ourstudycircle.inQUESTION 1. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRV...

QUESTION 1. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRV UVTVElPTiAw
Babur was driven to Kabul from his homeland in Central Asia by the Uzbeks. Which among the following factor/s led to his shift from Kabul to Punjab?
1. The income from Kabul was not enough to maintain an empire.
2. The existing political instability in India.
3. Babur was wary of an attack by the Uzbeks.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
c) 2 only
Explanation
· The founder of the empire, Zahiruddin Babur, was driven from Central Asian homeland, Farghana, by Uzbeks. He first established himself at Kabul in 1504. And then, he pushed steadily southward into India from Afghanistan through the Khyber Pass. He was successful in capturing Bhira (1519-20), Sailkot (1520), and Lahore (1524) in Punjab.
· Reason for Babur coveting the Punjab parganas was the meagre income of Kabul , which was not sufficient to maintain an empire, and his apprehension of Uzbek attack on Kabul . Thus, he considered India to be a good place to find refuge and develop a suitable base for operations against the Uzbeks. Hence statement 1 and 3 are correct.
· The unstable political situation in India after Sikandar Lodhi’s death further aided his entry. Hence statement 2 is correct.
· Then in 1526 pushed further into Indian subcontinent in search of territories and resources to satisfy the needs of the members of his clan.
· In 1526 , he defeated the Sultan of Delhi, Ibrahim Lodhi, at Panipat and captured Delhi and Agra.
Source: OnlyIAS Study Material
QUESTION 2. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRV UVTVElPTiAx
Rajput policy of Akbar proved to be beneficial to the Mughal state as well as to the Rajputs. In this context consider the following statements:
Exam Title : Full Test 11
Telegram.me/upsc_iassquad www.ourstudycircle.in/upscpdf/ Telegram.me/upsc_iassquad
Google: ourstudycircle.in/upscpdf/
1. Under this policy, the Rajput mansabdars were assigned their own territories which was hereditary and transferable.
2. This policy secured the services of Rajput warriors to the Mughals but kept them out of important positions in Mughal services.
3. The policy ensured peace in Rajasthan.
Which of the above given statement/s is/are incorrect ?
a) 1 only
b) 3 only
d) 2 only Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Rajput policy of Akbar
· One of the notable achievements of Akbar was that, in spite of the subjugation of the whole of Rajasthan, there was no hostility between Rajputs and Mughals .
· Rajput policy of Akbar proved to be ben to the Mughal state as well as to the Rajputs.
· The alliance on the one hand secured the services of the warriors to the Mughals wherea s on the other hand, it ensured peace in Rajasthan . Hence statement 3 is correct.
· Many Rajput mansabdars were assigned their own territories as Watan Jagir , which was hereditary and non-transferable . Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
· The Rajputs also rose to important positions in Mughal services . Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
QUESTION 3. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRV UVTVElPTiAy
Rana Sanga of Mewar expected Babur to return to Kabul after the first battle of Panipat but Babur had different plans. Consider the following statements with reference to battle between Babur and Rana Sanga:
1. Babur declared this war against Rana Sanga to be a jihad .
2. After emerging victorious, Babur adopted the title of Ghazi and proclaimed himself as the Emperor of Hindustan.
Which of the above given statement/s is/are correct?
OnlyIAS Nothing Else Email: [email protected]
Page 2
d) None of the above Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Battle between Babur & Rana Sanga
· It is believed that Babur was invited to fight against Ibrahim Lodhi by Daulat Ram Lodhi (Go vernor of Punjab), Alam Khan (uncle of Ibrahim Lodhi), and Rana Sanga of Mewar .
· Rana Sanga of Mewar expected Babur to return to Kabul after the first battle of Panipat, but his decision to remain in India was a big jolt to Rana's territorial ambitions. Thus, the battle between the two was inevitable.
· Rana Sanga of Mewar and his allies were defeated, and Babur secured his position in the Delhi-Agra region.
· Babur declared the war against Rana Sanga to be a jihad and adopted the title of Ghazi after the victory. Hence statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect. Babur proclaimed himself as ‘ Emperor of Hindustan’ after the Battle of Panipat in 1526 after defeating Ibrahim Lodhi.
QUESTION 4. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRV UVTVElPTiAz
Star rating depicting energy efficiency are provided to all the major kind of appliances in the form of labels. In this context consider the following:
1. Celing Fan
2. Electric geysers
3. Color TV
4. Microwave ovens
5. Air conditioners
6. Washing Machine
Which of the above given appliances must mandatorily come up with a star rating label?
a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
b) 2, 4 and 5 only
c) 2, 3 and 5 only
Page 3
Unmarked set by amanb
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Correct Answer: C
Explanation
What is BEE Star Rating?
Star ratings are provided to all the major kind of appliances in the form of labels. These star ratings are given out of 5 and they provide a basic sense of how energy efficient each product is, just in a single glance.
The manufacturers are officially required to put these labels as per the Standards and Labelling Program introduced in 2006 .
Why do they put these BEE Star Rating labels?
The prime importance of these Star Ratings is to educate and inform consumers about how energy efficient each product is. This also makes the manufacturer responsible for creating products which are highly energy efficient as consumers may eventually prefer better rated products.
How do they decide the BEE Star Ratings?
1. One of the most common myths about the BEE Star Rating is that it is solely based on the appliance’s power consumption. A lot of factors contribute into formulating the final star rating on the product.
2. Although the manufacturers rate and label the product, BEE sets all the standards and norms which need to be followed while rating an appliance. While some category of appliances necessarily have to be given a star rating, for others it’s optional.
3. Appliances which need to have an energy rating label mandatorily: Frost-free refrigerator, Tubular Fluorescent Lamps, Room Air-Conditioners, Distribution Transformer, Colour TV, CST AC, Direct Cool Refrigerator and Electric Geyser.
4. The appliances with the lowest energy consumption in a product category are given the most stars and those with the highest energy consumption are given the least .
There are two variants of these labels, a big one and a smaller version:
1. Big label:
The big energy rating label is aimed at appliances which have a constant usage and consume more electricity. These labels show additional information such as the yearly energy consumption of the product, brand name, product category and much more. For consumers, this big label is helpful as it allows you to calculate the actual money you would spend in electricity bills for that particular product.
Products with a big label: Refrigerators, air-conditioners, geysers and washing machines.
Page 4
2. Small Label:
Small labels can be found in appliances which usually don’t consume more energy. These labels just give you a visual representation of the energy consumption levels by showing star ratings.
Products with a small label: Ceiling fans, tube lights, computers/laptops and televisions.
List of mandatory appliances:
Page 5
Page 6
Additional Information:
Bureau of Energy Efficiency is a statutory body set up under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 . The Bureau of Energy Efficiency assists the government in developing policies and strategies with a thrust on self-regulation and market principles with the primary objective of reducing the energy intensity of the Indian economy within the overall framework of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001.
QUESTION 5. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRV UVTVElPTiA0
Page 7
The “Nine Gems”, or Navaratnas Nauratan, refers to 9 members on the court of the Mughal Emperor Akbar. Who among the following were included in Akbar’s Navaratnas?
1. Raja Man Sing
2. Raja Todar Mal
3. Mir Sayyid Ali
a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
b) 1, 2, 4 and 6 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
d) 3, 4, 5 and 6 only Correct Answer: B
Explanation
1. Abul Fazl who wrote Ain-i-Akbari and Akbar Nama.
2. Faizi who was a persian poet and brother of Abul Fazl.
Page 8
3. Fakir Aziao Din who was a Sufi mystic and one of the chief advisors of Akbar.
4. Tansen , a great musician who served as a court musician to King Ramachandra. He accepted Islam at the hand of great Sufi mystic saint Muhammad Ghaus of Gwalior.
5. Raja Birbal / Mahesh Das , a courtier to whom Akbar gave the title of both Raja and Birbal. He died fighting Yusuf Shahis on North West frontiers.
6. Raja Todar Mal , was a finance minister who overlooked revenue system. Earlier he worked under Sher Shah Suri . He introduced standard weights and measurements, revenue districts and officers. In 1582 CE, Akbar bestowed on him the title of Diwan-i-Ashraf .
7. Raja Man Singh , was a Mansabdar and grandson of Akbar's father-in-law.
8. Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Khanan was a great poet, although a Muslim by birth, a devotee of Lord Krishna. He translated Babarnama into Turki. He was son of Bairam Khan.
9. Mirza Aziz Koka , also known as Khan-i-Azam , he was one of the leading nobles, and also the foster brother of Akbar. He also served as the Subedar of Gujarat.
NOTE: Abdus Samad & Mir Sayyid Ali were the court-painters under Humayun’s rule.
Positive Pay Mechanism, sometimes seen in news is related to:
a) An initiative of the NPCI to make the transfer of money via UPI, more secure and reduce the instances of cyber frauds.
b) An initiative of the RBI to protect customers against forged, altered, or counterfeit cheques.
c) A mechanism under which customers will get positive real interest rates for their investments made in the Post Offices across India.
d) None of the above Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Why in News?
· Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced a Positive Pay mechanism to make cheque payments safer and reduce instances of frauds.
About Positive Pay mechanism
· What is it ? It is a fraud detection tool adopted by banks to protect customers against forged, altered or counterfeit cheques.
Page 9
· How does it work ? It cross verifies all details of the cheque issued before funds are encashed by the beneficiary.
· In case of a mismatch, the cheque is sent back to the issuer for examination.
· It ensures that every high-value cheque valued at Rs 50,000 and above is crossed checked with details provided by the issuing party or the individual.
· Significance By following such a system, a bank knows of a cheque being drawn by the customer even before it is deposited by the beneficiary into his/her account.
· Instances of usage Private sector lender ICICI Bank adopted this feature in 2016 for all cheques, irrespective of the amount, via its iMobile application.
Source: OnlyIAS August Current Affairs Magazine
A category of diseases known as Neglected Tropical Diseases has gained prominence in the recent times. In this context consider the following statements:
1. Mostly poor people who have little access to clean water and proper sanitation get afflicted by these diseases.
2. They are considered neglected as they get little global attention.
3. They are largely a group of communicable diseases.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Neglected Tropical Diseases
· It is a diverse group of communicable diseases that are common in tropical and subtropical areas. Hence statement 3 is correct.
· NTDs get little global attention as mostly poor get afflicted by the disease. Poor people in these tropical & sub-tropical areas, where people have little access to clean water or proper ways to dispose of human waste are mostly affected by these diseases. Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct.
Page 10
· According to WHO these bunch of diseases affect more than one billion people and cost developing economies billions of dollars every year.
· Sustainable development goals provide framework for elimination of Negelcted tropicl diseases.
· These are caused by variety of pathogens like bacteria, virus, protozoa, parasitic worms etc.
Match the following pairs with reference to Mughal chronicles and their writers:
Page 11
a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
b) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
d) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Akbar Nama
· Begining in 1589, Abu’l Fazl worked on the Akbar Nama for 13 years.
o Akbar Nama is divided into three books of which the first two are chronicles. The third book is the Ain-i-Akbari .
· First volume contains the history of mankind from Adam to one celestial cycle of Akbar's life (30 years).
· Akbar Nama was written to provide a detailed description of all aspects of Akbar's empire – geographic, social, administrative, and cultural – without reference to chronology (diachronic account: trace developments over time).
· In the Ain-i-Akbari , the Mughal Empire is presented as having diverse population consisting of Hindus, Jainas, Buddhists, and Muslims and a composite culture.
Badshah Nama
· Badshah Nama : it was written by a pupil of Abu'l Fazl, Abdul Hamid Lahori .
o Shah Jahan commissioned him to write a history of his reign modelled on the Akbar Nama .
o Badshah Nama is the official history in 3 volumes of ten lunar years of each.
o Lahori wrote the first and second volume (daftars) comprising the first two decades of the emperor’s rule (1627-47).
o Infirmities of old age prevented Lahori from proceeding with the third decade which was then chronicled by the historian Waris.
Humayun Nama
Page 12
Shah Jahan Nama
· Written by Inayat Khan, a wrtiter patronized by Shah Jahan
Consider the following statements with reference to difference between PAN & GSTIN:
1. Both PAN & GSTIN are issued by the Income Tax Department.
2. While PAN is a 10-digit alphanumeric number, the GSTIN is a 15-digit alphanumeric number.
3. While an individual can have only one PAN number, a company can have multiple GSTIN in some cases.
a) 1 only
b) 3 only
Explanation
Page 13
Page 14
Convetion 182 of International Labour Organization (ILO) was recently in news. In this context consider the following statements:
1. This convention of the ILO deals with the worst forms of child labour.
2. In the ILO’s history, convention 182 became the first convention to be ratified by all the member states
Page 15
d) None of the above Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Why in News?
· Recently, the International Labour Organization (ILO) Convention 182 has been universally ratified when the Kingdom of Tonga outlawed the worst forms of child labour.
About Convention 182
· What is it? The Convention 182 was adopted in the 1999 annual international labour conference which prohibits the sexual exploitation of children, trafficking, deployment in armed conflict and other conditions that compromise their overall well-being .
· The Convention complements the ILO’s efforts under the 1973 Minimum Age Convention to prevent the employment of children below a lower age threshold.
· It calls for the prohibition and elimination of the worst forms of child labour , including slavery, forced labour and trafficking.
· It prohibits the use of children in armed conflict, prostitution, pornography and illicit activities such as drug trafficking, and in hazardous work.
· India Position India has signalled its legal commitment to the elimination of child labour with its 2017 ratification of Convention 182 and the instrument prescribing the minimum age of work for children.
International Labour Organization
· The ILO is the United Nations agency for the world of work. It is also a member of the United Nations Development Group (UNDP).
· Mandate It sets international labour standards, promotes rights at work and encoura ges decent employment opportunities, the enhancement of social protection and the strengthening of dialogue on work-related issues.
· HQ Geneva, Switzerland .
· Parent organization Economic and Social Council of the United Nations .
· Structure It is the only tripartite U.N. agency, that brings together governments, employers and workers’ representatives of 187-member States .
· India and ILO
Page 16
· India has ratified 47 out of 189 ILO conventions during the century. Out of eight core conventions India has ratified six and two conventions ( C-138 and C-182 ), which were relate d to child labour have been ratified by the present government.
QUESTION 11. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTV ElPTiAxMA==
Oxytocin hormone was recently seen in news. In this context consider the following statements:
1. This hormone is produced by the pituitary gland in human body.
2. The hormone plays an important role in reproduction, childbirth lactation social interaction in humans.
3. Import of oxytocin and its manufacturing by any private player for domestic use has been banned in India.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Oxytocin
· It is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus and secreted by the Pituitary gland in hu man and plays an important role in reproduction, childbirth lactation & social interaction in humans. Hence statement 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
· It is used in humans & animals to accelerate normal labour. However, it has been used illegally for unsafe abortions to induce labour.
· It has been misused in livestock industry to induce milk production in farm animals. However, its abuse shortens the lives of animals & makes them barren.
· It had also been used in vegetables & fruits to increase its size.
· In India import of oxytocin & its formulation has been banned & no private manufacturer is allowed to manufacture drug for domestic use. Hence statement 3 is correct.
· Karnataka Antibiotics & Pharmaceuticals Ltd (KAPL) is the only public sector company, authorised for manufacturing this drug for domestic use.
Page 17
Consider the following pairs with reference to classification of lakes:
Which of the above given pair/s is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 only
c) 2 only
Explanation
· Oligotrophic lakes: These have low primary productivity, and low biomass associated with low concentrations of nitrogen and phosphorous (nutrients). They tend to be saturated with oxygen.
· Mesotrophic lakes: These are lakes in transition from oligotrophic to eutrophic conditions. Some depression of oxygen concentration occurs in hypolimnion during summer stratification.
· Eutrophic lakes: These display high concentration of nutrients, high biomass productivity and low transparency. Oxygen concentrations can get very low (as low as 1 mg/L) in the hypolimnion during summer.
Page 18
· Hypereutrophic lakes: These are lakes at the extreme end of eutrophication with very high concentration of nutrients and associated biomass production. Anoxia or complete loss of oxygen takes place in the hypolimnion during summer.
· Dystrophic lakes: These are organic rich lakes (humic and fulvic acids) fed by external inputs of the lake (watershed).
QUESTION 13. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTV ElPTiAxMg==
Zero rated exports is one of biggest benefit of the GST system. With reference to this consider the following statements:
1. If final product is exported outside India (or sent to Special Economic Zone/SEZ in India), it will be subjected to 0% IGST.
2. This is an Indian innovation and India is the only country in the world to use the mechanism of Zero-rated exports.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
Explanation
GST Benefit: Zero Rated Exports
· When company buys raw material or intermediate goods it will have to pay GST but if final product is exported outside India (or sent to Special Economic Zone/SEZ in India), it will be subjected to 0% IGST. Hence statement 1 is correct.
· So, whatever GST the company had paid on the inputs, all of that will become its “Input Tax Credit” (and company can use this ITC to pay for the taxes on the purchase of raw material and intermediate goods in the next time), thus reducing its cost of production. This will improve price competitiveness of Indian products in foreign markets.
· Australia and other GST countries also follow similar “zero rated export” regime. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Page 19
Chahar taslim and Kornish with reference to Mughal courts were:
a) Forms of salutation to the ruler.
b) Special way of presenting gift inorder to show loyalty towards the ruler.
c) Specific places in the court for the courtiers that reflected the importance in the eyes of the emperor.
d) None of the above. Correct Answer: A
Explanation
The Mughal Courts
o In court, status was determined by spatial proximity to the king. The place accorded to a courtier by the ruler was a sign of importance in the eyes of the emperor.
o Chahar taslim and Kornish : Form of salutation. Hence option A is correct.
o 1. The forms of salutation to the ruler indicated the person's status in the hierarchy. The highest form of submission was sijda or complete prostration.
o Under Shah Jahan, these rituals were replaced with chahar taslim and zaminbos (kissing the ground).
o Jharokha Darshan (Jharokha: small balcony) was introduced by Akbar with the objective of broadening the acceptance of the imperial authority as part of popular faith. After spending an hour in morning at the Jharokha, the emperor walked to the public hall of audience (diwan-i- am) to conduct the primary business of his government.
o Diwan-i-Khas : where the emperor hold private audiences and discuss their confidential matters.
o Shab-i-barat : It is the full moon night on the 14 Shaban, the 8th month of hijri calendar and is celebrated with prayers and fireworks in the subcontinent.
o Jashn-i-wazn : Being weighted in precious metals. (Tula dan).
o Mughal kings celebrated three major festivals a year:
1. Solar and lunar birthdays of the monarch
2. Nauroz
Page 20
Consider the following statements with reference to World Tourism Organisation:
1. It is a global non-governmental organization that promotes tourism as a driver of economic growth, inclusive development, and environmental sustainability
2. The organization releases the World Tourism Barometer annually.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
Explanation
Why in News?
· Recently, the UN World Tourism Organisation has provided that that global tourism sector has lost USD 320 billion from January through May which is three times what was lost during the year 2009 at the height of the last global financial crisis.
About UN World Tourism Organisation
· It is the United Nations agency responsible for the promotion of responsible, sustainable and universally accessible tourism. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
· Established in 1974 .
· Headquarters Madrid, Spain .
· Purpose It promotes tourism as a driver of economic growth , inclusive development and environmental sustainability and offers leadership and support to the sector in advancing knowledge and tourism policies worldwide.
· It encourages the implementation of the Global Code of Ethics for Tourism , to maximize tourism’s socio-economic contribution while minimizing its possible negative impacts.
· It releases the World Tourism Barometer annually. Hence statement 2 is correct.
QUESTION 16. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTV ElPTiAxNQ==
Exotic and Invasive species are closely related. In this context consider the following statements:
Page 21
1. An invasive species is one that causes harm to the natural balance of a place where it does not originally belong.
2. All invasive species are exotic, but all exotic species are not necessarily invasive.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
d) None of the above Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Invasive Species:
· When a plant or animal species is moved to a location where it’s not originally from, the species is called an exotic species . When that species harms the natural balance in an ecosystem, the species is called invasive.
· Invasive species can harm life in a lake by competing for the same resources that native species do. When introduced to new food sources, invasive species multiply quickly, crowding out the helpful native species until there are more invasive than native species.
· Invasive species can change the natural habitat of the lake and are known as biological pollutants when this happens. Once non-native species have been introduced into a lake, they are almost impossible to get rid of.
· Non-native plants and animals are almost always introduced by people. As people use waterways more frequently, they may inadvertently move organisms from one area to another.
· Plants such as Eurasian watermilfoil, an invasive aquatic plant in the U.S., may cling to boats, clothing, pets, equipment, and vehicles.
QUESTION 17. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTV ElPTiAxNg==
In the context of Mughal administration under Akbar, consider the following statements:
1. Subedars were the administrators who belonged only to the royal family.
2. While the mansabdars who performed full combat duty were paid in land, the jagirdars were paind in cash
3. Mansabdars were the actual holders of horses and foot soldiers.
Page 22
d) 3 only Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Hence statement 1 & 3 are correct and 2 is incorrect
QUESTION 18. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTV ElPTiAxNw==
Which of the following statements is/are correct about peer to peer Lending?
Page 23
2. Collateral is mandatory.
3. The rate of interest is decided by the Government.
a) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer: A
Explanation
P2P lending is the popular type of crowdfunding, whereby an internet platform collects small amounts of funds from individuals in a crowd to finance collectively a larger loan to individuals or businesses.
There are no legally defined disclosure standards to ensure that lenders have a clear and accur ate understanding of the risks associated with using a specific P2P platform .
· No mandatory collateral: Corporate borrowers have the ability to obtain P2P-loans without providing collateral.
Interest rate is not fixed by the Government, but it depends upon the mutual understanding between the borrower and lender.
QUESTION 19. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTV ElPTiAxOA==
Consider the following statements with respect to Indian National Flag:
1. The Indian National tricolour was designed by Lala Hansraj Sondhi
2. The flag was officially adopted by the Indian National Congress during Swadeshi Movement in 1906.
3. The Karnataka Khadi Gramodyoga Samyukta Sangha (KKGSS) is the country’s only official national flag manufacturing unit.
a) 1 only
c) 3 only
Page 24
· He was born on August 2, 1876, in Andhra Pradesh.
· He is also known as 'Jhanda Venkaiah'.
Who was Pingali Venkayya?
· Pingali Venkayya was a freedom fighter and the designer of the Indian National Tricolour. The national flag that we see today was based upon his design.
The evolution of Indian National Flag:
1. Between 1918 and 1921, Venkayya raised the issue of having an own flag in every session of the Congress. Back then, he was working as a lecturer in the Andhra National College in Machilipatnam.
2. He met the Mahatma once again in Vijayawada and showed him his publication with the various designs of the flag. Acknowledging the need for a national flag, Gandhi then asked Venkayya to design a fresh one at the national congress meeting in 1921.
3. Initially, Venkayya came up with saffron and green colours, but it later evolved with a spinning wheel at the centre and a third colour-white. (LALA HANS RAJ SONDHI SUGGESTED ADDING A SPINNING WHEEL — SHOWING THE INDEPENDENT INDIANS WHO CAN SPIN THEIR OWN CLOTHING FROM LOCAL FIBRES.) Hence statement 1is incorrect.
4. The flag was officially adopted by the Indian National Congress in 1931. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Additional Information
· The Indian flags seen fluttering atop the Red fort, Rashtrapati Bhavan, Supreme Court, other government buildings, and many such places – they are all manufactured in Hubballi. The Karn ataka Khadi Gramodyoga Samyukta Sangha (KKGSS) is the country’s only national flag manufacturing unit and it is located in Bengeri village of Dharwad district. Hence statement 3 is correct
· KKGSS has been certified as the sole manufacturer and supplier of the Indian flag to the entire country , by the Khadi and Village Industries Commission.
· The flags are made in conformation with the guidelines laid down by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS).
· KKGSS’ khadi manufacturing units are located in Bagalkot, from where the cloth is first sourced . It is then divided into three lots , dyed accordingly and cut into the required shapes . The chakra is printed on the white cloth and the three pieces are stitched together . The flags are then ironed and packed.
Page 25
QUESTION 20. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTV ElPTiAxOQ==
Sometimes seen in news, Remote Learning Reachability Report has been released by:
a) NITI Aayog
Explanation
Why in News?
· United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF) has released a report titled “Remote Learning Reachability report”.
About Report
· Purpose The report outlines the limitations to remote learning and exposes deep inequalities in access.
Key Takeaways
· At least a third of the world’s schoolchildren which works to around 463 million could n ot access remote learning since schools have been shut down because of Covid-19.
· In India, at least 1.5 million schools are closed because of the pandemic, which is affecting 286 million students from pre-primary to secondary levels of which 49% are girls.
Also Remember
· Reimagine Campaign o It is a global campaign launched by UNICEF to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic from becoming a lasting crisis for children especially the most vulnerable children such as those affected by poverty, exclusion or family violence.
· UNICEF
o It is a United Nations agency responsible for providing humanitarian and developmental aid to children worldwide.
o Origin It is the successor of the International Children’s Emergency Fund (ICEF) created in 1946 .
o Headquarters New York City, US .
Page 26
Alara Kalama and Udakka , related to Buddha’s life were:
a) Disciples to whom he gave his first sermon
b) Brahmin teachers who gave him instructions
c) People who heard his last teaching
d) None of the above Correct Answer: B
Explanation
· After leaving home, Buddha lived as homeless ascetic continuously for 6 years. He was seeking instructions under two Brahmin religious teachers- Alara Kalama & Udakka or Ramaputta .
· Alara Kalama taught him the technique of meditation at Vaisali, while Udakka taught him at Rajagriha.
· But he was not convinced with their instructions that man could obtain liberation from sorrow by mental discipline and knowledge only.
· Buddha’s first five disciples -
o Kondanna,
o Bhaddiya,
o Vappa,
o Assaji
· Buddha’s last teaching was heard by- Subhadra , a wandering ascetic & Ananda , his favourite disciple.
QUESTION 22. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTV ElPTiAyMQ==
Q. 22) If a company ‘X’ is not reducing the price of a product even after receiving the GST rate cuts in production, what action can the National Anti-Profiteering Authority take?
1. Ask the company to refund money along with interest to consumers.
2. Deposit money to Consumer welfare funds at union & state levels.
Page 27
3. Cancel the registration of the company and send the concerned owner to jail.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
d) 1 and 2 only Correct Answer: D
Explanation
National Anti-Profiteering Authority (NAA)
· GST provides input credit for most of the indirect taxes of the Union and State Government. So, entrepreneur’s cost of production should reduce, then he should also reduce the prices for consumers, yet many companies had not reduced their prices e.g. Domino’s Pizza, Nestle, Hindustan Unilever toothpaste & detergents etc.
· To curb their profiteering, Union govt has set up NAA under Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017.
· Depending on the case, NAA can order the culprit company to:
1. Reduce prices
2. Refund money with interest to consumers
3. Deposit money to Consumer Welfare Funds at union & state level
4. Impose penalty upto 10% of profiteered amount
5. Cancel registration. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
· Further appeal→ High Court.
· This Authority shall cease to exist after two years from its inception (2017), unless GST council renews it.
· 2019-Jun : GST council extended it for another 2 years, which means all crooked companies have not yet stopped profiteering.
QUESTION 23. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTV ElPTiAyMg==
Cardiac arrest and Heart attack are sometimes used synonymously but there is difference between the two. Consider the following statements in this context:
Page 28
1. In cardiac arrest the heart stops beating and hence stops pumping blood while in a heart attack the blood flow to the heart is blocked.
2. A heart attack always leads to a cardiac arrest.
3. The fatality rate in cardiac arrest is higher than the heart attack.
a) 3 only
Explanation
Page 29
· Cardiac arrest is fatal more than 89 % of the time while only About 14 % of heart attacks are fatal. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Page 30
· Most heart attacks do not lead to cardiac arrest. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
QUESTION 24. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTV ElPTiAyMw==
Consider the following statements with respect to rare diseases:
1. A rare disease is a health condition of low prevalence that affects a small number of people in the third world countries.
2. Mostly tribal people are affected by the rare diseases.
3. All the rare diseases are genetic in origin.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Rare Diseases
· A rare disease is a health condition of low prevalence that affects a small number of people compared with other prevalent diseases in the general population. It has nothing to do with the geographical region. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
· Rare diseases include genetic diseases, rare cancers, infectious tropical diseases and degenerative diseases
· About 80% of rare diseases are genetic in origin and hence disproportionately impact children . Hence statement 2 and 3 are incorrect.
· There is no universally accepted definition of a rare disease
· So far about 450 rare diseases have been recorded in India . Some of the common rare diseases are Haemophilia, sickle cell anaemia, Thalassemia, Lysosomal storage disorders such as Pompe disease, Hirschsprung disease,
· Rare diseases present a challenge as:
o Lack of economic viability for treatment & drug development of these disease
o Difficulty in collecting epidemiological data
Page 31
o Diversity in symptoms & signs which vary from disease to disease as well as from patient to patient.
o Challenge in treatment as Diagnosis of a rare condition may take up to several years.
o Unavailability of treatment : About 95% rare diseases have no approved treatment.
QUESTION 25. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTV ElPTiAyNA==
In recent times anti-microbial resistance has become a global concern. Which among the following is/are the causes of anti-microbial resistance?
1. Self-medication by people.
3. Travelling of people.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 2 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 4 only
QUESTION 26. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTV ElPTiAyNQ==
With reference to biosimilars and generics, consider the following statements:
1. While a biosimilar is identical to the reference product, a generic is not identical.
2. A generic is sold at a large discount over the reference product while a biosimilar is costlier than a generic.
3. Cost and time required for development of a generic is less in comparison to a biosimilar.
a) 1 only
c) 3 only
Page 32
Explanation
Generic Drug
· A Generic Drug is a pharmaceutical drug which contains same active pharmaceutical ingredients ( chemical responsible for product’s effect) as the already marketed brand drug.
· Since active chemical substances are same, generic medicine works in same way and provides the same clinical benefits as its branded version.
· A generic drug, though has same active pharmaceutical ingredient as original but can diff er in some non-essential characteristics like manufacturing process, formulation, colour, taste etc.
· Generic medicines are marketed either under a non-proprietary name ( for example diazepam or
· occasionally another approved name, rather than under a proprietary or brand name) or they are also quite frequently marketed under brand names, often called ‘ branded generics .
· Generic medicines costs less than their branded counterparts as:
o They do not have to undergo animal and clinical trials to demonstrate their safety & effectiveness.
o Also, multiple generic companies are often approved to market a single product; this creates competition in the marketplace, typically resulting in lower prices.
· India is a leading country in the world's generic drugs market, exporting US$20.0 billion worth of drugs in the 2019–20 (April–March) year.
Some Related terms
· Bioequivalent : Two pharmaceutical products are bioequivalent if they are pharmaceutically equivalent and their bio availabilities (rate and extent of availability), after administration in the same molar dose, are similar to such a degree that their effects can be expected to be essentially the same.
· Biosimilar : A biosimilar is a biological product that is highly similar to a licensed reference biological product notwithstanding minor differences in clinically inactive components, and for which there are no clinically meaningful differences between the biological product and the reference product in terms of the safety, purity, and potency of the product.
Page 33
QUESTION 27. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTV ElPTiAyNg==
Consider the following statements with respect to Finance Commission of India:
1. After every five years the Parliament of India forms a Finance Commission.
2. The first finance commission of India was formed immediately after the Independence.
3. The recommendations of the Finance commission are not binding on the government.
4. The term of office of the chairman and members of the finance commission is 5 years, but they are eligible for reappointment.
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 3 only Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Finance Commission (Art. 280)
· Article 280 : President of India ( not the Parliament ) forms a Finance Commission (a quasi-judicial body) every 5th Year or earlier, with 1 chairman and 4 members . Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
· They hold office for such period as specified by the president in his order. Eligible for reappointment . Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
Page 34
· Recommendations are not binding on the government but usually not rejected . Hence statement 3 is correct.
· 1st Finance Commission - The First Finance Commission of India was appointed in 1951 , for the period 1952-57 by the President of India and was chaired by K. C. Neogy . Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
QUESTION 28. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTV ElPTiAyNw==
Under Mughal administration who among the following had the title of Diwan-i-ala?
a) Mir Bakshi
b) Mir Saman
Explanation
Wazir
· The position of the wazir was revived under the Mughals under whom various heads of departments functioned.
· He was the principal link between the ruler and the administration .
· Akbar reorganized the central machinery of administration on the basis of the division of power between various departments. In his determination to curb the powers of the wazir, he took away the financial powers from him, which was a big jolt to the wazir's power.
· The head of the revenue department continued to be wazir, but he was no longer the principal adviser to the ruler, but an expert in revenue affairs having the title of Diwan or Diwan-i- ala .
· Diwan used to inspect all transactions and payments in all departments and supervised all provincial diwans.
Mir Bakshi
· The head of the military administration was Mir Bakshi who was also considered as head of the nobility .
· Recommendations for appointment to mansabs or for promotions were made to the emperor after duly endorsed by him only. o Once the emperor accepted the recommendation, it was sent to diwan for confirmation and for assigning a jagir to the appointee.
Page 35
· Mir Bakshi was also the he ad of the intelligence and information agencies of the empire.
· Barids (intelligence officers) and Waqia-navis (news reporters) were posted to all parts of the empire. Their reports were presented to the emperor at the court through Mir Bakshi.
· He kept a strict watch over proper maintenance of the sanctioned size of armed contingents and war equipage by the mansabdars.
Mir Saman
· He was the offi cer in-charge of the royal household and royal karkhanas .
· He was responsible for all kinds of purchases, manufacturing of different articles for the use, and their storage for the royal household.
· The maintenance of etiquette at the court, the control of the royal bodyguard was all under his supervision.
QUESTION 29. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTV ElPTiAyOA==
Match the following pairs in the context of Akbar’s reign:
a) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A
b) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
c) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
d) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A Correct Answer: B
Explanation
· The Muqaddam was the village headman and the Patwari looked after the village revenue records.
Page 36
· The Amalguzar or Amil was the revenue collector . His duty was to access and supervise the revenue collection. He was expected to increase the land under cultivation and induce the peasants to pay revenue willingly.
· The governor of the port was called Mutasaddi who was directly appointed by the Emperor. The Mutasaddi collected taxes on merchandise and maintained a custom house. He also supervised the mint house at the port.
· The Quanungo kept all the records of land in the Pargana.
Hence option B is correct .
QUESTION 30. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTV ElPTiAyOQ==
Akbar introduced the mansabdari system in his administration. With reference to this, consider the following statements:
1. The mansab rank assigned to an officer was not hereditary.
2. The mansabdar's position in the official hierarchy was decided by the sawar rank i.e. the number of cavalry men maintained by him.
3. Under 10-20 rule, a mansabdar for every 10 cavalrymen had to maintain 20 horses.
a) 1 only
c) 2 only
Explanation
· Under this system, every officer was assigned a rank (mansab).
· The lowest rank was 10 and the highest was 5,000 for the nobles.
o For instance, Raja Man Singh and Mirza Aziz Koka were honoured with the rank of 7,000 each.
o The mansab rank was not hereditary . Hence statement 1 is correct.
Page 37
o All appointments and promotions as well as dismissals were directly made by the emperor.
· The ranks (mansabs) were further divided into two – Zat and Sawar
· Zat means personal status of a person in the administration hierarchy, which also decided the salary due to him.
· Sawar rank indicated the number of cavalrymen (sawars) a person was required to maintain.
· The mansabdar's position in the official hierarchy was decided by the Zat rank . Henc e statement 2 is incorrect.
· The Chehra (descriptive roll of every soldier) and Dagh System (branding of horses) was followed.
· Ideally 10-20 rule was followed which meant that, for every 10 cavalrymen, the Mansabdar had to maintain 20 horses. A sawar with only one horse was considered to be only half a sawar. Hence statement 3 is correct.
· As a matter of fact, the Mughal Mansabdars formed the highest paid service in the world.
· In addition of meeting his personal expenses, the Mansabdar had to maintain a stipulated quota of horses, elephants, camels, mules, and carts.
· The only drawback of Mughals was lack of a strong and effective navy .
· Different terminologies were used for persons holding different ranks
o Mansabdar : Person holding 500 zat
o Amirs : Person holding ranks from 500 to 2500
o Amirl-i-umda : Person holding ranks from 2500 and above.
QUESTION 31. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTV ElPTiAzMA==
One Sun, One World, One Grid initiative recently seen in news has been proposed by:
a) China
b) India
c) Brazil
Explanation
Page 38
Why in News?
· The Union Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has put calls for proposals to the One Sun, One World, One Grid (OSOWOG) initiative on hold till further notice.
About OSOWOG initiative
· OSOWOG initiative was proposed by India to set up a framework for facilitating global cooperation which aims at building a global ecosystem of interconnected renewable energy resources that can be easily shared.
· Parent Body The Union Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
· Objective To build global consensus about sharing solar resources among more than 140 countries of West Asia and South-East Asia.
· The vision is ‘ The Sun Never Sets’ and is a constant at some geographical location, globally, at any given point of time.
· This grid shall be interconnected with the African power pools also at the later stage.
· It has been taken up under the technical assistance program of the World Bank .
· With India at the center, the solar spectrum can be divided into two broad zones
o Far East – include countries like Myanmar, Vietnam, Thailand, Lao, and Cambodia.
o Far West covering the Middle East and the African region.
· The OSOWOG would have three phases
1. In the first phase, Middle East, South Asia and Southeast Asia would be interconnected .
2. In the second phase, solar and other renewable energy resources rich regions would be interconnected .
3. The third phase– global interconnection of the power transmission grid.
· Potential and benefits of the initiative India would generate 40% of power from non-fossil fuels by 2030 and has called for solar energy supply across borders giving the mantra of ‘ One World One Sun One Gri d’.
QUESTION 32. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTV ElPTiAzMQ==
Which among the following correctly defines the term Sin tax?
a) A tax imposed to increase the price of certain products that are deemed harmful to society and individuals.
Page 39
b) A tax imposed on certain companies that cause negative externalities.
c) A tax imposed in west-asian countries on people who commit sin that are deemed to be harmful to scoiety at large.
Explanation
· A sin tax is an excise tax specifically levied on certain goods deemed harmful to society and individuals , for example alcohol and tobacco, candies, drugs, soft drinks, fast foods, coffee, sugar, gambling, and pornography.
· In contrast to Pigovian taxes , which are to pay for the damage to society caused by these goods, sin taxes are used to increase the price in an effort to lower demand, or failing that, to increase and find new sources of revenue.
· Increasing a sin tax is often more popular than increasing other taxes.
· However, these taxes have often been criticized for burdening the poor, taxing the physically and mentally dependent, and being part of a nanny state.
Regulation in India:
· According to the current GST rate structure, some of the sin goods that attract a cess include cigarettes, pan masala and aerated drinks. Apart from sin goods, luxury products like cars also attract a cess.
Global examples:
· Countries such as the UK, Sweden and Canada impose Sin Taxes on a series of products and services, from tobacco and alcohol to lotteries, gambling and fuel, which chip in with sizeable revenues. Mexico imposed a Soda Tax in 2013.
Why is it important?
· That excessive consumption of tobacco, alcohol or empty calories heightens health risks such as cancer, heart conditions and obesity, is quite well-documented by now.
· Evidence from other countries that have imposed Sin Taxes shows the consumption of cigarettes and soft drinks has fallen significantly, after the new tax.
· The huge revenues many State governments in India rake in from liquor sales (and taxes) show that Sin Taxes can mean a bonanza for the State.
Hence option A is correct.
Page 40
Recently Finance Minister launched an Online Dashboard for the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP). In this context consider the following statements:
1. Under this an outlay of 10 lakh crore has been made to provide world-class infrastructure projects over next 5 years.
2. Only economic infrastructure projects will be covered under it.
3. Centre, state, and private sector all three will have a share in implementing these projects
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
d) 1 and 2 only Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Context: Finance Minister launches an Online Dashboard for the National Infrastructure Pipeline.
Key points:
· The online dashboard is envisaged as a one stop solution for all stakeholders looking for information on infrastructure projects in New India.
· The dashboard is being hosted on the India Investment Grid (IIG) (www.indiainvestmen tgrid.gov.in).
About NIP:
When was it announced?
In the budget speech of 2019-2020, Finance Minister announced an outlay of Rs 100 lakh Crore for infrastructure projects over the next 5 years. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
What is it?
· NIP is a first-of-its-kind initiative to provide world-class infrastructure across the country and improve the quality of life for all citizens.
· It will improve project preparation, attract investments (both domestic & foreign) into infrastructure, and will be crucial for attaining the target of becoming a $5 trillion economy by FY 2025.
· Covers both economic and social infrastructure projects. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Report by Task force:
Page 41
The task force headed by Atanu Chakraborty on National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP), in May 2020, submitted its final report to the Finance Minister.
Important recommendations and observations made:
· Investment needed: 111 lakh crore over the next five years (2020-2025) to build infrastructure projects and drive economic growth.
· Energy, roads, railways, and urban projects are estimated to account for the bulk of projects (around 70%).
· The centre (39 percent) and state (40 percent) are expected to have an almost equal share in implementing the projects, while the private sector has 21 percent share. Hence statement 3 is correct.
· Aggressive push towards asset sales.
· Monetisation of infrastructure assets.
QUESTION 34. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTV ElPTiAzMw==
Panchakarma is a method which includes five procedures for cleansing the body. In this context consider the following pairs:
Which of the above given pair/s is/are correctly matched?
a) 2 only
d) 3 only Correct Answer: A
Explanation
· Panchakarma is a method of cleansing the body of all the unwanted waste after lubricating it. 5 karmas(procedures) included within this are: These processes are:
Page 42
1. Vamanam (Emesis Therapy or vomiting): It clear the upper gastro till the duodenum (end of stomach) and part of the respiratory tract. Hence pair 3 is incorrect.
2. Virechanam (Purgation): induced purgation clears the lower gastro from the duodenum (end of stomach) till the exit.
3. Aasthaapana (Therapeutic Decoction Enema) - decoction enema cleanses the area from the transverse colon till the anus.
4. Anuvaasan (Oil enema): It lubricate the rectal area and take out all the lipid soluble waste out through the anus. Hence pair 2 is correct.
5. Nasyam : nasal instillation of medicated substances to clear respiratory tract. Hence pair 1 is incorrect.
QUESTION 35. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTV ElPTiAzNA==
Food fotification in recent times has been gaining prominence due to increase in malnutrition. With reference to this, consider the following statements:
1. It is a practice of deliberately increasing the content of essential micro & macro nutrients to improve the nutrient content of food.
2. Only those nutrients are added that are not originally present in the food.
3. Food fortification is not just a complementary strategy but can act as a cheap replacement of traditional balanced diet.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Context: Recently Government decided to prepare roadmap for distribution of fortified rice
What is Food fortification?
Page 43
· Fortification is a practice of deliberately increasing the content of essential micro-nutrients (i.e. vitamins, minerals etc.) to improve the nutrient content of food. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
· These micronutrients may or may not have been originally present in the foods. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
· Food crop like Rice can be fortified by adding a micronutrient powder to the rice that adheres to the grains or spraying of the surface of ordinary rice grains in several layers with a vitamin and mineral mix to form a protective coating.
· Food fortification is only a complementary strategy and it is not a replacement of balanced diet. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Benefits of food fortification
· Helps in combatting Hidden hunger (micronutrient malnutrition)
· Safer way to improve nutrition of people as it does not pose any health risk.
· High Cost benefit ratio. - According to Copenhagen Consensus, Rs 1 spend on food fortification can lead to Rs 9 benefit to economy.
· Since it does not require change in food patterms, it is socio-culturally acceptable to people.
· Food fortification does not change taste, aroma, texture of food.
Food Fortification is important for India as:
· According to UNICEF report 80% adolescents in India suffer from " hidden hunger
· Unbalanced diet has led to deficiency of micronutrient like Folic acid, Iron, Iodine etc.
· According to National Family health Survey:
- About 4% of children (6 month-60months) are anaemic
- 1% of women in reproductive age are anaemic.
- 7% of under 5 children are underweight.
Government of India Initiatives towards Food Fortification
· Government of India has approved the Centrally Sponsored Pilot Scheme on “ Fortification of Rice and its Distribution under Public Distribution System.
· FSSAI made standards for fortification in the Food Safety and Standards (Fortification of Foods) Regulations , 2018, for five staples — wheat, rice, milk, oil and salt.
· Government has mandated the distribution of fortified rice, wheat flour, and double fortified salt in schemes such as Integrated Child Development Services, Mid-Day meal etc.
Page 44
· Indian Food Laboratory Network system (INFoLNET): It aims to establish transparent food testing network by FSSAI. It intends to do so by bringing all stakeholders to a common platform.
· +F Logo has been launched by FSSAI to identify fortified food.
· FSSAI has launched Food Fortification Resource Centre (FFRC ) to promote large-scale fortification of food.
Concerns over large scale food fortification
· Negative impact over diet diversification. Diet may become wheat & rice centric while benefits of millets may remain untapped.
· May have negative impact over small players such as millers of rice and wheat in food supply chain.
· Many issues like vitamin A deficiency is localized. hence large-scale fortification may lead to unnecessary risk exposure to those who do not need it.
Food fortification vs Bio fortifications
· Bio fortification focuses on making plants nutritious when plant is growing unlike conventional food fortification where nutrients are added when the food is being processed.
· Bio fortification is considered more sustainable and cost effective .
QUESTION 36. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTV ElPTiAzNQ==
Match the following pairs with reference to important drugs and the diseases they treat:
a) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A
b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C
Page 45
Explanation
Pretomanid
· Pretomanid is a new drug for treatment of resistant forms of tuberculosis.
· US Food & Drug Administration approved Pretomanid tablets in combination with bedaquiline & linezolid.
· The drug proved effective in its clinical trials as 90% of the patients receiving medication recovered after 6 months of treatment which is almost thrice the success of the current treatment process.
· Pretomanid was developed by a non-profit organization, The Global Alliance for TB Drug Development (TB Alliance).
Hydroxychloroquine
Context : Recently there was request from several countries to India to export hydroxychloroquine to these nations. India agreed to send the drug to 55 such nations including US.
About Hydroxychloroquine
· Hydroxychloroquine belongs to class of drugs called antimalarial and is used to prevent & treat acute attacks of Malaria.
· It is also used to treat rheumatoid arthritis & lupus (inflammatory disease caused when the immune system attacks its own tissues.).
· It's an oral prescription drug.
· India manufactures 70% of world supply of Hydroxychloroquine.
· A combination of anti-malarial drug chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine is among the four lines of possible COVID-19 treatment that are being investigated by the global Solidarity trials under the aegis of the World Health Organization (WHO ).
Dolutegravir (DTG)
· It is an antiretroviral medication used to treat HIV/AIDS
· Recently WHO has recommended Dolutegravir (DTG) as preferred first line & second line treatment for all persons with HIV.
· DTG is associated with a more rapid viral suppression and higher genetic resistance barrier which makes it effective against drug resistance .
· DTG is also effective, safer and has lesser side effects in comparison to drug like Efavirenz (EFV)
· It is on the World Health Organization's List of Essential Medicines
Page 46
QUESTION 37. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTV ElPTiAzNg==
Recently Avian Botulism Killed 18,000 birds in & around Rajasthan’s Sambhar Lake. In this context consider the following statements:
1. Botulism is a natural toxin produced by a parasite clostridium botulinum that is commonly found in soil, river & sea water.
2. Botulinum affects both animals and humans.
3. Botulinum needs anaerobic conditions for its growth.
a) 3 only
c) 2 only
Explanation
Avian Botulism
Context: Recently Avian Botulism Killed 18,000 birds in & around Rajasthan’s Sambhar Lake. According to experts, occurrence of following conditions led to growth of bacteria:
1. good monsoon,
2. incursion of nutrient rich substrate from decaying plants & animals and
3. large population of crustaceans (e.g. crabs, shrimps), invertebrates, planktons which acted as hosts for bacteria.
About Avian Botulism
· Botulism is a natural toxin produced by a bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) commonly found in the soil, river & sea water. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
· There are around eight types — A, B, C1, C2, D, E, F, and G — of botulinum toxin and they are
· distinguishable when diagnosed.
· Botulism binds to nerve endings and interferes with muscle movement.
· Botulinum affects both humans and animals, but the type of the toxin varies — botulinum C in birds and A, B and E in humans. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Page 47
1. Convert waste to safely disposable substances.
2. Convert waste plastic into usable oil.
3. Convert biomass to syngas.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Why in News?
· Plastic from used personal protective equipment (PPE) can be transformed into renewable liquid fuels using chemical a process called pyrolysis, says a new study.
About Pyrolysis
· Pyrolysis is a thermochemical treatment, which can be applied to any organic (carbon- based) product .
· In this treatment, material is exposed to high temperature, and in the absence of oxygen goes through chemical and physical separation into different molecules.
· The decomposition takes place thanks to the limited thermal stability of chemical bonds of materials, which allows them to be disintegrated by using the heat. The word is coined from the Greek-derived elements pyro “ fire ” and lysis “ separating ”.
· It is considered as the first step in the processes of gasification or combustion .
· Applications Aspirational applications of pyrolysis would convert biomass into syngas and biochar, waste plastics back into usable oil, or waste into safely disposable substances.
Page 48
QUESTION 39. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTV ElPTiAzOA==
Which among the following important event/s is/are associated with the reign of Jahangir?
1. Grant of farman to British to setup factory at Surat.
2. Formation of a new religion called Din-i-Illahi.
3. Development of Pietra Durra architecture style.
4. Beheading of fifth Sikh guru, Arjun Dev.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1 and 3 only Correct Answer: B
Explanation
o The British visited Machlipatnam during Jahangir’s reign. Captain Hawkins (1608-11) and T homas Roe (1615 -1619) visited his court. Thomas Roe got the farman for setting up an English factory at Surat. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o The practice of putting up buildings in marble and decorating the walls with floral designs made of semi-precious stones (known as Pietra Durra ) started during his reign. Hence statement 3 is correct.
o Jahangir built Moti Masjid at Lahore and his own mausoleum at Lahore. He laid a number of gardens such as the Shalimar and Nishat gardens in Kashmir.
o The fifth Sikh guru, Arjun Dev , was beheaded for supporting the rebel prince Khusrau. Hen ce statement 4 is correct.
Note: In 1582 CE, Akbar promulgated a new religion called Din-i-Ilahi/Tauhind-i-Ilahi (Divin e Monotheism), which believes in one God and Sul-i-Kul / Peace to all. It contained good points of all religions and the basics were rational. Hence statement 2 is incorrect .
Page 49
Who among the following Mughal ruler crowned himself with the title of Alamgir ?
a) Akbar
b) Aurangzeb
c) Babur
Explanation
· In 1657-1658, there was conflict over succession amongst Shah Jahan's sons. Aurangzeb was victorious and Shah Jahan was imprisoned for the rest of his life in Agra. Aurangzeb crowned himself with the title of "Alamgir" (Conqueror of the world) . Hence option B is correct.
QUESTION 41. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTVE lPTiA0MA==
There has been rise in number of cases of suicides in India in recent times. In this context consider the following statements:
1. Attempt to commit suicide has been criminalized under Section 309 of the Indian Penal Code.
2. According to Mental Healthcare Act 2017, a person who attempts to commit suicide needs care & attention and hence shall be punished only in exception.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
d) None of the above Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Context : India has the highest suicide rate in the South-East Asian region, according to the World Health Organization report released last year.
1. India’s suicide rate is at 16.5 suicides per 100,000 people.
2. India also had the third-highest female suicide rate (14.7) in the world.
· Suicide was decriminalised in India in 2017, but Section 309 of the Indian Penal Code still stays.
Page 50
Who can be booked under Section 309 IPC? What punishment does it carry?
· Anyone who survives an attempted suicide can be booked under Section 309 IPC, which deals with “Attempt to commit suicide”. Hence statement 1 is correct.
· The law, brought in by the British in the 19th century, reflected the thinking of the time, when killing or attempting to kill oneself was considered a crime against the state, as well as against religion.
Was it repealed?
· No. The section continues to remain in the IPC.
· What has happened though, is that The Mental Healthcare Act (MHCA), 2017, which came into force in July 2018, has significantly reduced the scope for the use of Section 309 IPC — and made the attempt to commit suicide punishable only as an exception. Hence statement 2 is correct.
1. Section 115(1) of The MHCA says: “Notwithstanding anything contained in section 309 of the Indian Penal Code any person who attempts to commit suicide shall be presumed, unless proved otherwise, to have severe stress and shall not be tried and punished under the said Code.”
Role and responsibility of the government:
· Section 115(2) says that “The appropriate Government shall have a duty to provide care, treatment and rehabilitation to a person, having severe stress and who attempted to commit suicide, to reduce the risk of recurrence of attempt to commit suicide.”
Concerns and issues associated with this section:
1. Use of this Section can potentially deprive a victim of treatment in the golden hour, as hospitals wait for a go-ahead from police in what would be seen as a “medico-legal case”.
2. It is possible that unscrupulous hospital authorities may misuse this situation and charge extra to “hush up” the case by not informing the police; similar extortion is possible on the part of corrupt police personnel as well.
3. All of this is in addition to the trauma and harassment that an already severely distressed individual and people around him/her would likely be going through.
Arguments in favour of Section 309: why it should be retained?
· There are occasions when people show up at government offices and threaten to kill themselves if their demands are not met. It is in these cases, where police suspect that the person does not intend to commit suicide but is using the threat as a way to unfairly pressure or blackmail the system . And during such instances this section need to be used.
· If 309 is repealed, there will be no provision to take action against those who intend to create trouble of this sort.
Need of the hour:
Page 51
· Section 309 IPC can be redefined in such a manner where it can still be leveraged in law and order situations, and not be used against those who are suffering from genuine mental health issues.
Observations made by the Supreme Court and Law Commissions:
· In ‘Gian Kaur vs State of Punjab’, 1996, a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of Section 309.
· In 1971, the Law Commission in its 42nd Report recommended the repeal of Section 309 IPC. The IPC (Amendment) Bill, 1978, was even passed by Rajya Sabha, but before it could be passed by Lok Sabha, Parliament was dissolved, and the Bill lapsed.
· In 2008, the Law Commission in its 210th Report, said that an attempt to suicide needed medical and psychiatric care, and not punishment.
· In March 2011, the Supreme Court too recommended to Parliament that it should consider the feasibility of deleting the section.
Quote :
· Sociologist Emile Durkheim had famously hypothesised that ‘suicides are a result of not just psychological or emotional factors but social factors as well’.
QUESTION 42. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRVUVTVE lPTiA0MQ==
Which among the following is/are the global and national initiative/s for fight against Tuberculosis?
1. Moscow Declaration
2. London Declaration
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 3 and 4 only Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Tuberculosis
Page 52
· Caused by a bacterium called Mycobacterium tuberculosis
· Usually TB bacteria attacks lungs ( Pulmonary TB). But it can also attack other body parts (Extra-Pulmonary TB) such as kidney, spine, brain, etc.
· Spread through the air from one person to another. When a person breathes in TB bacteria, the bacteria can settle in the lungs and begin to grow.
· Symptoms include bad cough, chest pain, coughing up blood or sputum, weakness or fatigue.
· Vaccination: Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccine is administered to children to protect them against TB.
Drug Resistance TB : Occur when bacteria become resistant to TB drugs
Types :
· Mono-Resistance : Resistant to first line anti-TB drug only
· Poly-Resistance : Resistance to more than one first line anti-TB drug other than isoniazid & rifampicin
· Multi drug resistance (MDR): Resistance to at least both isoniazid & rifampicin
· Extensive Drug Resistance : MDR + Resistance to any fluoroquinolone and at least one of the three second line injectable drugs (kanamycin, amikacin & capreomycin).
· Total Drug Resistance TB : Resistance to all first line & second line TB drugs
Note : Recently an Indian firm developed a diagnostic test called TruNat which can diagnose TB within one hour as well as test drug resistance to rifampicin. It is being validated by WHO.
TB in India
o India has highest number of TB cases (27%).
o India also has maximum number of drug resistant TB (27% of the cases).
Government Initiatives against TB
· TB Free India Campaign.
· National Strategic plan 2017-2025 for TB elimination
o It aims to achieve a rapid decline in burden of TB, morbidity and mortality while working towards elimination of TB in India by 2025.
Page 53
o It provides goals & strategies in response to diseases during the period of 2017-25 and direct interventions of all stakeholders to important interventions to eliminate TB.
o It targets to eliminated Tb 5 years ahead of targets under SDG
o Relies on 4 Strategic Pillars: “Detect - Treat - Prevent - Build" (DTPB).
o To be annually reviewed by TB elimination board chaired by PM
· TB Harega Desh Jeetega Campaign to improve and expand the reach of TB care services across the country by 2022.
· Va

Date post:	10-Sep-2021
Category:	Documents
Upload:	others
View:	2 times
Download:	0 times

ourstudycircle.inQUESTION 1. MjcxMTErQW1hbiBCaGFydGkrYW1hbmJoYXJ0aTVAZ21haWwuY29tKzg4MjY5NDcxNDdRV...

Documents