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TS EAMCET - 2020 Agriculture and Medicine
29-SEP-SHIFT- 2
Botany
1. The study of different kinds of organisms, their diversities and relationship among them is studied in: Options: a) Biodiversity b) Plant taxonomy c) Systematics d) ∝ - Taxonomy
2. Which of the following structures of blue green
algae are sites for dinitrogen fixation? Options: a) Akinete b) Heterocysts c) Hormogonia d) Endospores
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3. Assertion (A) : Carolius Von Linnaeus popularized the binomial system of nomenclature and proposed sexual system of classification. Reason (R) Sexual reproduction in plants was discovered by Camararius. The correct. option among the following is Options: a) (A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A) b) (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A) c) (A) is true but (R) is false d) (A) is false but (R) is true
4. Agar-agar is extracted from Gelidium and
Gracillaria, they belong to which family? Options: a) Chlorophyceae b) Rhodophyceae c) Phaeophyceae d) Cyanophyceae
5. Choose the correct statements.
A) Pseudoelaters. archegonia on archegoniophore are seen in Marchantia. B) Wolffia and Salvinia are the smallest plants belonging to pteridophytes.
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C) Embryophytic. archegoniate. tracheophytes with underground rhizome is seen in Dryopteris. D) Algae are primary producers of energy rich compounds for the aquatic animals. E) The reduced male gametophyte develops within the microspore. Options: a) A, B D only b) A, B C only c) C, D, E only d) B, C, E only
6. Fill up the blanks with suitable words respectively.
i protect the apex of the root above this ii is present with cells of thin walls and iii . The cell iv to this region are usefi1l for rapid elongation. These cells gradually differentiate and v . A. dense cytoplasm B. root cap C. meristematic region D. mature E. proximal Options:
i ii iii iv v a) B C D A E
i ii iii iv v
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b) B C A E D i ii iii iv v
c) C A B D E i ii iii iv v
d) B C A D E
7. Match the following lists: List I List II A) Sessile unisexual and neuter flowers arranged in acropetal succession
I) Euphorbiaceae
B) All the flowers are brought to the same height due to varied length of pedicle
II) Jasmine
C) Achlymadeous stalked, unisexual flowers ananged in a cup like structure
III) Cocos
D) A three flower cymose inflorescence
IV) Cauliflower
The correct match is Options:
A B C D a) III I II IV
A B C D
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b) III IV I II A B C D
c) III II I IV A B C D
d) IV III II I
8. Choose the correct statements. A) In fig tree after fertilization whole inflorescence become a fruit. B) One seeded bits of schizocarpic fruit is called nut. C) In watermelon, terminal buds are modified as stem tendril. D) Taeniophyllum has chlorophyllous roots and it is an epiphyte. Options: a) A, Conly b) A, D only c) B, Conly d) B, D only
9. If the endosperm cell of an angiosperm has 24
chromosomes the root cell(s) and pollen grain(s) have how many chromosomes? Options: a) 16 and 8 b) 16 and 16
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c) 8 and 16 d) 24 and 8
10. Identify the typical angiosperm embryo sac from
the following. Options: a) 7 nucleate, 8 celled b) 8 nucleate, 7 celled c) 8 nucleate 8 celled d) 8 nucleate, 6 celled
11. Arrange the following, based on the number in
ascending order. A) The number of haploid cells present in a flower with 121 megaspore mother cells development on maturity. B) The number of pollen grains released in a flower showing anemophily. C) The anther lobes in Hibiscus. D) The number of integuments in ovule of polypetalae. E) The number of PEN chromosome number in maize flower with 48 meiotic divisions during megasporogenesis. Options: a) C,D,B A,E b) C,D A,E,B
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c) E,C,B,A,D d) A,C D,E,B
12. Identify the plants with the following characters
respectively. I) Herb, pulvinate leaf base zygomorphic, monodelphous, protandrous. II) Herb, hairy stem, exstipulate, axillary inflorescence, persistent calyx, protogynous. II) Radical leaves, hypogynous, basifixed anthers axile placentation protandrous, polyembryony. A) Solanum B) Allium C) Datura D) Arachis E) Crotalaria F) Asparagus Options:
I II III a) E A F
I II III b) D C F
I II III c) E C F
I II III d) D A B
13. Colchicine , a mutagen is extracted from which
plant? Options: a) Bulb bearing Liliaceae plant
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b) Rhizome bearing Liliaceae plant c) Corm bearing Liliaceae plant d) Cladophyll bearing Liliaceae plant
14. Which of the following synthesizes the cell wall?
Options: a) Vacuoles b) Golgi apparatus c) Cell membrane d) Glyoxysomes
15. What is 'Inulin ?
Options: a) Polymer of fructose b) Polymer of glucose c) Heteropolysaccharide chain d) Homopolymer of cellulose
16. Identify the correct sequence of the following sub-
phases of prophase I. I. Zygotene II. Diplotene III. Leptotene IV. Pachytene V. Diakinesis Options: a) I, II III IV V
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b) I, II, III, V, IV c) III, I, IV, II, V d) III, I, IV, V, II
17. Identify the cells/parts based on the characters
given below respectively. - Highly thickened dead cells with narrow lumen - Lysigenous cavities with water - Radially placed parenchyrmatous cells between vascular bundles - Polyarch xylem bundles A: Monocot stem B: Leaves of tea C: Medullary rays D: Monocot root Options: a) A,D,C,B b) B,A,C,D c) A,C,D,B d) B,D,C,A
18. Match the following lists:
List I List II A) Deposition of aromatic substances in secondary xylem
i) Couple of layers
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B) Dumb bell shaped cells
ii) Resistance to insects
C) Peripheral cytoplasm with large vacuole
iii) Highly thickened
D) Narrow, thin walled rectangular cells
iv) Perforated end walls
The correct match is Options: a) A B C D b) ii, II iii,I i,III iv, IV c) A B C D d) iii, I ii,IV iv,III i,II e) A B C D f) iii, II i,III ii, I iv,IV g) A B C D h) ii, II iii, IV iv, I i, III
19. Choose the correct statements.
A) During succession same species colonise an area whereas populations of other species decline. B) Both excessive water and dryness create a uniform situation to plants to survive. C) The rotation of our planet around the sun and its axis cause distinct seasons.
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D) Plants growing in water conditions possess well developed root system for good absorption of water. Options: a) A, B only b) B, C only c) C, D only d) A, C only
20. Choose the correct statements.
A) Developing a carbon tax system will help in prevention of global warming. B) Biome is the major ecological community consisting of all ecosystems. C) Primary succession in water starts with planktons free floating angiosperms, rooted hydrophytes sedges, grasses and finally trees as forest. D) Eugen Wanning classified plant communities. Options: a) A, B, C only b) A, C,
D only c) B, C, D only d) A, B, D only
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21. Pickles are preserved for longer period by the addition of salt. Which process is involved here? Options: a) Osmosis b) Guttation c) Plasmolysis d) Imbibition
22. Which mineral elements are present as stn1ctural
components of electron carriers? Options: a) Cu, Mn b) Fe, Cu c) Cu, Cl d) Fe, Mn
23. Match the following lists: List I List II List III A) Low temperature
i) Refers to product formed per unit time
I) Fumaric acid
B) Rate of process
ii) Lyase II) Temporarily inactive state
C) Arginosuccinic acid
iii) Coenzyme III) Cofactors
D) Prosthetic group
iv) Pressure the enzyme
IV) Also called velocity
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Options: a) A B C D b) iii,II i,IV iv I ii, III c) A B C D d) iii II ii, IV i III iv, I e) A B C D f) ii, I iii ill iv IV i, II g) A B C D h) iv, II i IV ii I iii, III
24. Identify the correct sequence of e- transport of
photosynthesis. Options: a) 680 700fA B Q CP pheo Q Q P FeS cyt P P− − − − − − − − b) 680 700fA B Q Q CP pheo Q Q P FeS P cyt P P− − − − − − − − − c) 680 6 700fA B Q CP pheo Q Q P FeS cytb cytb P P− − − − − − − − − d) 680 6 700fA B Q Q CP pheo Q Q P cytb cyt P P P− − − − − − − − −
25. Arrange the substrate of the following enzymes
based on their carbon number m ascending order: A) Sedoheph1lose-l, 7 bisphosphatase B) Ribose-5-phosphate isomerase C) Phosphoglycerokinase D) PEP carboxylase E) Malate dehydrogenase
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Options: a) A,C,B,D,E b) D,E,B,C,A c) D,B,E,C,A d) B,C,D,A,E
26. In the given reactions identify the substrates of
respiration respectively. 6 12 6 2 2 26 6 6C H O O CO H O energy+ → + + ( )51 98 6 2 2 22 145 102 98C H O O CO H O energy+ → + +
Options: a) Sucrose Albumin b) Glucose, Stearic acid c) Glucose, Albumin d) Glucose, Tripalmitin
27. Assertion (A) : Respiration is a good example for
an amphibolic pathway. Reason (R) : In amphibolic pathway both anabolism and catabolism dependent reactions are catalyzed by the same enzymes, thus glucose is oxidized and can be synthesized from amino acids. The correct option among the following is Options: a) (A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
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b) (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true but (R) is false d) (A) is false but (R) is true
28. Identify bolting' promoting phytohormone in
cabbage plants. Options: a) Gibberellin b) Auxin c) Cytokinin d) Ethylene
29. Match the following lists:
List I List II A) Bdellovibrio bacteriovorus
I) Griffith experiment
B) Discovery of DNA as genetic material
II) Changes shape depending on nutrients
C) Salmonella typhimurium
III) Parasite on bacteria
D) Pleomorphic bacteria IV) Transfer of genetic material through phage
The correct match is: Options:
A B C D a) I III IV II
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A B C D b) II IV I III
A B C D c) III I IV II
A B C D d) II III I IV
30. Choose the incorrect statements.
A. The TMV is with .molecular weight of 49xl06 Daltons and _130 protein subunits. B. The number of capsomers are characteristics for each type ofvin1s. C. Conrat confirmed that genetic material of virus is RNA. D. The burst size' is refe1Ted to the number of newly synthesized phage particles released by single host cell. Options: a) A, B only b) C, D only c) B, Conly d) A, C only
31. Identify the correct expression of the F2 generation
of monohybrid ratio. Options:
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a) 1 1 1 12 2 2 2
T t T t + × +
b) 1 1 1 14 2 2 4
T t T t + × +
c) 1 1 1 14 4 2 2
T t T t + × +
d) 1 1 1 14 2 4 2
T t T t + × +
32. In Drosophila, the genes for body color and eye
color are present on: Options: a) Autosomes b) X-chromosomes c) Y-chromosomes d) Sat-chromosomes
33. Match the following lists
List-I List-II A. Length of the one coil of DNA
I. 20 oA
B. Diameter of DNA II. 10 C. H-bond between G and C
III. 34 oA
D. Number of base pairs in one coil of DNA
IV. 2
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V. 3 The correct match is Options:
A B C D a) III II V I
A B C D b) IV III II V
A B C D c) V III IV I
A B C D d) III I V II
34. Assertion (A) : Lac mRNA is synthesized in the
presence of inducer. Reason (R) : Inducer suppresses the activity of repressor protein. The correct option among the following is Options: a) (A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A) b) (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A) c) (A) is true but (R) is false d) (A) is false but (R) is true
35. Choose the correct statements.
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A) tRNA looks like an inverted 'L’ . B) Single D A dependent RNA polymerase catalyses transcription of types of RNA in eukaryotes. C) The stn1ctural gene in a transcription unit is polycistronic in proka1yotes. D) Transcriptase catalyses the polymerization of DNA in 51 3' direction where 31 51 strand acts as template. Options: a) A, B, C only b) B, C, D only c) A, B, D only d) A, C, D only
36. Identify the reaction site of the Hind II enzyme,
DNA ligase and ribonuclease respectively. A) RA B) DNA-sugar-phosphate back bone C) Joining sticky ends of DNA Options: a) A,B,C b) C,B,A c) B,A,C d) B,C,A
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37. Arrange the process of isolation of genetic material in a correct order. A) Removal of RNA by ribonuclease and protein. by protease enzyme. B) Breaking the cell by enzymes and release of DNA with other macromolecules. C) DNA is separated by pooling. D) Dissolution of all the biological membranes by detergent lysis. E) DNA is precipitated after addition of chilled alcohol. Options: a) A, B, C, E, D b) B, D, A, E, C c) B, C, A, D, E d) A, C, B, D, E
38. Assertion (A) : D A fingerprinting is the pattern of
D A fragments on the gel. Reason (R) : It is a technique used for the identification of individuals based on differences in D A fragment patterns. The correct option among the following is Options: a) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
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b) (A) is true (R) is true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is hue but (R) is false. d) (A) is false but (R) is true
39. Which technique is used to produce vin1s free
plants from virus infected plants? Options: a) Anther culture b) Meristem culture c) Embryo culture d) Ovule culture
40. Blood cholesterol lowering agents, statins are
produced by the following yeast: Options: a) Aspergillus niger b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae c) Monascus purpureus d) Trichoderma polysporum
Zoology
41. In the hierarchy of classification, the lowest obligatory category m five Kingdom classification is
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Options: a) Order b) Species c) Phylum d) Class
42. Assertion (A) : Species is an evolutionary unit
Reason (R) : Having similarity in structural and functional characteristics The correct option among the following is Options: a) Both A and R are true. R is correct explanation
for A b) Both A and R are true. R is not correct
explanation for A c) A is true. But R is false d) A is false. But R is true
43. Which one of the following secretes chemicals
acting opposite in function? a) Adipocytes b) Mast cells c) Plasma cells d) Phagocytes
44. Study the following statements:
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Statement I : Bundle of muscle fibres is called a fascicle. Statement II : Ependymal cells of nervous tissue develop from mesodenn. The correct option among the following is Options: a) Both statements I and II are correct b) Statement I is correct and statement II is wrong c) Statement I is wrong and statement II is correct d) Both statements I and II are wrong
45. Match the following:
Nematode Common name A) Ancylostoma I) Filaria won B) Enterobims II) Hookworm C) Trichutris III) Pin won D) Wuchereria IV) Guinea worm V) Whip worm
Options:
A B C D a) II IV V I
A B C D b) II III IV I
A B C D c) I V III II
A B C D
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d) I II III IV
46. Study the following statements: I. Echinoderms having Aristotle s lantern are commonly called sea urchins. II. Larva of enterocoelomates with stomochord is tornaria. III. Circulatory system is open type in molluscs having a foot modified into aims around mouth. IV. Bivalves have radula in their buccal cavity. Among the above, the correct statements are: Options: a) I, III b) I, II c) II, IV d) III, IV
47. Match the following:
Genus C onunon name A. Exocoetus I. Flying frog B. Pteropus II. Flying lizard C. Draco III. Flying fish D. Rhacophorus IV. Flying dog V. Flying fox
The correct match is Options:
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A B C D a) I II V III
A B C D b) III V II I
A B C D c) III IV II I
A B C D d) IV III I II
48. Study the following regarding frog:
I) Corpora bigemina is present in the mid brain II) Bidder's canal is present in the kidney of female frog. III) Sinus venosus is present on the ventral side of heart. IV) Columella auris is present in the middle ear Tue correct statement from the above are: Options: a) Only I and IV b) Only I, II and III c) Only II, III and IV d) Only III and IV
49. Statement I : During binary fission in
Paramoecium, the daughter individual fanned from the posterior part of the parent is called proter.
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Statement II : Sporogony in Plasmodium is a type of multiple fission. The correct option among the following is Options: a) Both statements I and II me connect b) Both statements I and II are wrong c) Statement I is false and II is correct d) Statement I is correct and II is false
50. Match the following:
Type of flagellum Example A) Stichonematic I) Peranema B) Pantonematic II) Chilomonas C) Acronematic III) Euglena D) Pantacronematic IV) Chlamydomonas V) Urceolus
The correct match is Options:
A B C D a) II IV I V
A B C D b) III II V I
A B C D c) III I IV V
A B C D d) III IV II I
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51. Study the following and pick up the incorrect combinations S.No Parasite Infective stage
to man Mode of infection
Plasmodium vivax
Sporozoite Biting of male Cu/ex mosquito
Entamoeba histolytica
Tetranucleate cyst
Contamination of food and water
Ascaris lumbricoides
Miracidium Contamination of food and water
Wuchereria bancrofti
Third stage microfilaria
Biting of female Cu/ex mosquito
Options: a) I, II b) III, IV c) II, III d) I, III
52. The following are the different stages in the cycle
of Golgi of P!asmodi11111. Anange them in coned sequence. I) Amoeboid state II) Trophozoite III) Erythrocytic merozoite
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IV) Schizont V) Signet ring stage Options: a) III, IV, I, V, II b) I, II, III, IV, V c) V, IV, III, I, III d) II, V, I, IV, III
53. Statement I: Adolescence is a very vulnerable
phase of mental and psychological development of an individual. Statement II: Use of TDA even once can be a fore runner to addiction The correct option among the following is Options: a) Statements I and II are tnie. b) Statements I and II are false. c) Statement I is true. But II is false. d) Statement I is false. But II is true.
54. Identify the product 'x that is reabsorbed in the
Malpighian tubule of cockroach.
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Options: a) Potassium carbonate b) Potassium oxalate c) Potassium bicarbonate d) Carbonic acid
55. Match the following
Sclerite Location on the head of cocla:oach
A) Veriex I) Cheek Sclerite B) Frons II) Sclerite bordering
the occipital formen C) Clypeus III) Front large sclerite D) Gena IV) Narrow rectangular
sclerite V) Top of the head
The correct match is Options:
A B D C a) V III IV I
A B D C b) III II V IV
A B D C c) V I IV III
A B D C d) III IV II I
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56. Observe the following diagram of ommatidium of cockroach and pick up the correct set of labelling:
Options:
I II III a) Cornea Crystalline cone Iris pigment cells
I II III b) Rhabdome Retinulae Retinal pigment cells
I II III c) Crystalline cone Rhabdome Pigment cells
I II III d) Crystalline cone Rhabdome Retinulae
57. The density of the population will increase when:
Options: a) (Natality+ Immigration) = (Mortality+
Emigration)
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b) (Natality+ Emigration) > (Mortality+ Immigration)
c) (Natality+ Immigration) > (Mortality + Emigration)
d) (Mortality + Emigration) > Natality + Immigration)
58. Match the following: List -1 List -2 A) Mutualism I) +, - B) Competition II) +, o C) Parasitism III) -, o D) Commensalism IV) +, + V) - , -
The correct match is Options:
A B C D a) IV V I II
A B C D b) IV V III II
A B C D c) II I V IV
A B C D d) IV II V I
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59. Which of the following is a green house gas? Options: a) Ethane b) Chlorofluoro carbons c) Methane d) Nitrogen oxides
60. Statement I : In human beings, molars are absent in
milk dentition. Statement II : The hardest substance in human body is secreted by odontoblasts. The correct option among: the following is Options: a) Statements I and II are true. b) Statements I and II are false. c) Statement I is true. But II is false. d) Statement I is false. But II is true.
61. Assertion (A): In the transport of carbon dioxide
by blood bicarbonates are formed in plasma and in red blood cells, but more rapidly in RBC. Reason (R): RBC contains higher quantity of carbonic anhydrase than in plasma. The correct option among the following is Options: a) Both A and R are true. R is correct explanation
of A.
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b) Both A and R are true. R is not correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
62. The composition of lymph and blood plasma ai-e
almost the same except for the absence of Options: a) Lymphocytes b) Neutrophils c) Erythrocytes d) Antibodies
63. Following are the parts of nephron
I) Proximal convoluted tubule II) Collecting duct III) Distal convoluted tubule IV) Loop of Henle V) Malpighian body Arrange these parts in correct sequence. Options: a) V, III, I, II, IV b) V, I, IV, III, II c) V, I, IV, II, III d) V, IV, III, II, I
64. A - band in skeletal muscle doesn’t contain:
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Options: a) M line b) Thin filaments c) Z line d) Thick filaments
65. Match the following:
Spinal nerves Number A) Cervical nerves I) 12 pairs B) Thoracic nerves II) 8 pairs C) Lumbar nerves III) 1 pairs D) Coccygeal nerves IV) 6 pairs V) 5 pairs
The correct match is Options:
A B C D a) II IV V III
A B C D b) II I V III
A B C D c) III V I II
A B C D d) IV III I II
66. Statement I : Thyroxine regulates the basal
metabolic rate
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Statement II : Thyrocalcitonin plays an imp01iant role in maintaining the calcium and phosphate levels in blood. The correct option among the following is Options: a) Statement I and statement II are connect b) Statement I and statement II are false c) Statement I is true. Statement II is false d) Statement I is false. Statement II is true
67. Assertion (A): Spleen is a secondary lymphoid
organ. Reason (R) : Mature lymphocytes become functional lymphocytes in it. The correct option among the following is Options: a) Both A and Rare true. R is correct explanation
for A b) Both A and Rare hue. R is not correct
explanation for A c) A is true. But R is false d) A is false. But R is true
68. Statement I: During spermatogenesis, the sperm
heads embedded in Sertoli cells are finally released from the seminiferous tubules by the process spermatogenesis.
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Statement II: The mature follicle called Graafian follicle contains secondary oocyte. The correct option among the following is Options: a) Statements I and II are true. b) Statements I and II are false. c) Statement I is true But II is false. d) Statement I is false. But II is true.
69. Study the following statements.
I) Barrier contraceptives like condoms prevent SIDs. II) The ideal contraceptives for spacing the children are IUDs in India. III) Depotmecdroxy progesterone acetate injection provides contraception for three years. IV) Oral contraceptive pills inhibit ovulation as well as implantation and alters cervical mucus retarding sperm entry. Find out the correct from the above statements. Options: a) Only I and II are correct b) Only III and IV are correct c) Only I, II and IV are correct d) I, II, III and IV are correct
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70. If one gene influences many phenotypic traits, the phenomenon is called Options: a) Polygenetic inheritance b) Pleiotropy c) Multifactorial inheritance d) Multiple alleles
71. Assertion (A) : In honey bees females are diploid
and males are haploid Reason (R) : Females develop from fertilized egg while unfertilized eggs develop into males. The correct option among the following is Options: a) Both A and R are true. R is correct explanation
for A b) Both A and R are true. R is not correct
explanation for A c) A is true. But R is false d) A is false. But R is true
72. Match the following:
Karyotype Sexual phenotype A) AAXX A) Metafemale B) AAXY II) Female C) AAXXX III) Male D) AAAXX IV) Metamale
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V) Intersex The correct match is Options:
A B C D a) II III IV I
A B C D b) II III I V
A B C D c) I II III IV
A B C D d) IV III V I
73. Study the following and pick up the incorrect
statement: Options: a) Erythroblastosis fetalis is caused when Rh-
mother carries Rh+ foetus. b) In honey bees, unfertilized eggs develop into
drones c) Genes located on non-homologous part in Y-
Chromosome are called holandric genes d) Thalassemia is an X-linked recessive disorder
74. The hormone that stimulates the reabsorption of
Ca++ ions in the uriniferous tubules is Options:
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a) Parathormone b) Calcitonin c) Thyroxine d) Vasopressin
75. In human evolution, more ape like individual
Options: a) Astralopithecusa b) Dryopithecus c) Ramapithecus d) Homo habihs
76. Follow the three column matching and find out the
correct combination. S. No Era Period Significant
event I) Palaeozoic Carboniferous Origin of
cotylosaurs II) Palaeozoic Permian Extinction
of trilobites
III) Mesozoic Triassic Origin of dinosaurs
IV) Mesozoic Jurassic Origin of birds
Options: a) Only II & IV
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b) Only III & IV c) Only I, II and IV d) I, II, III and IV
77. Peripatus is a connecting link between
Options: a) Reptilia – Mammalia b) Reptilia -Aves c) Annelida – Arthropoda d) Protozoa – Porifera
78. ∝ - 1 antitrypsin is used to treat
Options: a) Emphysema b) Phenylketonuria c) Haemophilia d) Sickle cell anaemia
79. Match the following:
Type of cancer Affected tissue A) Carcinoma I) Genetical B) Sarcoma II) Epithelial tissue C) Familial cancer III) Non genetical D) Sporadic cancer IV) Connective tissue V) Nervous tissue
The correct match is
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Options: A B C D
a) II IV V III A B C D
b) V III I IV A B C D
c) III I IV II A B C D
d) II IV I III
80. Assertion (A) : MRI is, a very safe diagnostic procedure Reason (R) : This technique uses magnetic resonance. The correct option among the following is Options: a) Both A and Rare true. R is correct explanation
for A b) Both A and R are true. R is not coned
explanation for A c) A is true. But R is false d) A is false. But R is true
Physics
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81. Identify the scientist who experimentally verified the predictions of theory of electro-weak force. Options: a) Carlo Rubia b) Abdus Salam c) Steven Weinberg d) Edwin Hubble
82. At normal incidence, a beam of light propagating
in vacuum reflects of an interface with a medium of refractive index n= 3. The fraction of energy
reflected R is given as 21
1nRn− = +
If the
fractional error in the value of 11 is 1 %, the fractional error in the estimation of R is Options: a) 1.5% b) 2.0% c) 2.5% d) 0.5%
83. A man in a lift ascending with an acceleration
throws a ball vertically up with a velocity V and catches it after time 3 sec. Aft.e1wards when the lift i8 descending with the same acceleration, the man again throws the ball vertically up with the
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same velocity and catches it after 1 sec. Find V (use g= 10 m/s2). Options: a) 7.5 m/s b) 9.0 m/s c) 10.5 m/s d) 12.0 m/s
84. An object is moving in a plane and its trajectory
( )r t
(in meter) is given by, ( ) ( ) 3 2 2r t t t i t j= + +
,
where tis time (in second). The angle that the velocity vector makes with the X-axis at t = 0. Options: a) 0o b) 30o c) 45o d) 60o
85. A ball is projected at a cliff of height H with an
initial speed of 100 m/s at an angle 30° above the horizontal. The ball hits the point A on the cliff after 5s. The height of the cliff is (Assume g = 10 m/s2)
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Options: a) 50 m b) 100 m c) 125 m d) 150 m
86. A particle starts from the origin with an initial
velocity ( )3.0 /v j m s=
and a constant
acceleration ( )0.5 1.0a i j= − −
The velocity of the
particle when it reaches its maximum y coordinate is Options: a) 2 i b) -1.5 i +1.5 j c) -1.5 i d) 1.5 i + 1.0 j
87. A constant horizontal force F of 30 N is applied to
block A of mass 10 kg which pushes against block
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B of mass 5 kg. What is the net force on the block A? The blocks are placed on a frictionless table.
Options: a) 20N b) 15N c) 10N d) 5N
88. A particle is tied to a string describes a ve1tical
circular motion of radius r continually. If it has a velocity 3gr at the highest point, then the ratio of the respective tensions in the string holding it at the highest and lowest points is Options: a) 4 : 3 b) 5 : 4 c) 1 : 4 d) 3 : 2
89. An elevator can cany a maximum load of 1000 kg
is moving up with a constant speed of 2 m/s. The
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frictional force opposing the motion is 2000 N. The minimum power delivered by the motor to the elevator is (Assuming = 10 m/s2 ) Options: a) 18 kw b) 24 kw c) 20 kw d) 26 kw
90. A force ( ) ( ) 23 4F x N i N j= +
, (where x is in meters) acts on a particle. Assuming that only kinetic energy is changed the net work done on the pariicle as it moves from position ( )2 3i j+ to
( )3 1i j m+
Options: a) 10 J b) 15 J c) 20 J d) 25 J
91. Consider a two block system having masses MA =
3kg and MB = 2kg, as shown in the figure. If block A is pushed towards the centre of mass through a distance 200 cm, by what distance should the block
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B be moved so as to keep the centre of mass at the same position.
Options: a) 200 cm b) 300 cm c) 130 cm d) 250 cm
92. A force of ( )7 3 5i j k N+ − acts on a pa1iicle
whose position vector is ( )i j k m− + . Find the
torque experienced by the particle about the origin in N - m. Options: a) 2 12 10i j k+ + b) 3 10 12i j k+ + c) 10 12 2i j k+ + d) 12 10 2i j k+ +
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93. A damped oscillator consists a mass-spring system with mass 2 Kg and spring constant of 10 N/m.
The damping . force is given by dxbdt
−
where b
= 280 g/s. The time required for the amplitude of
the oscillations to reduce to one-fourth 14
th
of its
Options: a) 14 s b) 20 s c) 28 s d) 30 s
94. The escape velocity of a spherical planet of radius
R and density ρ is V. If the radius of this planet is changed to 3R and density is changed to 3 ρ , then the escape velocity of the planet will be changed to Options: a) 9V b) 3 2 V c) 2 3V d) 3 3V
95. A wire of 2 m has its one end fixed to a rigid
support and a mass of 4 kg is suspended from the
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other end. If the radius of the wire is 0.2 mm find the extension produced in the wire. • Neglect the mass of wire • Assume g = 9.8 m/s2
10 29.8 10 /Y N m= × Options:
a) 1 cmπ
b) 2 cmπ
c) 4 cmπ
d) 8 cmπ
96. Select the incorrect statements from the following:
Options: a) Bunsen burner and sprayers work on Bernoulli's
principle b) Blood flow in arteries is explained by Bernoulli's
principle c) A siphon works on account of atmospheric
pressure d) Relative viscosity of blood is always constant in
humans
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97. Specific heat of an ideal gas at constant volume Cv and at constant pressure C Pare related to universal gas constant are as Options:
a) 1p
v
CR
C= −
b) p vC C R− =
c) 1p vC C
R− =
d) p vC C R+ =
98. A body cools down from 75 °C to 70 °C in time ( ∆ t1 ) from 70 °C to 65 °C in time (∆ t2 ) and 65 °C to 60 °C in time ( ∆ t3 ) . The correct statement according to Newtons law of cooling is Options: a) 1 2 3t t t∆ > ∆ > ∆ b) 1 2 3t t t∆ < ∆ < ∆ c) 1 2 3t t t∆ = ∆ = ∆ d) 2 1 32 t t t∆ = ∆ > ∆
99. 1 gm of water at 100 °C is completely conve1ied
to steam at 100 °C, occupies 1800 cc. The increase in the internal energy of the molecules is: (take the pressure = 105 Pa, Latent heat of vaporisation (L) = 540 cal/gm, 1 cal = 4.2 J)
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Options: a) 2088 J b) 2488 J c) 2178 J d) 2218 J
100. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are
connected to each other via a stopcock. Cylinder A contains an ideal gas at standard pressure P0. The cylinder A & B are in thermal contact with a reservoir at temperature T. The stopcock is suddenly opened. After the gas reaches equilibrium the pressure P is related to the original pressure P0 by Options:
a) 012
P P=
b) 0P P= c) 02P P= d) 0 log 2P P=
101. A bat is moving at 10 mis towards a wall and
sends a sound signal of 6.6 kHz towards it. On reflection, it hears a frequency 'f . Find the value of 'f . (The speed of sound = 340 n s)
Options:
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a) 7.5 kHz b) 7.0 kHz c) 7.2 kHz d) 7.1 kHz
102. Consider a glass and water interface. If a light ray
incident at the glass water interface with an angle of i' and the ray emerges parallel to surface of water. what is refractive index of glass?
a) 1 b) 1.5
c) 1sin i
d) Sini
103. A light ray through a glass prism of angle 60° under goes a minimum deviation of 30° .What is the speed of light in the prism? (Assume c = speed of light in air)
a) 2c
b) 2
c
c) 2 c d) 2c
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104. Two identical light waves, propagating in the same direction have a phase difference S . After they superpose, the intensity of the resulting wave will be proportional to
Options: a) ( )cos δ b) ( )cos / 2δ c) ( )2cos / 2δ d) ( )2cos δ
105. An electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric
field. Assuming the angle between the electric field and dipole axis is 45°, the dipole will experience
Options: a) a force that will displace it in the direction of the
field b) a force that will displace it in a direction opposite
to the field c) a torque which will rotate it without displacement d) a torque which will rotate it and a force that will
displace it.
106. The equivalent capacitance between points P and Qin the following circuit is
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Options: a) 2 Fµ b) 4 Fµ
c) 83
Fµ
d) 163
Fµ
107. A metal wire carries a charge of 1200 C in 20
minutes. If the area of the cross-section of the wire is 25 mm2 and the material of the metal contains 6.0 × 10-22 free electrons cm3, the drift velocity of the electrons in the wire is
Options: a) 64.9 10 /m s−× b) 64.2 10 /m s−× c) 64.6 10 /m s−× d) 64.5 10 /m s−×
108. Find the current I in the circuit below that flows
through 20 Ω resistor.
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Options:
a) 138
A
b) 178
A
c) 218
A
d) 238
A
109. In the case of moving coil galvanometer, the
deflection is Options: a) non linearly proportional to the current b) directly proportional to the current c) directly proportional to the product of the current
and the sine of the angle of deflection. d) inversely proportional to the current.
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110. Consider a long straight conducting wire. The magnetic field is determined as B at a distance of 5 cm from the wire. The field at 40 cm from the wire would be
Options: a) 4B
b) 2B
c) 8B
d) B
111. In the magnetic meridian of a ce11ain place, the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field
is 35
G and the dip angle of a magnetic neeclle is
30°. What is the magnetic field of the earth at this location?
Options: a) 0.4 G b) 0.2 G
c) 2 35
G
d) 25
G
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112. Tue magnetic flux linked (in Weber) with a coil of resistance 10 Ω is varying with respect to time 't' as (∅) = 4t2 + 2t + 1. Then the current in the coil at time t = 1 second
Options: a) 0.5 A b) 2 A c) 1.5 A d) 1 A
113. The core of any transformer is laminated so as to
Options: a) reduce the energy loss due to eddy currents b) make it light weight c) make it robust and strong d) increase the secondary voltage
114. Let frequencies of green light infrared light, radio
wave and blue light are 1 2 3, ,v v v and V4 respectively. The correct statement
Options: a) 1 2 3 4v v v v> > > b) 4 4 2 1v v v v> > > c) 4 1 2 3v v v v> > > d) 4 2 1 3v v v v> > >
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115. A hydrogen atom with a velocity V' absorbs a photon of wavelength 1650 A and stops. If the mass of hydrogen atom is 1.6 × 10-27 kg, the value of V is(use h = 6.6 × 10-34 J- sec)
Options: a) 20 m/s b) 2.5 m/s c) 1.5 m/s d) 3.0 m/s
116. The shortest wavelength in the Balmer series of
hydrogen atom in terms of Rydberg constant RH is Options:
a) 4
HR
b) 2
HR
c) 365 HR
d) 1
HR
117. A radioactive sample weighs 1 gram at t =0. The
sample decays to 0.5 g by t = 1Hr. At this time (t = 1 Hr), another 0.5 g is added to the sample. At
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what time after t = 0 the radioactive sample is reduced to 0 .1 g?
Options: a) ( )2ln n
b) ( )
10ln 2
c) ( )( )
ln 5ln 2
d) ( )( )
ln 10ln 2
118. To operate a n-p-n transistor m active region, its
emitter-base and collector-base junction respectively should be
Options: a) reverse biased and reverse biased b) forward biased and forward biased c) forward biased and reverse biased d) reverse biased and forward biased
119. The minimum number of 2-input NAND gates
required to implement a OR gate Options: a) 2 b) 3
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c) 4 d) 5
120. For practical application modulation index
Options: a) can take any value b) should be less than 100 % c) should exceed 100 % d) exactly 100 %
Chemistry
121. Assertion (A) : The effective nuclear charge experienced by the outer shell electron is greater than that of inner shell electron
Reason (R): Shielding by the inner shell electron causes reduced attraction between the nucleus and outer shell electron The correct option among the following is Options: a) (A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct
explanation for (A) b) (A) is true (R) is true but (R) is not the correct
explanation for (A) c) (A) is true but (R) is false d) (A) is false but (R) is true
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122. For which of the following cases, the effect of Heisenberg uncertainty principle has significant consequences?
Options: a) An object of mass of 10-6 kg b) An electron of mass of 9.11 × 10-31 kg c) A golf ball of mass 10 g· d) A football
123. Lithium and beryllium have diagonal relationship
respectively with Options: a) Sodium and Calcium b) Boron and Carbon c) Potassium and Calcium d) Magnesium and Aluminium
124. The element with atomic number 61 belongs to
which group? Options: a) Transition element b) Lanthanoids element c) Actinoids element d) Main group element
125. Which of the following species has square planar
geometry?
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Options: a) 4CF b) 4BH − c) 4SF d) 4IF −
126. Calculate the formal charges on each atoms in the
following Lewis structure of O3 molecule
Options: a) ( ) ( ) ( )1 2 3; 1 , ; 1 , ;0O O O− +
b) ( ) ( ) ( )1 2 3; 1 , ;0 , ; 1O O O− −
c) ( ) ( ) ( )1 2 3; 1 , ;0 , ; 1O O O− −
d) ( ) ( ) ( )1 2 3; 1 , ;0 , ; 1O O O+ −
127. 335 gm of a gas is contained in a 50 L container under 8.2 atm pressure at 27 °C. \1/hat is the name of the gas?
Options:
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a) He b) H2 c) N2 d) Ne
128. A mixture of nitrogen and water vapor is admitted
to a flask that contains a solid drying agent. Immediately after admission; the pressure in the flask is 760 Ton. Aft.er standing for some hours, the pressure reaches a steady value of 745 Ton. Calculate the mole percent of water vapor in the original mixture.
Options: a) 20% b) 10% c) 5% d) 2%
129. The correct option referenced to the below
statements is Statement (i) : In the combustion of methane water is one of the products. Statement (ii) : Combustion of 32 grams of methane gives 18 grams of water. Options: a) both (i) and (ii) are true b) both (i) and (ii) are false
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c) (i) is false, but (ii) is true d) (i) is true, but (ii) is false
130. Which of the following statements is not proposed
by Dalton's atomic theory? Options: a) Matter consists of indivisible atoms. b) All atoms of a given element have identical
properties, including identical masses. c) Compounds can be formed when atoms of
different elements combine in fractional number ratios.
d) In a chemical reaction, atoms are neither created nor destroyed.
131. Which of the following statements is true for an open system?
Options: a) There is an exchange of matter but not energy
between the system and the surrounding. b) There is an exchange of energy and matter
between the system and the surrounding. c) There is only exchange of matter between the
system and the surrounding. d) There is no exchange of matter but exchange of
energy is possible.
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132. For preparing a buffer solution of pH = 9 by mixing ammonium chloride and ammonium hydroxide, the ratio of concentrations of salt and base should be ( )310bK −=
Options: a) 1 : 1 b) 10 :1 c) 100 : 1 d) 1000 : 1
133. What is the correct order of acidity for 3 4 2, , ?NH NH NH+ −
Options: a) 3 4 2NH NH NH+ −> > b) 4 3 2NH NH NH+ −> > c) 4 2 3NH NH NH+ +> > d) 3 2 4NH NH NH+ −> >
134. Choose the correct statement with reference to
water and hydrogen peroxide Options: a) Water is polar but H2O2 is non-polar b) Both are polar c) Both are non-polar d) Water is non-polar but H2O2 is polar
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135. The oxidation states of Rb in RbO2 and Na in Na2O2 are respectively
Options: a) +1,+1 b) +2,+1 c) -1,+2 d) -2,-2
136. Borax reacts with cone. HCI to produce a boron
containing compound X. Heating X with C2H5OH converted into Y, which gives greenedged flame. Identify X and Y
Options: a) ( )3 3 2 5 33
and X H BO Y C H BO= = b) 2 2 5 3 and X HBO Y C H BO= = c) ( )2 3 2 5 33
and X B O Y C H BO= = d) 2 6 3 3 and X B H Y H BO= =
137. Among the following, which is metalloid?
Options: a) Si b) c c) Pb d) Ge
138. Which of the below statements is/are correct?
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(i) Ozone is a toxic gas (ii) Ozone is strong oxidising agent (iii) Ozone cannot react with unburnt hydrocarbons in air Options: a) (i) and (ii) only b) (ii) and (iii) only c) (i) and (iii) only d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
139. The oxidation states of the iron atoms in prussain
blue coloured complex formed during the test for the presence of nitrogen in an organic compound are
Options: a) +2 and +2 b) 0 and +3 c) +3 and +2 d) +3 and +3
140. Which one of the following reactions will not take
place? Options: a) 2 4.
3 2Br CClCH CH CH− = →
b) 2 .3 2 3
Cl hvCH CH CH → c) [ ]6 5 22
3 2HCl C H CO OCH CH CH= →
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d) 3 2 2ElectrolysisCH CH COON →
141. The weakest base among the following species is
Options: a) 3 2CH CH b) 2CH CH −= c) HC C−≡ d) 2 2Ph CH CH −−
142. NaCl and KCl crystallize in FCC structure. Their
respective diffraction patterns will look like Options: a) FCC and FCC b) Simple Cubic and Simple Cubic c) Simple Cubic and FCC d) FCC and Simple Cubic
143. At 300 K, a decimolar solution of ( )4 6
K Fe CN dissociates to 50 %. The osmotic pressure of the solution is
Options: a) 12 atm b) 7.2 atm c) 9.6 atm d) 14.4 atm
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144. Which among the following produces basic aqueous solution?
Options: a) 2 3Na CO b) ( )4 4NH SO c) 3FeCl d) 4NaHSO
145. Calculate the pH of the following half cell:
Pt, H2IH2SO4. (Given the oxidation electrode potential of the half cell is+ 0.3V) Options: a) 0.1 b) 1 c) 5 d) 10
146. For a first order reaction, A B, log k 1
T
curve ha gradient of-5000 K. The activation energy of the reaction in kJ/mol is
(R is the ideal gas constant) Options: a) 11.5R b) 5.5R c) 9.5R
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d) 5.0R
147. Gold numbers of protective colloids A, B, C and Dare 0.7. 0.02 0.12 and 0.0047 respectively. The correct order of their protective power is
Options: a) D<A<C<B b) C<B<D<A c) B<D<A<C d) A<C<B<D
148. What is P in the following reaction?
2 3 2 52.3,2 hot conc NaOHKAl O H O P→
Options: a) ( )3 6
Na Al OH
b) ( )4Na Al OH
c) ( )2 5Na Al OH
d) ( )3Na Al OH
149. Which of the following is not an allotrope of phosphorous?
Options: a) White phosphorous b) Red phosphorous c) Black phosphorous
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d) Green phosphorous
150. Which one among the following is the most electronegative element?
Options: a) O b) S c) Te d) Se
151. Which of the following ions exhibits color in aqueous solution?
Options: a) 3Sc + b) 2Ni + c) 4Ti + d) 2Zn +
152. Magnetic measurement indicates that [
Co(OH2)6]2+ has three unpaired electrons. Therefore, the hybridization of the metal in [ Co(OH2 )6]2+ is
Options: a) 3sp b) 3sp d c) 3dsp d) 3 2sp d
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153. Copolymerization of 1, 3-butadiene and
acrylonitrile gives Options: a) Buna-S b) cis-Polyisoprene c) Orlon d) Buna-N
154. "Which of the following amino acids is/are optically active?
(i) Glycine (ii) Alanine (iii) Leucine (iv) Isoleucine Options: a) (i) only b) (iii) and (iv) only c) (i), (iii) and (iv) d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
155. Sulphur containing artificial sweetening agents are
Options: a) Aspartame and Saccharin b) Aspartame and Sucralose c) Sucralose and Alitame d) Alitame and Saccharin
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156. Decreasing order of C-X bond enthalpies of the following alkyl halides is
(i) CH3 CH2Br (ii) CH3CH2F (iii) CH3CH2I (iv) CH3CH2Cl Options: a) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) b) (ii)> (i) >(iii)> (iv) c) (iv) > (ii)> (i) > (iii) d) (ii)> (iv)> (i) > (iii)
157. Which one of the following reactions gives a
primary alcohol as the major product? Options: a) Acetone + methyl magnesium bromide b) Formaldehyde + methyl magnesium bromide c) Benzaldehyde + methyl magnesium bromide d) Acetaldehyde + methyl magnesium bromide
158. The major product formed in the following
reaction sequence, is
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Options:
a)
b)
c)
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d)
159. The major products P Q and R in the following reaction sequence, are
Options:
a)
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b)
c)
d)
160. An unsymmetrical organic compound decolorized one mole of Br2 in CCl4 and released N2 gas upon reaction with HNO2 . The compound is
Options:
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a)
b)
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c)
d)