Aviation Law Feedback Paper 1 1. What is the maximum distance from touchdown that ATS can request a

change of speed to an aircraft on final approach?

(a) 5nm (b) 3nm (c) 2nm (d) 4nm

2. If the braking action is reported by ATS as 0.25 or below, the condition

for braking is:

(a) Good (b) Medium/Poor (c) Medium (d) Poor

3. Which of the following cannot be included in a registration mark?

(a) LLL (b) RCC (c) TTT (d) FFF

4. What is the definition of Distress?

(a) An emergency condition where an aircraft is in imminent danger and requires immediate assistance

(b) Persons on board an aircraft are in imminent danger and the flight cannot be continued

(c) The aircraft will be unable to land at a suitable aerodrome (d) The aeroplane has a message to transmit concerning the safety of

person on board or within sight 5. What defines the SAR alert phase (ALERFA)?

(a) An emergency situation in which an aeroplane and passengers are subject to danger

(b) A situation where it is thought that fuel is exhausted (c) A situation where apprehension exists about an aeroplane and its

safety (d) A situation in which it is thought that an aeroplane and its

passengers are In emergency

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6. What letter is inserted in a flight plan when the intention is to change from IFR to VFR at some stage in the flight?

(a) V (b) I (c) Z (d) Y

7. When, in airspace where VFR is permitted, the PiC of an IFR flight

wishes to continue his flight in accordance with VFR until destination:

(i) He/she must inform the control unit of his intention using the expression ‘cancelling my IFR flight”

(ii) He/she must request and obtain clearance (iii) He/she may request the IFR flight plan to be changed to a VFR

flight plan (iv) The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight

Which of the following combinations is correct?

(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)

8. ‘What is the speed restriction in class B airspace under 10 000 ft in both ‘IFR and IFR?

(a) 250 kts lAS (b) 200 kts IAS (c) 260 kts TAS (d) not applicable

9. What is the criterion for an aerodrome to be controlled?

(a) It must be located within a CTR (b) It must have a control tower (c) It must have a control tower and be in a CTR (d) It must be in controlled airspace

10. What age do you need to be to exercise the privileges of a CPL licence?

(a) 18 (b) 21 (c) 16 (d) 23

11. When you are over 40 and the holder of an ATPL(A), how often are you

required to have a medical examination?

(a) The 12 month period reduces to 6 months (b) The 24 month period reduces to 12 months (c) The 6 month period reduces to 3 months (d) The 9 month period reduces to 3 months

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12. You can use simulator hours towards the 1500 hours required for an

ATPL. How are simulator hours limited?

(a) Maximum of 100, not more than 15 in a procedural flight trainer (b) Maximum of 100, not more than 30 in a procedural flight trainer (c) Maximum of 100, not more than 25 in a procedural flight trainer (d) Maximum of 100, not more than 50 in a procedural flight trainer

13. At commencement of final approach, if the approach controller has

wind component information, what change in cross wind component change would he inform you of?

(a) 10 kts (b) 8 kts (c) 3 kts (d) 5 kts

14. A SVFR flight can fly in a control zone if the visibility is l500m or more

without a radio, if the class of airspace of the CTR is:

(a) C,D,E (b) D, E (c) D (d) E

15. What is separation for a light aircraft taking off after a medium aircraft

providing they are both using the same runway?

(a) 5 minutes (b) 3 minutes (c) 1 minutes (d) 2 minutes

16. A procedure to alter level in a hold is known as:

(a) Shuttle (b) Procedure turn (c) Base turn (d) Racetrack

17. Unless otherwise published or informed by ATC, after entering a hold

all turns are made:

(a) To the left (b) To the left then right (c) To the right (d) Procedure turn right then left

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18. Which of the quadrantal levels should be used when true track is 358°, variation is 3°W and deviation is 5° E?

(a) FL 75 (b) FL 60 (c) FL 70 (d) FL 65

19. In a holding pattern, turns are to be made at:

(a) Rate of turn of 3°/sec (b) Rate of turn of 3°/sec or 20° bank whichever is lesser (c) Rate of turn of 3°/sec or at a bank angle of 25° whichever is lesser (d) Bank angle of 25°

20. What level of alert would be inserted in field E of an ASHTAM following

a volcanic eruption in which a pyroclastic ash cloud extends above FL250?

(a) Red alert (b) Orange alter (c) Yellow alert (d) Green alert

21. What is the maximum track guidance distance for a turning departure?

(a) 10 km (b) 10 nm (c) 25 nm (d) 25 km

22. What radius from a VOR is MSA provided?

(a) 25 nm (b) 10 nm (c) 15 nm (d) 15 km

23. What is the primary reason for Radar in ATC?

(a) Separation (b) Helping when communications have failed (c) To assist pilots with technical problems (d) To assist pilots of aircraft that are lost

24. What is the longest period of time that you can fly the 30° leg of a

teardrop procedure when joining a holding pattern?

(a) 1½ minutes (b) 2½ minutes (c) 3 minutes (d) 30 seconds

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25. Which of the following is a valid colour scheme for signs on an aerodrome?

(a) Black on red (b) Yellow on black or black on yellow (c) Red on white (d) Orange

26. What is the colour of a low intensity obstacle light:?

(a) Blue (b) Steady red (c) Yellow (d) Green

27. How many bars are there on a full Calvert approach light system?

(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2

28. Lead in lights are:

(a) Green at threshold across the runway (b) White flashing in direction pointing towards the runway (c) Yellow (d) White across the runway

29. The documents which allow an aircraft entry to a country:

(a) Must be typewritten (b) Can be accepted in ink in block capitals (c) Are accepted at the discretion of the state of arrival (d) Must be typewritten or sent in electronic data format

30. If you observe a distress light on the ground you should:

(a) Flash landing lights or navigation lights twice (b) Fly over as low as possible the flash light (c) Fly in circles above then flash lights (d) Fly a triangular pattern

31. You are on the surface and are injured by an object from an aeroplane.

Which convention allows you to claim damages?

(a) The Hague (b) Rome (c) Warsaw (d) Pads

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32. A non-scheduled aircraft wants to land for non-commercial reasons in an ICAO contracting state. The flight plan is to be sufficient notification for acceptance of this flight. How much time in advance must the flight plan be received?

(a) 1 hour (b) 2 hours (c) 4 hours (d) 24 hours

33. ICAO publishes:

(a) Standards and recommended practices which are enforced world wide without exception

(b) Standards which are law for contracting states and recommendations for the rest of the world

(c) Standards and recommended practices for ICAO contracting states only

(d) International law 34. Which annex covers entry of cargo?

(a) 6 (b) 14 (c) 9 (d) 11

35. Which annex pertains to design of aerodromes?

(a) 14 (b) 11 (c) 6 (d) 18

36. To what did the Tokyo convention of 1963 address itself?

(a) Licensing of scheduled air services (b) Damage caused by a contracting states aircraft to property in the

same state (c) Damage caused by a contracting states aircraft to property in

another state (d) Interference with an aircraft in flight

37. An aircraft is coming in from the left. Which light will you see first?

(a) Steady red (b) Steady green (c) Flashing green (d) White

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38. An aircraft suffers a complete radio failure in IMC conditions in a holding pattern having received an EAT. How long should it stay in the hold?

(a) Until the last received and acknowledged EAT (b) 30 minutes (c) Not at all (d) 20 minutes

39. Name the criteria for descent below MDH on a VM(C) approach:

(a) Threshold in view, able to keep visual reference to terrain, clear of cloud

(b) Clearance from ATC, threshold in view, inside aerodrome traffic zone

(c) Runway visual, 5km visibility and clear of cloud (d) Visual glide path indication of ‘on glide path’ and VMC exists

40. When must you operate your SSR transponder?

(a) Always (b) At all times unless otherwise instructed by ATC (c) At your discretion regardless of ATC instructions (d) Mode A always; Mode C at pilots discretion

41. What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting on IFR

then changing to VFR?

(a) Z (b) Y (c) I (d) V

42. In what class of airspace are all aircraft separated from one another

and VFR is permitted?

(a) D (b) F (c) A (d) B

43. What types of separation do ATC apply?

(a) Horizontal, longitudinal and timing (b) Horizontal, vertical and longitudinal (c) Horizontal vertical and composite (d) Horizontal, vertical and lateral

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44. What separation is applied to two aircraft where the first is 40 kts faster than the second?

(a) 3 minutes (b) 5 minutes (c) 10 minutes (d) 4 minutess

45. In European airspace, an aircraft experiencing total radio failure after

departure should:

(a) Climb immediately to cleared altitude (b) Maintain last assigned flight level for3 minutes then as per flight

plan (c) Maintain last assigned altitude for 5 minutes than as per flight (d) Return to aerodrome of departure

46. What is the minimum distance from threshold that a controller must

have issued clearance to land by, for a non precision approach?

(a) 5 nm (b) 2 nm (c) 3 nm (d) 10 nm

47. What does the SAR signal “X” on the ground mean?

(a) We need help (b) We are OK (c) We need medical supplies (d) We have gone away

48. What is AIRAC?

(a) A package of information including AlP, NOTAMS route briefings (b) A telecommunicated message of operational significance which

has short notice (c) The main body of knowledge concerning a national aviation

system (d) A means of amending operationally significant permanent

information 49. Hijack must be notified by the state of landing to the:

(a) State of operator and the state of registration (b) State of the operator, the state of registration and ICAO (c) State of the operator, the state of registration and ECAC (d) State of the operator, the state of registration and ICAO and ECAC

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50. Aerodrome code 4 refers to field length:

(a) 900 m (b) 1000 m (c) 1600 m (d) 1800 m

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Intentionally Blank

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Aviation Law Feedback Paper 1, Answers A B C D 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A B C D

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

41 42 43 44

45 46 47 48 49 50

A B C D

21 22

23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

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Answers

1 d 11 a 21 a 31 b 41 b 2 d 12 c 22 a 32 a 42 d 3 c 13 d 23 a 33 c 43 c 4 a 14 d 24 a 34 c 44 a 5 c 15 d 25 b 35 a 45 b 6 d 16 a 26 b 36 d 46 b 7 d 17 c 27 a 37 b 47 c 8 d 18 c 28 b 38 a 48 d 9 b 19 c 29 b 39 a 49 b

10 a 20 a 30 a 40 b 50 d

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