifugal pump.

SET010000002623

Which is the inlet ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A.

B.

C.

D.

SET010000002624




Which is the outlet ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A.

B.

C.

D.

SET010000002625

What is the component shown here ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A Defector.

A Constructor.

An Injector.

An Ejector.

SET010000002626


1)

2)

3)

4)

The diffusor.

The ejector.

The nozzle.

The sprayer.

SET010000002628

Which part is the diffusor ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Part 1.

Part 2.

Part 3.

Part 4.

SET010000002629





1)

2)

3)

4)

The drain screw.

The volute chamber.

The nozzle securing screw.

The flange ring.

SET010000002631

When taking over the engine room watch, whatshould you look for on all operating worm wheel or gear type pumps ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The pump casing temperature.

The pressure relief valve setting.

Vibration and noise free operation.

Free movement of the by-pass valve.

SET010000003088

Oil purifiers can be used for purifying as well as forclarifying operations. The purifying operation is referred to as..........

1)

2)

3)

4)

the separation of light liquids from heavy liquids, (oil from water) and is calleda two-phase operation.

the separation of solids from liquids and is called a single phase operation.

the separation of solids from oils with the use of a water barrier seal and iscalled a two-phase operation.

a 3-phase separating operation of light liquid, heavy liquid and solids (water,oil, dirt).

SET010000003111

Which of the following is the correct name for a voidspace between two tanks carrying different liquids ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A bilge.

A drain tank.

A deep tank.

A cofferdam.

SET010000004552




What is the usual method of reducing deliverypressure on a gear pump?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By adjusting the internal spring loaded pressure relief valve.

By throttling the suction valve.

By throttling the discharge valve.

By fitting an orifice in the discharge line.

STCW21151AEHHGK

Why is an isolating valve fitted on the fire main fromthe engine room?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To isolate the pump for repairs.

To isolate the engine room and enable the emergency fire pump to supply thedeck.

In case there is a fire restricted to the engine room.

To maintain pressure on the fire main with the pump not running.

STCW21LIR45PYBF

What would loss of vacuum indicate on a bilgepump?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Suction strainer blocked.

Bilge empty.

Pump impeller choked.

Discharge valve closed.

STCW21QHF1FFK3A

What is the most common cause of failure ofreciprocating bilge pumps?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Worn cylinder liner or bucket rings.

Leaking piston rod gland.

Debris holding suction or delivery valves open.

Malfunctioning priming pump.

STCW22JEK1C5DZC




On a centrifugal pump what would happen if thepriming pump float valve stuck in the closed position?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Pump would not prime.

Pump would not deliver pressure.

Priming pump would run hot.

Pump would run hot.

STCW2439HJ081U2

What item is essential to be fitted to a gear pump?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Pressure relief valve.

Pressure adjusting valve.

Non-return suction valve.

Non-return discharge valve.

STCW259DYU9WUX2

In a centrifugal general service pump how aresuction and discharge sections separated?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Mechanical garter spring seals.

Machineable sealing rings.

Neoprene lip seals.

Labyrinth seals.

STCW25OR9W5DQH7

What service are centrifugal pumps most suitablefor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Where liquids are not excessively viscous.

Where liquids are extremely viscous.

Where there is a high air content.

Where the liquid has a high temperature.

STCW26ADYEGACBV




Where would you find a thermostatic control valve?

1)

2)

3)

4)

In an engine lub oil system.

In a fuel oil system.

In an engine jacket water cooling system.

In hydraulic ring main supply system.

STCW27HXI79MT7O

In a reciprocating pump what would NOT cause ofloss of vacuum?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Priming pump malfunction.

Worn cylinder liner or bucket rings.

Leaking suction/delivery valves.

Leaking piston rod gland.

STCW27RY2JUNJHQ

What maximum oil content may be dischargedoverboard in 'Special Areas'?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No oil content is permissable.

15ppm.

25ppm.

50ppm.

STCW28U7VESXWJY

If when in port there is an urgent requirement topump bilge water from the vessel, what would you do?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Pump the bilges over the sides via the oily water separator.

Lower the bilges only during night time.

Pump the bilges only to a shore or barge reception facility.

Pump bilges in a dirty oil tank or sludge tank and note in logbook.

STCW28U95F5WXTQ




How are cargo hold bilge wells covered to preventsolids from entering them?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By steel grid plates bolted in place.

By very fine mesh grids.

By perforated plating.

There is no covering.

STCW28WZ70H9J4I

What type of valve is fitted to cargo bilge lines at theEngine Room bulkhead?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Gate valves.

Non-return screw down valves.

Butterfly valves.

Screw lift valves.

STCW29NSOSXFQ1G

How does a 'quick closing' valve operate?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An independent mechanism closes the valve.

The valve bridge is collapsed remotely allowing the valve to close.

A retaining collar is released allowing the valve to close.

The valve can only be opened and closed hydraulically.

STCW2ATO66S45XP

Where would you find a duplex filter unit?

1)

2)

3)

4)

In fuel oil piping.

In sea water piping.

In starting air piping.

In bilge piping.

STCW2AVV4EL22OP




If a serious cavitation problem is experiencedeffecting the pump casing and impeller badly, the shape and design ofwhich pump part could be altered and why?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The shape of the inlet piping to smooth the flow into the impeller.

The shape of the outlet pipe to dampen turbulence.

The shape of the impeller to decrease capacity.

The shape of the mouth ring to extend it and avoid turbulence.

STCW2AY3UXD7TDA

What would happen if a centrifugal pump primingpump had no water?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Pump would run hot.

Pump would not prime.

Pump would not maintain a vacuum when running.

Delivery pressure would be low.

STCW2BMCN5NA4BI

What maximum oil content must oil/waterseparators generally discharge?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1000ppm.

500ppm.

100ppm.

50ppm.

STCW2C4LQO0U3MU

If the centrifugal pump delivery pressure is lowwhich would NOT be the cause?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Excessive neck bush/shaft clearance.

Choked impeller.

Worn impeller.

Excessive impeller/wear ring clearance.

STCW2CNNAAMRDYU




What material are large tube, heat exchangercovers manufactured from?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cast steel.

Cast iron.

Alloy steel.

Bronze.

STCW2CY8O0FDLKH

What is the purpose of a cofferdam?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To provide a barrier space between tanks containing different liquids.

As an emergency storage space for bilge water.

As a collection space for leaking pipe work.

As a watertight barrier.

STCW2DN933WP0VP

Before loosening pump covers how should thepressure be checked?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Checking the pressure gauge.

Open and check vents are clear.

Remove drain plug.

Remove cover slowly.

STCW2EJ9SIKB96W

What capacity would you consider most suitable fora ballast pump?

1)

2)

3)

4)

25 to 50 cubic metres/hour.




STCW2FH2LZO0Y7D




What generator cooling is sometimes used duringdry-docking?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Ship's sanitary system.

Circulating fresh water tanks.

Ballast pumps.

Circulating fore or aft peak tanks.

STCW2FU8Q39H4WE

If the priming pump was not working how could avacuum be raised on a centrifugal pump?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Starting the pump with the discharge valve open.

Filling the pump by hand.

Starting the pump with the sea suction valve open.

Starting the pump with the suction valve closed.

STCW2G7BZ1BZ134

What is the most obvious reason for drop inelectrical load on a ballast pump?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Malfunction of the electrical motor.

Pump no longer pumping liquid.

Malfunction of the pump.

Tank being transferred into is full.

STCW2G8G3BOY5O7

Why are conventional strainers not fitted in thecargo hold bilge wells?

1)

2)

3)

4)

They would restrict the pumping of bilge wells.

Because they are inaccessible when cargo is loaded.

Because the cargo holds are cleaner than the engine room.

Because they might be damaged during loading and discharging.

STCW2GIHK1G3SPN




Where what be the most likely service for a multistage centrifugal pump?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Bilge and ballast.

Fuel oil transfer.

Boiler feed pump.

Hydraulic winch power pack.

STCW2HTX3FFUCUT

Where can wear most affect efficiency in a gearpump?

1)

2)

3)

4)

In the gear shaft bearings.

Casing/end gear clearance.

Gear backlash.

Shaft wear at gland.

STCW2J1GZLBOBRC

What could cause overheating after pump overhaulif it is verified that assembly is correct?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The pump is not bled off properly.

Insufficient liquid supply to the pump.

Tightness of the shaft.

Obstruction on the discharge side.

STCW2J6VKPM2L7L

When assembling an "Endless Screw" type pumpwhat results from insufficient axial or radial clearance?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Pump will draw more load and quickly overheat.

The pump will not pump.

The pump will not deliver correct pressure.

The shaft seal will loosen due to vibrations.

STCW2MBQTO841QG




When starting a centrifugal pump what conditionwould be adopted to reduce the initial load?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The suction valve closed.

The discharge valve closed.

The suction valve throttled.

Suction and discharge valves closed.

STCW2MU4XFZCJWU

In thermodynamic terms what is a 'perfect fluid'.

1)

2)

3)

4)

Fluid that remains unchanged through a working cycle.

An inert gas.

A fluid that cannot be compressed.

Fluid that exhibits similar characteristics to fuel/air mixture.

STCW2N3JA77H3E8

Reciprocating pumps are most suited to pumpingwhich medium?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Liquids mixed with solids.

Transferring liquids at very high flow rates.

Liquids having high air content.

Pumping liquids against a high head pressure.

STCW2NGYQVCY24F

What is the main advantage of a central sea watercooler system?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cheaper to install.

Ease of cleaning.

More efficient cooling.

Simple and short cooling water pipelines.

STCW2NUR2SUVML3




Worm and worm wheel distinguish between whatpump components?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The rounded and the bellow gear.

The driving and driven shaft gears.

The tangential gear and the straight shaft gear.

The long shaft gear and the stub shaft gear.

STCW2OD2ADGF9CD

What is the purpose of the Oil Record Book?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To record quantity of fuel onboard.

To record all fuel bunkered and bilge discharges.

To record fuel consumption.

To record oily bilge levels.

STCW2ORZDNB1EES

When would the main sea circulating system highsea suction valves be used?

1)

2)

3)

4)

When the ship is deeply laden at sea.

When the ship is in shallow water.

When the ship is in ballast condition.

When the ship is in polluted waters.

STCW2P52OSYQFFM

What happens if the separator oil content exceedsthe equipment allowable level?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The pump is stopped and an alarm sounds.

A visible alarm.

An audible alarm.

The discharge is dumped to the bilge.

STCW2QJHYG5RB1U




Under what circumstance may untreated bilges bedischarged overboard in 'Special Areas'?

1)

2)

3)

4)

When proceeding Full Ahead.

During the hours of darkness.

Only in a case of emergency.

If the bilges are only to be lowered and not pumped right out.

STCW2QLEQLUD3EK

Why does the fluid pass through the valve frombeneath the valve lid?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The valve is easier to open.

With the valve closed the delivery pressure is isolated from the gland.

There is less restriction to flow in this direction.

There is less scouring of the valve seat at partial openings.

STCW2QP90GDVIB7

What is the first check if difficulty is encounteredwhen pumping bilges if the suction gauge reading is high?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Clean the oil/water separator.

Inspect pump internals for wear.

Open the sea suction valve to prime pump.

Check suction strainers and valves.

STCW2QW0YDLNKD0

What would you do on first starting a gear pump ifpumping cold oil?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Start/stop the pump frequently.

Start the pump with valves closed and gradually open.

Ease off the spring loaded pressure relief valve.

Throttle the suction valve.

STCW2RADQHKGUCR




For which service would a gear pump be mostsuitable?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Bilge pumping.

Engine lub oil pressure supply.

Engine cooling water circulating.

Boiler feed water supply.

STCW2TPB5JUI4AT

What advantage does the gate valve have overglobe valves?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No flow obstruction when fully open.

Positive closing action.

Low maintenance.

Can be throttled.

STCW2TQSJ9A4716

What are gauze element filters designed toremove?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Fine non-metallic solids.

Metallic particles.

Water and sludge.

Coarse solids.

STCW2TRVPZBHIWK

What is the most commonly used packing for valvespindle glands?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Mechanical shaft seal.

Soft gland packing.

Preformed lip seals

Carbon sealing rings.

STCW2TVPT0GHXQT




When on passage, what should be the condition ofthe fire main?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Pressurised at all times.

Sea suction and fire main discharge valves open ready to pressurise the mainwhen the fire pump is started.

Drained and empty to prevent leakage at hydrants.

All pump and isolating valves closed.

STCW2UBA8BSKQXN

If the valve wheel of an extended spindle valve isfree, but the valve does not seem to be not moving, what would you checkfirst?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Whether the valve is dirty.

To see if the valve spindle is being turned.

To see if there is excess pressure on the valve.

To check that the valve is not broken.

STCW2UKZK1YKTH5

What pollution certification must deep-sea vesselspossess?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Lloyd's Machinery survey certificate.

MCA pollution certificate.

IOPP certificate.

Safety Construction certificate.

STCW2URPSZFNASD

According to regulations, on board ships it isnecessary to have PUMP REDUNDANCY. What does this mean?

1)

2)

3)

4)

All pumps in the engine room are duplicated.

All essential pumps in the engine room have a back-up possibility.

Two identical pumps must be fitted for each circuit.

A stand-by pump must be available for each pump separately.

STCW2VFAXM6ANHK




What would be the main reason for a centrifugalpump's performance deteriorating over time?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cavitation of the impeller.

Excessive wear between impeller and wear ring.

Wear of the gland neck bush.

Wear of the pump housing.

STCW2VYZZVTSJJ9

From the following pump capacities, which would bemost suitable for the domestic fresh water system?

1)

2)

3)

4)


0.5 m3/hour x 40 metres.



STCW2W0PBEC0NPU

How is air leakage into the packing gland of acondensate pump is prevented?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A water seal line to the packing gland.

Special packing in the stuffing box.

An air seal line from the compressed airline.

The air pump fitted to the pump.

STCW2XE76EOI1OK

Where is it necessary to use Screw Lift Valves?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Fuel tank valves.

Ballast tank valves.

Bilge line valves.

Main sea suction valves.

STCW2XP2IA4ID8B




If a centrifugal pump does NOT pull a vacuum whatis the most likely cause?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Impeller vanes choked.

Impeller/wear ring clearance excessive.

Neck bush/shaft clearance excessive.

Priming pump not functioning correctly.

STCW2Y335ZPDXQ8

Where would you always find Screw Down Non-Return valves fitted?

1)

2)

3)

4)

As ballast tank valves.

As fire main isolating valves.

As bilge suction valves.

As fuel tank valves.

STCW2Z1RS75L309

After gear pump re-assembly what must bechecked?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Suction valve is open.

Direction of rotation is correct.

Gland is not tight.

Discharge valve is open.

STCW2Z7BMO5O87Y

In the pump illustrated what separates the suctionand discharge pressures?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The mouth ring.

The mechanical seal.

The pump body seal.

The pump body cover seal.

VIDTLHKUPSKC7UA




What must be fitted to the discharge of the pump inthe drawing?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Pressure relief valve.

Non return discharge valve.

Manual by-pass valve.

Leak-off connection to cool the shaft gland.

VIDTLJC1VVJ0UYF

How is the direction of rotation changed in anasynchronous motor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By switching all three connections on the motor terminal.

By switching two of the three connections on the motor terminal.

The direction of rotation cannot be changed.

By reversing the frequency.

SET010000000003

A current clamp meter is clipped around a cablesupplying a balanced three phase motor working at full load. The motor israted to consume 100 A. What will the meter show ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

100 Amps.

33.3 Amps.

0 Amps.

110 Amps.

SET010000000008

The ship's insulation meter indicates a lowresistance in the electrical distribution system, which of these is the mostlikely cause.

1)

2)

3)

4)

The armature of a switched off AC motor has short circuited.

The TV aerial in the mess room has short circuited.

A connection box has been filled with salt water.

The emergency generator which is currently on stand-by has been splashedwith salt water.

SET010000000016



EO6-Operate Alternators and Generators STCW Operational - engineer

What type of equipment is this symbol showing?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A DC series motor.

An AC shunt motor.

A DC shunt motor.

A DC combined shunt and series motor.

SET010000000041

What type of equipment is represented by thissymbol?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A DC series motor.

A DC combined series and shunt motor.

A compound motor.

A shunt motor.

SET010000000042

What is the purpose of a " Y/Delta " starter ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To start either a D or an Y connected motor.

To regulate large AC motors.

To reduce the starting current in large AC motors.

To reduce the start time for an AC motor.

SET010000000056

What will happen when push-button 2 is pressed?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The relay coil A will activate as long at the button is pressed.

The switch T will cause the coil to de-activate.

The bulb L will give a pulsating light.

The relay coil A will activate and remain activated even after the button 2 hasbeen released.

SET010000000061




What is the purpose of a Tacho generator ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To measure impedance.

To measure revolutions per minute (RPM).

To measure the direction of shaft rotation.

To measure the relationship between impedance and frequency.

SET010000000079

Two generators are running in parallel. Generatorone is delivering 300 Amps more than the second generator. What is thebest course of action ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Adjust the excitation of the two generators to bring them level.

Adjust the speed of one generator.

Replace the A.V.R of the generator which has the highest current output.

Adjust the speed of both generators.

SET010000000086

What would be the correct setting of the currentrelay for a three phase induction motor ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

At the rated current.

At 5-15% over the rated current.

At 200% of the rated current.

At 10% below the rated current.

SET010000000087

A motor controlled by thyristors is to be tested.What precautions would you take ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Remove all printed circuit cards from the control system and megger test.

Test the motor in the manual manner using a megger.

Disconnect all cables to the motor.

Use an 'AVO' meter instead of a 'Megger' for the test.

SET010000000090




An electrical three phase motor connected to apump repeatedly trips on the "over current" relay, What action would youtake ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Increase the current setting on the "over current" relay.

Replace the "over current" relay.

Stop the motor and check the electrical and mechanical function.

Cool down the motor with a portable electric fan.

SET010000000093

When two generators are being manuallysynchronized, when should the circuit breaker be closed ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

When the synchroscope indicator is rotating slowly anti-clockwise and at 11o'clock position.

When the synchroscope indicator is rotating slow and at 3 o'clock position.

When the synchroscope indicator is rotating slowly clockwise and at 11o'clock position.

When the synchroscope indicator is rotating fast and at 12 o'clock position.

SET010000000100

A six pole 50Hz three phase induction motor has afull load at 950 rpm. What will the speed of the motor be at half load?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1900 rpm.

475 rpm.

1000 rpm.

975 rpm.

SET010000000101

The torque developed by a three phase inductionmotor is dependent on which of the following?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Its speed, frequency and number of poles.

Its voltage, current and impedance.

Its synchronous speed, rotor speed and frequency.

Its rotor emf, current and power factor.

SET010000000102




Why should a stationary alternator not be connectedto live bus bars ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Because the alternator is likely to run as a motor.

Because the bus bars will be short circuited.

Because the alternator will decrease the bus bar voltage.

Because the voltage of other alternators may fluctuate.

SET010000000103

Before starting any maintenance on an electricalmotor what should you do ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Switch off the main switch for the motor and remove the fuses.

Inform the duty engineer what you are working on.

Hang a sign on the main switchboard to indicate that the motor should not bestarted.

All of these.

SET010000000107

Complete the sentence. A series-wound generatorhas the field windings in series with its ..........

1)

2)

3)

4)

armature.

brushes.

commutator.

field poles.

SET010000000112

Sparking and grooving of the commutator in a DCmotor may be caused by..........

1)

2)

3)

4)

current overload.

the wrong types of brushes.

the strength of the field.

any of these.

SET010000000113




The voltage in a 60Hz AC generator is adjustedby.........

1)

2)

3)

4)

the number of poles.

the speed of the engine of the generator.

the magnetic field strength.

the number of series conductors.

SET010000000123

DC generators are rated in .............

1)

2)

3)

4)

KwA.

HP.

KVA.

KW.

SET010000000125

AC generators are rated in ....

1)

2)

3)

4)

KVA.

KwA.

Kw.

HP.

SET010000000126

What is the function of the voltage regulator fitted toAC generators operating in parallel ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To cut in generators automatically as they are needed.

To divide the KVA load equally between all connected generators.

To cut out generators not needed because of reduction in load.

To divide the reactive current equally between the generators.

SET010000000129




The failure of an AC generator to pick up voltagemay be caused by:

1)

2)

3)

4)

A tripped bus circuit breaker.

Excessive prime mover speed.

Failure of the exciter.

The generator's rotating speed is 10% below rated.

SET010000000130

What is the first step when removing a generatorfrom parallel operation with other generators?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Trip off the generator from the switchboard.

Remove the load from the generator to be stopped.

Switch off all connected loads.

Increase the cycles of the generator(s) which remain on the line.

SET010000000140

What units are used to measure back E.M.F.?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Volts.

Ohms.

Ampere.

Farads.

SET010000000141

An earth fault on an electrical motor can be definedas an electrical connection between its wiring and its .........

1)

2)

3)

4)

circuit breaker.

shunt field.

metal frame work.

fuse.

SET010000000143




What is the purpose of the reverse power relayconnected to an AC diesel generator ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To prevent main circuit overload.

To prevent over speeding.

To maintain good load sharing.

To prevent the generator being run as a motor.

SET010000000145

What type of instrument can be used to locate anearthed field coil in a synchronous motor ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A voltmeter.

A frequency meter.

A wheatstone bridge.

An ohmeter.

SET010000000147

What is the purpose of the parts circled in red ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To assist the motor cooling.

Ventilation slots.

To assist induction currents.

To dispense with the cooling fan.

SET010000000305

What is the purpose of the part circled in red ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To access the windings.

To show the markings of the motor.

The air cooling inlet.

To house the terminals.

SET010000000307




What is the purpose of the component number 5 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To ensure smooth speed pick-up.

Motor cooling.

To absorb vibration.

To balance the motor

SET010000000308

What is component number 2 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The permanent magnet.

The starter winding.

The stator winding.

The rotor winding.

SET010000000309

What is the function of component number 6 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To ensure correct balancing of the rotor.

To seal the motor internals.

To provide ventilation.

To locate the bearing.

SET010000000310

For what type of load would a star/delta starter beemployed?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A centrifugal pump.

A small compressor.

An air start compressor.

For very heavy loads composed of resistors.

SET010000000886




What can happen if only one generator is connectedto the mains and several large fans are started at the same time ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The lights may be a dimmed a little.

The exhaust temperature of the auxiliary engine will raise.

The generator may trip on overload.

Nothing special.

SET010000000887

Why is synchronization required when onealternator is to be paralelled with another?

1)

2)

3)

4)

If not, the electrical net voltage may be out of phase after the generators havebeen connected.

Two generators which are not synchronized cannot be connected.

If two unsynchronized generators are connected, both the diesel primemover and the generator can be damaged.

The overall insulation resistance can go down if no synchronization is carriedout.

SET010000000888

Can the speed of an asynchronous motor beregulated ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No, because the windings are not designed for that.

Yes, if a thyristor regulator is used.

Yes, using resistors in series with the stator winding.

No, because speed can only be regulated by adjusting the voltage of the rotorwinding.

SET010000000889

In these circuits current I1 and I2 are the same andall resistors R have the same value. In which circuit will the voltage begreater ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Circuit 1.

Circuit 2.

They have the same voltage.

Voltage will remain the same bu the current will vary.

SET010000001100




What are items F indicating in this starting boxdrawing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The phase terminals.

The fuses.

The front switch.

The front connectors.

SET010000002230

What do items C represent in this starter diagram ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Contacts.

Relays.

Overloads.

Transformers.

SET010000002231

What could item D represent in this electric startingdiagram ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A pressostat.

A thermostat.

A level switch.

Any of the these.

SET010000002232

When will the left hand lamp 'L' illuminate ?(Assume there is no defect in the installation)

1)

2)

3)

4)

When the engine is stopped.

When the engine is running.

When the main breaker is switched on.

When an overload/trip occurs.

SET010000002233




What are items 'E' in this starting circuit diagram ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A low voltage relay.

A short-circuit trip.

An overload relay / stop button.

A reverse current trip.

SET010000002234

What are the items marked 'PM' in this electricstarter diagram ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Start position switches.

Start push buttons.

Stop push buttons.

Stop position switches.

SET010000002235

What are the items 'PP' indicated in this electricstarting diagram ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Start relays.

Stop relays.

Start push buttons.

Stop push buttons.

SET010000002236

What does item 'C' indicate in this electrical startingcircuit ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The main contactor.

The auxiliary contactor.

A thermal relay.

The overload.

SET010000002237




What does item 'RT' represent in this schematicelectrical starting diagram ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The time relay.

The overload relay.

The measuring relay.

The signalling relay.

SET010000002238

What are the electric power suppliers on board thisship ?

1)

2)

3)

4)


Electric motors and lighting circuits.

2 Main Diesels, 1 Emergency Diesel, 1 Turboalternator.

4 x alternators, 2 x transformers.

SET010000002239

What is the meaning of item 'CP' in this ship'selectric plant diagram ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Control panel.

Switch panel.

Main switchboard.

Control room.

SET010000002240

What does item 'CE' stands for in this ship's electricplant drawing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Control equipment power.

Central emergency station.

Common energy lighting distributor.

Emergency Switchboard.

SET010000002241




Where is the shore power supply line to beconnected to supply this ship's electric plant ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

On CP.

On CE.

On TT.

On T.

SET010000002242

What are the items 'CD' shown in this ship's electricplant diagram ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Distribution panels.

Transformers.

Control desks.

Starting boxes.

SET010000002243

What possibilities exist to supply power via directconnection to the Emergency Switchboard.

1)

2)

3)

4)

1) Supply by main diesel engines.2) Supply by emergency diesel.

1) Supply by main switchboard. 2) Supply by emergency diesel.

1) Supply by shore power.2) Supply by main switchboard.

1) Supply by shore power.2) Supply by main switchboard.

SET010000002244

What are items 'T' shown in this ships electric plantschematic diagram ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Terminal boxes.

Transit line connector units.

Transformers.

Thyristor converters.

SET010000002245




The Main as well as the Emergency switchboardare panels where the electric power is ............

1)

2)

3)

4)

generated as distributed.

fed into and distributed to the motors via starting boxes.

monitored and supplied via distributors.

fed into, monitored and supplied to the consumers.

SET010000002246

In which part of a large alternator is the electricpower produced ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

In the excitator.

In the sliprings.

In the rotor.

In the stator.

SET010000002252

How is the voltage output of an alternator controlled?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By the alternator speed.

By the excitation current in the rotor.

By the excitation current in the stator.

By the resistance bridge in the main switchboard.

SET010000002253

How many sliprings with carbon brushes are fittedon the rotor of a separately excited three-phase alternator ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Two.

Four.

Three.

Six.

SET010000002254




If an alternator runs at 900 RPM and delivers ACcurrent at 60 Hz, how many pole pairs has this alternator got ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Two.

Four.

Six.

Eight.

SET010000002255

The principle of an automatic voltage regulator(AVR) is to produce an excitation current proportional to ...........................

1)

2)

3)

4)

the speed of the alternator.

the output current of the alternator.

the output voltage of the alternator.

the output voltage and the output current of the alternator.

SET010000002256

When parallel running alternators, what effects thereactive power of each alternator (kVAR) ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The power throttle of the driving units.

The number of pole pairs of each paralleled alternator.

The excitation current.

The temperature of the windings due to load distribution.

SET010000002259

Name the three conditions which must prevail toparallel one alternator with another?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Same current, same type of alternator, same frequency.

Same type alternator, same frequency, frequency in phase.

Voltage equal, frequency equal, voltage in phase.

Voltage equal, current equal, frequency equal.

SET010000002260




Which of the following safety devices fitted on themain breaker will trip the alternator if a major cabled line to the distributorsshould fail and the insulation break through ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The undervoltage relay.

The short circuit protection.

The reverse current trip.

The high/low frequency trip.

SET010000002262

If the governor of the driving machine of analternator malfunctions, which safety device will trip the main switchbreaker ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The overload trip.


The undervoltage/overvoltage trip.


SET010000002264

A breakdown in insulation between a motor windingand the motor frame is called ..............

1)

2)

3)

4)

an insulation breakdown.

an earth.

a winding breakdown.

a short circuit.

SET010000002265

The breakdown in insulation between one or morewindings or one or more coils inside an electric motor is called .................

1)

2)

3)

4)

an earth.

a winding break.

a short circuit.


SET010000002266




If open circuit and interruption of current continuityoccur in the windings of an electric motor it is called ..............

1)

2)

3)

4)

an earth fault.

a winding break.


a short circuit.

SET010000002267

What happens to the terminal voltage of analternator producing 440 Volt when it supplies a lagging power factor load,example induction motors ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The terminal voltage will fluctuate around 440 Volt.

The terminal voltage will be exactly 440 Volt.

The terminal voltage will drop below 440 Volt.

The terminal voltage goes above 440 Volt.

SET010000002271

Which are the two requirements to make electricitygeneration possible ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Presence of magnetic flux, relative motion between conductor and flux.

Current to induce flux, rotary movement.

Power to induce magnetic flux, power to rotate.

Current to induce flux, conductor motion cutting flux.

SET010000002280

What happens to the characteristics of a 3 phaseinductor motor if the applied voltage is slightly reduced ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Current and speed decrease, torque remains constant.

Current and torque decrease , speed remains constant.

Speed and torque decrease, current remains constant.

Speed decreases, current and torque remain constant.

SET010000002282




How can the direction of a three phase inductionmotor can be reversed ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Change the position of the entry cable on all terminals RST.

Change the position of the entry cable on two terminals.

Change the capacitor connection to another line.

Reverse the polarity of the armature.

SET010000002284

Arc chutes in circuit breakers are efficient devicesfor quenching arcs in air because they ..............

1)

2)

3)

4)

extinguish the arc and prevent carbon formation.

isolate the breaker segments so the arc does not blow over.

control the temperature and molecular structure of the arc.

confine the arc, control its movement and provide rapid cooling.

SET010000002291

What information would you find on the name plateof any electric motor ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Voltage, current, kWatt, frequency, phases, speed, impedance.

Maker, voltage, full load current, power, frequency, phases, speed RPM.

Maker, voltage, horsepower, phases, BIL rating, polarity.

Voltage, current, horsepower, phases and polarity, speed.

SET010000002299

What information would you find on the name plateof any industrial transformer.

1)

2)

3)

4)

Power, current, horsepower, ampereage.

Power, voltage, transformation rate, impedance.

Polarity marking, kVA, impedance, voltages, maker.

kVAR rating, voltage, impedance, BIL rating, polarity.

SET010000002300




Three motors with full load currents of 15, 40 and 52Amps each are fed by an unidentified feeder. What is the minimum size ofthe motor feeder current carrying capacity ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Approx 134 Amps.

Approx 175 Amps.

Approx 235 Amps.

Approx 350 Amps.

SET010000002302

A split-phase motor is an induction motor where themagnetic fields are produced by ......... that causes the motor to rotate.

1)

2)

3)

4)

two permanent magnets

the shunt and the series windings

the main and the auxiliary windings

the three stator windings

SET010000002303

How many watts are there in one horsepower ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

720 Watts.

746 Watts.

760 Watts.

860 Watts.

SET010000002308

At what percentage of the motor name plate ratingcan a thermal overload relay be safely set for continuously rated motorswith service factor 1.15 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

115 %.

140 %.

165 %.

180 %.

SET010000002309




What should be the minimum current carryingcapacity of branch circuit conductors supplying a single motor ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

110 % of the full motor name plate rating.

125 % of the full laoad current name plate rating.



SET010000002310

What happens to the terminal voltage of a generatorwhen it supplies a leading power factor load ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It fluctuates.

It remains steady.

It rises.

It falls.

SET010000002319

In a Star-connected 3-phase motor ....................

1)

2)

3)

4)

the line voltage equal to the phase voltage.

the line current is equal to the Phase current.

the phase voltage is higher than the line voltage.

the phase current higher than the line current.

SET010000002322

The phase to phase voltage of a Star connectedalternator is 254.34 Volt. What is the equivalent line to line voltage ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

254.34 Volt.

230 Volt.

147 Volt.

440 Volt.

SET010000002325




It is said sometimes that alternators are operatingas a load, i.e. as a motor. What are the circumstances for this to occur ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Where parallel operation with deck generator or outside power supply occurs.

Where two generators are running in parallel.

Where three generators are running in parallel.

When the alternator in question has lost prime mover input.

SET010000002332

Which is the best way to give an electric motor acomplete winding and insulation test ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Megger test each phase separately to earth.

Megger test each phase to phase separately.

Conduct drop (mini-Volt) test on each phase.

All of these.

SET010000002347

Give the reason why shore power and ship's powershould never be run in parallel ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Ship's supply is in STAR, shore supply is in DELTA.

The shore frequency is rigid, the ship's frequency is not.

No common earth is available.

Voltage drop from shore is different from the ship.

SET010000002348

When an electric motor is operated at a higherfrequency, it will run ................ and it may be operating ......................

1)

2)

3)

4)

faster..........in overload.

slower.........at too high a voltage.

faster...........at overspeed.

slower.........with too high a current..

SET010000002349




Typically, how many times full load current aremotor fuses rated in order to withstand the large starting current ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

2 - 3 times.

5 - 7 times.

3 - 5 times.

7 - 9 times.

SET010000002350

If a fault has occurred (shorted, earthed) in anelectric motor, you should ................

1)

2)

3)

4)

not replace the fuses if they are not blown.

replace one fuse if only one is found blown.

replace two fuses if only two are found blown.

replace all three fuses, blown or not.

SET010000002351

What is the advantage of a fuse over a circuitbreaker with regard to short circuit protection ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It is less dangerous since there are no arcs.

It cannot get stuck, no mechanical parts.

The broken fuse is easier to locate.

Its very high speed breaking operation.

SET010000002352

For an overload of 25 % of the full rated current howlong compared to tripping a circuit breaker would a fuse take to blow ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Very much longer.

Longer.

Lesser.

No difference.

SET010000002353




For instantaneous operation of preference overloadtripping, at what percentage of the total rated current is the device usuallyset ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

125 %

120 %

115 %

110 %

SET010000002354

How would you initiate a test, if found necessary, tofind out if an alternator preference system is working ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By lowering the generator frequency.

By raising the generator frequency.

By raising the alternator voltage.

By lowering the alternator voltage.

SET010000002355

What are the functions of the Under VoltageRelease Unit on the generator circuit breaker?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It trips the alternator by under voltage.

It disallows breaker to be put on load by under voltage.

It prevents breaker operation in the absence of voltage.

All of these.

SET010000002356

If a total short circuit occurs on a 3 phase alternatorand the short-circuit trip fails to operate, what back-up safety device willactivate ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The preferential trip.

The low frequency trip.

The overspeed trip.

The under voltage trip.

SET010000002357




A generator's Reverse Power protection relay isfitted between ...........................

1)

2)

3)

4)

the breaker connecting bars.

the breaker and the consumers.

the generator and the consumers.

the generator and the bus bars.

SET010000002358

How many seconds time delay is considered normalbefore a generator's Reverse Trip Relay operates ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1 - 2 seconds.

3 - 5 seconds.

5 - 7 seconds.

7 - 8 seconds.

SET010000002360

How can you monitor the correct instant forsynchronising alternators should your synchronising system(synchronoscope or lamps) be defective ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By fitting a voltmeter over one phase.

By fitting lamps over the three phases.

By fitting lamps crossed over two phases.

By fitting two voltmeters crossed over two phases.

SET010000002366

When taking over the engine room watch, whatshould you check in the first place concerning the auxiliary diesels andelectric power supply ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

That the load, Hertz and Voltage are normal, any other power requirementsare in Chief Engineer's standing orders, number of of generators on load.

That the voltage, the kVA, the kVAR, the amperage and the excitation loadare acceptable.

That the diesels are exactly sharing 50 % of the total load if two are running inparallel or 1/3 of the load with three in parallel.

That none of the diesels is running at more than 70 % of the load, if so, anadditional diesel to be put in parallel.

SET010000003076




When two diesel generator sets are running inparallel during your engine room watch, what should you periodicallycheck ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

That both diesels are running at the same speed.

That both diesels have the same voltage and the same frequency.

That both diesels have the same load in kWatt, same reactive load in kVAR,same amperage.

That both diesels have exactly a 50 % share of the active load in kWatt.

SET010000003077

When taking over the engine room watch, whatshould you verify on the electrical main switch board ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The alternator on load, voltage, amperage, power supply, frequency.

The voltage and amperage delivered to the power consumers, the conditionof the transformers, the non-essential consumers.

The setting of the non-essential consumer trip system, the setting of theoverload system, the actual power as percentage of total capacity available.

Power Generation, power distribution inclusive secondary circuit, any unusualpower consumer switched on/off, earth faults main and secondary systems.

SET010000003091

When you make a visit to the emergency dieselgenerator during your engine room watch, what should you look out for?

1)

2)

3)

4)

That the voltage and the frequency displayed on the emergency switch boardis the same as on the main switch board.

That the steam heater or electrical heater in the emergency diesel room isswitched on.

That the battery charger is not accidentally kept in ON position, that the doorof the generator room is always closed behind you.

Radiator fresh water level, oil level in sump tank, preheating temperature ofcylinders, charging level of batteries, diesel in stand-by mode.

SET010000003092

When an automatic power supply system isprovided with an auxiliary diesel stand-by system, and the power supplytrips at time ZERO, which of the following is a feasible sequence ofactivities ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Time zero + 10 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 20 sec: the stand- by dieselruns. + 40 sec: the power is restored.

Time zero: the stand-by diesel starts. + 7 sec: the stand-by diesel runs, + 8sec: the power is restored.

Time zero + 5 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 10 sec: the stand-by dieselruns. + 25 sec: the power is restored.

Time zero + 30 sec: he stand-by diesel starts. + 45 sec: the stand-by dieselruns. + 60 sec : the power is restored.

SET010000003134




The best way of testing the "stand-by" function ofthe emergency diesel alternator is by ..............................

1)

2)

3)

4)

switching on the 'test run' button on the emergency diesel switchboard.

starting the emergency diesel manually from the spot and check for anyleakages or deficiencies.

causing a total black-out on the ship, for example in drydock or when time isavailable in port.

by switching off the emergency switch board supply breaker on the mainswitch board.

SET010000003135

In a shunt generator the armature current is 100Amps and the field current 5 Amps. What is the load current of thegenerator?

1)

2)

3)

4)

110 Amps.

105 Amps.

100 Amps.

95 Amps.

STCW20I1LTP5JFW

Why are alternator poles fabricated in laminatedform?

1)

2)

3)

4)

For ease of manufacture.

Prevent build up of unwanted eddy currents.

Prevent distortion due to temperature variation.

Makes adjustment of stator weight easier.

STCW20K5G1PSDSY

Before starting any maintenance on an electricalmotor what should you do?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Switch off the main switch and remove fuses for the motor.

Inform the duty engineer not to switch on the motor.

Hang a sign on the main switchboard to indicate that the motor should not bestarted.

All of these.

STCW215B6J0Z1OU




If the insulation fails on a major distribution cable,which alternator breaker trip will operate?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The overload trip.

The short circuit protection.



STCW21D7IVORLHH

What is the purpose of the preference load trippingsystem?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Disconnect essential equipment before a short circuit can cause damage.

Re-connect essential equipment after a blackout.

To disconnect non-essential equipment in case of generator overload.

To trip the generator before the overload damages the engine.

STCW22CB9M6PYZI

In the event of total immersion of an electric motorin sea water or oils, what corrective action should you take to make themotor operational again?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Wash with tetrachloride, heat to 80º C and change bearings.

Wash with fresh water, wipe dry and re-varnish windings.

Clean with air, wash with fresh water and heat by lamp.

Wash with tetrachloride, wipe dry and re-varnish windings.

STCW22JMZQVA2MB

How is the direction of a three-phase inductionmotor reversed?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Change the position of the entry cable on all terminals RST.

Change the position of the entry cable on two terminals.

Change the capacitor connection to another line.

Reverse the polarity of the armature.

STCW22QZMALZ9XF




In extreme circumstances what is the allowable max& min voltage tolerance?

1)

2)

3)

4)

90% - 110%.

85% - 120%.

75% - 125%.

70% - 130%.

STCW23L9K4DI6A5

Line to line voltage of a Delta connected 3 phasealternator is found to be 440 Volt. What is the phase voltage?

1)

2)

3)

4)

440 Volt.

220 Volt.

254.33 Volt.

311.13 Volt.

STCW24JJ3RRK7ZJ

How will you find out if an electric motor hasdeveloped an earth fault?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By carrying out a Megger test.

By carrying out a Drop test (mini-volt test).

By carrying out Continuity test (one Ohm range on AVO meter).

By carrying out a Phase balance test.

STCW24LB0CY6DI1

What determines the speed in a squirrel cage ACmotor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The supply current and Voltage.

The supply current cycles/second.

The number of poles built into the motor.

The supply current cycles/second and the number of poles built into themotor.

STCW263BK8HPSG6




The line-to-line current of a Star connected motor ismeasured at 28 Amps. What is the phase current?

1)

2)

3)

4)

28.0 Amps.

22.72 Amps.

16.18 Amps.

48.44 Amps.

STCW26MJS5G48ZT

Which area of the DC generator requires the mostmaintenance?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Switchboard breaker.

Commutator and brushes.

Bearings.

Main field windings.

STCW27HO6DU6D5M

How many seconds time delay is considered normalbefore a generator's Reverse Trip Relay operates?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1 - 3 seconds.

3 - 5 seconds.

5 - 7 seconds.

7 - 8 seconds.

STCW27K7X5KVW51

Where is a generator's Reverse Power protectionrelay fitted?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Between the breaker connecting bars.

Between the breaker and the consumers.

Between the generator and the consumers.

Between the generator and the bus bars.

STCW27LRLUQ8SU8




The failure of an AC generator to pick up voltagemay be caused by:

1)

2)

3)

4)

A tripped bus circuit breaker.

Excessive prime mover speed.

Failure of the exciter generator.

The generator's rotating speed is 10% below rated.

STCW28L1SKE49ER

How many slip rings with carbon brushes are fittedon the rotor of a three-phase alternator?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Two.

Four.

Three.

Six.

STCW28LK8TVW6HR

What is required to generate 50Hertz using a slowspeed prime mover?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Greater excitation current.

Reduced number of poles.

Increased number of poles.

Gearbox to increase the generator speed.

STCW28MU8MOVNX8

What could cause sparking and grooving of thecommutator in a DC motor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Current overload.

Wrong types of brushes.

The strength of the field.


STCW28P70CYSKZJ




What are ideal conditions for taking Megger testreadings of an alternator?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Hot after stopping.



Running.

STCW29K9PJ9TF0N

When a DC generator is short circuited, how is theoutput voltage affected?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Increases to max.

Falls to zero.

Remains constant.

Drops slightly.

STCW2A7724KY07D

The principle of an automatic voltage regulator(AVR) is to produce an excitation current proportional to what?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The speed of the alternator.

The output current of the alternator.

The output voltage of the alternator.

The output voltage and the output current of the alternator.

STCW2AFY40U6ICZ

What determines the output voltage of an ACalternator?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Number of poles.

Strength of magnetic field.

RPM of the prime mover.

Number of rotor windings.

STCW2ANQUMJOE28




What are ideal conditions for taking Megger testreadings of a motor or alternator?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Hot after stopping.



Running.

STCW2BESN7RAOT2

With large load change what maintains steadyvoltage?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Automatic voltage regulator.

Automatic voltage regulator & flywheel.

Flywheel & governor.

Governor & automatic voltage regulator.

STCW2D2VPCL3SH0

What units is the output of DC generators rated in?

1)

2)

3)

4)

KwA.

HP.

KVA.

KW.

STCW2DW140COC60

When would you undertake resistance tests on anAC motor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

When the motor has reached its normal operating temperature.

When the motor has cooled down after use.

When the motor has been warmed up 5ºC above normal operatingtemperature.

When the motor has been carefully cleaned.

STCW2EEOZO9ECFU




When synchronising a generator what doesclockwise movement of the synchronising dial indicate?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Both generators are running at synchronous speed.

The cycles are the same on the bus bars and incoming generator.

Voltage is the same on both generators.

The incoming generator is running faster than the generator on load.

STCW2EL1SNVCF16

What is the main disadvantage with main shaftdriven alternators?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Limited power output.

Engine speed variation.

Only available at sea.

Low speed limits voltage output.

STCW2FY8YEIHJOW

What method should be used for achieving 'reducedvoltage starting' for large AC motors?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Star-Delta motor starter.

Auto transformer.

Line resistance starter.

Any of these options.

STCW2G4NL1FX19M

Why are interpoles fitted to DC generators?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To enable the same size generator to carry more load.

To prevent shaft magnetism.

To counter field distortion.

To prevent burning of the brushes.

STCW2GN1O4IGD73




In an alternator what effect does increasing theexcitation have?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Increases the voltage produced in the conductor.

Increases the cycles/second of the current.

Increases the amperage produced.

Decreases the voltage produced.

STCW2GUVQW16T7Y

In the event of total immersion of an electric motorin sea water what corrective action should you take to make the motoroperational again?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Wash with tetrachloride, heat to 80ºC and change bearings.

Wash with fresh water, wipe dry and re-varnish windings.

Clean with air, wash with fresh water and heat by lamp.

Wash with tetrachloride, wipe dry and re-varnish windings.

STCW2H4SKBTBE1H

What is the result if a motor runs at a frequencyhigher than its designed operating frequency?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It will run faster and be overloaded.

It will run slower and at too high a voltage.

It will run faster and overspeed.

It will run slower with too high a current.

STCW2HBPCQIH58W

In an alternator, what controls the generatedVoltage?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Generator speed.

Number of poles.

Excitation current.

Size of the stator windings.

STCW2HLZJVGPWMZ




An unidentified feeder supplies three motors withfull load currents of 15, 40 and 52 Amps each. What is the minimum sizeof the motor feeder in "AMPACITY "?

1)

2)

3)

4)

120 Amps.

175 Amps.

235 Amps.

350 Amps.

STCW2I7XT9Q0XW8

In DC generators what effect can be caused by'armature reaction'?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Voltage variation.

Inability of the generator to carry full load.

Arcing at the brushes.

Breakdown of the mica insulation.

STCW2INA3Q83LWP

A 20 Amp motor operates from a 240 V insulatedsystem. The cable impedance is 0.01 Ohm. What current will flow in caseof an earth fault?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0 Amps.

2400 Amps.

240 Amps.

20 Amps.

STCW2K3HF432A5A

What is the purpose of thermistors fitted to motorwindings?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Prevent over-speeding.

Protect from overheating.

Short circuit protection.

Prevent high starting current.

STCW2K53CGO5ADU




The commutator of a DC generator is examined andis found to have a smooth appearance and a dark chocolate colour. Whataction would you take?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Clean the commutator with emery cloth until the surface is bright andburnished copper.

Change the brushes.

Change the brush springs.

None, this is hoe it should appear.

STCW2KCQZPWGTI1

What determines cycles per second in an ACalternator?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The generator speed.

The number of poles.

The number of conductors.

The generator speed and number of poles.

STCW2LJ7HJDZ6AY

The kWatt indicator indicates 300 kWatt and thekVAR indicator shows 200 kVAR. What is the Power Factor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0.766

0.799

0.832

0.864

STCW2M4OVTUTJKF

What will be the most likely equipment to bedisconnected by the preferential trip?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Galley.

General Service pump.

Steering pumps.

Seawater circulating pumps.

STCW2M58QJS9RAD




What prevents a stationary alternator from beingconnected to live bus-bars?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No volt trip.

Low cycle trip.

Reverse power trip.

Overload trip.

STCW2MR6EJXYDQ9

Which is the best way to give an electric motor acomplete winding and insulation test?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Megger test each phase separately to earth.

Megger test each phase to phase separately.

Conduct drop (mini-Volt) test on each phase.

All of these.

STCW2MU9A5FE91V

How would you initiate a test, if found necessary, tofind out if an alternator preference system is working?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By lowering the generator frequency.

By raising the generator frequency.

By raising the alternator voltage.

By lowering the alternator voltage.

STCW2N4MKF8F1M3

How would you test the insulation on an AC motor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By carrying out a Megger test.

By carrying out a Drop test (mini-volt test).

By carrying out a Continuity test (one Ohm range on AVO meter).

By carrying out a Phase balance test.

STCW2N82IX7289H




What can cause etched or burned bands on thecontact faces of brushes in a DC motor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Copper embedded in the brushes.

Copper drag on the commutator.

High mica segments.

Brushes improperly positioned.

STCW2O76SIWOG2X

What would be the correct setting of the currentrelay for a three phase induction motor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

At the rated current.

At 5-15% over the rated current.

At 33-50% of the rated current.

At 100% of the rated current.

STCW2ODTA3ZOO5G

In a DC generator, where is the current generated?

1)

2)

3)

4)

In the armature windings.

In the field windings.

In the commutator.

In the shunt windings.

STCW2P4JR8JQYI9

For instantaneous operation of preference overloadtripping, at what percentage of the total rated current is the device usuallyset?

1)

2)

3)

4)

125 %

120 %

115%

110 %

STCW2P892IGNEYT




The phase current in a Delta connected alternator isfound to be 127 A. What is the line current?

1)

2)

3)

4)

73.32 Amps.

127 Amps.

153.52 Amps.

219.97 Amps.

STCW2SC6T9MUBZT

If a cable length 100m, dia.1.25 mm has aresistance of 30 Ohm, what length cable of same material with dia.0.75mm has a resistance of 25 Ohm?

1)

2)

3)

4)

15 metres.

20 metres.

25 metres.

30 metres.

STCW2T36X0B59XL

How is the power output of an alternator controlled?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By the alternator speed.

By the excitation current in the rotor.

By the excitation current in the stator.

By the resistance bridge in the main switchboard.

STCW2TIM963HBAT

How is the excitation current transmitted to therotor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Generated from within the rotor.

Via a commutator and brushes.

Via slip rings and brushes.

Via the tacho generator.

STCW2U5Z6J6KGQM




How many times full load current are motor fusesrated in order to withstand the large starting current?

1)

2)

3)

4)

2 - 3 times.

5 - 7 times.

3 - 5 times.

7 - 9 times.

STCW2UGX1WRWTQT

If the governor of the driving machine of analternator malfunctions, which safety device will trip the main breaker?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The overload trip.


The under voltage trip.


STCW2UPTW7Q1T3C

What will happen when an earth fault occurs on oneline of an insulated distribution system?

1)

2)

3)

4)


The system will be in overload and both line fuses trip.


The opposite line fuse will trip due to overload.

STCW2WJ5RSBJG9N

How much higher than full load current is motorstarting current when starting direct on-line?

1)

2)

3)

4)

2 to 3 times.

5 to 7 times.

9 to 12 times.

12 to 15 times.

STCW2XIP56PT3TD




What units measure counter electromotive force orback EMF?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Volts.

Ohms.

Ampere.

Farads.

STCW2XNTQL4H3QF

Which is true in a Star-connected 3-phase motor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The line voltage is equal to the phase voltage.

The line current is equal to the phase current.

The phase voltage is higher than the line voltage.

The phase current is higher than the line current.

STCW2XO3B3FOA5J

Which of the following groups of motors are all DCmotors?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Series and induction.

Synchronous and compound.

Induction and synchronous.

Shunt, series and compound.

STCW2Y4WSGZJDJD

When a DC generator is short circuited, what limitsthe short circuit current?

1)

2)

3)

4)

There is no limit.

The generator's internal resistance (ER).

When the cables start melting.

The mechanical size of the switch.

STCW2YIWK8T5T5B




A DC series motor is used to operate a pump drivenwith a belt, what happens if the belt breaks?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The motor will stop.

The motor will over speed and run out of control.

The motor will slow down.

The motor will continue to run at its original speed.

STCW2YMHTOIXA34

In a 'shunt' DC motor how are the pole windingsconnected?

1)

2)

3)

4)

In series with the armature.

In parallel with the armature.

Both parallel and in series.

Separately from the armature output.

STCW2Z62JB70F0J

In a series wound generator what is the connectionbetween field and armature currents?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Series connected.

Shunt connected.

No connection.

Parallel connection.

STCW2Z6MOP791HM

What is the purpose of the expansion tank ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To store extra water.

To take up the difference of water pressure with changes of temperature.

To act as a spare tank in case the pressure is dropping.

To take up the difference of water volume with changes of temperature.

SET010000001079



EO7-Maintain Marine Engineering & Control Systems STCW Operational - engineer

Re-conditioning part 4 and part 7 of this valve usingcarborundum paste is called .........?

1)

2)

3)

4)

burnishing.

re-packing.

finishing.

grinding.

SET010000001730

If the valve wheel (5) is moving very freely, but yoususpect that the valve is neither opening nor closing, what are you goingto check first ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Remove the complete valve assembly for overhaul.

Open gear box (4) and check if the sheer pin is broken.

Open gear box (4) and check if the valve is greased.

Open the valve wheel spindle and check that it is not broken.

SET010000001743

Upon what is the movement of the rudderdependant, when a helm order is given ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

On the spring tension of spring "S".

On the adjustment of the feedback rod connection "Y".

On the distance the command rod "C" moves point "X".

On the hydraulic pressure setting of the valves "PR".

SET010000001808

What part of a pneumatic control system is this ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An integrator assembly.

A differentiator assembly.

An amplifier.

A nozzle/flapper assembly.

SET010000002142




By what parts is the outlet pressure Pu of thispneumatic transmitter directly controlled ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By spring tension in S.

By the stand of the valves V and B.

By the restriction R.

By slight fluctuation of supply pressure.

SET010000002152

What would be the result if after period of time thetension of spring S should weaken on this pneumatic amplifier ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It will not have any effect.

It would increase the output pressure Pu.

It would decrease the output pressure Pu.

It will destabilise the amplifier.

SET010000002155

Which is the exhaust or air vent port to theatmosphere shown on this pneumatic transmitter ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Air passage 12.

Air passage 13.

Air passage 14.

Air passage 15.

SET010000002160

For what purpose is spring ball adjustment screwitem No 2 fitted on the spring blade of this pneumatic amplifier ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To adjust the valve stem distance.

To adjust the spring blade and output pressure Pu initially.

To control the nozzle back pressure.

To control the rate of amplification response.

SET010000002165




Pneumatic instruments have an air filter fitted sothat any impurity present is removed. Where is this filter fitted ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

In front of the nozzle item No 2.

In the main supply line to each individual instrument.

In the base of the amplifier, filter plug No 4.

In air connecting line, plug No 5.

SET010000002171

What important periodical maintenance checks arerequired on nozzle/flapper assemblies of pneumatic instruments ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Redrilling of the nozzle.

Exchange of nozzle and flapper.

Cleaning of the nozzle and the flapper.

Exchange packings on the nozzle and flapper.

SET010000002174

What is the correct name of item No. 2 shown here?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Restrictor nozzle.

Flapper nozzle.

Filter plug.

Connecting plug.

SET010000002177

Between which values (expressed in psi) cansetting of the Sv (set value or desired value) bellow of this pneumatic Pcontroller be affected?

1)

2)

3)

4)


Between 2 and 2.75 psi.



SET010000002192




Comparing this pneumatic control unit with theequivalent electrical amplifier. What takes the place of the air restrictorpassage used in the pneumatic nozzle/flapper unit in the electricalequivalent ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Resistor R1.

Resistor R2.

Voltage U1.

Voltage U2.

SET010000002201

What takes the place of the 20 psi input used bypneumatic nozzle/flapper units in this electrical amplifier equivalent ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Resistance R1.

Resistance R2.

Voltage U1.

Voltage U2.

SET010000002202

What takes the place of the output pressure of thepneumatic nozzle/flapper unit in this electrical amplifier equivalent ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Resistor R1.

Resistor R2.

Voltage U1.

Voltage U2.

SET010000002203

What does a thick articulated line represent inautomation schematic diagrams ? (the top articulated line shown here)

1)

2)

3)

4)

A process line.

A steering line.

A measuring line.

An instrument line.

SET010000002206




What does a broken or dotted line represent inautomation schematic diagrams ? (the second line from top shown here)

1)

2)

3)

4)

An instrument line.

A pneumatic line.

A steering line.

A measuring line.

SET010000002207

What does a non-articulated full line indicate in anautomation schematic drawing ? (the third line from top shown here)

1)

2)

3)

4)

An electric steering line.

A pneumatic steering line.

A measuring line.

An instrument line.

SET010000002208

What does the symbol drawn on the fourth line formthe top (a blank circle) indicate in an automation schematic diagram ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An instrument.

A transmitter.

An indicator.

A controller.

SET010000002209

What does the symbol shown on the fifth line fromthe top (a circle with a horizontal line through it) of the drawing indicatedan automation schematic diagram ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A pneumatic instrument.

An electronic instrument.

An instrument fitted in a central panel.

An instrument fitted in the main control console.

SET010000002210




What do the letters "PT" shown in this instrumentsymbol (drawn on the bottom line) indicate if found in an automationschematic drawing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

First letter: Measuring function, Second letter: Working function.

First letter: Monitoring, Second letter: Controlling.

First letter: Measuring, Second letter: Steering.

First letter: Monitoring, Second letter: Working function.

SET010000002211

As part of an automation schematic drawing, whatkind of instrument might be fitted on the measuring line as indicated onthe top right drawing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A thermometer.

A manometer.

A temperature controller.

A temperature transmitter.

SET010000002212

As part of an automation schematic drawing, whatkind of instrument might be fitted on the measuring line as indicated onthe top centre drawing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A line capacitor.

A level controller.

A Low Pressure cut-out.

A limit control switch.

SET010000002213

What kind of valve is valve A, shown in the leftbottom ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

An electric motor driven control valve.

A spring loaded solenoid valve, activation to close.

A pneumatic control valve, air to close.

An hydraulic control valve, pressure to open.

SET010000002214




What components of the Lubricating Oil ControlSystem are shown here ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Temperature recorder, transmitter, electronic control valve.

Temperature transmitter and controller, pneumatic control valve.

Cooler temp indicator, transmitter, electric control valve.

Temperature controller, indicator, pneumatic control valve.

SET010000002215

The feedwater valve and the feedwater by-passvalves are ................

1)

2)

3)

4)

electronic controlled valves working in tandem.

electronic controlled valves working in opposition.

pneumatic controlled valves working in opposition.

pneumatic controlled valves working in reverse.

SET010000002217

This drawing shows a simple mechanical controllercontrolling the water level in the tank. Level "L" is the DESIRED waterlevel in the tank, in automation this is called the ..................

1)

2)

3)

4)

measured value.

proportional point.

set point.

set level.

SET010000002218

Suppose that in the system drawn the water inflowQ1 increases so that the float is pushed up by the water to level L'. Thevalue of level L' is called the .....................

1)

2)

3)

4)

actual value.

increased value.

level value.

measured value.

SET010000002219




The difference between the desired value (level L)and the measured value (level L') is called .......................

1)

2)

3)

4)

the measuring fault.

the differential value.

the offset.

the inclination.

SET010000002220

In the top integrator drawing the bellows fill with airthrough the Restrictor Valve 'R'. In the electrical equivalent ..................

1)

2)

3)

4)

the capacitor allows Voltage built up over the resistor.

the capacitor takes the place of the bellow.

the Voltage U2 represent the equivalent of the input air.

the current increases over time.

SET010000002293

Explain the function of a capacitor that loads upcompared with a bellow that fills up with air ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

They have both the same function.

They perform opposite functions.

The capacitor is a differentiator, the bellow is an integrator.

The capacitor is an integrator, the bellow is a differentiator.

SET010000002368

The measuring signal obtained to carry out flowmeasuring is a Differential pressure signal. This is obtained by a certainmedium flowing through a ................

1)

2)

3)

4)

nozzle system.

capillary tube.

oriface plate.

a right-angled nozzle system.

SET010000002372




To which channel is the nitrogen-filled thermalbellow in this pneumatic temperature transmitter fitted ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Channel 10.

Bellow 8.

Channel 5.

Channel 8.

SET010000002374

What is item No. 1 of this pneumatic temperaturetransmitter ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The pneumatic amplifier.

The compensator.

The equaliser block.

The range control setting.

SET010000002375

Which is the filter of the instrument on thistransmitter part drawing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Item No 1.

Item No 2.

Item No 3.

Item No 4.

SET010000002377

On this pneumatic transmitter part drawing, whichpart is amplifying the signal ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Part No. 1.

Part No. 2.

Part No. 3.

Part No. 4.

SET010000002378




What is part No. 11 on this transmitter drawing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The transmitter bellow.

The feedback bellow.

The balance arm tensioner.

The regulating bellow.

SET010000002379

Which part adjusts the proportional band of thispneumatic transmitter ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Part No. 7.

Part No. 8.

Part No. 9.

Part No. 10.

SET010000002380

On which part of this pneumatic transmitter does thepressure of the process (steam, oil, water) act ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Item No. 1.

Item No. 2.

Item No. 3.

Item No. 4.

SET010000002381

The span of this pneumatic transmitter is set byadjusting or tensioning ................

1)

2)

3)

4)

part No 10.

part No 11.

part No 9.

part No 15.

SET010000002382




Where would you find this instrument on board aship ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

In the Engine Control Room.

In the Boiler Control Panel.

In the Manoeuvring Remote Panel.

Near the fuel, lubricating oil or water piping.

SET010000002395

How is the zero setting of this temperaturetransmitter adjusted ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By item No. 1.

By item No. 2.

By item No. 3.

By calibration of items 1, 2 and 3.

SET010000002396

How is the range of this instrument adjusted ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

With item No. 1.

With item No. 2.

With item No. 3.

With items 1, 2 and 3.

SET010000002397

This is a ...................

1)

2)

3)

4)

temperature compensation system.

Wheatstone bridge.

rectifier bridge.

temperature calibration system.

SET010000002398




Compensation wires are electrical conductors madeof special metal alloy and have as characteristics that ....................

1)

2)

3)

4)

the current is calibrated by a compensation system.

between these and the metals of the thermoelement no thermocouple exists.

thermal faults within the copper wires (connections E and F) arecompensated for.

minor thermocouples exist which can be compensated for by aregulator/compensator.

SET010000002404

Control valves in a controlled process can be eitherpneumatic, electrically or hydraulically operated. What kind of medium isused to control this valve ? When is it used ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Pneumatic, when a big force or torque is required.

Pneumatic, when an accurate valve response is required.

Hydraulic, when a big force or torque is required.

Hydraulic, when an accurate valve response is required.

SET010000002405

The two valves shown at the right of the picture are.................. type valves.

1)

2)

3)

4)

flat shaped.

stop flow.

linear.

equi-percentage.

SET010000002408

The operating function of the valve on which thispneumatic valve motor is fitted will be ..............

1)

2)

3)

4)

air to open (bottom connection).

air to close (top connection).

pressure to open (positive manometer reading).

vacuum to open (negative manometer reading).

SET010000002410




This automatic control system shows onetemperature controller steering two valve motors (fitted in differentprocess components) by using different working ranges. This is called................... control.

1)

2)

3)

4)

feedback.

diverted.

split range.

separated range.

SET010000002411

The valve positioner acts on the principle of thebalance of forces. The tension of part........(..............) is to be in balancewith the force of the controller pressure which acts on part...........(.............).

1)

2)

3)

4)

4 (relays), 12 (membrane)

9 (spring), 11 (supply valve)

12 (membrane), 6 (feedback lever)

9 (spring), 18 (membrane)

SET010000002412

Why does the output (instrument supply) pressureof a reducer fluctuate ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Because the movement of the membrane follows the input pressure.

Because of the variation on the output pressure.

Because of the variation of the output capacity.

Because of the characteristic of the spring.

SET010000002413

A pressure reducing valve works according to theprinciple of balance of forces, in this case the force P2 acting on themembrane is in balance with the force of the ...................

1)

2)

3)

4)

inlet pressure P1.

the ball valve spring.

the ball valve.

the membrane spring.

SET010000002414




This is the drawing of a Machinery Monitoring andAlarm System. What is the heart and brain of this Scanning Unit ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The LSU's.

The LAD's.

The CPU.

The MAD.

SET010000002416

Which part of this machinery scanning systemcollects the incoming data from instruments and transducers ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The LSU's.

The CPU.

The MAD.

The TWM.

SET010000002417

If the engine room is in UMS mode and one of themeasuring points collected by a LSU and fed into the CPU exceeds itspreset value parameter, the CPU will .....................

1)

2)

3)

4)

activate the MAD (main Alarm Display) and Visible and Audible alarms will beactivated.

activate the LAD in operation and its visible and audible alarm will set off.

activate the TWM (Type Writer Monitor) and print out the obtained error value,measuring point number and time.

activates all of these.

SET010000002418

The LSU's (Local Scanning Units) have to measuretemperature, pressure, flow, level, RPM, torque, horsepower, circuit andsalinity and do so via analog and digital tranducers. What is a digitaltransducer ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A digital transducer gives a continue signal , example 0 - 100 mV.

A digital transducer is an electronic instrument opposed to an Analogtranducer which is pneumatic operated 3 to 15 psi.

A digital transducer works on AC voltage.

A Digital Transducer gives a direct " on " or " off " signal and involve logictransducers.

SET010000002419




The latest obtained system values are fed into thecomputer and compared with previous ones. The analysis obtained beforehas to be compared with the latest analysis. This is called ..................

1)

2)

3)

4)

wear down and breakdown prediction.

material fatigue and maintenance scheduling.

trend analysis and maintenance prediction.

wear down and maintenance scheduling.

SET010000002420

If a fault occurs in this power supply system, thebest and fastest way to locate this fault is by .......................

1)

2)

3)

4)

calling the electrician.

checking the fuses.

checking the input voltage.

checking supply volts, fuses then the Trouble Shooting Chart.

SET010000002421

On this commonly used electric pressuretransmitter, how will you adjust the range ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

With item No. 1.

With item No. 2.

With item No. 5.

With item No. 7.

SET010000002422

How do you adjust the zero setting on thiscommonly used electrical pressure transmitter?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By item No. 1.

By item No. 2.

By item No. 5.

By item No. 7.

SET010000002423




hich important maintenance activity should youcarry out on pre-tensioning hydraulic tools to ensure their continuous safeuse ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Renew the hydraulic oil after every use.

Replace the O-rings of the tool components regularly, replacing particularlyafter frequent use.

Check that there are no metallic parts in the internals or in the oil.

Clean the hydraulic filter.

SET010000002428

In an automated engine the center from which theship's engine room is controlled is called:

1)

2)

3)

4)

the control plant station (CPS).

the power plant station control station (PPCS).

the main engine nerve and control station (MENS).

the engineering control room (ECR).

SET010000002451

The monitoring system that tests the plant forreadings of the temperature, pressure etc. is called:

1)

2)

3)

4)

the demand display unit.

the comparing unit.

the scanning unit.

the loop back system.

SET010000002452

In automation, RTD & CV stands for:

1)

2)

3)

4)

return time delay.

resistance temperature drop & control event.

resistance temperature detector and control valve.

None of these.

SET010000002453




Zinc rods in a refrigeration system are found in the..........

1)

2)

3)

4)

compressor crankcase.

salt water side of the condenser.

gas side of the condenser.

evaporator.

SET010000002535


1)

2)

3)

4)

The Pressure knob.

The Differentiator.

The Measuring scale.

The Adjusting knob.

SET010000002592

What is Part No. 5 ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The Spring holder.

The Pressure adjuster.

The Pressure bearing.

The Differential adjusting nut.

SET010000002596

A pressostat as well as a thermostat are sources of................. type output signals ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

binary

impulse

analog

digital

SET010000003154




Bimetallic strips can be used in the measurement of................

1)

2)

3)

4)

flow.

temperature.

pressure.

length.

SET010000004560

What is a normal front clearance angle whencylindrical turning?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0-3°

3-5°

5-7°

7-10°

STCW20DTGAG55UD

What is the sensing device in a pressure gaugeusing the Bourdon Principle?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Diaphragm.

Metal tube.

Corrugated cylinder.

Differential pressure cell.

STCW20HMNDA5SHV

When thread cutting on the centre lathe where isthe top rake tool angle?

1)

2)

3)

4)

From the front of the tool.

From the angle apex of the tool.

From the leading edge of the tool.

Tool rake should not be used.

STCW20NB54Y6OFA




On a centre lathe how is the work piece secured tothe faceplate?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Tee bolts into the faceplate and dogs.

Adjustable jaws.

Bolts screwed into the faceplate.

Centre bolt and securing plate.

STCW20OB7ZDVSMB

What cross section is the front saddleway on acentre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Flat.

Stepped.

'V' shape.

Inverted 'V' shape.

STCW20PUCN0ZKD0

On a shaping machine where is the tool post fitted?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To the clapper box.

To the ram vertical head.

To the head slide.

To the back block.

STCW20WZOU3RO6D

What is the usual method of checking the toolheight on a centre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Using a rule from the bedplate.

By eye against the work piece.

Against the tailstock centre.

Against a mark on the chuck.

STCW214SHSIGVPQ




On a centre lathe how can the chuck jaws beprevented from damaging the work piece?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Using softer strips under the jaw grippers.

Wrapping the work piece with protective tape.

Using a sleeve over the work piece.

Using special soft jaws.

STCW215ADGNJ01L

What change is made for finish turning in a centrelathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cutting speed increased.

Cutting speed decreased.

Feed rate increased.

Feed rate decreased.

STCW218KZUZK0OS

What does the indexing dial indicate on a centrelathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Position of the cross slide.

Position of saddle/lead screw.

Speed of the lead screw.

Pitch of thread being cut.

STCW21BYYTG6OXQ

When using a milling machine to reduce thethickness of a parallel key how is the material marked?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Using a special fine, indelible marker.

Using a scribed line on a chalked surface.

Using a scribed line and centre punch marks.

Using Engineer's blue.

STCW21E65TBRJ3D




What provides auto feed on a shaping machine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Ram lead screw.

Table vertical slide.

Head slide.

Table cross slide.

STCW21G89TX0RCD

Why would the stroke length be adjusted on ashaping machine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

This is not necessary.

To increase the feed rate.

To accommodate varying lengths of work piece.

To alter cutting speed.

STCW21IKA3W4V22

Which machine tool would be used to cut an internalkeyway in a gearwheel?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Vertical milling machine.

Horizontal milling machine.

Centre lathe.

Slotting machine.

STCW21NWY163ST1

Why is the speed of rotation of the lead screwadjustable on a centre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To alter the cutting speed of the tool when facing.

To alter the cutting speed of the tool when cylindrical turning.

To alter the chuck speed.

To alter the feed rate of the saddle.

STCW22CRALFCD5T




Which machine tool uses a magnetic bedplate?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cylindrical grinder.

Surface grinder.



STCW22EXU5AZMD5

When using a centre lathe why should short sleevesor close fitting sleeves be worn?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To avoid sleeves being snagged on gear change levers.

To prevent sleeves being caught on the tool post.

To avoid displacing loose equipment on the lathe saddle.

To prevent sleeves being caught up on work piece or chuck.

STCW22HHJJID9E3

What is the difference between American pipethread and BSP?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Both are the same.

Different TPI but same thread angle.

Different thread angle but same TPI.

Different thread angle and TPI.

STCW22JGT491FKY

How is a parallel surface achieved on a shapingmachine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Bolting work piece straight to table.

Dial gauge against the head slide.

Dial gauge attached to the tool post.

Dial gauge attached to the work piece.

STCW22OU4B085AD




How could an internal keyway be cut on a centrelathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

This is not possible.

Using a milling tool.

Drilling and finishing with a file.

Locking the chuck and using the main slide in hand

STCW234NUOG6X3R

What is the advantage of the swan neck design of ashaping machine cutting tool?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Provides better cutting angle.

Easier access to work piece.

Prevents tool from digging in.

Increases rake angle.

STCW238LGK9B65P

What is the normal test for leaking heat exchangertubes?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Fluorescent dye and ultra violet lamp.

Hydrostatic test.

Air pressure test and soap solution.

Fluorescent dye and halogen lamp.

STCW23G8KASH5TU

What instrument uses a Venturi?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Pressure gauge.

Vacuum gauge.

Flow meter.

Differential pressure gauge.

STCW23GIZGEJJ3Y




What item must be regularly inspected in SW heatexchangers?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Condition of tubes

Water box for corrosion

Zinc anodes

Tube plate for damage

STCW23RE9RH36LJ

What type of cutter would be used on a verticalmilling machine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

End mill.

Toothed cutting wheel.

Shanked single point tool.

Profiled milling wheel.

STCW23RFLADS2GP

How is the cutting tool ground when thread cuttingon the centre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

With the cutting face at the thread angle.

With both faces at the thread angles.

With the cutting face at half the thread angle.

The tool matching the thread shape exactly.

STCW23RQK5O59OJ

What top rake angle would be used for turningAluminium in the centre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

40°

35°

25°

45°

STCW23WAUS2COK3




How would a large flat area be cut on a verticalmilling machine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Using the largest available end mill.

Using repeated cuts across the work piece.

Using a 'fly cutter'.

Using repeated cuts along the work piece.

STCW242Z6CNCW1C

What is a normal front clearance angle whenboring?

1)

2)

3)

4)

8°

10°

12°

Any of these options depending on internal diameter.

STCW249OS76IL4N

What is the most important measurement to checkwhen overhauling centrifugal pumps?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Shaft axial clearance.

Impeller diameter.

Impeller/wear ring clearance.

Neck bush/shaft clearance.

STCW24F4E0D8KR9

Why are there several tool positions on a centrelathe tool post?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To accommodate different tools for different jobs.

For use when thread cutting.

To provide a fresh tool when one wears.

To carry out more than one operation at a time.

STCW24N4T6JDCOT




How is the work piece centred in a cantre lathe four-jaw chuck?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Using feeler gauges against the tool post.

By eye using the tool point.

Using a dial gauge against the work piece.

By measuring from the lathe bed.

STCW259RONTQN6E

What accounts for most inaccuracies in older centrelathes?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Wear in the lead screw.

Wear in bearings and guides.

Wear in the cross screw.

Wear in the headstock gears.

STCW25EVG2MF08L

Which machine tool would be used to machine largeflat surfaces?

1)

2)

3)

4)


Shaping machine.

Centre lathe.

Planing machine.

STCW25SQVKNJH9M

On a centre lathe there is a drive shaft with keywayalongside the lead screw, what is its purpose?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Controlling the tool feed rate.

Thread cutting.

Auto feed operation of the cross slide screw.

Auto feed operation of the compound slide screw.

STCW25TS1NVZQTH




What is a gap bed lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Gap in the bed at the headstock.

Gap in the bed at the tailstock.

Gap between the beds.

Gap in the cross slide bed.

STCW25UMXW9NI04

Which component of a general service aircompressor requires most maintenance?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Piston and rings.

Bearings.

Delivery valves.

Suction valves.

STCW25VXREIMX89

Which of these spanners is it preferable to use?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Adjustable.

Open Jaw.

Box.

Ring.

STCW265AUMVO4WF

When would a collet chuck be used on a centrelathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

When carrying out boring operations.

When using a standard diameter material.

When parting off.

During drilling.

STCW266U38CATYC




When boring on the centre lathe, what is the mostusual cause of chatter?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Incorrect tool angles.

Lack of rigidity afforded by the boring bar.

Incorrect cutting speed.

Incorrect feed rate.

STCW26I3WR1YB8M

Which machine tool would be used to machine thebore on a multi cylinder block?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Radial drilling machine.

Vertical boring machine.


Horizontal boring machine.

STCW26U6FNS7XQ6

Which machine tool would be used to drill and tapthe end of a shaft?

1)

2)

3)

4)



Centre lathe.


STCW26YQO4FFFNM

How is the tool height adjusted on a centre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

With the tool post securing screws.

By shimming under the tool.

Adjusting the saddle height.

Shimming under the tool post.

STCW27208L7XAK1




What is measured with a pyrometer?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Pressure

Engine RPM

Temperature

Salinity

STCW2794GMUONFI

When is it permissible to use a hand file on a lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Never.

For removing sharp edges.

To improve the finish.

Producing chamfers.

STCW27UI4BOLAOY

Which of the following could be carried out in theshaping machine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

External shaft keyway.

Internal keyway.

Reducing shaft diameters.

Cutting a 'T' slot.

STCW27Y6KU9QV71

Which of these requires the lowest cutting speed?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Mild steel.

Stainless steel.

Carbon steel.

Carbon steel.

STCW283H99ZAL5Q




What is the name of the tool-mounting shaft on ahorizontal milling machine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cutting head.

Tool post.

Arbour.

Cutting shaft.

STCW28IP9ZLJOVF

Vibration testing is an integral part of what type ofmaintenance?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Breakdown maintenance .

Planned maintenance.

Condition monitoring.

Intrinsic surveillance.

STCW28LKOWJWJ36

How is the shaping machine head slide checked tobe square to the table?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Dial gauge against the table.

Engineers square on the table.

Dial gauge against the head slide.

Dial gauge attached to the tool post.

STCW28MG3MWCICT

When tapping holes on the radial drill, how is thetap prevented from breaking?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By using a cutting fluid.

By using a very slow speed.

Using a slipping clutch chuck.

By advancing the tap very slowly.

STCW28OB7FNSZSN




When could a magnetic chuck be used on a centrelathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Never.

When facing.

When setting up the work piece.

When using the lathe for drilling.

STCW28X6UERO9F8

At what temperatures would a pyrometer be used?

1)

2)

3)

4)

In excess of 500°C.




STCW295TLUYNB01

Why is one tube end a packed gland in tubecoolers?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Ease of replacing the tubes.

Allow for expansion of the tubes.

To simplify assembly.

Tubes can easily be repacked if leaking.

STCW29O7OUC2QTZ

What is a Grub Screw used for?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Fastening flanges.

Securing split cams.

Securing components to a shaft.

Clamping machined parts.

STCW29UFUM7458F




How is the surface gauge secured to the bed of acentre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Bolted down.

Not secured.

Magnetic base.

Flat base to sit on the bed.

STCW2AKZVZO8LP1

How is an end mill secured in the chuck?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Morse taper.

Parallel shank and collet.

Left hand screw thread.

Adjustable jaws.

STCW2AU5BTCHY4C

How is an angled face cut on the shaper?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Setting head angle.

Altering stroke position.

Setting tool angle.

Setting table angle.

STCW2AXZYPVRTQ2

On the centre lathe what is a collet chuck mostsuitable for?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Gripping large diameters.

Gripping uneven surfaces.

Gripping non-symmetrical work pieces.

Gripping small diameters.

STCW2B3QGM4ZV86




What top rake angle would be used for turning Mildsteel?

1)

2)

3)

4)

33°

36°

24°

27°

STCW2B7WVOG7WBS

When using a straight tool on the shaping machinewhat effect does tool deflection have?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No effect.

Decreases cut depth.

Decreases tool clearance angle.

Increases depth of cut.

STCW2BMIF9HEQJ2

What adjusts the stroke length on a shapingmachine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Locking handle.

Ram lead screw.

Block slide.

Table slide.

STCW2BMQCUVSVBF

When would a faceplate be used on a centre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

When carrying out facing operations.

When boring an irregular shaped work piece.

Cylindrical turning an irregular shaped work piece.

Carrying out most operations on an irregular shaped work piece.

STCW2BNX5PTPBSV




Which of the following would a simple dividing headbe used for when using a milling machine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cutting a gear wheel.

Cutting threads.

Cutting a single keyway.

Cutting a flat on a shaft.

STCW2BSAGHR7JAK

What is the most suitable tool for machining castiron?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Carbon steel.

High-speed steel.

Ceramic tip tool.

Carbide tip tool.

STCW2C22XR5YME8

On a centre lathe when must turning betweencentres be employed?

1)

2)

3)

4)

When turning a long work piece.

When taking large roughing cuts.

When turning a long taper with the tailstock offset.

When a fine finish is required.

STCW2C4D2RR38U9

Which of these is NOT a positive locking device?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Spring washer.

Castellated nut and split pin.

Tab washer.

Locking wire.

STCW2C5MLCJDEZO




When change gears are fitted to the back of thecentre lathe headstock what are these for?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Changing the chuck speed.

Changing the tool feed rate.

When thread cutting.

Change the speed of the lead screw.

STCW2C7O611VLO6

Which machine tool would be used to finishmachine crankpins?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cylindrical grinding machine.




STCW2CF78WG6HX5

Which machine would be used to cut a blind keywayin a shaft?

1)

2)

3)

4)



Centre lathe.

Shaping machine.

STCW2CO7G4SY5F4

Which is the correct method for removing intactengineers studs?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Stud box.

Drill and use stud remover.

Pipe wrench.

Self grip wrench.

STCW2CXIL33IOXB




If cutting a mm thread on a non-metric centre lathewhat gear wheel is required?

1)

2)

3)

4)

143 teeth.

117 teeth.

127 teeth.

254 teeth.

STCW2D5IC78630B

What is meant by a 6" Centre Lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

6" between centres.

6" diameter chuck.

6" swing for the work piece.

6" from bed to centre.

STCW2DF84TT1RPQ

What is the purpose of the clapper box on a shapingmachine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To relieve the tool cutting edge on the return stroke.

To securely hold the tool.

To adjust tool position.

To angle tool position.

STCW2DJS8361GQZ

Which machine tool would be used to cut straightgears?

1)

2)

3)

4)




Centre lathe.

STCW2DMU5O7UEB5




What jointing material is used on engine exhaustsor superheated steam lines?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Solid copper joints.

General purpose asbestos joints.

Wire reinforced asbestos joints.

Preformed neoprene joints

STCW2DO3KOE5TXR

If a leak is suspected in a tube heat exchanger whatshould be checked first?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Tube plates for cracking.

Tightness of packed tube end.

Tubes for damage.

Fixed tube end for security in tube plate.

STCW2DYR77BOQTR

How would a "V" slot best be cut on a Universalmilling machine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Mount the work piece at an angle using horizontal arbour.

Using an end mill and setting the head at the appropriate angle.

Using an end mill with the work mounted at an angle.

Using a specially shaped cutter.

STCW2E1EJAWC4OR

How is the radius put on thread crests?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Grinding the threading tool to the correct shape.

Using a hand-chasing tool.

Using a hand file.

Using a separate, correctly ground tool.

STCW2E9SBXJHNYK




Which machine tool would be used to drill and tapan irregular casting?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Centre lathe.

Radial arm drilling machine.

Boring machine.

Shaping machine.

STCW2ED72G70MBT

Why must a close fitting, buttoned up overall beworn when using a lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To avoid catching on the tool post.

To avoid medallions getting caught on the work piece.

To prevent swarf chips flying inside the overall.

All of these.

STCW2EDQ8ONTHPC

What effect has setting the tool too high on a centrelathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Increased front clearance.

Reduced top rake angle.

Reduced front clearance angle.

Increased relief angle.

STCW2EKBCNWFT3L

What method does a Pneumercator gauge use?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Compressed air.

Capacitor.

Diaphragm.

Pressure transducer.

STCW2EMBLAGDTNL




Which machine tool would be used to cut malethreads?

1)

2)

3)

4)



Centre lathe.

Boring machine.

STCW2EPGMHWS39P

Why is the centre lathe the most popular onboardmachine tool?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Easy to install

Easy to operate

Easy to maintain

Most versatile

STCW2EWWS7TRSV1

How can vice jaws be checked for parallel on ashaping machine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Dial gauge attached to tool post.

Engineer's square on the table.

Engineer's square against the head slide.

Engineer's square against the vertical table slide.

STCW2EZDA5T0RJD

When drilling what could account for an enlargedhole diameter?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Small clearance angle.

Too large clearance angle.

Unequal length edges.

Unequal drill point angle.

STCW2F3XWE5Z02C




What is the main safety consideration when usingthe shaper?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Removal of the stroke-adjusting handle.

Projection of the ram slide behind the machine.

Flying swarf chips.

Dislodging work piece.

STCW2F9A1XW12K3

When using a parting tool in the centre lathe whatprevents it from binding?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Increasing front clearance.

Providing side and body clearance.

Tool slightly angled to work piece.

Increasing top rake angle.

STCW2FEH94MEU0A

What tool fitting method is normally found in thetailstock of a centre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Threaded tool holder.

Parallel holder with camlock fitting.

Morse taper.

Three jaw chuck.

STCW2FG35IXMRWB

What could cause a taper when cylindrical turningon a centre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Worn lead screw.

Worn cross slide.

Worn headstock bearings.

Chuck not centred.

STCW2FPJ2OPFV1I




What does a thermistor rely upon?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Bi-metal strip.

Metallic conductor.

Semi conductor.

Inert gas.

STCW2FSIG6HDC95

What property must the work piece have to enablethe use of a three-jaw chuck on the centre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Concentricity.

Small diameter.

Parallel length.

Not require the use of the tailstock.

STCW2FTQ72RTGVH

What is the main advantage of one-piece workingon the centre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Quicker processing.

One tool can carry out all operations.

All surfaces are guaranteed to be on the same axis.

No need for a centre.

STCW2G04S7YH8G1

What is the most important item in thread cutting onthe centre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Compound slide.

Automatic cross slide feed.

Indexing dial.

Travelling work steady.

STCW2G9ATDSZ10V




In which machinery can you not add oil whenrunning?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Main Engine or Auxiliary Diesels.

Steering machinery or stern tube header tanks.

Hydraulic power packs.

Air compressors or refrigerant compressors.

STCW2GDGQN5L09Y

When turning an irregular work piece in a centrelathe using a balance weight on the faceplate, what special precautionsmust be taken?

1)

2)

3)

4)

That the work piece or weight do not strike the bed or saddle.

That low speeds are used to prevent vibration due to dynamic imbalance.

That the tool or tool post do not strike the work piece as the cut progresses.

All of these.

STCW2GGIM3I29VB

How can concentricity be affected when using athree-jaw chuck in the centre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Tailstock out of line.

One of the jaws not moving.

Foreign body between jaws and work piece.

Chuck not properly secured.

STCW2GLKGGU9IEX

When using the centre lathe to drill a blind hole howis the depth checked?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By marking a position on the drill.

By noting the position of the tailstock tool holder extension.

By measuring with a rule.

By marking the bedplate.

STCW2H5NADZW9LH




How should tight, cooler end covers be removed?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Using wedges in the joint.

Using a flat chisel behind the cover.

Using jacking bolts.

Using a chain block.

STCW2H6EA7QNN3K

When cylindrical turning a 50mm mild steel bar whatwould be the chuck speed?

1)

2)

3)

4)

125rpm

175rpm

225rpm

275rpm

STCW2HFA45P33N0

On a centre lathe with a lead screw pitch of 5mm itis required to cut a thread of pitch 2mm, what is the required drive/drivengear ratio?

1)

2)

3)

4)

1:5

1:2.5

2.5:1

5:1

STCW2HHTCVVBZL1

What is the purpose of the dividing head when usedon a milling machine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Obtaining angular movement of the work piece.

Cutting equal sized cuts.

Cutting a screw thread.

Using a milling machine for micro boring.

STCW2HL5FFMU7TT




How can a bevel gear be cut on a milling machine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Using a universal milling machine.

Using a universal dividing head.

Using a vertical miller with an end mill.

Using a specially profiled cutting tool.

STCW2HPUZ5GYSGH

Which can be varied on the shaping machine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cutting speed.

Stroke length.

Table height.

All of these.

STCW2HQ1KEBE6M2

If a short taper section is required how is this bestachieved on the centre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Offsetting the tailstock.

Using a taper turning attachment.

Using the cross slide.

Using the compound slide.

STCW2HRDPUXAYBX

Why is stainless steel swarf particularly hazardous?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It is a continuous piece and can become caught up in the workpiece

It is very hot.

It has extremely sharp edges.

Breaks into chips that then fly off the work piece.

STCW2IHJXVK3A45




Which is the most suitable machine for boring asingle cylinder bore?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Centre lathe.

Radial drill.

Slotting machine.


STCW2IJOHFY3MMY

When machining a work piece in the centre lathe,what is the purpose of centre drilling the end of the work piece?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To centre the end for use with the tailstock centre.

To centre the end for use with the headstock centre.

When turning between centres.

For any of these.

STCW2IU83WIZIHD

When should an adjustable spanner be used?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Any time.

Only on new nuts and bolts.

Only if the correct size spanner is unavailable.

Only when dis-assembling components.

STCW2IU8VWAIHO8

When would a travelling steady be used on a centrelathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)


When cutting a taper.

When turning a long work piece.

When turning hard carbon steel.

STCW2J10VKV3F5N




What is the primary function of the cutting fluidwhen using a machine tool?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Produce a better finish.

Reduce friction between tool and work piece.

Cool the cutting tool.

Cool the swarf.

STCW2J2M4OWGHZS

How is a centtre lathe chuck usually fastened to theheadstock?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Morse taper.

Bolted to a faceplate.

With a right hand screw thread.

With a left hand screw thread.

STCW2J8MXG1OQJN

When making heavy cuts on a milling machine howis the work piece secured?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Using the vice.

Using clamps.

Using magnetic base.

Using clamps, dogs and stops.

STCW2JDX594Q2K8

Where is the true rake angle measured on a centrelathe tool?

1)

2)

3)

4)

From tool cutting edge.

From tool front.

From tool point.

From tool trailing edge.

STCW2JGVIQOAJ71




What jointing material is most suitable for high-pressure steam lines?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Rubber.

General purpose.

Neoprene.

Wire reinforced asbestos.

STCW2JHYLNWHQ8K

What effect has setting the tool too low on a centrelathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Increased top rake angle.

Reduced top rake angle.

Reduced front clearance angle.

Reduced wedge angle.

STCW2JSHJLN1LJN

On a centre lathe what advantage is there in using amandrel on a bored work piece?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Ease of centring.

Allows for one-piece working.

More solid fastening of work piece.

Prevents damage from jaws.

STCW2JTWUQAKZ42

Which of the following operations would be carriedout with a horizontal milling machine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cutting a spiral slot.

Cutting straight gear teeth.

Cutting a blind, shaft keyway.

Cutting a "T" slot.

STCW2KCMYM8ETO9




Which of the following operations would be carriedout with a vertical milling machine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Internal keyway in a gear wheel.

Removing material from a large, flat surface.

Cutting straight gear teeth.

Cutting a blind, shaft keyway.

STCW2KKTSD23DU5

When cutting threads on the centre lathe how is therequired pitch determined?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By the lead screw change gears.

By the chuck speed.

By the cross screw speed.

By the lead screw speed.

STCW2KO1CWI78Q9

When turning a long work piece in the centre lathewhat is the most frequent problem?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Differing diameters due to wear of the tool.

Differing diameters due to bed wear.

Deflection of the work piece in the centre.

Poor finish due to inconsistent saddle movement.

STCW2KS4M9S4PX2

What instrument would be used for measuring fansuction pressure?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Pressure gauge.

Mercury manometer.

Water manometer.

Vacuum gauge.

STCW2L09A0FFSWK




Which of these materials is cut in a machine toolwithout cutting fluid?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Mild steel.

Cast iron.

Aluminium.

Carbon steel.

STCW2L5FFAZ9WBS

What is the relationship between cutting and returnstrokes on the shaping machine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cutting stroke is quicker than return stroke.

Both cutting and return strokes are same speed.

Depends upon the stroke length.

Return stroke is quicker than the cutting stroke.

STCW2L7LTWSB7EM

What approximate diameter is the work piecemachined to before external thread cutting?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To the outside thread diameter.

To slightly more than the outside thread diameter.

Slightly less than the outside thread diameter.

It doesn't matter as long as it's within 0.2mm of the thread diameter.

STCW2LVUUOMMPWX

What is the main purpose of maintaining a record ofpressures & temperatures?

1)

2)

3)

4)

For the Chief Engineer's Log Abstract records

To operate the plant at it's most efficient

To reduce running costs

To comply with Classification Society requirements

STCW2LXRN4VRENY




When used in instrumentation what does apotentiometer record?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Small AC voltages.

Small AC current.

Small DC Voltage.

Small DC current.

STCW2LY5XX24UYX

What should be adjusted if a taper is to bemachined on a centre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The chuck jaws.

The tool height.

Depth of cut.

The tailstock.

STCW2ME0WFYUVV2

How does a bolt differ from a Set Screw?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Shorter in length.

Metric thread.

Shorter plain portion.

Threaded right up to the head.

STCW2MELW5Y44EK

Which machine tool would be used for accuratemachining of distance pieces?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Centre lathe.

Surface grinding machine.


Shaping machine.

STCW2MLU31B9C5E




When using a centre lathe, when would a driver beused?

1)

2)

3)

4)



When boring.

When facing.

STCW2MR7JTAIXPO

When cutting a steep helix in the centre lathe, as inmulti start threads, what tool angle must be altered?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The top rake angle must be increased.

The front clearance angle must be decreased.

No alteration in angles is required.

The side clearance angle must be increased.

STCW2MVNMXO4URV

What is the term when using multi tools on a singleshaft on a horizontal milling machine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Multi-tool milling.

Pattern milling.

Gang milling.

Process milling.

STCW2MX2IU585WC

On a centre lathe, when turning without a centre,how much of the work piece may extend beyond the chuck?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Half the work piece diameter,

Twice the work piece diameter,

One and a half times the work piece diameter,

Three times the work piece diameter,

STCW2N0O2X6ZE7Q




On a centre lathe what is a "live centre"?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Tailstock centre that revolves.

Tailstock used when drilling.

When using the tailstock for thread cutting.

Centre used in the headstock.

STCW2N1GZE5532S

Where is the clapper box situated on the shapingmachine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Attached to the cross slide.

Attached to the table.

Attached to the back block.

Directly to the ram.

STCW2N1TJ4QN72N

What top rake angle would be used for turning castiron?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0°

5°

7°

10°

STCW2N5WCGQ08EP

What is the purpose of a "chip breaker" on a centrelathe tool?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Break up the swarf.

Prevent the tool from chipping.

Avoid a chipped finish on the work piece.

Used when machining cast iron.

STCW2NDB474JO2Z




When using a milling machine to reduce thethickness of a parallel key how is the work piece set up once the materialhas been marked?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Marked line set parallel to the table using a surface gauge.

Marked line set up parallel to the vice jaws.

Set by eye and checked after the first cut.

Using a dial gauge on the work piece surface.

STCW2NGL4J5VNW0

What is the system that monitors plant pressures,temperatures etc.

1)

2)

3)

4)

The demand display unit.

The comparing unit.

The scanning unit.

The loop-back system.

STCW2NLJTHURGV1

How can a thread be cut without a chasing dial?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Bring the saddle to the same start position every cut.

Marking the chuck and starting at this spot every cut.

By not disengaging the lead screw during the process.


STCW2NY360UOYE3

How could drilling and tapping be carried on thecentre lathe with an irregular work piece?

1)

2)

3)

4)

With the work set up and bolted to a faceplate.

Setting up the work on the saddle.

Cannot be carried out on a centre lathe.

Using a four-jaw chuck.

STCW2OAHDYBZ7SB




When facing on a centre lathe, what controls thetool feed rate?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Lead screw.

Cross slide.

Compound slide.

Tailstock.

STCW2OD3MAQQO2S

What would be the drill point angle for drillingaluminium?

1)

2)

3)

4)

120°

140°

110°

100°

STCW2OHT1F1YL3I

What is a parting tool used for on the centre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cutting finished work from the stock bar.

Face finishing.

Thread cutting.

Cutting chamfers.

STCW2OPXD2D5OSI

What top rake angle would be used on a lathe toolfor cutting medium carbon steel?

1)

2)

3)

4)

20°

15°

15°

5°

STCW2OQJ7DWUCX7




Which machine tool would be used to cut bevelgears?

1)

2)

3)

4)



Shaping machine.

Slotting machine.

STCW2Q94FVPGANI

What alternative thread cutting procedure isavailable on the centre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Use of a whirling box.

Use of a burling tool.

Using a thread cutting chuck.

Using a die nut and spanner with slow chuck speed.

STCW2QBJW1P65DN

On a horizontal boring machine how is the workpiece set up to the boring bar?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By eye using the tool.

Using a surface gauge on the tool holder.

By measuring from the bedplate.

By measuring from the tool holder.

STCW2QHSKYOZ2LN

What is an Engineer's Stud?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Threaded rod bar.

Hex bolt threaded up to the head.

Threaded rod with plain section.

Bright steel threaded bar.

STCW2QXVJB1J4AG




Which machine would be used to cut a worm shaft?

1)

2)

3)

4)



Shaping machine.

Centre lathe.

STCW2R1DRA3IRA0

What is the easiest method of turning a taper on thecentre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Using the cross slide.


Using a taper turning attachment.

Offsetting the tailstock.

STCW2R437ZLGRDA

In bolt sizes what does AF refer to?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Thread root diameter.

Hexagon size.

Thread outside diameter.

Bolt shank diameter.

STCW2R7Q9Y2B0UO

When should tubes be plugged on a tube heatexchanger?

1)

2)

3)

4)

If the fixed tube end is leaking.

If the tube itself is cracked.

If the packed tube end is leaking.

Only if no spare tube is available.

STCW2RA9RATR0YM




When boring on the centre lathe how are toolangles affected?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Increase in wedge angle.

Decrease in side clearance angle.

Decrease in top rake. Increase in front clearance.

Increase in front clearance.

STCW2RZ9KHEE7NA

What best describes the tool movement on ashaping machine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Horizontal reciprocating.

Vertical reciprocating.

Horizontal rotating.

Stationary with work piece moving.

STCW2S1Z5MTZ7LR

What is the principle advantage of the three-jawchuck on a centre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Lighter and easier to use.

Self-centering.

Can be used with any work piece.

Simple operation.

STCW2S547485KQ1

Which machine tool would be used to machinepump casing wear ring landings?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Centre lathe.



Shaping machine.

STCW2S7JR785A3G




What is measured with a manometer?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Flow rate.

Water level.

Pressure differential.

Vacuum.

STCW2SOFFDLVRKO

Which of these locking devices can be used morethan once?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Self-locking nut.

Tab washer.

Lock nut.

Split pin.

STCW2T8GXM3DXFF

What is the disadvantage of using clamps to securework piece on the shaping machine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Insufficient security.

Restricts tool travel.

Table too close to toolbox.

Clamps may prevent tool from traversing entire work surface.

STCW2TG6RK6L6C5

When would a three-jaw chuck not be used on acentre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)


When facing.

When turning non- concentric work pieces.

When boring.

STCW2TGHU0J9VHY




When using a drill in a centre lathe, how is this fixedto the tailstock?

1)

2)

3)

4)

With a three-jaw chuck.

With a quick locking chuck.

To use a drill requires a special tailstock.

With a Morse taper.

STCW2TI3WJ2HUA7

What is the name for a milling machine capable ofboth vertical and horizontal milling?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Dual purpose milling machine.

Multi miller.

Universal milling machine.

Switchable milling machine.

STCW2TLFDHTFRFW

Which of these materials cannot be cut in amachine tool without cutting fluid?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cast iron.

Stainless steel.

Mild steel.

Brass.

STCW2TOOXIA2MMR

On which machine tool does the work piece notmove?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Centre lathe.

Planing machine.

Surface Grinder.

Shaping machine.

STCW2TR11WUXZ6Z




What material is most commonly used for main seawater lines?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Mild steel.

Galvanised mild steel.

Copper.

Copper/Nickel alloy.

STCW2TYBX5YVQPH

On the centre lathe what is the biggest advantage ofturning between centres?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Tool can access both ends of the work piece.

Work piece can be removed and replaced without further setting up.

No chuck jaws to be aware of.

Faster speeds and feeds can be employed.

STCW2U3KFUZ52G3

If on inspection, anodes are unworn what could bethe reason?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Incorrect anodes fitted.

Cooler choked.

No electrical contact between anode and cooler body.

Coolant flow too high.

STCW2U8EVIR5OCP

What safety shut-down devices will usually be foundon modern air compressors?

1)

2)

3)

4)

High pressure and high temperature shut downs.

High temperature and low lub oil shut downs.

High and low-pressure shut downs.

Low suction pressure and low lub pressure shut downs.

STCW2UDMEQ4HUGY




When turning a taper on a centre lathe what couldbe adjusted?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Headstock.

Tailstock.

Cross slide.

Lead screw.

STCW2UGQ2ECKBIH

On a centre lathe, when turning between centreswhy may the tailstock centre require backing off?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To allow access for the tool to the end of the work piece.

For facing off the end of the work piece.

To allow for expansion of the work piece during machining.

To cool the centre bearing.

STCW2UL95OCJU1B

What is the most often used cutting fluid onmachine tools?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Water.

Mineral oil.

Vegetable oil.

Soluble oil and water.

STCW2UO08HOVTES

When should copper based anti-friction compoundalways be used?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Bottom end securing bolts.

Cylinder head holding down bolts.

Exhaust manifold securing bolts.

Fuel pump securing bolts.

STCW2UYDUGX03BV




When cylindrical turning a 50mm brass bar whatwould be the chuck speed?

1)

2)

3)

4)

300rpm

450rpm

600rpm

750rpm

STCW2V8M18UWT82

When using the machine vice on the shaper whatdetermines work piece position?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Vice base.

Fixed vice jaw.

Moving vice jaw.

Worktable.

STCW2V99ZMGDBLX

In what sequence do the unloader and automaticdrain valves close on start-up of an automatic air start compressor?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Both close together.

Drain valve closes first and then unloader valve.

Unloader valve closes and drain valve remains open when running.

Unloader valve closes first, then the automatic drain valve.

STCW2VA93C7R0OK

What does the term 'up milling' describe when usinga horizontal milling machine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

When cutting a vertical surface.

When cutting a slot using a horizontal milling machine.

When cutting a chamfer.

When tool rotation direction opposes feed direction.

STCW2VEK48TC4GI




When machining a long length of raw material onthe centre lathe how is this accommodated?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By projecting through the back of the headstock.

It can't, the material has to be sawn into shorter lengths.

By removing the tailstock.

By using a steady.

STCW2VI8TN6UO1E

What would be the drill point angle for drilling mildsteel?

1)

2)

3)

4)

120°

140°

110°

100°

STCW2VP9OG41VI8

What is a hydrometer used to check?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Distilled water.

Battery electrolyte.

Sewage treatment plant discharge.

Chlorine content of drinking water.

STCW2W15YNVGJCI

What is the most common method for securing thework piece when using the shaping machine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Bolted to table.

Clamped in a machine vice.

Clamped to table.

Dogs and stops.

STCW2W7PBN9V7AU




In service, a pump shaft becomes overheated.What effect will this have on the ball-bearing?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The individual balls will distort.

The inner ring will expand.

The lubricating oil will burn.

The outer ring will contract.

STCW2WCTJLQJ2DN

How is stern tube wear down measured when indry-dock?

1)

2)

3)

4)

By a poker gauge, inserted in the plugm above the stern tube boss.

By blade feelers inserted in the after seal.

By blade feelers inserted in the forward bush from the engine room.

By measuring the lift on the shaft.

STCW2WPK2IXYZVQ

When using the shaping machine what is theadvantage in using the vice with jaws parallel to the tool travel?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Fixed jaw takes the tool thrust.

Guarantees parallel operation.

Easier access to work piece.

Usually allows a shorter stroke.

STCW2WVJRR85I0N

When using a parting tool on the centre lathe whatis the most important consideration?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Tool is at right angles to the work piece..

Tool is the correct height.

Using a slow speed.

Using a slow feed rate.

STCW2X8ATRDE491




What would a 'round nose' centre lathe toolgenerally be used for?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Rough cutting.

Thread cutting.

Boring.

Light finishing cut.

STCW2XHEC9H2UR2

What precaution may be necessary when using thefaceplate with an irregular shaped work piece on a centre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Use very low chuck speeds.

Use hand feed.

Use a balance weight on the faceplate.

Disconnect the lead screw.

STCW2XJRUK3AD1R

What would be a suitable feed speed when roughturning brass in a centre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0.1mm/rev.

0.15mm/rev.

0.25mm/rev.

1.0mm/rev.

STCW2XO1SRXCS52

What are hold down strips when used with theshaping machine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

For clamping work to table.

For checking parallel operation.

For securing work piece in vice.

For resting work piece on.

STCW2XU0FU0TL3N




How is the tool set up when thread cutting on thecentre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

With the shank at right angles to the work piece.

Using a thread gauge against the work piece.

By eye and then adjusted before the final cut.

With the shank against the face of the work piece.

STCW2Y92QHB9ZDS

When repacking soft packed glands how should thejoins be spaced?

1)

2)

3)

4)

45°

60°

90°

180°

STCW2YDIAW6E73R

What is the advantage of the four- jaw chuck on acentre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

More positive grip on the work piece.

Can be used for facing and boring.

Jaws can grip internally and externally.

Independent jaws allow gripping of non-symmetrical work pieces.

STCW2YGH7GH75T5

What would be a suitable feed speed when roughturning alloy steel in a centre lathe?

1)

2)

3)

4)

0.5mm/rev.

0.1mm/rev.

0.01mm/rev.

0.25mm/rev.

STCW2YHLA9OCATH




What are lathe beds manufactured from?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Carbon steel.

Cast steel.

Mild steel.

Grey cast iron.

STCW2YWULZD8NPP

What would be measured with a tachometer?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Peak cylinder pressure

Vibration levels

Engine RPM

Oil viscosity

STCW2Z6YKQP5UWH

Which of these requires the highest cutting speed?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Aluminium

Brass

Bronze

Cast iron

STCW2ZJTPL8LB03

When using a centtre lathe, what would be used forturning short tapers as in chamfers?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Cross slide.

Face plate.

Compound slide.

Suitable cutting tool.

STCW2ZOOTTHKEE1



EO8-Main Propulsion Turbines and Boilers STCW Operational - engineer

Name the two (2) different lubrication oil circuits of asteam turbine ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The front bearing circuit/ The rear bearing circuit.

The reduction gear oil / The turbine shaft bearing oil.

The bearing and gear oil circuit / The governor oil circuit.

The thrust bearing and shaft circuit. / The front and governor circuit.

SET010000001875

What kind of steam is feeding the astern turbinefitted on the same rotor as the LP turbine?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Steam from the main steam manifold via manoeuvring stand.

Exhaust steam from the high pressure turbine.

Reduced superheated steam via a pressure reducer.

Regenerated steam via resuperheater.

SET010000001906

Why is a thrust bearing required on this turbine ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

To absorb the forward thrust of the propeller.

To absorb the vibrations.

To counterbalance the labyrinth action.

To avoid the rotor shifting due to imbalance in steam pressure.

SET010000001907

Which alarm and shut-down device is fitted on thethrust bearing assembly ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The low lub oil flow alarm.

The steam pressure reducing alarm.

The axial clearance alarm.

The cooling water alarm.

SET010000001908




What kind of shaft seals are used on this highpressure turbine ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Mechanical seals.

Vacuum seals.

Counterbalancing seals.

Labyrinth seals.

SET010000001909

What type of high pressure steam turbine is shownhere ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

A Reaction turbine.

A Zoelly turbine.

A Curtis turbine.

A Zoelly turbine with prebolted Curtis wheel.

SET010000001910

Serious tube leakage in the air ejector condenserassembly will cause .................

1)

2)

3)

4)

loss of vacuum.

fouled nozzles.

clogged steam strainers.

faulty steam pressure.

SET010000002488

Which part in this diagram is the high pressureturbine ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No. 1

No. 6

No. 4

No. 2

SET010000002597




Which part in this diagram is the low pressureturbine ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

No. 1

No. 2

No. 3

No. 4

SET010000002598


1)

2)

3)

4)

Turbine coupling.

Turbine bearing.

Turbine drive gear train.

Turbine electromagnetic clutch.

SET010000002599

Which way does the steam pass through the system?

1)

2)

3)

4)

From the condensor to the low pressure turbine.

From the low pressure turbine to the high pressure turbine.

From the high pressure turbine to the low pressure turbine.

From the supply valve to the high pressure turbine.

SET010000002600

Turbo alternators perform which of the followingtasks ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Supplying electricity on a motorship.

Supplying electricity from diesel engines.

Supplying electricity on steamships when the main boiler is shut down.

Supplying electricity on steamships when the main boiler is operating.

SET010000004203




On a steamship at sea electricity is supplied by................

1)

2)

3)

4)

gas turbines.

diesel engines.

the main engine.

turbo alternators.

SET010000004210

Which of the following statements regarding mainboilers is NOT true ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The superheated steam pressure could be as much as 60 bar.

The burners could be at the top firing down.

At least two safety valves will be fitted.

The feed water need not be very pure.

SET010000004627

Regarding feed water, which of the followingstatements is NOT true ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

It is fresh water.

It is turned into steam in the boiler.

Steam turns to feed water in the condenser.

Feed water in H.P. boilers is normally pumped with a single stage centrifugalpump.

SET010000004629

Boiler feed water is water ...........

1)

2)

3)

4)

mixed with fuel oil and burnt as waste oil.

taken from the condenser and fed back to the boiler.

used to cool steam back into water.

used to cool steam turbines.

SET010000004632




In a modern steam turbine, steam is prevented fromleaking along the shaft by ....................

1)

2)

3)

4)

the blading.

high temperature packing.

a labyrinth seal.

the inlet nozzle.

SET010000004635

The condenser in a steam plant is where ................

1)

2)

3)

4)

steam is turned back into water.

water is turned into steam.

low pressure steam is produced.

electricity is supplied.

SET010000004636

Which of the following statements regarding steamturbines is NOT true ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

The H.P. turbine is smaller than the L.P. turbine.

The H.P. turbine receives the steam before the L.P. turbine.

From the H.P. turbine the steam then goes to the condenser.

The H.P. turbine is a faster rotating machine than a diesel engine.

SET010000004638

In a steam plant, the steam turns to water in......................

1)

2)

3)

4)

the L.P. turbine.

the boiler.

the turbo-feed pump.

the condenser.

SET010000004659




High pressure steam turbines are .................

1)

2)

3)

4)

larger than low pressure turbines.

smaller than low pressure turbines.

directly coupled to the propeller shaft.

powered by feed water.

SET010000004665

Modern high pressure boilers produce which of thefollowing ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

Feed water.

Superheated steam.

Saturated steam.

Fresh water for drinking.

SET010000004669

Superheated steam is steam ......................

1)

2)

3)

4)

that is mixed with water vapour.

that has been condensed.

that has been heated until it is "dry".

that can be used for heating the accommodation.

SET010000004671

Distilled water taken from the condenser andpumped back to the boiler is called ....................

1)

2)

3)

4)

condenser water.

evaporated water.

feed water.

fresh water.

SET010000004677


Date post:	19-Jul-2016
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