SEMESTER IV PHYSICAL PHARMACEUTICS II (BP403TP) …

Dr. C. J. Tank, Associate Professor, Page 1 Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh

SEMESTER IV

PHYSICAL PHARMACEUTICS II

(BP403TP)

Multiple Choice Questions

INDEX

Chapter. No. Chapter Name Page No. Total Questions

1 Colloidal Dispersion 2 60

2 Rheology 11 54

3 Coarse Dispersion: Suspension 19 30

Coarse Dispersion: Emulsion 24 56

4 Micromeritics 34 44

5 Drug Stability: Chemical Kinetics 41 35

Drug Stability 47 40

319

PHYSICAL PHARMACEUTICS II (BP403TP)

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 2

Chapter 1: Colloidal Dispersion

1. An example for colloidal systems is:

a. clays and gels

b. ointments and pastes

c. solutions of soaps and proteins

d. suspensions and emulsions

Ans: c

2. The criterion to call a system ‘colloid’ is

a. a fine state of subdivision of dispersed phase

b. dispersed particles are in the size range of 1 nm to 1 µm

c. interface is very extensive

d. the presence of dispersed phase in a dispersion medium

Ans: b

3. Solutions of proteins and starch in water are the examples of the colloidal type:

a. hydrophilic

b. hydrophobic

c. lyophilic

d. lyophobic

Ans: a

4. Electrodialysis method is employed in the colloidal chemistry for the purpose of :

a. Indentification

b. preparation

c. Purification

d. Stabilization

Ans: c

5. Silica gel is an example for the type of gel:

a. dilatants

b. elastic

c. rigid

d. thixotropic

Ans: c

6. Which of the following DO NOT form colloid spontaneously?

a. association

b. lyophilic

c. lyophobic

d. micellar

Ans: c

7. Sulphur sol is an example of colloidal type:

a. Association

b. hydrophilic

c. lyophilic

d. lyophobic

Ans: d



8. Thixotropic type of behavior is shown by the gel:

a. bentonite

b. pectin

c. silica

d. starch

Ans: a

9. In the determination of size, shape and structure of colloidal particles, which one of the following CAN

NOT be used?

a. electron microscope

b. instrument measuring light scattering

c. Langmuir film balance

d. ultramicroscope

Ans: d

10. Surfactant solutions are termed as association colloids when their concentrations are:

a. insufficient to saturate the bulk phase

b. insufficient to saturate the interface

c. less than critical micellar concentration (cmc)

d. more than cmc

Ans: d

11. Name the type of colloidal dispersion to which electrolytes are normally added in small quantities to

stabilize:

a. association

b. lyophilic

c. lyophobic

d. micellar

Ans: c

12. Protective colloids DO NOT:

a. aid in dispersion

b. decrease the zeta potential

c. lower the interfacial tension

d. offer a mechanical barrier

Ans: c

13. Which one of the following colloids is difficult to prepare?

a. association

b. hydrophilic

c. hydrophobic

d. lyophilic

Ans: c

14. In high concentrations, electrolytes destabilize a lyophilic sol by a process termed as :

a. coagulation

b. dilution

c. salting out

d. solvation

Ans: c



15. Which quality of the dispersed phase is responsible for the increased viscosity of a hydrophilic

colloidal dispersion?

a. charge

b. shape

c. size

d. surface area

Ans: d

16. Dispersion of acacia in water gives the colloid of type:

a. association

b. negative

c. neutral

d. positive

Ans: b

17. Addition of alcohol to a hydrophilic colloid leads to:

a. crystallization

b. hydration

c. precipitation

d. stabilization

Ans: c

18. The critical value of zeta potential (in milli volts) for a stable colloid (except gold sol) is:

a. from 20 to 50

b. from 50 to 100

c. less than 20

d. mor than 100

Ans: a

19. If kinetic energy of interaction is about 25 kT (Where k is gas constant), the system can be considered

to have:

a. deflocculated state

b. long half life

c. short half life

d. weak attractiton forces

Ans: b

20. In foams, the dispersed phase and dispersion medium, respectively, are:

a. gas and liquid

b. gas and solid

c. liquid and gas

d. solid and gas

Ans: a

21. The characteristic of a lyophobic sol is that:

a. electrolytes in small amounts induce stabilization

b. it is reversible

c. particles have high electric charge

d. viscosity increases by the presence of particles

Ans: c



22. Hydrosol refers to a system in which the dispersed phase and dispersion medium, respectively, are:

a. gas and water

b. liquid and water

c. solid and water

d. water and solid

Ans: c

23. Electrodialysis is used, when impurities in a sol are:

a. amphiphiles

b. colloids

c. electrolytes

d. nonelctrolytes

Ans: c

24. Under ultramicroscope, colloid particles appear as:

a. bright specks against dark background

b. concentric rings

c. dark specks against bright background

d. fluorescent specks

Ans: a

25. Which one of the following properties is extensively applied for determining the molecular weight of

polymer?

a. depression of freezing point

b. elevation of boiling point

c. lowering of vapour pressure

d. osmotic pressure

Ans: d

26. Aerosol is the reverse of :

a. emulsion

b. liquid foam

c. smoke

d. solid foam

Ans: b

27. In the determination of the gold number of a protective colloid, the endpoint is indicated by:

a. measuring the change in particle size

b. noting sedimentation volume of gold

c. observing the color change

d. weighing of the precipitate

Ans: c

28. The semipermeable membrane used in haemodialysis is:

a. cellophane

b. cellulose acetate

c. polyethene

d. polyvinyl acetate

Ans: a



29. The stability of acacia in water is due to:

a. formation of micelles

b. hydration of solids

c. lowering interfacial tension

d. presence of electrical charge

Ans: b

30. The molecular weight of dispersed solids in a colloidal system can be determined using an

instrument:

a. ultracentrifuge

b. ultrafilters

c. ultramicroscope

d. zeta meter

Ans: a

Pee Vee Publication

31. When the size of particle is less than 1nm then it is called

a. Molecular dispersions

b. Colloidal dispersions

c. Suspension

d. Emulsion

Ans: a

32. The movement of colloidal particles through a liquid under the influence of electric field is called

a. Electrophoresis

b. Electro-osmosis

c. Electro chemical reaction

d. Electrodialysis

Ans: a

33. The potential difference develop when particles settle under the influence of gravity is called

a. Streaming potential

b. Oxidation Potential

c. Reduction potential

d. Sedimentation potential

Ans: d

34. When distance between the particle are large, the particles experience attractive force and aggregates

are formed. This is known as

a. Primary minimum

b. Potential barrier

c. secondary minimum

d. Interparticle distance

Ans: c

35. According to schulze-Hardy rule, the precipitating power increases rapidly with the

a. Presence of valence or charge of the ions

b. Lowering the interfacial tension

c. Decreasing the freezing point

d. Elevationof boiling point

Ans: a



36. When a beam of light is pass through a colloidal solution, the path of light gets illuminated. This

phenomenon is known as

a. Brownian movement

b. Diffusion

c. Tyndall effect

d. Donnan effect

Ans: c

37. The continuous collisions between the colloidal particles and molecules of dispersion medium

produce zigzag movement of colloidal particles which is known as


b. Tyndall effect

c. Diffusion

d. Sedimentation

Ans: a

38. The protective ability of colloids is measured as

a. Zeta potential

b. Streaming potential

c. Gold number

d. None of the above

Ans. C

39. If the gold number is less then the protective action will be

a. more

b. Less

c. Half

d. Zero

Ans: a

40. In sol, the dispersed phase and dispersion medium are

a. Solid and liquis

b. Liquid and liquid

c. Solid and solid

d. Liquid and Gas

Ans: a

Prepared From Book – CVS

41. Homogenous phase (True solution) having size range of

a. 0.5 to 1.0 µm

b. <0.1 nm

c. >0.01 µm

d. <0.01 µm

Ans: d



42. Heterogeneous phase (Coarse dispersion) having size range of …

a. 0.5 to 1.0 µm

b. 10 to 100 µm

c. 10 to 1000 µm

d. 1 to 10 µm

Ans: c

43. Solubility of Drug can be improved by…

a. Targeting drug to specific organ

b. Addition of emulsifying agent

c. Addition of thickening agent

d. Addition of Surface active agent

Ans: d

44. Targeting of drugs to specific organs can be achieved by

a. Liposomes

b. Emulsion

c. Syrup

d. Suspension

Ans: a

45. The following statement is appropriate for Molecular Dispersion

a. Diffusion rate is slow

b. Impermeable across semipermeable membrane

c. Does not scatter light

d. Particle size less than 1.0 µm

e. All of above

Ans: c

46. The following statement is NOT appropriate for Molecular dispersion

a. Shows tyndall effect

b. Does not scatter light

c. Diffusion rate is rapid

d. Does not settle on ultracentrifugation

Ans: a

47. The following statement is true for Colloidal dispersion

a. Diffusion rate is slow

b. Impermeable across semipermeable membrane

c. Shows tyndall effect

d. Settles on ultracentrifugation

e. All of above

f. None of above

Ans: e

48. In _____Colloids, dispersed particles have a greater affinity to the dispersion medium.

a. Lyophilic colloids

b. Lyophobic colloids

c. Association colloids

d. Molecular colloids

Ans: a



49. Dispersion of rubber or polystyrene in benzene or ethyl methyl ketone is referred to as________

a. Hydrophilic colloids

b. Lyophilic colloids

c. Lyophobic colloids

d. Hydrophobic colloids

Ans: b

50. Lyophobic colloids can be prepared by

a. Chemical method

b. Peptization method

c. Electric arc method

d. Ultrasonic treatment

e. All of above

f. None of above

Ans: e

Nirali Prakashan

51. A .......... is a mixture in which one substance of microscopically dispersed insoluble particles is

suspended through another substance.

(a) Suspension

(b) Colloid

(c) Emulsion

(d) None of the above

Ans:a

52. Few colloids are translucent because of the ..

(a) Tyndall effect

(b) Splitting effect

(c) Scattering


Ans:a

53. The comparatively fast sedimentation rate of the dispersed phase produced by means of gravity or

other forces this is characteristic of..............

(a) Colloidal dispersion

(b) Coarse dispersion

(c) Both of the above


Ans: b

54.The molecule in the molecular dispersion phase have size.............

(a) Less than 10 nm

(b) More than 1 nm

(c) Less than 1 nm

(d) More than 10 nm

Ans:c

55. The .......... colloids have strong attraction towards solvents.

(a) Lyophilic

(b) Lyophobic



(c) Associated


Ans:a

56........... is the method accountable for the development of stable dispersion of colloidal particles in

dispersion medium.

(a) Coacervation

(b) Peptization

(c) Flocculation

(d) Coagulation

Ans: b

57. The phenomenon which involves separation of macromolecular solutions into two liquid layers is

called as.........

(a) Liquid separation

(b) Coagulation

(c) Flocculation

(d) Coacervation

Ans:d

58 …..is directly proportional to the molecular weight of lyophilic colloid.

(a) Solubility

(b) Turbidity

(c) Density


Ans:b

59………..is the movement of dispersion medium below the impact of an electric field in the condition

when the movement of colloidal particles is prohibited with the help of an appropriate membrane.

(a) Electrosmosis

(b) Osmosis

(c) Photosmosis


Ans:a

60………..is the method of combining negatively and positively charged hydrophilic colloids.

(a) Coacervation

(b) Peptization

(c) Flocculation

(d) Coagulation

Ans: a



Chapter 2: Rheology CVS

1. Flocculated suspensions exhibit the flow of a type:

a. Dilatant

b. Newtonian

c. Plastic

d. Pseudoplastic

Ans: c

2. A limitation that is NOT related to the falling sphere viscometer:

a. Applicable to only less viscous liquids

b. Large volume of sample is required

c. Needs the sample to be transparent

d. Plug flow

Ans: d

3. In general, Newtonian fluids are expressed in terms of viscosity. A corresponding expression in non-

Newtonian fluids (in terms of viscosity) is:

a. apparent

b. dynamic

c. intrinsic

d. kinematic

Ans: a

4. One of the following is NOT a one point viscometer, but can be used for the same purpose. Pick the

viscometer of this type.

a. cup and bob

b. falling sphere

c. Ostwald

d. rolling ball

Ans: a

5. Fluidity is a term associated with newtoniam fluids. An equivalent term in plastic flow fluids is:

a. apparent viscosity

b. flexibility

c. mobility

d. plastic viscosity

Ans: c

6. Dilatant flow is characterized as a reverse phenomenon of:

a. newtoniam flow

b. plastic flow

c. pseudoplastic flow

d. rheopexy

Ans: c

7. Deflocculated suspension with high concentration of the dispersed solids exhibits the flow of type:

a. dilatant

b. newtoniam

c. plastic

d. pseudoplastic



Ans: a

8. In antithixotropy, the down-curve is frequently positioned to: (with respect to up-curve):

a. left.

b. origin

c. right

d. superimposible

Ans: c

9. At equilibrium, the thixotropic behavior of a pseudoplastic system exhibit the state of:

a. gel

b. paste

c. sol

d. wax

Ans: c

10. Which one of the following physical Property is NOT a rheological property?

a. body and slip

b. spreadability

c. surface tension

d. viscosity

Ans: c

11. The pseudoplastic flow behavior can be explained by:

a. apparent viscosity

b. area of hysteresis loop

c. hysteresis loop

d. yield value

Ans: a

12. Brookfield viscometer is an example of type:

a. cone and plate

b. extrusion

c. rotation sphere

d. rotating spindle

Ans: d

13. High viscosity indicates one of the following relationships in a system. Which is relevant?

a. free from intermolecular interactions

b. intermolecular attractions are stronger

c. intermolecular attractions are weaker

d. shape of the molecules is spherical

Ans: b

14. An emulsion of o/w type has the viscosity:

a. greater than that of the internal phase

b. greater than that of the vehicle

c. less than that of the internal phase

d. less than that of the vehicle

Ans: a



15. Creep testing is applied to analyse the viscoelastic property of:

a. emulsions

b. lotions

c. ointments

d. suspensions

Ans: c

16. The system that undergoes gel-to-sol transformation is known as:

a. elastic

b. permanent deformation

c. shear thickening

d. shear thinning

Ans: d

17. The type of viscosity specified in I.P. (Ostwald viscometer) is:

a. absolute viscosity

b. dynamic viscosity

c. kinematic viscosity

d. viscosity coefficient

Ans: c

18. After giving the i.m. injection of procaine penicillin G, the process of forming a depot in the muscle is

due to:

a. high yield value

b. low consistency

c. low yield value

d. rapid thixotropic recovery

Ans: d

19. Pick the reason for the calibration of an instrument.

a. most of the instruments are not reliable

b. to calculate the constant for the instrument

c. to calculate the relative property

d. to correct the errors in the working of an instrument

Ans: d

20. Plug flow in NOT observed in cone and plate viscometer. The reason is:

a. cleaning and filling of sample is easy

b. rate of shear is independent of the radius

c. shear can be maintained uniformly

d. temperature can be maintained uniformly

Ans: c

Pee Vee Publicaiton

21. The term rheology was invented by

a. Bingham and Crawford

b. Newton

c. Michaelis and Menten

d. Watson and Crick

Ans:a



22. According to the Newton's law of viscosity, "The shear stress in flowing fluid is__________ to the

rate of shear."

a. Inversely proportional

b. directly proportional

c. Square root

d. Perpendicular

Ans: b

23. The unit of viscosity is

a. Newton sec m-2

b. Newton sec2 m2

c. Newton sec-1 m-1

d. Newton

Ans: a

24. Fluidity is

a. reciprocal of density

b. reciprocal of surface tension

c. reciprocal of volume

d. reciprocal of viscosity

Ans: d

25. Kinematic viscosity is the ratio of dynamic viscosity to the____________

a. density of the fluid

b. plastic viscosity

c. volume of liquid to flow

d. specific gravity of fluid

Ans: a

26. The effect of temperature on the viscosity (η) of a liquid is expressed by

a. Stoke's Law

b. Newton's law

c. Arrhenius equation

d. Michaelis Menten equation

Ans: c

27. The reciprocal of mobility is known as

a. Apparent viscosity

b. plastic viscosity

c. Dynamic viscosity

d. Kinematic viscosity

Ans:b

28. Pseudoplastic flow are also known as

a. shear thinning system

b. shear thickening system

c. Elastic deformation

d. Plastic deformation

Ans: a



29. Dilatant flow is also known as

a. shear thinning system

b. shear thickening system


d. Plastic deformation

Ans:b

30. Negative Thixotropy is a phenomenon in which there is

a. increase in viscosity on down curve

b. increase in viscosity on up curve

c. decrease in viscosity on down curve

d. decrease in viscosity on up curve

Ans:a

31. Which of the following is not a viscometers

a. Capillary

b. Falling Sphere

c. Rotational

d. Drop weight

Ans:d

32. Which of the following viscometer is also called suspended-level viscometer

a. Ubbelohde viscometer

b. Capillary viscometer

c. Ostwald viscometer

d. Cone and plate viscometer

Ans:a

33. Pseudoplastic flow is generally exhibited by

a. Jellies

b. Suspension

c. Lotion

d. Colloids

Ans:a

34. Concentrated solid suspension generally exhibit

a. Dilatant flow

b. Pseudoplastic flow

c. Plastic flow

d. All of the above

Ans:c

35. Rheology is the

a. Science or study of the flow of a material.

b. Study of particle size

c. Study of formation of colloids

d. Study of formation of complex

Ans:a



36. The change in velocity between two planes of liquid which is separated by distance is called

a. Rate of shear

b. Shearing stress

c. Strain

d. Yield value

Ans:a

37. Which of the following viscometer is based on the principle of Stokes' Law.

a. Cup and Bob viscometer

b. Falling Sphere Viscometer

c. Cone and plate viscometer

d. Rotational viscometer

Ans:b

38. The resistance of a liquid to flow is termed as

a. Viscosity

b. Density

c. In ter facial tension

d. Surface tension

Ans:a

Nirali Prakashan

39. A shear stress-shear rate relationship is generally explained in the form of curve i.e. or………

(a) Rheogram

(b) Consistency curve



Ans:c

40. The cgs physical unit for kinematic viscosity is ...............

(a) Stokes (St)

(b) Pascale (PS)

(c) Newton


Ans:a

41. As the temperature increases, the viscosity of liquid...............

(a) Decreases

(b) Increases

(c) Sustainly increases

(d) Remains constant

Ans:a

42.The curve for a pseudo plastic material rheogram................

(a) starts at the origin

(b) starts at the top

(c) both of the above

(d) none of the above

Ans:a



43.In psedoplastic flow as shear stress increases, shear rate...............

(a) Increases

(b) Increases but linear

(c) Increases but not linear

(d) Decreases

Ans:c

44. Dilatant materials are frequently called as...............

(a) strain-thinning systems

(b) shear-thickening systems

(c) shear-thinning systems

(d) strain-thinning systems

Ans:b

45. The Rheogram of thixotropic material determined by...................

(a) Duration through which sample is exposed to any one shear rate.

(b) Rate at which shear increased or decreased.



Ans:c

46…....... is the isothermal and moderately slow recovery on standing of material of which stability lost

owing to shearing.

(a) Thermochemistry

(b) Viscosity

(c) Entiotropy

(d) Thixotropy

Ans:d

47.......is the alteration in the shape and the size of a body owing to applied external forces and internal

forces.

(a) Deformation

(b) Formation

(c) Conjugation


Ans:a

48…........is the deformation in term of relative displacement of the particles comprising the body.

(a) Strain

(b) Stress

(c) Shear

(d) State

Ans:a



Deformation of Solid (Pee Vee Publication)

1. Progressive, permanent deformation under constant load is called

a. Creep

b. Plastic deformation


d. Fragmentation

Ans:a

2. The value of Poisson ratio ranges from

a. 0.1 to 0.5

b. 0.001 to 0.01

c. 1 to 5

d. 2 to 4

Ans:a

3. The ratio of stress to strain is called

a. Poisson ratio

b. Young modulus

c. Shear strain

d. Elastic modulus

Ans:d

4. The unit of Stress is

a. Nm b. Nm-2

c. Ns d. Ns-2

Ans:b

5. The unit of Strain is

a. N

b. Nm-2

c. Nm2

d. Dimensionles

Ans: d

6. The ratio of increase in length to original length of bar is called

a. Compressive strain

b. Shear strain

c. Tensile strain

d. Depressive strain

Ans:c



Chapter 3: Coarse Dispersion: Suspension CVS

1. A wetting agent is included in the formulation of a suspension, particularly when the suspended

particles:

a. are hydrophobic

b. are more denser than the vehicle

c. are water soluble

d. have lesser interfacial tension

Ans: a

2. For a flocculated suspension, one of the following criterion is satisfied or established

a. High inter-particle repulsions

b. strong inter-particle attractions

c. weak inter-particle attractions

d. weak inter-particle repulsions

Ans:c

3. In stokes’ relationship, a parameter that greatly changes the velocity of settling is:

a. density of the liquid

b. density of particle

c. radius of the particle

d. viscosity of the medium

Ans: c

4. The protamine-zinc insulin suspension is prepared by a method viz.,:

a. altered pH precipitation

b. dispersion method

c. double decomposition

d. organic solvent precipitation

Ans: a

5. Methyl cellulose is a polymer, which is of a type:

a. anionic

b. amphilytic

c. cationic

d. non-ionic

Ans:d

6. For a flocculated suspension the degree of flocculation is observed to be one. The sedimentation

volume is also 1 (one). These values, respectively, indicate the limits:

a. lower and lower

b. lower and upper

c. upper and lower

d. upper and upper

Ans:b

7. For an ideal suspension, the sedimentation volume should be:

a. equal to one

b. less than one

c. more than one

d. zero

Ans:a



8. In case of suspensions, all statements below are true EXCEPT that:

a. it contains a suspending agent

b. it does not include a preservative

c. it is an injectable preparation

d. it is an oral preparation

Ans:b

9. In practice, an acceptable suspension should have particles:

a. of nearly 0.1 micrometer

b. which can be readily re-dispersible after they settle

c. which should form a cake after settling

d. should not settle

Ans:b

10. For oral administration of a suspension to a patient, which one of the factors is the most important?

a. acceptable color and odour

b. polyumorphism

c. specific surface area

d. viscosity

Ans:a

11. Which one of the following properties is applicable to suspensions?


b. laminar flow

c. rapid rate of sedimentation

d. strokes’ law

Ans:c

12. Suspended particles become flocculated in a suspension, because:

a. attractive forces between particles are appreciable

b. particles are packed closely

c. repulsive forces between particles are appreciable

d. vehicle rejects the particles

Ans:a

13. Structured vehicle is included in the formulation of a suspension, in order to:

a. decrease the interfacial tension

b. prevent the caking of the sediment

c. prevent the sedimentation of particles

d. reduce the size by chemical means

Ans:c

14. In the preparation of a structured vehicle, which one of the following substances is used?

a. bismuth subnitrate

b. ethyl alcohol

c. glycerin

d. methyl cellulose

Ans:d



15. Which type of colloidal material is used commonly in the preparation of a structured vehicle?

a. association

b. hydrophilic

c. hydrophobic

d. inorganic

Ans:b

16. When charcoal powder is dusted on the surface of water, the contact angle (in degrees) that the

charcoal exhibits is:

a. zero

b. one

c. 90

d. 180

Ans:d

17. A maximum sedimentation volume will be obtained when zeta potential is:

a. negative

b. neutral

c. positive

d. zero

Ans:d

18. A substance is dissolved in water. The suspension has exhibited a negative apparent zeta potential.

Identify the related substance.

a. aluminum chloride

b. bismuth subnitrate

c. gelatin

d. sulfaguanidine

Ans:d

19. Calcium hydrogen phosphate is dissolved in water. The apparent zeta potential initially is:

a. negative

b. neutral

c. positive

d. zero

Ans:a

20. Which one of these preparations is NOT qualified as a suspension.

a. barium meal for radiodiagnostic use

b. calamine lotion for antiseptic use

c. procaine penicillin G for intramuscular injection

d. vitamin B complex tonic as nutritional supplement

Ans:d



Pee Vee Publication

21. The ratio of the ultimate volume of sediment to the actual volume of sediment before settling is called

a. Sedimentation volume

b. Degree of flocculation

c. Emulsification volume

d. phase volume ratio

Ans:a

22. The ratio of the sedimentation volume in case of flocculated suspension to the sedimentation volume

in case of deflocculated suspension is called

a. Sedimentation volume

b. Degree of flocculation

c. Emulsification volume

d. phase volume ratio

Ans:b

23. The size of dispersed particles in coarse dispersion ranges from

a. 1 µm to 100 µm.

b. 1 nm to l00nm

c. 1mm to 100cm

d. Less than 1 µm

Ans:a

24. Which of the following are the desired features of good suspension:

a) The particles which settle down should not deposit at the bottom as hard cake. They must be

easily re-suspended by moderate shaking.

b) It should be free from grittiness.

c) It should be stable in case of physical, chemical and microbial attack.

d) All of the above

Ans:d

25. In flocculated suspension, the rate of sedimentation is

a. Low

b. More

c. Zero

d. 50%

Ans:b

26. If zeta potential of a suspension is high, then the system will be considered as

a. Deflocculation

b. Flocculation

c. Emulsion

d. Sedimentation

Ans:a



27. Which of the following is/are the properties of flocculated suspension?

a. Rate of sedimentation is high

b. On shaking sediment can be easily redispersed

c. It does not form hard cake

d. All of the above

Ans:d

28. The value of sedimentation volume (F) gives a knowledge about the____________of the suspension

a. physical stability

b. Incompatibility

c. Solubility

d. All of the above

Ans:a

29. Suspension is example of

a. Biphasic liquid dosage form

b. Solid dosage form

c. Semi-solid dosage form

d. All of the above

Ans:a

30. Acetates and Citrates are

a. Buffering agent

b. Colouring agents

c. Thickening agent

d. Flocculating agents

Ans:a



Chapter 3: Coarse Dispersion: Emulsion CVS

1. In an emulsion, the velocity of sedimentation is found to be negative. It means that the creaming is:

A. absent

B. in both the directions

C. in downward direction

D. in upward direction

Ans:D

2. The density of the dispersed phase is more than that of the dispersion medium. According to the

Stokes' equation, the creaming is:

A. at the center of the emulsion

B. in both the directions

C. in downward direction

D. in upward direction

Ans:C

3. When oil and water are triturated together, the interfacial free energy was observed to be increased.

What does it indicate?:

A. decrease in the interfacial tension

B. decrease in the stability

C. increase in stability

D. stable film formation

Ans:B

4. For a stable emulsion, the phase volume ratio is generally about:

A. 26/74

B. 52/48

C. 74/26

D. 74/100

Ans:B

5. The HLB range of an emulsifier employed in the preparation of water-in-oil emulsion is:

A. 3 to 6

B. 7 to 12

C. 13 to 15

D. more than 15

Ans:A

6. In case of emulsions, the viscosity immediately after preparation and during storage, respectively, will

be:

A. higher and will gradually decrease

B. higher and gradually increase

C. lower and gradually decrease

D. lower and gradually increase

Ans:C



7. The distribution of globules is not uniform in an emulsion. This stage is termed as:

A. breaking

B. caking

C. coalescence

D. creaming

Ans:D

8. An o/w microemulsion is prepared using a hydrophilic surfactant. The appearance of the

microemulsion is:

A. intense white

B. milky white

C. translucent

D. transparent

Ans:D

9. Emulsions are defined as thermodynamically unstable systems. The events that follow sequentially

towards instability are:

A. coalescence, breaking, creaming and flocculation

B. coalescence, flocculation, creaming and breaking

C. flocculation, creaming, breaking and coalescence

D. flocculation, creaming, coalescence and breaking

Ans:D

10. In the stability of emulsion, which instability step is prevented by emulsifiers?:

A. breaking

B. coalescence

C. creaming

D. flocculation

Ans:B

11. An ‘emulsion within emulsion’ is designated as:

A. o/w/w

B. w/o/o

C. w/o/o/w

D. w/o/w

Ans:D

12. The main function of an emulsifier in the preparation of an emulsion is to:

A. develop a condensed membrane layer film

B. increase the repulsions between globules coming together

C. increase the surface free energy

D. reduce the interfacial tension

Ans:A



13. An emulsifier can be regarded as superior, if its mechanism of action is based on the principle of:

A. developing solid adsorption film

B. forming monomolecular adsorption film

C. generating multimolecular adsorption film

D. increasing interfacial energy

Ans:B

14. An emulsifier is considered to be ideal, if it is soluble in:

A. aqueous, oil and gas phases

B. aqueous phase only

C. both aqueous and oil phase

D. oil phase only

Ans:C

15. On commercial scale, emulsions are prepared by::

A. centrifugation

B. dialysis

C. freezing

D. homogenization

Ans:D

16. Microemulsion is NOT considered to be a true emulsion, because:

A. appearance is transparent

B. emulsifier is not used

C. immiscible phase is absent

D. internal phase is not spherical

Ans:C

17. A variety of factors would influence the rate of creaming in an emulsion.

The factor open to formulation pharmacist is to regulate:

A. density of dispersion medium

B. density of dispersed phase

C. globule size

D. volume of dispersion medium

Ans:C

18. Normally preservatives are added to an emulsion. One of the following statements is true.

A. amount of the preservative added is below minimum inhibitory concentration

B. emulsifier should enhance the preservative action

C. preservatives remain in the aqueous phase

D. preservatives stay in the oil phase

Ans:C



19. For the formulation of w/o emulsion, the coalescence rate of:

A. w/o has no relationship to the type of emulsion formed

B. o/w is equal to w/o coalescence rate

C. o/w is greater than w/o coalescence rate

D. w/o is greater than the o/w coalescence rate

Ans:C

20. Auxiliary emulsifying agents are used to stabilize the emulsion. They act on the principle:

A. adjusting the HLB value

B. strengthening the nonpolar tails of the emulsifier ^

C. strengthening the polar heads of the emulsifier

D. thickening the continuous phase

Ans:D

From Online Quiz

21. Emulsion have a ......... shelf life

A. short

B. no

C. large

D. none of the above

Ans:A

22. Creaming is a.......... process

A. reversible

B. irreversible

C. A & B

D. difficult to predict

Ans:A

23. O/W emulsions normally cream .........

A. up first & down then

B. upward

C. downward


Ans:B

24. Microemulsions contain globules of the size about .........

A. 10 micro meter

B. 1 micro meter

C. 0.1 micrometer

D. 0.01 micrometer

Ans:D



25. Downward creaming means ........ rate of sedimentation

A. negative

B. positive

C. same

D. no change

Ans:A

26. A mixture of span 20 and tween 20 forms....... type of emulsion

A. W/O

B. O/W

C. Milky

D. Hard

Ans:A

27. Density of oily phase increased by addition of .......

A. Butter

B. Coconut oil

C. water

D. brominated oils

Ans: C

28. Near CMC, micelles of the surfactant molecules assume the shape of

A. spherical

B. layered

C. rod shaped

D. cylindrical

Ans:A

29. Which one of the following emulsifier is used to stabilise the emulsion of W/O type

A. SLS

B. Span 20

C. Tween 20

D. Tragacanth

Ans:B

30. Creaming in emulsion can be controlled by regulating

A. density of dispersed phase

B. density of dispersion medium

C. globule size

D. volume of dispersion medium

Ans:C



31. An emulsifier is considered to be ideal, if it is soluble in

A. Aqueous phase

B. oily phase

C. A & B


Ans:C

32. In the stability of emulsion, which important instability step should be prevented?

A. Breaking

B. Coalescence

C. Flocculation

D. Creaming

Ans:B

33. Emulsions made with tweens are

A. W/O

B. O/W

C. Clear

D. Unstable

Ans:B

34. The HLB system is used classify

A. Flavours

B. Colours

C. Surfactants

D. Perfumes

Ans:C

35. Emulsion containing more than two phases are called as

A. Mixed emulsion

B. Multiple emulsion

C. Complex emulsion


Ans:B

36. Emulsion is

A. stable preparation

B. thermodynamically unstable preparation

C. biphasic system

D. B & C

Ans:D



Pee Vee Publication

37. Which of the following is/ are the theories of emulsification?

a. Monomolecular adsorption theory

b. Multimolecular adsorption theory

c. Solid Particle Adsorption theory

d. All of the above

Ans:d

38. Which of the following is not the cause of Instability in emulsion

a. Upward Creaming

b. Phase inversion

c. Downward creaming

d. Mottling

Ans:d

39. Which of the following is a reversible phenomenon

a. Creaming

b. Coalescence

c. Breaking

d. All of the above

Ans:a

40. The phase inversion occur due to

a. changes in type of emulsifying agent

b. change in phase volume ratio.

c. Both a and b


Ans:c

41. Which of the following is used as antioxidants for emulsified systems

a. Dodecyl gallate,

b. Butylated hydroxyanisole (BHT),

c. Butylated hydroxytoluene (BHT)

d. All of the above

Ans:d

42. Which of the following is identification test for emulsion

a. Dilution test

b. Cobalt Chloride Test

c. Conductivity Test

d. All of the above

Ans:d



43. When an emulsion is exposed to ultra-violet radiations. If the continuous fluorescence is observed

under microscope, then it is_____________ type emulsion.

a. w/o

b. o/w

c. microemulsion

d. Nano emulsion

Ans:a

44. Dry Gum Method is also known as

a. Continental method.

b. English method

c. Bottle method

d. Forbe's method

Ans:a

45. In Dry gum method, 4:2:1 consist of

a. 4 parts oil, 2 parts water, and 1 part emulsifier

b. 4 parts water, 2 parts oil, and 1 part emulsifier

c. 4 parts emulsifier, 2 parts water, and 1 part emulsifier

d. 4 parts oil, 2 parts emulsifier and 1 part water

Ans:a

46. The rheological property of emulsion can be controlled by

a. nature and concentration of emulsifying system

b. particle size of dispersed phase

c. viscosity of continuous phase

d. All of the above

Ans:d

Nirali Publication

47. The suspensions having particle size................... are categorized as coarse suspension.

(a) Greater than ~1 mm

(b) Greater than-10 mm



Ans:a

48............. exists when dispersed solid particles in a suspension retain change in relation their adjoining

liquid medium.

(a) Surface area

(b) Surface potential

(c) Surface volume


Ans:b



49. The equal distribution of all the ions in solution retain by……

(a) Electric forces

(b) Thermal motion



Ans:C

50.The flocculated suspension is one in which zeta potential of particle is…… .

(a) -05 to +05 mV

(b) -10 to+10 mV

(c) -20 to+20 mV

(d) -30 to+30 mV

Ans:c

51....... determines the movement of charged particles via a liquid under the impact of an

applied potential difference.

(a) Electrophoresis

(b) Electrosmosis

(c) Surface charge

(d) Static movement

Ans:a

52...........is produced by forcing a liquid to course through a stationary solid phase.

(a) Electrosmosis

(b) Electrophoresis

(c) The sediment potential

(d) The streaming potential

Ans:d

53. The flocculated suspensions sediment.............

(a) Slowly

(b) Quickly

(c) More quickly


Ans:c

54...........suspension involves individual particle settling.

(a) Flocculated

(b) Deflocculated



Ans:b

55. Structured vehicles are also termed as or..............

(a) Thickening

(b) Suspending agents



Ans:C



56........ is the concentration of globules at the top or bottom of the emulsion.

(a) Creaming

(b) Cracking

(c) Phase inversion

(d) State

Ans:a



Chapter 4: Micromeritics

CVS 1. One micrometer is equal to:

a. 10-6 centimeter

b. 10-3 centimeter

c. 10-6 meter

d. 10-3 meter

Ans:c

2. Which of the following properties of a particle significantly affects the physical, chemical and

biological properties of the drug?

a. density

b. sedimentation

c. size

d. surface area

Ans:d

3. It is difficult to express the size of particles in a meaningful diameter.

a. irregular in shape

b. irregular surface

c. spherical shape

d. uniform in size

Ans:a

4. The type of a particle diameter obtained largely depends on:

a. method by which it is determined

b. nature of the powder

c. procedure by which it is calculated

d. way it is defined and described

Ans:a

5. When cumulative percent frequency on a probability scale is plotted against logarithm of the particle

size, 50 percent on the probability scale gives the powder particle diameter of:

a. arithmetic mean

b. arithmetic mode

c. geometric mean

d. harmonic mean

Ans:c

6. Which one of these distributions is more important in the design of dosage forms?

a. Gaussian

b. normal

c. number

d. weight

Ans:d

7. In the formulation development of emulsions and suspensions, what type of diameter is important?

a. length number b. projected

c. sieve d. stokes

Ans:d



8. Sieving method is used for size distribution analysis of powder. The disadvantage of this method is:

a. agglomerates can be identified

b. attrition of powder is possible

c. large number of sieves are required

d. tedious and time consuming

Ans:b

9. While using sedimentation method for size analysis, addition of a deflocculating agent to a suspension

is necessary in order to:

a. accelerate the process of sedimentation

b. make the particles spherical

c. prevent the aggregation

d. satisfy Reynolds number

Ans:c

10. Stokes’ law cannot be used, if Reynolds number is more than:

a. 0.2

b. 1.8

c. 9.0

d. 18.0

Ans:a

11. Andreasen apparatus consists of:

a. balance

b. electrodes

c. hydrometer

d. pipette

Ans:c

12. When coulter-counter apparatus is employed for powder analysis, the following criterion is important:

a. dispersion medium should be colored

b. dispersion medium should be conducting

c. suspended particles should be charged

d. suspended particles should be spherical

Ans:b

13. In coulter-counter, as the particles travel through the orifice, the event that occurs is:

a. conductance between the electrodes increases

b. electronic scanners produce photographs for volume measurement

c. resistance between the electrodes increases

d. sedimentation increases

Ans:c

14. Fisher subsieve sizer is used to determine the surface area of the powder. The surface area is

measured based on the change in:

a. light transmission of gas that reaches the detector

b. pressure across the compacted powder

c. thermal conductivity of gas across the powdered pack

d. weight of powder when air is passed through the powdered pack

Ans:d



15. High repose angle of the granules indicated:

a. bulk density of the granules

b. porosity of the granules

c. roughness of the granule surface

d. smoothness of the granule surface

Ans:c

16. The true density of talc is 2.7 g/cc, the bulk density (g/cc) of talc will be:

a. equal to 2.7

b. greater than 2.7

c. less than 2.7

d. unrelated

Ans:c

17. The angle of repose values are utilized to:

a. measure the movement of granules from hopper to the table of tabletting/capsule machine

b. select proper containers for capsules of a given mass of powders

c. study the absorption of drugs

d. understand dissolution of medicament

Ans: a

18. The term ‘light’ as applied to pharmaceutical powders means:

a. low bulk density

b. low granule density

c. low true density

d. slightly coloured

Ans:b

19. The type of particle diameter that is obtained by microscope method of evaluation is:

a. projected

b. stokes’

c. volume

d. volume-surface

Ans:a

20. Porosity of a porous powder is defined as:

a. bulk volume/void volume

b. void volume/bulk volume

c. void volume/true volume

d. true volume/bulk volume

Ans:b

Pee Vee Publication

21. Which equation is used to convert number distribution to weight distribution

a. Noyes whitney equation

b. Hatch Choate equation

c. Henderson Hasselbalch equation

d. Higuchi equation

Ans:b



22. Coulter counter is used to determine

a. Particle volume

b. Particle Number

c. Particle interaction

d. Viscosity

Ans:a

23. The ratio of void volume to bulk volume is known as

a. Bulk density

b. Tapped density

c. Porosity

d. Granule volume

Ans:a

24. If Carr's compressibility index value is in between 26 to 31, then flow will be

a. Poor

b. Excellent

c. Passable

d. Very, very poor

Ans:a

25. Hausner Ratio is

a. Tapped density / Bulk density

b. Bulk density / Tapped density

c. bulk volume / void volume

d. void volume / bulk volume

Ans:a

26. The powder having low bulk density or large bulk volume is known as

a. Light powder

b. Heavy powder

c. Bulk powder

d. Granular powder

Ans:a

27. The term Micromeritics was given by

a. J.M. Dalla Valle

b. James Kelvin

c. William Procter

d. Mahadeva Lai Schroff

Ans:a

28. Andreasen pipette is widely used method to determine particle size distribution by

a. Microscopy method

b. sedimentation method

c. Sieving method

d. All of the above

Ans:b



29. Porosity is expressed in

a. Percentage

b. Millimeter

c. Gram/Millimeter

d. Newton

Ans:a

30. Helium Pycnometer is used to determine

a. Size

b. True density

c. Sedimentation rate

d. Surface area

Ans:b

31. The porosity of powder is equal to

a. Ratio of void volume to bulk volume.

b. Sum of void volume to bulk volume

c. Product of void volume to bulk volume

d. Void volume only

Ans:a

32. The distance between two tangents on opposite sides of the particle parallel to some fixed direction.

a. Feret's diameter

b. Martin diameter

c. Projected diameter

d. Stoke's diameter

Ans:a

33. Andreason apparatus consist of

a. Reference electrode

b. Pipette

c. Glass electrode

d. Hydrogen electrode

Ans:b

34. For a sphere, value of αs/αv equals to

a. 6

c.9

b.1.8

d.18

Ans:a

Nirali Prakashan

35. The physical, chemical, and pharmacologic properties of a drug are directly affected by……

(a) Size

(b) Surface area



Ans:c



36.............is the science and technology of small particles.

(a) Micromeritics

(b) Microscopy

(c) Rheology


Ans:a

37. The unit of particle size used is in…………

(a) Kilometer (km)

(b) Centimeter (Cm)

(c) Millimeter (mm)

(d) Micrometer (µm)

Ans:d

38. 1 micrometer (µm) is equal to

(a) 10-5 m

(b) 10-6 m

(c) 10-7 m

(d) 10-8 m

Ans:b

39. Particle size with diameter of 0.5-1.0 Micrometers (µm) is useful for……..

(a) Emulsions

(b) Suspensions



Ans:c

40. The size of a sphere is freely stated in terms of its.............

(a) Area

(b) Diameter

(c) Radius

(d) Volume

Ans:b

41 …...is the diameter of a sphere having, the same observed area as the particle when viewed normal to

its most stable plane.

(a) The surface diameter (ds)

(b) The projected diameter (dp)

(c) The volume diameter (dv)

(d) The Stokes diameter (dst)

Ans:b

42 .... is the number of particles per unit weight.

(a) Particle volume

(b) Particle number

(c) Particle mean

(d) Particle weight

Ans:b



43 …....technique is utilized for estimation of surface diameter ds.

(a) Air permeability

(b) Vacuum

(c) Filtration

(d) Weighing

Ans:a

44. The ratio of the void volume to the bulk volume of the packing is called as the....................

(a) Tap density

(b) Bulk density

(c) Followability

(d) Porosity

Ans:d



Chapter 5: Drug Stability – Chemical Kinetics CVS

1. A graph is plotted by taking time on x axis and concentration of reactant on y axis for a reaction

following a pseudo first order. The pattern of the

graph is:

A. curve

B. hyperbola

C. parabola

D. straight line

Ans:A

2. In the photochemical degradation of multisulpha preparation, the order that the reaction follows is:

A. first

B. pseudo first

C. second

D. zero

Ans:D

3. The integral rate equation for a reaction (in common notation) is written as log C = log Co - (kt/2.303).

When a graph is drawn log c vs. t, the slope will be:

A. negative

B. one

C. Positive

D. Zero

Ans:A

4. The integral equation (in common notation) k = x/at (a - x) is concerned with the order:

A. first

B. pseudo first

C. second

D. zero

Ans:C

5. When a series of steps are involved in a reaction, the ‘overall rate’ of a reaction depends upon the

rate(s) of:

A. all steps

B. all steps which follow the slowest step

C. all steps which precede the slowest step

D. the slowest step

Ans:C

6. The solid state decomposition of aspirin in presence of moisture follows the order:

A. first

B. pseudofirst

C. second

D. zero

Ans:D



7. The reaction rate constant (k) is 2.0 x 10-3 min.-1 for aspirin hydrolysis in 0.1 N hydrochloric acid at

1mg/ml concentration. Under same conditions, if the product contains aspirin 4 mg/ml of the initial

concentration, the k value in minutes-1 will be:

A. 0.5 x l0-3

B. 2.0 x 10-3

C. 4.0 x 10-3

D. 8.0 x 10-3

Ans:B

8. A second order reaction follows pseudo-first order reaction, when the concentrations of:

A. two reactants are high

B. two reactants are low

C. one reactant is far higher than the other reactant.

D. two reactants are equal

Ans:C

9. In the study of the rate of a reaction, 100 ml of 0.1 N hydrochloric acid is added to 10 ml methyl

acetate for the reaction to occur. The reason for making such a proportion is to make:

A. analysis of degradation is easy

B. reaction to follow first order

C. reaction to proceed slowly

D. reaction to undergo a pseudo first order

Ans:D

10. The conversion of trans-stilbene to cis-stilbene follows the molecularity:

A. bimolecular

B. termolecular

C. unimolecular

D. zeromolccular

Ans:C

11. In the hydrolysis of sucrose in hydrochloric acid solution, the change in the optical rotation follows

the order:

A. pseudofirst

B. pseudo zero

C. second

D. zero

Ans:A

12. In the degradation studies of aspirin suspension, the orders observed initially and at the end,

respectively, are: -

A. first, second

B. first, zero

C. second, first

D. zero, first

Ans:D

13. A prescription of liquid aspirin preparation contained 6.5 g/100 ml. The solubility of aspirin at 25°C

is 0.33 g/100 ml. The order of reaction in the kinetic study is:

A. apparent first B. apparent zero

C. first D. second

Ans:B



14. The time required for the complete degradation of a drug in solution is a finite value. The order of

that reaction is:

A. first

B. pseudo first

C. second

D. zero

Ans:D

15. Normally, ethyl acetate undergoes hydrolysis in presence of H+ and (OH)- ions. The order of the

reaction observed in the acidic and alkaline solutions, respectively, are:

A. first and second

B. pseudo first and second

C. second and first

D. second and pseudo first

Ans:B

16. In reactions that follow first order kinetics, half life is expressed by equation:

A. 0.693/k1

B. 0.301/k1

C. 0.105/k1

D. k1/0.693

Ans:A

17. The units for the specific rate constant for a second order reaction are:

A. liter/moles.sec

B. liter.sec/moles

C. moles/liter.sec

D. moles.sec/liter

Ans:A

18 The half life of a first order reaction is 4 years. What is its shelf life (in years)?

A. 0.02

B. 0.03

C. 0.17

D. 0.61

Ans:D

19. The general rate expression for a first order reaction (in common notation) is.

A. dc/dt = -kC

B. 𝑘 = 2.303

𝑡log

𝑐0

𝑐𝑡

C. 𝑘 = 1

𝑎𝑡

𝑥

(𝑎−𝑥)

D. dc/dt = k

Ans:A

20. Which one of the following dosage forms exhibit faster rate of reaction under normal conditions?

A. emulsions

B. ointments

C. solutions

D. suspensions

Ans:C



21. In chemical kinetics, the rate of a reaction is expressed as (-dc/dt), where dc refers to the

concentration. Whose concentration does it refer to?

A. catalyst

B. product

C. reactant

D. solvent medium

Ans:C

22. Which one of the following can be designated as the molecularity of a reaction?

A. half

B. one

C. one and half

D. zero

Ans:B

23. Which one of them is refered as a general rate equation (-dc/dt) for a second order?

A. A°B°

B. A1B1

C. A1B2

D. A2B2

Ans:B

24. Which-one of the following orders have abundant applications in biological processes?

A. first

B. second

C. third

D. zero

Ans:A

25. In a chemical reaction, the rate constant is independent of the initial concentration. Which one of

them is the order?

A. first

B. second

C. third

D. zero

Ans:D

Pee Vee Publication

26. Chemical kinetics is the study of the

a. rate of chemical reactions

b. particle size

c. rheological property

d. interfacial tension

Ans:a



27. Rate of reaction is the

a. number of reactant molecules or atoms that take part in chemical reactions to give the products.

b. sum of exponents or powers of concentration terms in the rate equation

c. time required for reactant concentration to decrease to 90% of the initial concentration.

d. speed at which chemical reaction takes place

Ans:d

28. When rate is independent of the reactant concentration, then it is called

a. zero order reaction.

b. Pseudo zero order reaction

c. First order reaction

d. Second order reaction

Ans:a

29. In the equation, Rate = k[C]c[D]d, the order of the above reaction is

a. k

b. C + D

c. [C] *[D]

d. c + d

Ans:d

30. Which of the following is the half life of zero order reaction

a. t1/2 = Ao/2k

b. t1/2 = 0.693/2k

c. t1/2 = Ao/2

d. t1/2 = 2k/ Ao

Ans:a

31. The unit of k for zero order reaction is

a. moles/litre/second

b. moles

c. moles/second

d. moles/litre

Ans:a

32. Which of the following is the half life of first order reaction

a. t1/2 = A0/2k

b. t1/2 = 0.693/2k

c. t1/2 = 2k

d. t1/2 = 0.693/k

Ans:d



33. The unit of rate constant for second order reaction is

a. litre.mole-2sec-2

b. litre.mole-2sec-1

c. litre

d. litre.mole-1sec-1

Ans:d

34. Which of the following method/s used for determination of order of reaction?

a. Graphic method

b. Substitution method

c. Half life method

d. All of the above -

Ans:d

35. The value of t1/2 for second order reaction is

a. 1/ak b. 0.693/k

c. Ao/2k d. Ao/2

Ans:a



Chapter 5: Drug Stability CVS

1. The accelerated stability studies are primarily used to determine:

A. energy of the activation of the reaction

B. k value at elevated temperatures

C. k value at the room temperature

D. shelf life of the product

Ans:D

2. The specific rate constant (k) determined for aspirin hydrolysis in pH 1.0 buffer at 1 mg/ml

concentration is 2.0x10-3 min-1 at 25°C. The shelf life of the product is (in minutes):

A. 2.0

B. 52

C. 104

D. 346

Ans:B

3. Identify the equation that is NOT of Arrhenius:

A. ln 𝑘 = −𝐸𝑎

2.303𝑅𝑇+ ln 𝐴

B. ln 𝑘 = −𝐸𝑎

𝑅𝑇+ ln 𝐴

C. log 𝑘 = −𝐸𝑎

2.303𝑅𝑇+ log 𝐴

D. k = A𝑒−𝐸𝑎/𝑅𝑇

Ans:A

4. In general, reaction rate constants in neutral pH are comparatively:

A. equal

B. higher

C. lower

D. zero

Ans:C

5. The expiry date for a tablet is not mentioned on the label. It means that the expiry time in years is:

A. five years

B. nil

C. three years

D. two years

Ans:A

6. Penicillin G is prepared as a salt of procaine penicillin G. Now the rate of decomposition of penicillin

G will be:

A. increased

B. reduced

C. unchanged

D. unpredictable

Ans:B



7. According to International Pharmaceutical Federation, the recommended overages be limited to the

maximum percent of:

A. five

B. ten

C. thirty

D. twenty

Ans:C

8. Usually, the rate of a chemical reaction may be enhanced by:

A. cooling the reaction mixture

B. increasing the rate of stirring

C. raising the temperature of the reaction mixture

D. using stoichiometric quantities of each reactant

Ans:C

9. Which of the following expression is correct for the determination of shelf life for a first order

decomposition?

A. t1/2 = 0.105/k

B. t90 = 0.693/k

C. t1/2 = 0.693/k

D. t90 = 0.105/k

Ans:D

10. Regarding the influence of the solvent on the rate of reaction, solvents having the internal pressure:

A. HIGHER produce products with HIGHER internal pressure

B. HIGHER favour the formation of products having LOWER internal pressure

C. LOWER yield products having HIGHER internal pressure

D. LOWER retard the formation of products with LOWER internal pressure

Ans:A

11. During autoclaving of dextrose solution, a straw colour is observed. It is due to the presence of a

substance called:

A. furfural

B. 5-hydroxymethylfurfural

C. 5-hydroxyfurfural

D. 5-methylfurfural

Ans:B

12. In injections, procaine undergoes the degradation reactions in the following sequence:

A. decarboxylation and hydrolysis

B. hydrolysis and decarboxylation

C. hydrolysis, decarboxylation and oxidation

D. oxidation, decarboxylation and hydrolysis

Ans:B

13. On a product, the label states ‘protect from light’. What type of decomposition does the product

undergo?

A. carboxylation

B. decarboxylation

C. hydrolysis

D. oxidation



Ans:D

14. Which of the following reactions is observed in the degradation of ampicillin?

A. decarboxylation

B. hydrolysis

C. oxidation

D. recimization

Ans:B

15. Aspirin undergoes decomposition in a formulation. It can be prevented by:

A. adding a chelating agent

B. adding an antioxidant

C. protecting it from light

D. suppressing its solubility

Ans:D

16. Which one of the following is primarily NOT a chemical decomposition?

A. isomerisation

B. hydrolysis

C. oxidation

D. volatilization

Ans:D

17. For the validity of accelerated stability studies of solution dosage form, the energy of activation

should be in the range of (in units of kcal/mole).

A. 0 to 10

B. 11 to 30

C. 31 to 50

D. 51 to 70

Ans:B

18. Which one of these methods is the MOST effective in preventing the rate of hydrolysis?

A. buffer

B. complexation

C. removal of water

D. suppression of solubility

Ans:C

19. During storage, crystal growth is observed in a suspension due to:

A. absorption of water

B. fluctuations in the ambient temperatures

C. presence of suspending agent

D. volatilization of solids

Ans:B

20. The storage directions on a parenteral solution specify ‘store in a cool place’. This may be stored in:

A. an air-conditioned area at 10°C

B. a refrigerator at 15°C

C. a place whose temperature is set at 5°C

D. room temperature, at 25°C

Ans:B



Pee Vee Publication

21. which of the following is cause of physical degradation of drug?

a. volatilisation of components during storage

b. Changes from one state to another

c. Change in colour

d. All of the above

Ans:d

22. Which of the following factors affect the rate of reaction?

a. Temperature

b. Catalysis

c. Dielectric constant

d. All of the above

Ans:d

23. The effect of temperature on rate of reaction is explained by

a. Arrhenius equation

b. Nernst equation

c. Noyes Whitney equation

d. Fick's first law

Ans:a

24. The unit of activation energy is

a. kJ/mol

b. J

c. N/m

d. mm

Ans:a

25. The dielectric constant is used to measure

a. Viscosity of solvent

b. polarity of the solvent

c. temperature of solvent

d. flowability of solvent

Ans:b

26. Accelerated stability testing is done to

a. predict shelf of the formulation

b. Predict dissociation constant

c. Predict diffusion constant

d. Determine activation energy

Ans:a

27. ICH stands for

a. Indian council on harmonisation

b. International Conference On Harmonisation

c. Inter Cranial Healer


Ans:b



28. Stability Data for Climatic zone III & IV comes under___________ICH guideline

a. Q1C

b. Q1E

c. Q1F

d. Q1D

Ans:c

29. Climatic zone II is

a. Moderate climate

b. Subtropical and Mediterranean climate

c. Hot/dry climate

d. Hot/humid climate

Ans:b

30. Stability testing is done

a. to determine shelf life of product

b. to determine the components used for packaging

c. to get information at preformulation stage

d. All of the above

Ans:d

Nirali Prakashan

31............ is the time necessary for the concentration of the reactant to decrease to 90% of its original

concentration.

(a) Product life

(b) Shelf life

(c) Half life


Ans:b

32. Generally, Stability testing is employed for...........

(a) Delivering evidences of the change in quality of the drug product with time.

(b) Confirming shelf life for the drug product.

(c) Determining container closure system suitability.

(d) All of the above

Ans:d

33. A zero-order reaction is a reaction having rate of concentration of reactant.

(a) Dependent

(b) Partially dependent

(c) Independent


Ans:c

34. In a second-order reaction, the sum of the exponents in the rate law is equal to...............

(a) Zero

(b) One

(c) Two

(d) Three

Ans:c



35...........technique is utilized only during determination of order of reaction, when the rate law involved

by only single concentration term.

(a) The concentration

(b) The half of the concentration

(c) The square of the concentration


Ans:c

36 ...........technique is utilized only when the rate law involved by only single concentration term for

determination of order of reaction.

(a) Half Life Method

(b) Graphical Method

(c) Initial Rate Method

(d) Van't Hoff Differential Method

Ans:a

37 ......... technique is utilized in presence single reactant for determination of order of reaction.

(a) Half Life Method

(b) Graphical Method

(c) Initial Rate Method

(d) Van't Hoff Differential Method

Ans:b

38. In exothermic Reaction, if we increase the temperature in the exothermic reaction the rate of reaction

will.........

(a) Increases

(b) Decrease

(c) Remains constant


Ans:b

39. If ions of similar charges involve in reaction it will............rate of reaction.

(a) Increases

(b) Decreases

(c) Remains constant


Ans:b

40. The drug molecule is degradate by exposure of light it affects substantial degradation of drug

molecule this phenomenon is known as...........

(a) Photolytic degradation

(b) Chemical degradation

(c) Physical degradation


Ans:a

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SEMESTER IV PHYSICAL PHARMACEUTICS II (BP403TP) …

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