VIBRANT ACADEMY ENGLISH

Vibrant Academy (I) Pvt. Ltd. "A-14(A)" Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.) Ph. 0744-2425408 (edge.vibrantacademy.com) 1

Direction (1 to 5) :Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below each passage.

The camel is the oldest of domestic animals. It has been used for thousands of years, by the desert people

of Africa and Asia to supply many of their needs. On the fertile edges of the desert, camels pull ploughs,

the wheels to irrigate the fields and carry goods to market. In the desert itself, they are still almost the only

means of transport.

They supply food, milk and clothing in the form of wool and leather.

This useful animal is well adapted to life in harsh, arid lands. The Arabian camel has one hump; the

Bactrian camel has two. The hump is, in fact, a store of fat which is used as a source of energy when food

and water are scarce. The camel can take up to 100 litres of water in ten minutes.

The camel has broad, soft feet for a steady grip in the sand. A thick skin protects it from the fierce daytime

sun and bitterly cold nights. The camel's eyes have three eyelids to help keep out sand; its ears and nose

are also adapted to keep out sand storms. Often called 'The ships of the desert', they can carry loads of

200 kilos and more, travelling up to 160 kilometres a day.

1. Camel is the mainstay of the desert people of the world because it_____.

(A) does many works relating to their life (B) ploughs

(C) transports things (D) supplies them many things

2. Without camels the life of the desert people shall stop because_____.

(A) camels supply them many things (B) they do various duties

(C) they provide them with essential things (D) they are domestic animals

3. Camels don't drink water almost daily because_____.

(A) they store it in their bodies (B) they don't have much thirst

(C) their taking up much more water lasts long (D) they have no liking for it

4. It is rightly said that camels are called the ships of the desert because_____.

(A) without them desert life is not possible (B) they do many jobs

(C) they help the desert people in many ways (D) they are never tired


But I did not want to shoot the elephant. I watched him beating his bunch of grass against his knees, withthe preoccupied grandmotherly air that elephants have. It seemed to me that it would be murder to shoothim. I had never shot an elephant and never wanted to. (Somehow it always seems worse to kill largeanimal.) Besides, there was the beast's owner to be considered. But I had got to act quickly. I turned tosome experienced-looking Burmans who had been there when we arrived, and asked them how the el-ephants had been behaving. They all said the same thing; he took no notice of you if you left him alone, buthe might charge if you went too close to him.

5. The phrase 'Preoccupied grandmotherly air' signifies_____.(A) being totally unconcerned (B) pretending to be very busy(C) a very superior attitude (D) calm, dignified and affectionate disposition

6. From the passage it appears that the author was_____.(A) an inexperienced hunter (B) kind and considerate(C) possessed with fear (D) a worried man

7. The author did not want to shoot the elephant because he_____.(A) was afraid of it(B) did not have the experience of shooting big animals(C) did not wish to kill animal which was not doing anybody any harm(D) did not find the elephant to be ferocious

DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SHEET

VIBRANT ACADEMY (India) Private Limited

ENGLISHCLASS VII - CBSE

DPP NO. 1

TOPIC : READING COMPREHENSION



Harold, a professional man who had worked in an office for many years, had a fearful dream. In it, he foundhimself in a land where small slug-like animals with slimy tentacles lived on people's bodies. The peopletolerated the loathsome creatures because after many years they grew into elephants which then becamethe nation's system of transport, carrying everyone wherever he wanted to go. Harold suddenly realisedthat he himself was covered with these things, and he woke up screaming. In a vivid sequence of picturesthis dream dramatised for Harold what he had never been able to put in to words; he saw himself as lettingsociety feed on his body in his early years so that it would carry him when he retired. He later threw off the"security bug" and took up freelance work.

8. In his dream Harold found the loathsome creatures_____.

(A) in his village (B) in his own house

(C) in a different land (D) in his office

9. Which one of the following phrases best helps to bring out the precise meaning of 'loathsome creatures'?

(A) Security bug and slimy tentacles (B) Fearful dream and slug-like animals

(C) Slimy tentacles and slug-like animals (D) slug-like animals and security bug

10. The statement that 'he later threw off the security bug' means that_____.

(A) Harold succeeded in overcoming the need for security

(B) Harold stopped giving much importance to dreams

(C) Harod started tolerating social victimisation

(D) Harold killed all the bugs troubled him

11. Harold's dream was fearful because_____.

(A) it brought him face to face with reality

(B) it was full of vivid pictures of snakes

(C) he saw huge elephant in it

(D) in it he saw slimy creatures feeding on people's bodies


Laws of nature are not commands but statements of acts. The use of the word "law" in this context is ratherunfortunate. It would be better to speak of uniformities in nature. This would do away with the elementaryfallacy that a law implies a law giver. If a piece of matter does not obey a law of nature it is not punished. Onthe contrary, we say that the law has been incorrectly started.

12. If a piece of matter violates nature's law, it is not punished because_____.

(A) it is not binding to obey it

(B) there is no superior being to enforce the law of nature

(C) it cannot be punished

(D) it simply means that the facts have not been correctly stated by law

13. Laws of nature differ from man-made laws because_____.

(A) the former state facts of Nature (B) they must be obeyed

(C) they are natural (D) unlike human laws, they are systematic

14. The laws of nature based on observation are_____.

(A) conclusion about the nature of the universe. (B) true and unfalsifiable.

(C) figments of the observer imagination. (D) subject to change in the light of new facts.

15. The author is not happy with word 'law' because_____.

(A) it connotes rigidity and harshness

(B) it implies an agency which has made them

(C) it does not convey the sense of nature's uniformity

(D) it gives rise to false beliefs


DPP NO. 2

TOPIC : SENTENCES

Direction : Tick mark the correct answer :-

1. The tennis team won the state championship. The subject is

(A) tennis (B) team (C) championship (D) None of these

2. Several thousand people watched the parade. The predicate is

(A) several (B) watched (C) parade (D) None of these

3. Identity theft is a significant problem in the United States. The predicate is

(A) theft (B) is (C) problem (D) None of these

4. The study of human populations is called demography. The predicate is

(A) study (B) populations (C) is called (D) None of these

5. We were puzzled by her explanation. The subject is

(A) we (B) were puzzled (C) explanation (D) None of these

6. Sally never finishes her homework on time.

(A) Exclamatory (B) Interrogative (C) Imperative (D) Declarative

7. Who helped you feed the dogs?

(A) Declarative (B) Exclamatory (C) Interrogative (D) Imperative

8. I can't believe they won the game!

(A) Interrogative (B) Imperative (C) Exclamatory (D) Declarative

9. Did you finish your homework last night?

(A) Exclamatory (B) Declarative (C) Imperative (D) Interrogative

10. Watch the ball.

(A) Interrogative (B) Exclamatory (C) Declarative (D) Imperative

11. Mr. Brown can be very strict.

(A) Imperative (B) Interrogative (C) Declarative (D) Exclamatory

12. Wash the dishes before dinner.

(A) Declarative (B) Imperative (C) Interrogative (D) Exclamatory

13. I am so excited, we are going to Paris!

(A) Exclamatory (B) Interrogative (C) Imperative (D) Declarative

14. Did you see that baseball game?

(A) Interrogative (B) Exclamatory (C) Imperative (D) Declarative

15. Mrs. Smith needs help watering her roses.

(A) Declarative (B) Imperative (C) Interrogative (D) Exclamatory

16. The professor handed out a syllabus the first day of class. The subject is

(A) professor (B) syllabus (C) class (D) None of these

17. Most colleges offer several computer science courses. The predicate is

(A) colleges (B) offer (C) courses (D) None of these

18. Typing is an important skill. The subject is

(A) typing (B) is (C) skill (D) None of these

19. Everyone recognizes the name Oprah. The subject is

(A) Everyone (B) name (C) Oprah (D) None of these

20. A schedule helps students with time management. The predicate is

(A) schedule (B) helps (C) management (D) None of these


DPP NO. 3

TOPIC : NOUNS


1. The noun form of ‘responsible’ is

(A) responsability (B) responsibality (C) responsibility (D) responsibly

2. The proper noun in the following is

(A) Kabir (B) market (C) army of soldiers (D) bravery

3. The masculine gender of the noun 'bee' is

(A) drone (B) fly (C) drake (D) bee

4. John has hatred for swimming. The abstract noun is

(A) John (B) for (C) swim (D) hatred

5. The correct collective noun in the following is

(A) a pride of peacocks (B) a flock of peacocks

(C) a herd of peacocks (D) a colony of peacocks

6. The noun 'parliament' means

(A) a cultural body in any country (B) a religious body in any country

(C) an entertaining body in any country (D) a legislative body in any country

7. The proper noun in the sentence is

(A) seed (B) table (C) deer (D) Kanpur

8. The collective noun 'choir' means

(A) a group of singers (B) a group of ladies (C) a group of ants (D) a group of birds

9. The feminine form of the noun 'monk' is

(A) friar (B) lady (C) woman (D) nun

10. The noun form the verb 'dine' is

(A) dinely (B) dinner (C) dining (D) dineless

11. The collective noun for ‘lion’ is

(A) a herd of lions (B) a pack of lions (C) a pride of lions (D) a heal of lions

12. The feminine form of the noun 'lord' is

(A) lady (B) lordess (C) lordy (D) sister

13. The abstract noun of 'Dangerous' is

(A) danger (B) dangerly (C) dangerousness (D) dangerful

14. The correct sentence is

(A) Whose books are these? (B) Who books are these?

(C) Whom books are these? (D) Where books are these?

15. The meaning of 'pharmacy' is

(A) a kids store (B) a fancy store (C) a drug store (D) a pet store

16. The feminine gender of ‘horse’ is

(A) colt (B) mare (C) filly (D) stag

17. The plural form of ‘mouse’ is

(A) mice (B) mouses (C) mices (D) mouse

18. The antonym of the abstract noun 'gloomy' is

(A) cheerly (B) cheerful (C) cherish (D) cheers

19. The collective noun of 'thieves' is

(A) a swarm of thieves (B) a team of thieves (C) a den of thieves (D) a spring of thieves

20. Neuter gender in the following is

(A) child (B) teacher (C) computer (D) poetess


DPP NO. 4

TOPIC : PRONOUNS


1. My wife and _______________ went to see the movie.

(A) I (B) me (C) my (D) myself

2. I love you more than ______________.

(A) he (B) him (C) his (D) their

3. You and Ram have done ____________ work.

(A) his (B) our (C) your (D) their

4. Three of _____________ went to Pune.

(A) us (B) ours (C) those (D) theirs

5. The rivers of America are longer than _____________ of Europe.

(A) this (B) these (C) those (D) that

6. The jury were divded in _____________ opinion.

(A) it (B) his (C) its (D) their

7. Neither of the teachers could express_____________ideas.

(A) his (B) this (C) these (D) their

8. I __________washed my clothes.

(A) I (B) my (C) am (D) myself

9. Sheela absented ___________ from the office.

(A) himself (B) him (C) his (D) herself

10. She has not completed the task__________.

(A) herself (B) her (C) him (D) his

11. Lalita can _______________ find the lost key.

(A) himself (B) him (C) his (D) herself

12. ____________ Raj or Kamal will come today.

(A) Either (B) All (C) Every (D) Each

13. ____________ student of this class is allowed to go to the library.

(A) Those (B) All (C) Every (D) These

14. _____________ has to look after one’s own business.

(A) Two (B) Three (C) Five (D) One

15. ____________ pen is this ?

(A) What (B) Who (C) Whose (D) Which

16. ____________ is sweeter than honey ?

(A) Who (B) What (C) Whom (D) Which

17. There were four problems __________ had to be tackled.

(A) who (B) what (C) that (D) which

18. Any person ______________ does not listen to you is a fool.

(A) what (B) whom (C) that (D) which

19. All ____________ glitters is not gold.

(A) who (B) that (C) those (D) which

20. All of them depend upon _____________.

(A) one other (B) each other (C) one another (D) both ‘B’ and ‘C’


DPP NO. 5

TOPIC : ADJECTIVES


1. Her hair is long and _________.

(A) curly (B) happy (C) slim (D) late

2. He drives a bright red sports car. It's very _________.

(A) wild (B) shallow (C) fast (D) tall

3. Today, the weather's going to be ___________.

(A) hopeful (B) warm (C) blue (D) urgent

4. This house is _________ and old.

(A) awkward (B) electric (C) large (D) fat

5. I'm feeling really ________ today.

(A) late (B) long (C) happy (D) round

6. The food at this supermarket is always _________.

(A) gentle (B) hopeful (C) empty (D) fresh

7. Her new husband is very ________.

(A) high (B) smart (C) urgent (D) relaxing

8. Take care of this letter, it’s ________.

(A) urgent (B) round (C) blonde (D) fresh

9. I had a brilliant holiday. It was really _______.

(A) relaxing (B) loving (C) low (D) straight

10. I have fallen in love with a _________ woman.

(A) closed (B) beautiful (C) wooden (D) handsome

11. Which word is an adjective?

(A) after (B) pretty (C) taste (D) none of these


(A) dirty (B) ran (C) away (D) none of these


(A) eat (B) hot (C) meal (D) none of these


(A) beautiful (B) over (C) wave (D) none of these

15. It is very ______ to write clearly.

(A) dangerous (B) important (C) silly (D) none of these

16. There are no more ______ towels in the cupboard.

(A) white (B) dirty (C) empty (D) none of these

17. I can’t afford that coat. I need to find a _______ one.

(A) black (B) cheaper (C) fashionable (D) none of these

18. I’ve lost my glasses so I’m wearing my ________ ones.

(A) clean (B) better (C) old (D) none of these

19. Be careful - the roads are ______ after the rain.

(A) slippery (B) long (C) bendy (D) none of these

20. How many adjectives are there in this sentence? I thought the film was very long and boring.

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) none of these


DPP NO. 6

TOPIC : DEGREE OF COMPARISION

Direction : Fill in the blanks using correct degree of adjectives.

1. Her dress is (pretty) ______________ than mine.

2. Cheetahs are (fast) ______________ animals we can find.

3. Eating fruit and vegetables is (healthy) ______________ than eating hot dogs.

4. I like milk (good) ______________ than coffee.

5. China has (many) ______________ people than any other country in the world.

6. The blue whale is (heavy) ______________ animal in the world.

7. Which is (big) ______________, Portugal or Spain?

8. Travelling by plane is (comfortable) ______________ than travelling by car.

9. He is (untidy) ______________ person in class.

10. Buying things from plastic is (bad) ______________ than buying things from recycled paper.

11. The Nile is (long) ______________ river in the world.

12. In Mark’s opinion History is (difficult) ______________ than Geography. However, it is (interesting)

______________ .

13. Antarctica is one of (cold) ______________ places on Earth.

14. Greece is (hot) ______________ than England.

15. Mirror, mirror on the wall, who’s (pretty) ______________ of them all?

16. Elvis Presley is one of (popular) ______________ rock singers ever.

17. Jenny is (tall) ______________ than Alice even though she is (young) ______________.

18. Switzerland is one of (rich) ______________ countries in the world.

19. People in Africa are the (poor) ______________ in the world.

20. Alexander the Great was a (good) ______________ leader than Xerxes.


DPP NO. 7

TOPIC : VERBS

Direction : Pick out the correct verb from the four alternatives suggested below.

1. They

(A) doesn't enjoy watching TV . (B) don't enjoy watching TV.

(C) hasn't enjoy watching TV. (D) haven't enjoy watching TV.

2. The past and past participle for verb hide is

(A) hide and hidden (B) hid and hid (C) hid and hidden (D) hide and hade

3. Find verb in the following

(A) former (B) formation (C) form (D) from.

4. Her roommate usually

(A) help her. (B) helps her. (C) is helping her. (D) was helping her.

5. Karuna and Kamla

(A) are teachers (B) is teachers (C) be teachers (D) am teachers

6. The past participle of verb 'trot' is

(A) troted (B) trots (C) troting (D) trotted

7. The past tense of verb 'try' is

(A) tryed (B) tried (C) tred (D) tryded

8. The past and past participle of hit is

(A) hitted and helted (B) hit and hat (C) hat and hut (D) hit and hit

9. Sentence with helping verb is

(A) has made a picture. (B) made a picture. (C) makes a picture. (D) make a picture.

10. The verb in the following list of words is

(A) large (B) fair (C) examination (D) interfere

11. The antonym of tie is

(A) untie (B) tied (C) tier (D) tired

12. The past tense of fly is

(A) flown (B) flied (C) flyed (D) flew

13. The past of hop is

(A) hoped (B) hopping (C) hopped (D) hopeded

14. Tina sat in the chair and

(A) read the book (B) has read the book (C) is reading the book (D) readed the book

15. While he was watching TV, his brother

(A) were played cricket. (B) plays cricket. (C) was playing cricket. (D) played cricket.

16. The past of chew is

(A) chewd (B) chew (C) chewn. (D) none

17. He has

(A) eat his food. (B) eaten his food. (C) ate his food. (D) eated his food.

18. I have never

(A) drank coconut milk. (B) drink coconut milk. (C) dranked coconut milk. (D) drunk coconut milk.

19. They have

(A) did their work. (B) do their work. (C) done their work. (D) does their work.

20. The past and past participle of ‘know’ is

(A) knew, known (B) knowed, knowed (C) know, known (D) knew, knewed


DPP NO. 8TOPIC : ADVERBS

Direction : Tick mark the correct answer :-1. The correct interrogative adverb in the sentence is

(A) When are you going to London? (B) Where are you going to London?(C) Which are you going to London? (D) Who are you going to London?

2. The antonym of the adverb 'delightfully' is(A) agreeable (B) sorrowfully (C) pleasantly (D) enjoyably

3. Sunday morning I woke up(A) later (B) lately (C) late (D) latest

4. My telephone is(A) temporarily out of order. (B) temporary out of order.(C) temporate out of order. (D) temper out of order.

5. Vimal drove(A) to avoid being late quickest. (B) quickly to avoid being late.(C) quick to avoid being late. (D) quicker to avoid being late.

6. The correct sentence is(A) How old is your son now? (B) What old is your son now?(C) Which old is your son now? (D) Where old is your son now?

7. He is(A) absolute wonderful. (B) absolutefully wonderful.(C) absolutingly wonderful. (D) absolutely wonderful.

8. Razia spoke to me(A) angrily. (B) angry. (C) anger. (D) angryfully.

9. He spoke well at(A) the meeting night last. (B) the meeting last night.(C) the meeting night last. (D) last the meeting night.

10. I like your handwriting. You write very(A) neat. (B) illegibly. (C) neatly. (D) neatful.

11. The water in the pond is(A) extreme dirty. (B) extremely dirty. (C) extremeful dirty. (D) extremelessly dirty.

12. I haven't seen him(A) lately. (B) late. (C) latest. (D) later.

13. The redwood tree was(A) impressively tall. (B) impressly tall. (C) impressive tall. (D) impressfully tall.

14. We(A) usual have breakfast at eight. (B) used to have breakfast at eight.(C) usually have breakfast at eight. (D) usuality have breakfast at eight.

15. These mangoes are(A) most ripe. (B) almost ripe. (C) almostly ripe. (D) almostfully ripe.

16. Rajesh was(A) part responsible for the crime. (B) partfully responsible for the crime.(C) partly responsible for the crime. (D) partingly responsible for the crime.

17. Raj drives(A) in a careful manner. (B) carefully. (C) with caution. (D) carefull.

18. The sentence with correct adverb in the following sentence is(A) I looked for the keys anywhere but didn't find them.(B) I looked for the keys many where but didn't find them.(C) I looked for the keys everywhere but didn't find them.(D) I looked for the keys somewhere but didn't find them.

19. I(A) quickfully opened the gold envelope. (B) quickly opened the gold envelope.(C) quickful opened the gold envelope. (D) quicker opened the gold envelope.

20. He is(A) probable in the park. (B) probability in the park.(C) probably in the park. (D) probablely in the park.


DPP NO. 9

TOPIC : PREPOSITIONS

Direction: Choose suitable prepositions :

1. She was sitting________ her two sisters.(A) between (B) among (C) in (D) on

2. She has been waiting ________ the bus-stop for two hours.(A) for (B) on (C) at (D) in

3. She was cutting vegetables ________a knife.(A) from (B) to (C) by (D) with

4. He lends money ________ interest.(A) on (B) at (C) by (D) with

5. There was a fly ________the milk.(A) in (B) on (C) over (D) into

6. The car ran ________the snake.(A) over (B) on (C) at (D) to

7. My friends always go home_________ foot.(A) by (B) with (C) on (D) upon

8. She always looks ________her guests.(A) for (B) after (C) about (D) into

9. Wise people do not believe ________superstitions.(A) in (B) about (C) of (D) to

10. What are you wearing _________the party ?(A) at (B) on (C) after (D) for

11. He will meet you ________the evening of July the first.(A) in (B) on (C) at (D) for

12. This is the knife ________which the murder was committed.(A) by (B) on (C) with (D) from

13. She has lived in that town ________several years.(A) from (B) by (C) for (D) since

14. I expect him ________ call me today.(A) at (B) on (C) with (D) to

15. I had two eggs ______ breakfast.(A) between (B) with (C) among (D) for

16. Man is entirely different ________other animals.(A) with (B) for (C) from (D) on

17. I have given ________smoking.(A) of (B) from (C) up (D) out

18. The boats are ________the bridge.(A) under (B) in (C) over (D) on

19. Birds are flying ________the bridge.(A) on (B) over (C) with (D) under

20. I have not seen him ________Monday.(A) on (B) from (C) for (D) since


DPP NO. 10

TOPIC : DETERMINERSDirection : Tick mark the correct answer :-1. Very____ people fly just because of terrorist activities.

(A) little (B) much (C) many (D) few

2. Johnny is a keen player but unfortunately he has____ skills.(A) few (B) none (C) some (D) little

3. If we don't move faster, we'll miss our transfer to Munich. There isn't ____ time to waste.(A) little (B) any (C) many (D) few

4. Unfortunately, I haven't got____ time for watching TV.(A) few (B) no (C) much (D) little

5. You can buy these maps at____ station. They all have them.(A) a lot of (B) several (C) some (D) any

6. The correct option for the sentence is(A) How many books did you buy? (B) How much books did you buy?(C) How many a books did you buy? (D) How a lot of books did you buy?

7. The correct option is(A) There was little hope for the patient. (B) There was the little hope for the patient.(C) There was few hope for the patient. (D) There was a few hope for the patient.

8. 'This is her purse'. With the help of a possessive pronoun we can replace the same sentence as(A) This purse is his. (B) This purse is hers. (C) This purse is theirs. (D) This purse is mine.

9. The correct option for the sentence is(A) Few members were absent from the meeting.(B) Little members were absent from the meeting.(C) A few members were absent from the meeting.(D) A little members were absent from the meeting.

10. Using a specific (the) or general (a/an) determiner, the correct option is(A) The Ravi is a boy. (B) Ravi is an boy. (C) Ravi is the boy. (D) Ravi is a boy.

11. If you have____ questions, I'm ready to answer.(A) little (B) any (C) much (D) plenty

12. I didn't have____ trouble getting the passports. I only had a problem with my photo because it was an oldone.(A) much (B) any (C) no (D) several

13. There is____ water left, so drink only if you must.(A) some (B) little (C) few (D) much

14. There isn't____ point at all in getting upset about it.(A) few (B) several (C) any (D) many

15. ____ coat will do. It doesn't need to be a raincoat.(A) Little (B) No (C) Any (D) Few

16. The correct option is(A) at the dinner. (B) at a dinner. (C) at an dinner. (D) at dinner.

17. Using a specific (the) or general (a/an) determiner, the correct option is(A) Mr. Ritwik is a M.L.A. from Manipur. (B) Mr. Ritwik is an M.L.A. from Manipur.(C) Mr. Ritwik is the M.L.A. from Manipur. (D) Mr. Ritwik is M.L.A. from the Manipur.

18. I am(A) a English teacher. (B) an English teacher.(C) any English teacher. (D) each English teacher.

19. The correct option for the sentence is(A) How many hours do you work? (B) How much hours do you work?(C) How many a hours do you work? (D) How a lot of hours do you work?

20. 'He' is a personal pronoun. With an appropriate possessive the correct option is(A) He is going to its house. (B) He is going to their house.(C) He is going to my house. (D) He is going to his house.


DPP NO. 11

TOPIC : CONJUNCTIONS

Direction : Tick mark the correct answer :

1. The little girl smiles

(A) whenever she sees me. (B) after she sees me.

(C) because she sees me. (D) by the time she sees me.

2. I was allowed to go home

(A) so that I could take rest. (B) after I take rest.

(C) till I take rest. (D) before I take rest.

3. You can have ice-cream

(A) before you no longer have fever. (B) so that you no longer have fever.

(C) until you no longer have fever. (D) now that you no longer have fever.

4. The news was published

(A) as all could know about it. (B) as soon as all could know about it.

(C) in order that all could know about it. (D) provided that all could know about it.

5. You can take a leave

(A) provided that you return on time. (B) so that you return on time.

(C) only that you return on time. (D) even if you return on time.

6. You can either hire an auto rickshaw

(A) but come on foot. (B) after you come on foot.

(C) nor come on foot. (D) or come on foot.

7. The stadium was empty

(A) until the match ended. (B) by the time the match ended.

(C) while the match ended. (D) till the match ended.

8. She was spending so much

(A) that she won a lottery. (B) unless she won a lottery.

(C) while she won a lottery. (D) as though she had won a lottery.

9. Amitabh is tall

(A) although Jaya is short. (B) even if Jaya is short.

(C) if Jaya is short. (D) whereas Jaya is short.

10. Give me a call

(A) now that you find him. (B) while you find him.

(C) if you find him. (D) since you find him.

11. She got the job

(A) and she does not have any experience. (B) as if she does not have any experience.

(C) while she does not have any experience. (D) though she does not have any experience.

12. I ate so much

(A) since I could not walk. (B) though I could not walk.

(C) as I could not walk. (D) that I could not walk.

13. Raunak is taller

(A) as Vineet. (B) before Vineet. (C) than Vineet. (D) for Vineet.


14. I will go to school

(A) because it is raining. (B) if it is raining.

(C) where it is raining. (D) although it is raining.

15. I have not met him

(A) wherever he took up a new job. (B) since he took up a new job.

(C) until he took up a new job. (D) though he took up a new job.

16. He came last

(A) as he ran very fast. (B) since he ran very fast.

(C) till he ran very fast. (D) although he ran very fast.

17. He is both cunning

(A) or selfish. (B) nor selfish. (C) and selfish. (D) yet selfish.

18. I was absent

(A) after I was ill. (B) though I was ill. (C) before I was ill. (D) because I was ill.

19. You cannot succeed

(A) after you work hard. (B) before you work hard.

(C) unless you work hard. (D) so you work hard.

20. I will confess

(A) before I leave. (B) because I leave. (C) so I leave. (D) though I leave.

DPP NO. 12

TOPIC : ACTIVE & PASSIVE VOICE

Direction : Tick mark the correct answer :

1. The teacher is teaching the class. The correct passive form of the sentence is

(A) The class is being taught by the teacher.

(B) The class was being taught by the teacher.

(C) The class will be taught by the teacher.

(D) The class has been taught by the teacher.

2. She was cooking dinner when I arrived. The passive form of this sentence is

(A) The dinner is being cooked when he arrived.

(B) The dinner was being cooked when he arrived.

(C) The dinner was cooked when he arrived.

(D) The dinner is cooked when he arrived.

3. Before the semester was over, the programme

(A) had approved. (B) was being approved.

(C) had been approved. (D) is being approved.

4. Our plan is still

(A) being considered. (B) been considered.

(C) has considered. (D) was considered.

5. When the Director came, the problem

(A) was already been solved. (B) is already been solved.

(C) had already been solved. (D) will already been solved.


6. I will introduce you to my friend tomorrow. The passive voice of this sentence is

(A) you are been introduced to my friend tomorrow.

(B) you will be introduced to my friend tomorrow.

(C) you have been introduced to my friend tomorrow.

(D) you had been introduced to my friend tomorrow.

7. The bridge

(A) is still built. (B) was still built. (C) will still built. (D) is still being built.

8. The Old Man and the Sea

(A) was being wriiten by Hemingway. (B) was wriiten by Hemingway.

(C) has written by Hemingway. (D) was wrote by Hemingway.

9. The last day's match

(A) has disrupted due to heavy rain. (B) has been disrupted due to heavy rain.

(C) have been disrupted due to heavy rain. (D) is been disrupted due to heavy rain.

10. We buy and sell old books. The passive voice of the sentence is

(A) Old books is bought and sold here. (B) Old books are bought and sold here.

(C) Old books have bought and sold here. (D) Old books shall bought and sold here.

Direction : Write the Passive form of the following sentences:

1. I have taken food.

Ans. ___________________________________

2. Stand up.

Ans. ___________________________________

3. Please have a seat.

Ans. ___________________________________

4. Let him open the door.

Ans. ___________________________________

5. All like it.

Ans. ___________________________________

6. They are shouting slogans.

Ans. ___________________________________

7. He killed a mouse.

Ans. ___________________________________

8. She was mourning her grandpa’s death.

Ans. ___________________________________

9. Shut up.

Ans. ___________________________________

10. Let John do it.

Ans. ___________________________________


DPP NO. 13

TOPIC : DIRECT INDIRECT SPEECH

Direction : Tick mark the correct answer :-1. The children said," Hurray! We have won the competition." Indirect speech is

(A) The children said that they have won the competition.(B) The children exclaimed with joy that they had won the competition.(C) The children asked that they have won the competition.(D) The children asked whether they had won the competition.

2. They said that(A) they have been planning on an adventure trip for sometime.(B) they had been planning on an adventure trip for sometime.(C) they are planning on an adventure trip for sometime.(D) they had planned on an adventure trip for sometime.

3. They told us that all the employees(A) were invited for a buffet lunch on this occasion.(B) were invited for a buffet lunck on that occasion.(C) were inviting for a buffet lunch on that occasion.(D) will invited on this occasion.

4. "I need a reasonable explanation", said the warden. Indirect speech is(A) I need a reasonable explanation, told the warden.(B) The warden said I needed a reasonable explanation.(C) The warden said that she needed a reasonable explanation.(D) The warden told that she needs a reasonable explanation.

5. They said that(A) we are going to be delayed.(B) we were going to be delayed.(C) they were going to be delayed.(D) they going to be delayed.

6. The police announced that(A) the station has to be evacuated as there is a terror alert.(B) the station has to evacuate as there is a terror alert.(C) the station had to be evacuated as there was a terror alert.(D) the station had to be evacuated as there is a terror attack.

7. The contestants complained that(A) they will have performed better if they are given more time.(B) they will have performed better if they were given more time.(C) they would have performed better if they were given more time.(D) they would performed better if they were given more time.

8. Divya said,"I will visit my maternal aunt tomorrow."

(A) Divya said that she will visit my maternal aunt tomorrow.(B) Divya said that she visited her maternal aunt tomorrow.(C) Divya said that she would visit her maternal aunt the next day.(D) Divya said that she would visit her maternal aunt the previous day.

9. All my friends said that(A) they should has be informed about the reunion in advance.(B) they should have be inform about the reunion in advance.(C) they should have been inform about the reunion in advance.(D) they should have been informed about the reunion in advance.

10. He said,''Honesty is the best policy ''.(A) He said that honesty is the best policy.(B) He said that honesty was the best policy.(C) He said that honesty had been the best policy.(D) He said that honesty has been the best policy.


11. The guests said that(A) they had been waiting outside the venue.(B) we have been waiting outside the venue.(C) they are waiting outside the venue.(D) we are waiting outside the venue.

12. "Go and clean the mess in your room right now", said his elder brother. Indirect speech is(A) His elder brother asked him to cleaned the mess in your room right now.(B) His elder brother ordered him to clean the mess in his room right then.(C) His elder brother requested him to clean the mess in his room right then.(D) His elder brother asked him to clean the mess in his room right now.

13. Rohan said that(A) I have been a fervent admirer of Indian classical music.(B) I had been a fervent admirer of Indian classical music.(C) he has been a fervent admirer of Indian classical music.(D) he had been a fervent admirer of Indian classical music.

14. Their aunt(A) said that switch off the television and go to sleep.(B) said that they switch off the television and go to sleep.(C) ordered them to switch off the television and go to sleep.(D) told them that switch off the television and go to sleep.

15. "Will they be able to meet the deadline?" asked she. Indirect speech is(A) She asked will they be able to meet the deadline.(B) She asked whether they will be able to meet the deadline.(C) She asked would they be able to meet the deadline.(D) She asked whether they would be able to meet the deadline.

16. Reema asked me, "Will you attend the seminar?"(A) Reema asked me will I attend the seminar.(B) Reema said to me will I attend the seminar.(C) Reema asked me whether you would attend the seminar.(D) Reema asked me whether I would attend the seminar.

17. Riya asked Shreya,"Are you aware of this route?"(A) Riya asked Shreya that is she aware of this route.(B) Riya asked Shreya whether she was aware of that route.(C) Riya asked Shreya was she aware of that route.(D) Riya asked Shreya that whether she was aware of that route.

18. Our elders said to us,''Hard work is the key to success.''(A) Our elders told us that hard work was the key to success.(B) Our elders told us that hard work is the key to success.(C) Our elders told us that hard work has been is the key to sucees.(D) none of these

19. He said .''The earth is round.''(A) He told that the earth was round. (B) He told that the earth has been round.(C) He said that the earth is round. (D) He said that the earth had been round.

20. "Leave me alone, I am not in a mood to talk right now", said Lisa to her friend.(A) Lisa said to her friend that leave me alone I am not in a mood to talk.(B) Lisa asked her friend to leave her alone she was not in a mood to talk right now.(C) Lisa told her friend to leave her alone as she was not in a mood to talk then.(D) Lisa told her friend that leave me alone as I was not in a mood to talk then.


DPP NO. 14

TOPIC : SUBJECT VERB CONCORD

Direction : Tick mark the correct answer :-1. One hundred dollars

(A) is a lot for this pair of trousers. (B) are a lot for this pair of trousers.(C) were a lot for this pair of trousers. (D) have been a lot for this pair of trousers.

2. A number of people(A) are waiting to see you. (B) is waiting to see you.(C) was waiting to see you. (D) has been waiting to see you.

3. The chairman, along with his two assistants(A) have planned to visit London. (B) plan to visit London.(C) plans to visit London. (D) were planned to visit London.

4. There(A) are too much crime today. (B) have too much crime today.(C) were too much crime today. (D) is too much crime today.

5. Bread and butter(A) are his only food. (B) were his only food.(C) is his only food. (D) have been his only food.

6. One of my best friends(A) are a doctor. (B) is a doctor. (C) were a doctor. (D) have a doctor.

7. Few mountain climbers(A) has reached the peak. (B) have reached the peak.(C) was reached the peak. (D) is reached the peak.

8. None of them(A) had ready to do this work. (B) are ready to do this work.(C) were ready to do this work. (D) have been ready to do this work.

9. None(A) had helpless. (B) was helpless. (C) are helpless. (D) has been helpless.

10. Not only the players but also the coach(A) was happy. (B) were happy. (C) have been happy. (D) are happy.

11. There(A) is many reasons for the delay. (B) was many reasons for the delay.(C) has many reasons for the delay. (D) are many reasons for the delay.

12. The team(A) run during practice. (B) were running during practice.(C) have run during practice. (D) runs during practice.

13. Every boy and every girl(A) was given a gift. (B) were given a gift.(C) are given a gift. (D) have been given a gift.

14. The doctor who has helped thousands of patients(A) is here. (B) are here.(C) were here. (D) have been here.

15. Social Studies(A) are an interesting subject. (B) have an interesting subject.(C) were an interesting subject. (D) is an interesting subject.

16. Dogs and cats(A) are both playing. (B) is both playing. (C) was both playing. (D) has been both playing.

17. Every one of them(A) has done their duty. (B) has done his duty. (C) are done their duty. (D) were done their duty.


18. The United States(A) are having a big navy. (B) were having a big navy.(C) have a big navy. (D) has a big navy.

19. A car and a bike(A) are means of transportation. (B) is means of transportation.(C) were means of transportation. (D) have means of transportation.

20. Two hours(A) is a long time to wait for the doctor. (B) are a long time to wait for the doctor.(C) were a long time to wait for the doctor. (D) have been a long time to wait for the doctor.

DPP NO. 15

TOPIC : MODALS

Direction : Tick mark the correct answer :-1. You _____________ go now. It is too late.

(A) must (B) will (C) can (D) may

2. When he grows up he ___________ like to be an engineer.(A) would (B) should (C) must (D) will

3. Nobody ___________ enter this room without permission.(A) must (B) can’t (C) mustn’t (D) shall

4. That _____________ to be Raju’s car.(A) used (B) must (C) can (D) should

5. He _________ to go for swimming once a week.(A) ought (B) used (C) should (D) must

6. She ____________ go there now because her brother has done her work.(A) must not (B) need not (C) can not (D) should not

7. Run fast lest you _____________ miss the train.(A) will (B) can (C) should (D) ought to

8. _____________we read this book ?(A) shall (B) can (C) would (D) may

9. He _______________ come anytime.(A) may (B) must (C) can (D) will

10. Soliders __________ obey orders.(A) must (B) may (C) should (D) can

11. If I were a parrot, I ____________ fly.(A) can (B) would (C) may (D) will

12. I ____________ rather fail than adopt unfair means.(A) should (B) might (C) will (D) would

13. We ______________ pay our taxes.(A) can (B) might (C) would (D) must

14. ___________ you play with us ?(A) can (B) may (C) shall (D) will

15. He ran as fast as he____________(A) can (B) could (C) may (D) might

16. You ____________ have worked harder.(A) need not (B) might (C) can (D) should

17. You ____________ to finish your work in time.(A) ought (B) shall (C) should (D) must


18. You ____________ tell the truth.(A) can’t (B) must (C) won’t (D) may

19. He was very strong, he ___________ hunt all day and dance all night.(A) can (B) could (C) would (D) might

20. The swimmer was tired but he ____________ reach the shore before he collapsed.(A) could (B) will (C) was able to (D) must

DPP NO. 16

TOPIC : PUNCTUATIONS

Direction : Tick mark the correct answer :-1. Which of this is not a punctuation mark?

(A) Full stop (B) Comma (C) Colon (D) Hashtag

2. Which of these is used after a nominative absolute?(A) Colon (B) Comma (C) Full stop (D) Question mark

3. Which of these is used to separate short co-ordinate clauses of a compound sentence?(A) Semicolon (B) Comma (C) Full stop (D) Colon

4. Which of these is used to separate a series of loosely related clauses?(A) Comma (B) Full stop (C) Semicolon (D) Colon

5. Which of these is used between sentences which are grammatically independent?(A) Colon (B) Semicolon (C) Comma (D) Hyphen

6. Which of these is used to convey proportions?(A) Semicolon (B) Colon (C) Comma (D) Hyphen

7. Choose the correct statement :(A) My aunt who lives in Mumbai is a doctor. (B) My aunt, who lives in Mumbai, is a doctor.(C) My aunt, who lives in Mumbai is a doctor. (D) My aunt who lives in Mumbai, is a doctor.

8. Choose the correct statement :(A) I met a beautiful, European woman. (B) I met a beautiful European woman.(C) I met a beautiful European, woman. (D) I met a beautiful, European, woman.

9. Which sentence has the correct ending punctuation mark?(A) Tom went to the store to buy bread, (B) Tom went to the store to buy bread!(C) Tom went to the store to buy bread. (D) Tom went to the store to buy bread?

10. Which sentence has the correct ending punctuation mark?(A) Bob and Bill won the fishing contest and the prize was $1,000,(B) Bob and Bill won the fishing contest and the prize was $1,000!(C) Bob and Bill won the fishing contest and the prize was $1,000?(D) Bob and Bill won the fishing contest and thr proze was $1,000.

11. Which sentence has the correct ending punctuation mark?(A) When is your birthday. (B) When is your birthday(C) When is your birthday? (D) When is your birthday!

12. Whcih sentence has the correct ending punctuation mark?(A) The parade is coming and I am going to get lots of candy?(B) The parade is coming and I am going to get lots of candy!(C) The parade is coming and I am going to get lots of candy(D) The parade is coming and I am going to get lots of candy,

13. When will you return to our city....(A) ? question mark (B) ! exclamation mark(C) . full stop (D) None of these

14. Wow....You really obtained a gold medal in the Olympics.(A) ? question mark (B) ! exclamation mark(C) . full stop (D) None of these


15. They offered the children bananas....apples...pears and plums.(A) , a comma (B) ; semi-colon(C) - a hyphen (D) None of these

16. The rich man was a self...made man.(A) No punctuation mark (B) - a dash(C) - a hyphen (D) None of these

17. ...I haven't seen Carol today,...said Tom(A) () brackets (B) " " speech marks(C) , commas (D) None of these

18. The children were told to bring the following items... a pen, a pencil, a ruler and an exercise book.(A) , a comma (B) ; a semi-colon (C) : a colon (D) None of these

19. Jim lives in Australia...his brother lives in England.(A) - a hyphen (B) ; semi-colon (C) : colon (D) None of these

20. I found Claire..s jacket on the chair.(A) - a hyphen (B) , a comma (C) ' an apostrophe (D) None of these

DPP NO. 17

TOPIC : ONE WORD SUBSTITUTION

Direction : In questions given below out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted forthe given word/sentence.

1. Extreme old age when a man behaves like a fool(A) Imbecility (B) Senility (C) Dotage (D) Superannuation

2. That which cannot be corrected(A) Unintelligible (B) Indelible (C) Illegible (D) Incorrigible

3. The study of ancient societies(A) Anthropology (B) Archaeology (C) History (D) Ethnology

4. A person of good understanding knowledge and reasoning power(A) Expert (B) Intellectual (C) Snob (D) Literate

5. A person who insists on something(A) Disciplinarian (B) Stickler (C) Instantaneous (D) Boaster

6. State in which the few govern the many(A) Monarchy (B) Oligarchy (C) Plutocracy (D) Autocracy

7. A style in which a writer makes a display of his knowledge(A) Pedantic (B) Verbose (C) Pompous (D) Ornate

8. List of the business or subjects to be considered at a meeting(A) Schedule (B) Timetable (C) Agenda (D) Plan

9. Leave or remove from a place considered dangerous(A) Evade (B) Evacuate (C) Avoid (D) Exterminate

10. A prima facie case is such(A) As it seems at first sight (B) As it is made to seem at first sight(C) As it turns out to be at the end (D) As it seems to the court after a number of hearings

11. A person pretending to be somebody he is not(A) Magician (B) Rogue (C) Liar (D) Imposter

12. A person who knows many foreign languages(A) Linguist (B) Grammarian (C) Polyglot (D) Bilingual

13. One who has little faith in human sincerity and goodness(A) Egoist (B) Fatalist (C) Stoic (D) Cynic

14. One who possesses many talents(A) Versatile (B) Nubile (C) Exceptional (D) Gifted


15. Words inscribed on tomb(A) Epitome (B) Epistle (C) Epilogue (D) Epitaph

16. One who eats everything(A) Omnivorous (B) Omniscient (C) Irrestible (D) Insolvent

17. Malafide case is one(A) Which is undertaken in a good faith (B) Which is undertaken in a bad faith(C) Which is undertaken after a long delay (D) Which is not undertaken at all

18. The custom or practice of having more than one husband at same time(A) Polygyny (B) Polyphony (C) Polyandry (D) Polychromy

19. Tending to move away from the centre or axis(A) Centrifugal (B) Centripetal (C) Axiomatic (D) Awry

20. Teetotaller means(A) One who abstains from theft (B) One who abstains from meat(C) One who abstains from taking wine (D) One who abstains from malice

DPP NO. 18

TOPIC : IDIOMS

Direction : Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose the correct mean-ing of proverb/idiom, If there is no correct meaning given, E (i.e.) 'None of these' will be the answer.

1. To make clean breast of(A) To gain prominence (B) To praise oneself(C) To confess without of reserve (D) To destroy before it blooms(E) None of these

2. To keeps one's temper(A) To become hungry (B) To be in good mood(C) To preserve ones energy (D) To be aloof from(E) None of these

3. To catch a tartar(A) To trap wanted criminal with great difficulty (B) To catch a dangerous person(C) To meet with disaster (D) To deal with a person who is more than one's match(E) None of these

4. To drive home(A) To find one's roots (B) To return to place of rest(C) Back to original position (D) To emphasise(E) None of these

5. To have an axe to grind(A) A private end to serve (B) To fail to arouse interest(C) To have no result (D) To work for both sides(E) None of these

6. To cry wolf(A) To listen eagerly (B) To give false alarm(C) To turn pale (D) To keep off starvation(E) None of these

7. To end in smoke(A) To make completely understand (B) To ruin oneself(C) To excite great applause (D) To overcome someone(E) None of these

8. To be above board(A) To have a good height (B) To be honest in any business deal(C) They have no debts (D) To try to be beautiful(E) None of these

9. To put one's hand to plough(A) To take up agricultural farming (B) To take a difficult task(C) To get entangled into unnecessary things (D) Take interest in technical work(E) None of these


10. To pick holes(A) To find some reason to quarrel (B) To destroy something(C) To criticise someone (D) To cut some part of an item(E) None of these

11. To leave someone in the lurch(A) To come to compromise with someone (B) Constant source of annoyance to someone(C) To put someone at ease (D) To desert someone in his difficulties(E) None of these

12. To play second fiddle(A) To be happy, cheerful and healthy (B) To reduce importance of one's senior(C) To do back seat driving (D) To support the role and view of another person(E) None of these

13. To be the question(A) To refer to (B) To take for granted (C) To raise objections (D) To be discussed(E) None of these

14. A black sheep(A) An unlucky person (B) A lucky person(C) An ugly person (D) A partner who takes no share of the profits(E) None of these

15. A man of straw(A) A man of no substance (B) A very active person(C) A worthy fellow (D) An unreasonable person(E) None of these

16. To smell a rat(A) To see signs of plague epidemic (B) To get bad small of a bad dead rat(C) To suspect foul dealings (D) To be in a bad mood(E) None of these

17. To hit the nail right on the head(A) To do the right thing (B) To destroy one's reputation(C) To announce one's fixed views (D) To teach someone a lesson(E) None of these

18. To set one's face against(A) To oppose with determination (B) To judge by appearence(C) To get out of difficulty (D) To look at one steadily(E) None of these

DPP NO. 19

TOPIC : PHRASAL VERBS

Direction : Tick the correct phrasal verb.

1. He could feel the back of his neck_______ when they started talking about the tragedy.(A) burn on (b) burn in (c) burn up (D) burn of

2. Candace has a bad habit of________ when others are talking.(A) but in (B) but (C) but into (D) but against

3. Ken tried to ________his teachers in order to get a good report card.(A) butter up (B) butter over (C) butter in (D) butter down

4. The guard had to______ the dogs when Henry menacingly approached the locked gate.(A) call on (B) call down (C) call off (D) call for

5. Everyone could see by the grimace on his face that he didn't_______ the meal in front of him.(A) care on (B) care for (C) care of (D) care up

6. He didn't_______ to new concepts easily.(A) catch on (B) catch up (C) catch with (D) catch in


7. They _______the hotel late last night.(A) checked into (B) checked on (C) checked down (D) checked at

8. Due to his illness, he had lagged behind, so he worked hard to_______ with his missed school work.(A) catch on (B) catch up (C) catch (D) catch in

9. The couple_______of the hotel early this morning.(A) checked out (B) checked in (C) checked about (D) check down

10. Ronu always tried to_______on rainy days.(A) cheer everyone on (B) cheer everyone up (C) cheer everyone (D) cheer everyone in

11. Most of the kids at school thought he was scared and that he would_____ of the race.(A) chicken out (B) chicken (C) chicken in (D) chicken up

12. The supervisor asked everyone to _______to arrange for the manager's birthday present.(A) chip (B) chip over (C) chip in (D) chip about

13. He _______when the police officers started to question him about the robbery.(A) clammed (B) clammed up (C) clammed about (D) clammed down

14. Prime minister is determined to ________a change in the cabinet.(A) bring in (B) bring across (C) bring about (D) bring at

15. Rishi_______a terrible cold this week.(A) came up with (B) came about with (C) came down with (D) came in with

16. Lily was_______her friends to help her move.(A) counting down (B) counting about (C) counting on (D) count over

17. The new police chief is trying to________ on the current drug mafia in the city.(A) crack down (B) crack over (C) crack (D) crack upon

18. John is trying to _______on fatty foods.(A) cut down (B) cut up (C) cut about (D) cut off

19. The custody battle______ for many months.(A) dragged down (B) dragged on (C) dragged in (D) dragged off

20. The architect________ some blueprints for you last week.(A) drew on (B) drew up (C) drew down (D) drew with

DPP NO. 20

TOPIC : PROVERBS


1. With open arms

(A) Warmly (B) Cold blooded (C) Resemble (D) Coldly

2. By leaps and bounds

(A) very fast (B) very slow (C) in details (D) aimlessly

3. Lions share

(A) look angrily (B) major share (C) minor share (D) heart of the prey

4. To cry wolf

(A) To refer to (B) To emphasise (C) To have no result (D) To give false alarm

5. Out of question

(A) Resemble (B) Easy (C) Impossible (D) For the end

6. A hard nut to crack

(A) To be deceived (B) Lazy (C) To confirm (D) A difficult problem

7. Every trick in the book

(A) Nothing Happening (B) Be optomistic

(C) Try every possible way (D) Forgive someone


8. A black sheep

(A) Stranger (B) On the run

(C) Scoundrel (D) Gentleman

9. A turn coat

(A) One who changes one’s opinion or party (B) A wet coat

(C) A poor man (D) Man of principal

10. Bag and baggage

(A) All the clothing (B) Without any belonging

(C) Leave (D) With all one’s belongings

11. To end in smoke

(A) To come to nothing (B) To gain importance

(C) To praise oneself (D) To reach target

12. At arm’s length

(A) Length of arm (B) At a distance (C) Insult (D) Very near

13. Get rid of

(A) Invite somenone (B) Attend an occasion

(C) To begin to do something (D) Dispose of

14. Tie the knot

(A) To get married (B) To get educated (C) To hit someone (D) To be turned away

15. At daggers drawn

(A) real cause (B) to be puzzled (C) at enmity (D) at friendship

16. Up to the mark

(A) Feel greatly (B) Standard (C) Extinguish (D) Below standard

17. Lean and mean

(A) To destroy something (B) To create something

(C) Using only what is necessary (D) Not afraid dangerous situations

18. All and Sundry

(A) Everybody without distinction (B) only rich person

(C) together (D) selected people

19. A cock and bull story

(A) Interesting story (B) A detective story (C) An absurd tale (D) A relevant story

20. A bone of contention

(A) Bone of lion (B) A reason for discord (C) Cause of friendship (D) Continued to bed

DPP NO. 21

TOPIC : SYNONYMS AND ANTONYMS

Direction : Choose the correct SYNONYM of Bold words.

1. He is a fast runner. A) Quick B) Slow C) Energetic D) Calm

2. I am terrible at Mathematics. A) Good B) Great C) Awful D) Fantastic

3. Have you looked at the Invoice?A) Pen B) Bill C) Sheet D) Paper

4. Do you think I am stupid? A) Dumb B) Intelligent C) Brilliant D) Fast

5. He never comes on time. A) Sees B) Does C) Goes D) Arrives

6. This toy is inexpensive. A) Cheap B) Over priced C) expensive D) Good


7. The music is loud. A) Soft B) Blaring C) Pleasant D) Catchy

8. I require three big boxes. A) Need B) Threw C) Found D) got

9. He has a big house. A) Small B) Tiny C) Large D) Great

10. My girlfriend is very pretty. A) Ugly B) Strange C) Beautiful D) Stupid

Direction : Choose the correct ANTONYM of Bold words.

11. He is tall.A) Short B) Big C) Huge D) Hungry

12. It is hot outside. A) Warm B) Breezy C) Cold D) Stormy

13. This seems like a good hotel. A) Brilliant B) Bad C) Great D) Dirty

14. She is foolish. A) Dumb B) Idiotic C) Brainy D) Wise

15. That seems expensive. A) Overpriced B) Wealthy C) Great D) Inexpensive

16. This house is magnificent. A) Big B) Small C) Unimpressive D) Gigantic

17. Why are you being so arrogant? A) Snooty B) Stupid C) Humble D) Cunning

18. What about this restaurant? It's very popular. A) Infamous B) Dirty C) Unpopular D) Crowded

19. Do you want to go the beautiful valley? A) Ugly B) Dirty C) Filthy D) Nice

20. I do not want to live in this filthy colony.

A) Nice B) Dirty C) Clean D) Pretty

DPP NO. 22

TOPIC : JUMBLED WORDS

Direction : Rearrange the following words into meaningful sentences :

1. on/televisions/internet/the/accessed/is

2. carry/we/laptop/can/easily

3. important/is/it /eat/to/ breakfast

4. about/is/education/and/teaching/learning

5. America/colombus/discovered

6. sharda/the/room/being/was/cleaned/by

7. the/boy/naughty/window/broke/pane/the

8. soldiers/a/battle/fought/was/by/the

9. the/wrote/Mahabharata/who

10. the/sweeps/sweepers/floor/the

11. differences/air temperature/is caused/it/by/in

12. weighs/warm air/less than/so/and/rises/it/cold air

13. rushes in/cooler air/underneath it/creating winds/then/lts place/take/to

14. is free/a the din and noise/village/from/city/of/the

15. crowdfree/there/open/and/atmosphere/is


DPP NO. 23

TOPIC : GAP FILLING

Direction : Fill in the blanks

1. Sher Singh’s father was known far and wide (a)..............‘Sher Singh Bahadur’. He lived a quiet life here in

Laldwani village, grazing his cattle. cultivating his bit of land. But (b).............. there was an expedition (c)

..............the jungle in search of big game, (d) ..............to shoot or photograph them, they sent (e)..............

this man, Bahadur the Brave. He (f)..............find tigers where there were (g).............. tigers at all. He could

look at the dry grass and tell everything (h)..............had happened there.

2. An American geologist Paul Walker, concerned (a)..............the melting of ice, buried a message in a bottle,

during his exploration (b)..............‘Ward Hunt Island’ in Nunavcit, Canada (c).............. 1959. He measured

the distance - about 1.2 metres - from a glacier to (d)..............he buried the message in a bottle requesting

that (e) ..............who found the note (f).............. contact him with an update on the glacier’s distance to

the bottle site.

3. A millionaire Indian couple facing charges (a) .............. enslaving and torturing two Indonesian women

(b) .............. released (c) ..............bail. (d) ..............of the time the women (e) .............. be kept (f) ..............strict

vigilance.

4. Located on (a)..............Grand Trunk Road between Khanna (b)..............Ludhiana, this serai-fort was built

by Mughal chieftain Lashkari Khan (c).............. the 16th century. Much of the structure is in ruins and has

(d)..............vandalised. The serai gained attention (e)..............parts of the Bollywood film “Rang de Basanti”

(f)..............shot here.

DPP NO. 24

TOPIC : OMISSION + ERROR SPOTING

OmissionIn the following passages one word has been omitted in each line. Write the missing word along

with the word that comes before and after it in your answer sheet against the correct blank

number. Ensure that the word that forms your answer is underlined.

1. In evening when we reached home e.g. In the evening

(a) of us were too tired to even think. (a) _____________

(b) All decided to have tea and snacks. (b) _____________

(c) Being eldest I had to prepare everything. (c) _____________

(d) I opened the refrigerator to find there wasn't milk (d) _____________

(e) to prepare ten cups of tea and very butter to make (e) _____________

(f) sandwiches. Somehow I managed to prepare tea. (f) _____________

(g) Everyone enjoyed tea and the snacks that (g) _____________

(h) I served but there wasn't tea left for me. (h) _____________

2. (a) Macbeth not really like to play fool. (a) _____________

(b) But the witches promised him greatness, (b) _____________

(c) and already two of their predictions had proved true. (c) _____________

(d) Now his mind to be obsessed with the intense (d) _____________

(e) desire for the third prediction to come true. It only (e) _____________

(f) human to want this greatness. As the seeds of ambition (f) _____________

(g) growing his mind to think dark thoughts about getting (g) _____________

(h) rid of Duncan and his sons. Being king a very attractive (h) _____________

proposition indeed.


Error SpottingThe following passages have not been edited. There is one error in each of the lines. Write the

incorrect word and the correction in your answer sheet as given below against the correct blank

number. Remember to underline the word that you have supplied.

Incorrect Correct

1. The house on which we were to live e.g. on in

was in one end of the village. (a) ______________ ______________

It was hiding behind a screen of (b) ______________ ______________

mango and orange tree and bushes (c) ______________ ______________

of hibiscus full from enormous (d) ______________ ______________

scarlet flowers. The house were adequate (e) ______________ ______________

without be luxurious. We had just finished (f) ______________ ______________

unpacking when they were greeted by the (g) ______________ ______________

housekeeper which name was Paula. (h) ______________ ______________

Incorrect Correct

2. Dance is an art form is e.g. is as

well known, for dance as a (a) __________ __________

therapy is not known in many. (b) __________ __________

Dance therapy involves a synthesis (c) __________ __________

of the grace and vigour on Indian (d) __________ __________

classical and folk dance

movements into a innovative (e) __________ __________

holistic therapy. It brings over the (j) __________ __________

inner feelings for the participants (g) __________ __________

and can help them with develop a healthy personality.

(h) __________ __________

DPP NO. 25

THREE QUESTIONS

1. Why did the king send two messengers throughout his kingdom?

2. How did the king promise to reward the person who would answer his questions correctly?

3. Whose advice did the king finally think of seeking?

4. Who did go alongwith the king to meet the hermit?

5. During which time of the day would the hermit would leave the forest and go out?

6. Why was the king advised to listen to his soldiers?

7. Why did the king refuse to give reward to anyone?

THE SQUIRREL

1. What is being compared to a gray overcoat?

2. Discuss the posture of the squirrel as discussed in line 3 of the poem.

3. Having observed the squirrels around us, can we say that a squirrel is a fast paced animal?

4. What does the poem say about the poet's choice of subject?

DPP NO. 26

A GIFT OF CHAPPALS

1. Who is Mridu and with whom Mridu went to Rukku Manni's place?

2. Why was Ravi dragging Mridu towards the backyard?

3. Why were the red chilli kept in the backyard?

4. The beggar was leaning against what in Ravi's garden?

5. Mridu had noticed in front of Meena's house a pair of chappals. Whom did they belong to?

6. What was in the cat's name that pleased Mridu?

7. How did Ravi link his cat with the Pallava kings?


THE REBEL

1. What does the rebel do when everybody talks during the lessons?

2. Why does the rebel choose to wear fantastic clothes?

3. Why do rebels always contradict the others?

4. Why does the society disapprove of the rebels?

DPP NO. 27

GOPAL AND THE HILSA-FISH

1. How did the fishmongers lure the customers to buy Hilsa?

2. Who was Gopal?

3. What did Gopal's wife think about him?

4. What were the remarks of two men on seeing Gopal in the market?

5. What was the king's reaction when he came to know that he had lost the challenge?

6. What happened when the king hear his courtiers talking about Hilsa fish?

7. Why did Gopla's wife find his activities strange?

THE SHED

1. Why were the hinges of the door rusty?

2. What does the speaker usually do while lying in the bed?

3. What did the speaker's brother say about the shed?

4. Comment on the speaker's resolve to go inside the shed?

DPP NO. 28

THE ASHES THAT MADE TREES BLOOM

1. What did the kind farmer do with the money he made from the gold?

2. How did the daimios reward the kind farmer?

3. What did the leader of the van do with the kind old man?

4. Why did the wicked couple drop their tools?

5. How did the wicked couple behave with the dogs passing by their house?

6. How did the kind old couple treat their dog?

7. Describe the change the cherry tree underwent after the kind old poured a pinch of ash over it.

CHIVVY

1. Why do the grown-ups tell the children not to talk with their mouth full?

2. What all instructions are given by the adults regarding noise?

3. What happens when the adults give too many instructions to the children?

DPP NO. 29

QUALITY

1. What proves that Mr Gessler was not an Englishman?

2. Where did Mr Gessler live?

3. What distinction Mr Gessler's shop had?

4. How did Mr Gessler found that the boot was not comfortable for author?

5. What material Mr Gessler used to make the boots?

6. Why did author preferred boots made by Mr Gessler than that of big firms?

7. The author felt sorry for complaining about his boots. What made him feel so?

TREES

1. Who have tea parties under the trees?

2. To what use a mother puts the trees?

3. Why do the fathers find trees useful?

4. Why the chopped down trees are called timber?


DPP NO. 30

EXPERT DETECTIVES

1. Why Maya called Nishad Seven?

2. Name the narrator in the lesson 'Expert Detectives'.

3. According to Maya what was the cause behind Mr Nath's scars?

4. What did Mr Nath thought Nishad had come to his place the second time for?

5. How was Nishad spending his unexpected holiday?

6. What made Nishad turn sympathetic towards Mr Nath?

7. Give a brief description about Mr Nath's visitor.

MYSTERY OF THE TAKING FAN

1. What does the phrase, "he ran as still as water" mean?

2. What was troubling the talking fan?

3. Why was all the 'mystery' spoilt?

4. Who do you think or understand what the talking fan wished to convey?

DPP NO. 31

THE INVENTION OF VITA-WONK

1. According to Charlie, what lives the longest?

2. Bristlecone pine trees live the longest. Whom did Mr Wonka asked Charlie to confirm his fact with?

3. What was unique about the Great Glass Elevator?

4. Whose knucklebones were collected by Willy Wonka?

5. Where did the old flea collected by Mr Wonka live?

6. What was the need for Mr Wonka to invent Vita-Wonk?

7. Name five ancient things collected by Mr Wonka.

DAD AND THE CAT AND THE TREE

1. How many times does the narrator's father try to climb the tree?

2. From where did the narrator' father get the ladder?

3. Describe the tone in which the narrator's father dismissed his wife's warning every single time.

4. Discuss plan A, B and C and the reasons for their respective failures.

DPP NO. 32

FIRE : FRIEND AND FOE

1. Why the early man was afraid of fire?

2. Give some examples of fuel.

3. Why a newspaper or stick lying in the open does not catch fire on its own?

4. Why gaps are left between buildings during construction?

5. How the discovery of fire has helped the mankind?

6. How fire is a good servant?

7. Before fire brigades were set out, how people tried to put out fire?

MEADOW SURPRISES

1. What kind of surprise could be found while walking on the grass?

2. Why is one unable to see a rabbit initially?

3. Which all houses are characterised by the term 'meadow houses'?

4. Describe the various sights that one comes across in the meadows.


DPP NO. 33

A BICYCLE IN GOOD REPAIR

1. Where did the author planned to do alongwith his friend?

2. Who the author called the right person to shake the bicycle?

3. Which was the toughest part of the bicycle that the author's friend found the toughest to fix?

4. How the author and his friend spent the entire day?

5. Was it right for the author's friend to dismantle the bicycle?

6. How did the author said to encourage his friend to fix the gear-case?

7. What happened to the ball bearings?

GARDEN SNAKE

1. Why did the narrator run away seeing the garden snake?

2. What does a garden snake eat?

3. What makes the child comfortable the next time he sees the garden snake?

4. What lesson does the young child narrator learn from his mother?

DPP NO. 34

THE STORY OF CRICKET

1. Name one cricket ground that is oval in shape.

2. Mention the year when the cricket rules were written for the first time.

3. State two changes that were seen in the game of cricket around 1780.

4. The game of cricket traces its origin from where?

5. Where and by which community cricket was initially played in India?

6. What are the changes the cricket bat has undergone with time?

7. CK Nayudu name is recorded in his history of cricket. What are the reasons that make him a legend?


VIBRANT ACADEMY MATHEMATICS (India) Private Limited CLASS – VII (CBSE)

DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEM SHEET

DPP NO. 01 TOPIC: INTEGERS

1. Closure property is observed with respect to .......... operation in integers.

(A) +,X (B) +,X,/ (C) +,X,– (D) +,–,/

2. The sum of two integers is – 16. If one them is 20, then the other is :

(A) 36 (B) 4 (C) – 36 (D) none of these

3. What must be subtracted from – 3 to get – 9 ?

(A) – 6 (B) 12 (C) 6 (D) – 12

4. The value of (–1 )27

× (–1)53 × (–1)

4 is

(A) –1 (B) 1 (C) –1 or 1 (D) 2

5. The product of two integers is 12, if one integer is – 3 then the other one is :

(A) + 4 (B) – 4 (C) 3 (D) – 3

6. Resolve the brackets and simplify: (28 2) (56 8).

(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2

7. For integers:

(A) Addition is associative (B) Addition is commutative

(C) Integer “0” is the identity under addition (D) All of the above

8. Identify the property used in the following: 2 × 13 + 8 × 13 = ( 2+8 ) × 13

(A) Commutative (B) Closure (C) Associative (D) Distributive

9. 4864)9( .

(A) –15 (B) –33 (C) 10 (D) 33

10. The reciprocal of 1

9 is :

(A) –9 (B) 9 (C) 1 (D) –1

11. Write the value of :

(i) |18 – 8| (ii) – |3 – 2 |

(iii) 39 – [23 – {29 – (17 – 3–9 )}]. (iv) 118 – [121 ÷ (11 × 11) – (– 4) – { 3 – 2–9 }].

12. Arrange the following integers in descending order:

(i) –1, 10, 0, –3, 5, 99, –100 (ii) – 99, 54, 89, 70, –3, 0

13. Verify and name the property used :

(i) –110 × (–237) = (–237) × (–110) (ii) (–35 × 4) × (–152) = –35 × [4 × (–152)]

14. Fill in the blanks.

(i) 3 + 2 + (– 5) = ............ (ii) 5 – (– 7) + (– 2) = .......

(iii) – 3 + (– 2) – (5) = ....... (iv) 750 + ..... = 0

(v) 312 + ..... = 312 (vi) 7 × (– 3) × (– 2) = .....

(vii) (– 2) × (– 3) × (– 4) = ...... (viii) 5 × 6 × .... = – 30

(ix) 30 .... = – 6 (x) – 42 ....... = 21

(xi) 301 × 305 × 307 = 307 × ..... × 305 (xii) 7 × [60 + 75] = 7 × 60 + 7 × .....

(xiii) 3 × .... = 3 (xiv) 5 .... = 1

(xv) 0 700 = ....

15. (a) Write a pair of negative integers whose difference is 7.

(b) Write a pair of positive integers whose difference is – 5.


DPP NO. 02 TOPIC : FRACTIONS AND DECIMALS

1. Which of the following is a reducible fraction?

(A) 105

112 (B)

104

121 (C)

77

72 (D)

46

63

2. What should be subtracted from 0.1 to get 0.03 ? (A) 0.7 (B) 0.07 (C) 0.007 (D) none of these

3. The place value of 3 in 9.453 is: (A) tenth (B) hundredth (C) thousandth (D) thousand

4. If a = 2 × 3 and b = 3 2 then (A) a > b (B) a < b (C) a = b (D) none of the above

5. Which number completes the equivalent fraction? 8

3 =

?

9

(A) 14 (B) 24 (C) 27 (D) None of these

6. The expression 15

1

3

1

15

4 is equivalent to

(A) 9

1 (B) 9 (C)

5

1 (D) 5

7. Which one is correct? (A) 0· 658 < 0.732 < 0 . 514 < 0 . 813 (B) 0· 514 < 0· 658 < 0 . 732 < 0 . 813 (C) 0·813 < 0 ·732 < 0·658 < 0 . 514 (D) 0· 514 < 0· 732 < 0 . 658 < 0 . 813

8. Solve :

3

12

11

1

(A) 6

1 (B)

10

3 (C)

10

7 (D)

6

5

9. 0.64 × 0.64 + 0.64 × 0.72 + 0.36 × 0.36 = ...... (A) 0.5392 (B) 0.9682 (C) 1 (D) 0.8962

10. By what number should 12

1 be divided to get

3

2 ?

(A) 23

2 (B) 1

3

2 (C)

9

4 (D) 2

4

1

11. Subtract the sum of 66

45 and

33

31 from the difference of 3

11

4 and

22

3 .

12. The product of two decimals is 1.5008 . If one of them is 0.56, find the other.

13. (i) Express in rupee (a) 335 paise (b) 8 rupees and 5 paise (ii) Arrange decimal in ascending order 2.3450, 2.34, 2.3415, 2.34005. (iii) Express 45 mm in cm, m and km. (iv) Write 2305.007 in expanded form.

14. Find the value of (i) 0.3 × 0.3 × 0.3 (ii) 0.3 + 0.03 + 0.003 (iii) 39.13 1.3 (iv) 2.73 × 1000 (v) 0.3 100

15. Arrange the following in descending order 1

8,

5

2,

3

16,

9

24.


DPP NO. 03 TOPIC : RATIONAL NUMBER

1. The reciprocal of

4

3

22

9

6

5

11

3 is :

(A) 22

7 (B)

7

22 (C)

7

22

(D)

22

7

2. Multiplicative inverse of 5

0

is :

(A) 5

0

(B)–5 (C)

1

5 (D) Not defined

3. What is the product of 3

16 and

4

32 ?

(A) –12 (B) 24 (C) 4

112 (D)

12

517

4. Which of the following is not equal to the others?

(A) 56

40 (B)

35

25

(C)

7

5 (D)

21

15

5. Which of the following is in the standard form?

(A) 12

9 (B)

4

3

(C)

4

3 (D)

4

3

6. 119

102 in standard form is :

(A) 7

4 (B)

7

6 (C)

17

6 (D) none of these

7. If 6

x =

3

7

, then the value of x is :

(A) – 14 (B) 14 (C) 21 (D) – 21

8. If 2

122 m rope is cut into 10 equal pieces, then the length of each piece will be:

(A) 4

11 m (B)

2

12 m (C)

3

12 m (D)

4

12 m

9. If then,2z,5

6y,

3

2x

(x÷y) ÷ z is equal to:

(A) 18

4 (B)

5

18 (C)

18

5 (D)

18

5

10. If 11

3 of a number is 22. What is 11

6of that number?

(A) 6 (B) 11 (C) 12 (D) 44

11. Arrange the following in ascending order

5

3,

5

4,

15

2,

20

1,

5

7

12. Find the value of (i) 15

3 ×

6

5 (ii)

3

2 +

6

5–

9

7

13. Draw a number line and represent

(i) –4

3 (ii)

7

9 (iii) –

3

8 (iv)

11

2

14. Find the value of a and b, If 15

12 =

20

a =

b

28.

15. Solve : (i)

12

7

24

14

(ii)

7

3 ×

7

3 –

7

3

7

3


DPP NO. 04

TOPIC : LINEAR EQUATIONS IN ONE VARIABLE

1. Ram’s father age is 2 times as old as Ram. If sum of there ages is 48. Find Ram’s age.

(A) 16 years (B) 17 years (D) 18 years (D) 19 years

2. Sum of three consecutive number is 45. Find the larger number.

(A) 12 (B) 16 (D) 15 (D) 14

3. Solve for x : 2(x + 1) + 3(x + 5) = 7(x + 2) + 4(x + 3)

(A) 2

3 (B)

2

3– (C)

3

2 (D)

3

2

4. Solve for x : 3–x

2x =

3

2

(A) – 11 (B) 11 (C) 12 (D) – 12

5. Solve : )3x4(–x3

)3–x2(–x2

= –1

(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) –1 (D) 2

6. If 16

3x

4

x

, then x is equal to -

(A) 12 (B) 6 (C) 3 (D) 4

7. If twice a certain number is diminished by five, the result is equal to twelve added to the number. Find

the number-

(A) 18 (B) 16 (C) 15 (D) 17

8. Solve : ba

bx

ba

bx

.

(A) a (B) 2a (C) –a (D) –2a

9. Solve for 7x25.03

xx5.0:x .

(A) 12 (B) 14 (C) 21 (D) 82

10. The denominator of a fraction is greater than numerator by 6. If 3 is added to numerator and 2 is

subtracted from denominator, the fraction becomes 7

6, then the equation so formed is -

(A) 7

6

3x

4x

(B)

7

6

4x

3x

(C)

7

6

2

3

6x

x

(D)

7

6

3

2

6x

x

11. Write equation for the following statement

(i) Sum of x and y is 5 (ii) five times a is 60

(iii) two times of x is added with 5 times of y given 99.

(iv) x is 99 more than y

(v) addition of a number and one fourth of the number gives 25.

12. Solve the following linear equation

(i) 2m + 8 = 16 (ii) 5

p3 = 8 (iii) 3x + 7 = 0 (iv) 5x = 0

(v) 12 = 5(t – 2) + 3 (vi) 3 = – 4(t + 1) + 3(t – 2)

13. Of the three numbers, second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of the three

numbers is 44, the largest number will be ?

14. Find two consecutive positive odd integers whose sum is 76.

15. The total cost of 3 tables and 2 chairs is Rs. 1850. If a table costs Rs. 75 more than a chair, find the

price of each.


DPP NO. 05

TOPIC : LINES AND ANGLES

1. In the given figure, if AOB is a straight line, then the value of x is :

CD

A B

45°x + 15° x + 30°

O

(A) 90° (B) 45° (C)

2

122 (D) 150°

2. How many degrees are there in an angle which equals one fifth of its supplement ?

(A) 15° (B) 30° (C) 75° (D) 150°

3. For what value of x will line l be parallel to line m ?

(A) 50º (B) 53º (C) 52º (D) 51º

4. In the given figure, straight lines PQ and RS intersect at O. If the magnitude of is 3 times that of ,

than is equal to :

R Q

P S

O

(A) 30° (B) 40° (C) 45° (D) 60°

5. In the given figure, AB || CD, ABO = 40°

and CDO = 30°.

If DOB = x°, then the value of x is :

O

A

C

B

D

40°

30°

x

(A) 35° (B) 110° (C) 70° (D) 140°

6. In the adjoining figure AB || CD and PQ, QR intersects AB and CD both at E, F and G, H respectively.

Given that m PEB = 80º, m QHD = 120º and m PQR = xº, find the value of x :

(A) 40º (B) 20º (C) 100º (D) 30º


7. In the given figure, if EC || AB, ECD = 70° and BDO = 20°, then OBD is :

(A) 20° (B) 50° (C) 60° (D) 70°

8. In the given figure, AB || CD. The value of x is :

(A) 20º (B) 30º (C) 45º (D) 60º

9. As shown in figure, line AB || line PQ, mONQ = 110º, mMYO = 80º. Find mMOX :

M Y

BA

OP

X N

Q110º

80º

(A) 190º (B) 30º (C) 150º (D) 70º

10. In the figure AB || CD and line t1 || t2, find the measure of Z.

A

C D

B

G

H

ZF

20º

t1 t2

90º

(A) 90º (B) 70º (C) 110º (D) 130º

11. Find the angles in each of the following :

(i) The angles are complementary and the smaller is 40° less than the larger

(ii) The angles are supplementary and the larger is 58° more than the smaller.

12. If A = (4x + 2)°, what is the measure of the complement of A = ?

13. AD bisects CAB . If CAD = (8x + 6)° and DAB = (x + 20)°, what is the value of x ?

C

D

B A


14. In the given figure identify

A B

D

O

CE

(i) Three pairs of adjacent angle

(ii) Two linear pair

(iii) Two pair of vertically opposite angle

15. In figure, if x + y = w + z then prove that AOB is a straight line.

DPP NO. 06

Topic : Triangles

1. In triangle ABC ,If 32

CBA

find A of a triangle –

(A) 30º (B) 60º

(C) 90º (D) none of these

2. The perimeter of rectangle whose length is 40 cm and a diagonal 41 cm -

(A) 96 cm (B) 98 cm

(C) 92 cm (D) 90 cm

3. The largest side of a right triangle is :

(A) median (B) altitude

(C) angle bisector (D) hypotenuse

4. A tree is broken at a height of 5 m from the ground and its top touches the ground at a distance of 12 m

from the base of the tree. Find original height of the tree

(A) 13 m (B) 18 m

(C) 17 m (D) 19 m

5. In Fig., PQ = PR, RS = RQ and ST QR. If the exterior angle RPU is 140°, then the measure of angle

TSR is

U P

140º

TS

Q R

(A) 55° (B) 40° (C) 50° (D) 45°

6. In an equilateral triangle ABC, AD is an altitude. Then 4AD2 is equal to

(A) 2BD2 (B) BC

2 (C) 3AB

2 (D) 2DC

2

7. If length of two sides of a triangle are 6 cm and 10 cm, then the length of the third side can be

(A) 3 cm (B) 4 cm (C) 2 cm (D) 6 cm


8. If we join a vertex to a point on opposite side which divides that side in the ratio 1:1, then what is the

special name of that line segment?

(A) Median (B) Angle bisector

(C) Altitude (D) Hypotenuse

9. In Fig. 6.11, the value of A + B + C + D + E + F is

A

F E

B C

D

(A) 190° (B) 540°

(C) 360° (D) 180°

10. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(A) The sum of any two sides of a triangle is greater than the third side

(B) A triangle can have all its angles acute

(C) A right-angled triangle cannot be equilateral

(D) Difference of any two sides of a triangle is greater than the third side

Directions (Q.11) : Find the value of x in the given figure.

11.

12. In the diagram if AB = AD = BD = DC, then find out the xº

13. Is it possible to construct a triangle :

(a) with side 7, 8, 2 (b) with side 8, 4, 4

(c) with angle 30º, 60º, 90º (d) with two obtuse angle

(e) with two right angle (f) with all angle less than 60º.

Justify

14. Two poles are 6m apart of length 18m and 10m. Find the distance between their tops.

15. In a quadrilateral ABCD . Prove that

(i) AB + BC + CD + DA > AC + BD

(ii) AB + BC + CD + DA < 2( AC + BD)


DPP NO. 07

TOPIC : Congruency of triangles

1. In Fig. 6.18, M is the mid-point of both AC and BD. Then -

(A) 1 = 2 (B) 1 = 4 (C) 2 = 4 (D) 1 = 3

2. Which one of the following is not a criterion for congruence of two triangles ?

(A) ASA (B) SSA

(C) SAS (D) SSS

3. If for ABC and DEF, the correspondence CAB EDF gives a congruence, then which of the

following is not true?

(A) AC = DE (B) AB = EF

(C) A = D (D) C = E

4. Two triangles are congruent, if two angles and the side included between them in one of the triangles

are equal to the two angles and the side included between them of the other triangle. This is known as

the

(A) RHS congruence criterion (B) ASA congruence criterion

(C) SAS congruence criterion (D) AAA congruence criterion

5. By which congruency criterion, the two triangles in Fig. are congruent?

Q

P

R S

a cm a cm

b cm b cm

(A) RHS (B) ASA (C) SSS (D) SAS

6. If ABC and DBC are on the same base BC, AB = DC and AC = DB (Fig. 6.21), then which of the

following gives a congruence relationship?

B

A D

C

(A) ABC DBC (B) ABC CBD

(C) ABC DCB (D) ABC BCD

7. By which of the following criterion two triangles cannot be proved congruent?

(A) AAA (B) SSS (C) SAS (D) ASA

A D

B C

3 4

2 1 M


8. If PQR is congruent to STU Fig., then what is the length of TU?

Q

P

R

7 cm 5 cm

6 cm

S

U

T

(A) 5 cm (B) 6 cm

(C) 7 cm (D) cannot be determined

9. In Fig., ARO

R

A

55º P

O

Q

55º

(A) POQ (B) QPO

(C) PQO (D) None of these

10. If ABC PQR and ABC = 60°, then find the magnitude of PQR.

(A) 60° (B) 120° (C) 40° (D) 90°

11. In figure, D and E are the mid-points of equal sides AB and AC of ABC respectively prove that BE =

CD.

12. Triangle DEF and LMN are both isosceles with DE = DF and LM = LN, respectively. If DE = LM and EF

= MN then, are the two triangles congruent ? Which condition do you use ? If E = 40º, what is the

measure of N.

13. In fig. P = S = 90º and PQ = SR. Is PRQ STR ? Give reason in support of your answer.

Q

T

SR P

14. In PQR and SQR are both isosceles triangle on a common base QR such that P and S lie on the

same side of QR. Are triangle PSQ and PSR congruent.


15. In Fig, QS PR, RT PQ and QS = RT.

Q

P

R

T S

(i) Is QSR RTQ? Give reasons. (ii) Is PQR = PRQ? Give reasons.

DPP NO. 08

TOPIC: Exponents

1. (6–1

– 8–1

)–1

=

(A) 24

1 (B) 24 (C) – 24 (D) –

24

1

2. (–1)301

+ (–1)302

+ (–1)303

+ … + (–1)400

=

(A) 1 (B) 101 (C) 100 (D) 0

3. If

x8115

3

5

3

5

3

5

, then x = ?

(A) –2

1 (B) –

4

3 (C)

4

3 (D)

3

4

4. (1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11)3/2

=


5. If xyz = 0, then find the value of (ax)yz

+ (ay)zx

+ (az)xy

=

(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0

6. If x = 2 and y = 4, then

xyyx

x

y

y

x

=

(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 12 (D) 2

7.

12

2

2

1

= ?

(A) 16

1 (B) 16 (C)

16

1 (D) – 16

8. The expression 61 × 61 × 61 × 61 × 61 can be written as :

(A) 61

4

(B) 61

5 (C) 61

3 (D) 61

2

9. By what number should (– 8)–1 be multiplied to get 10–1 ?

(A) 5

4 (B)

4

5 (C)

5

4 (D) none of these

10.

33

2

1

3

1

3

4

1

= ?

(A) 64

19 (B)

19

64 (C)

16

27 (D) none of these


11. Find the value of (–2ab)4 when a =

5

3, b =

2

1.

12. Simplify and express the result in power notation :

3723

5

4

5

4

13. Find the value of x in each case :

(i)

1x278

5

4

5

4

5

4

(ii) (7)

6 (7)

4–x = 7

8

14. Rewrite 4963 in expanded form using exponents.

15. Simplify :

(i) 22

44

2712

80915

(ii)

2

343

x2

x6x4

(iii) 154

523 22

(iv) (6° + 7° + 8°) 3

(v) 24

42

)32()34(

1238

(vi) [(9

3)2 ×9

6] 9

10

DPP NO. 09

TOPIC : Algebraic Expressions

1. What should be subtracted from (2 – x + x2) to obtain (x – 1) ?

(A) 2x – 3 – x2 (B) 3 + 2x – x

2 (C) 3 + 2x + x

2 (D) 3 – 2x + x

2

2. (2a + 5b) × (a – 3b) = ?

(A) 2a2 + ab + 15b

2 (B) 2a

2 + ab – 15b

2 (C) 2a

2 – ab – 15b

2 (D) 2a

2 – ab + 15b

2

3. What should be the value a if the value of 3x2 – 5x + a equals to 7, when x = – 1

(A) 1 (B) –1 (C) 2 (D) – 2

4. If A = 2, B = –1, C = – 3, find the value of 2(A +B) + 3(B + C) – 4 (C + A).

(A) – 6 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) None of these

5. The degree of the polynomial x2 + 1


6. The length of a side of square is given as 2x + 3. Which expression represents the perimeter of the

square?

(A) 2x + 16 (B) 6x + 9 (C) 8x + 3 (D) 8x + 12

7. The value of 3x2 – 5x + 3 when x = 1 is

(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) –1 (D) 11

8. Number of terms in the expression 3x2y – 2y

2z – z

2x + 5 is

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

9. The coefficient of xy in 3x2 + zy + 7xyz – 2z

2x is -

(A) 3z (B) – 2 (C) 7yz (D) 7z

10. The factors of the term –xy2 are

(A) x × y × y (B) – 1 × y × y (C) – 1 × x × y (D) – 1 × x × y × y


11. Determine the polynomial according to number of terms.

(i) x + y + z (ii) xyz (iii) 7x3 – 2x

3 + 5x

2 (iv) 1 + 2 + 3

12. Subtract : 4.5x5 – 3.4x

2 + 5.7 from 5x

4 – 3.2x

2 – 7.3x.

13. Find the values of following polynomials at m = 1, n = –1 and p = 2:

m2n

2 + n

2p

2 + p

2m

2

14. Rohan's mother gave him 3xy2 and his father gave him 5(xy

2+2). Out of this total money he spent

(10–3xy2) on his birthday party. How much money is left with him?

15. A wire is (7x – 3) metres long. A length of (3x – 4) metres is cut for use. How much wire is left?

DPP NO. 10

TOPIC : Ratio and Proportion

1. The average age of the three boys is 15 years. Their ages are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 7. The age of the

oldest is

(A) 7 years (B) 14 years (C) 20 years (D) 21 years

2. If x : y = 5 : 2, then (8x + 9y) : (8x + 2y) is:-

(A) 22 : 29 (B) 26 : 61 (C) 29 : 22 (D) 61 : 26

3. Which ratio is greater : (3 : 7) or (4 : 9)

(A) 3:7 (B) 4:9

(C) Both are equal (D) None of these

4. Are 36, 49, 6, 7 in proportion.

(A) Yes (B) No

(C) Can not be determined (D) None of these

5. The mean proportional between 0.08 and 0.18 is :

(A) 0.12 (B) 0.39 (C) 0.48 (D) 0.60

6. If 4, a , 9 are in continued proportion, then a has the value –

(A) 6 (B) –6 (C) 36 (D) –36

7. Reema types 540 word during half an hour. How many words would she type in 6 minutes?

(A) 1800 (B) 216 (C) 108 (D) 540

8. In a library 136 copies of certain book require a shelf – length of 13.6m. How many copies of the same

book would occupy a shelf – length of 5.1 m?

(A) 36 (B) 51 (C) 136 (D) 510

9. In a bag, there are coins of 25 p, 10 p and 5 p in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. If there are Rs. 30 in all, how

many 5 p coins are there ?

(A) 50 (B) 100 (C) 150 (D) 200

10. The cost of 20 kg of milk is j 500. Find the cost of 59 kg of milk.

(A) Rs.1475 (B) Rs. 1059

(C) Rs. 500 (D) None of these

11. Find the ratio of

(i) 60 paise : 3 rupees (ii) 2 m 7 cm : 36 cm

(iii) 2 years : 10 months (iv) 3 kg 250 g : 5 kg

(v) 50 ml : 1 l


12. Express the following in the simplest form -

(i) 28 : 80 (ii) 7

8:

3

22 (iii)

2

14:3:

2

11 (iv)

12

1:

8

1:

6

1

13. Find the value of x for which the following forms a proportion :

(i) 16 : 8 :: 7 : x (ii) 36 : 45 :: 16 : 2x

14. The ratio of the present ages of Salma and Mona is 2 : 3. Two years hence, the ratio of their ages will

be 5 : 7. Determine their present ages .

15. Are the following in proportion ?

(i) 45, 60, 30, 40 (ii) 84, 42, 44, 22 (iii) 43, 55, 65, 170 (iv) 450, 400, 350, 300

DPP NO. 11

TOPIC : PERCENTAGE

1. Rs. 25 as percentage of RS.75 is -

(A) 3% (B) 30% (C) 33.3% (D) 37%

2. 40% of ? + 180 = 564, then the missing value is

(A) 960 (B) 860 (C) 950 (D) 850

3. A person sells 36 oranges per rupee and incurs a loss of 4%. How many oranges per rupees to be sold

to have a gain of 8% ?

(A) 32 (B) 30 (C) 28 (D) 34

4. Difference between a rupee and 1%of a rupee is

(A) 99 paise (B) 1.01 paise (C) 11 paise (D) None of these

5. A man purchased a bag of rice containing 70 kg for Rs. 175. He sold it at the rate of Rs. 2.75 per kg.

Then the profit or loss in % is

(A) 12% loss (B) 10%gain (C) 12%gain (D) 10% loss

6. The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the

value of x is:

(A)15 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 25

7. On selling 17 balls at Rs. 720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 balls. The cost price of a ball

is:

(A) Rs. 45 (B) Rs. 50 (C) Rs. 55 (D) Rs. 60

8. A shopkeeper expects a gain of 22.5% on his cost price. If in a week, his sale was of Rs. 392, what was

his profit?

(A) Rs. 18.20 (B) Rs. 70 (C) Rs. 72 (D) Rs. 88.25

9. There would be 10% loss if a toy is sold at Rs 10.80 per piece. At what price should it be sold to earn a

profit of 20% .

(A) 12 (B) 14.40 (C) 12.96 (D) None

10. A man buys oranges at Rs 5 a dozen and an equal number at Rs 4 a dozen. He sells them at Rs 5.50 a

dozen and makes a profit of Rs 50. How many oranges does he buy?

(A) 30 dozens (B) 50 dozens (C) 40 dozens (D)60 dozens

11. In an orchard 3

216 % of the trees are apple trees. If the number of trees in the orchard is 240, find the

number of other type of trees in the orchard.


12. Neeraj borrowed a sum of money at 102

1% per annum from a bank. If he paid j 1863.75 as interest for

22

1years, find the sum.

13. Find the time when principal = j 640, Rate =122

1% per annum and Simple Interest = j 40.

14. Nandan sells a quintal of wheat for j 308 thereby, gaining a profit of 12%.

By selling a quintal of rice for the same amount, he losses 12%. Find the C.P. of both rice and wheat.

Also his total gain or loss.

15. If a man were to sell his hand cart for j 720, he would loss 25%. What must be the selling price if he

were to gain 25% ?

DPP NO. 12

TOPIC : PROFIT,LOSS AND DISCOUNT

1. Shyam purchased 20 dozens of toys at the rate of Rs.375 per dozen. He sold each one of them at the

rate of Rs. 33. What was his percentage profit ?

(A) 3.5 (B) 4.5 (C) 5.6 (D) None of these

2. A shopkeeper expects a gain of 222

1% on his cost price. If in a week, his sale was of Rs. 392, what

was his profit ?

(A) Rs.28 (B) Rs.70 (C) Rs.72 (D) Rs.88.25

3. Two horses were sold for Rs. 12,000 each, one at a loss of 20% and the other at a gain of 20%. The

entire transaction resulted in

(A) no loss , no gain (B) a loss of Rs. 1,000

(C) a gain of Rs. 1,000 (D) None of these

4. An article is sold at a profit of 10%. Had it been sold for j 30 more, the profit would have been 25%,

find the C.P.

(A) Rs. 300 (B) Rs. 200 (C) Rs. 400 (D) Rs. 500

5. By selling a chair for j 160, a carpenter loses 20%. How much percent would he gain or loss by selling

it for j 170 ?

(A) loss 15% (B) Profit 25%

(C) loss 25% (D) Profit 15%

6. Bela purchased a second hand car for j 89,000. She spent j 21,000 on its repair and sold it to Aman

for j 1,10,000. Find her profit or loss in this transaction.

(A) Profit (B) Loss

(C) No profit no loss (D) Can not be determined

7. A shopkeeper sold apples for j 30 per kg. If the shopkeeper made a loss of j 5.50 per kg what was the

cost price of 1 kg of apples ?

(A) j 36.50 (B) j 35.50 (C) j 33.50 (D) j 25.50

8. A machine was purchased for Rs. 445 and Rs. 25 were paid for transportation. If it be sold for Rs. 517,

find the gain per cent.

(A) 8% (B) 10% (C) 12% (D) 15%


9. Mr. Virmanic purchased a house for Rs. 365000 and spent Rs. 135000 on its repairs. If he sold it for

Rs. 550000, find his gain percent.

(A) 6% (B) 8% (C) 10% (D) 12%

10. Shikha purchased a wrist watch for Rs. 840 and sold it to her friend Vidhi for Rs. 910. Find her gain

percent.

(A) 3

25% (B)

16

25% (C)

16

9% (D) None of these

11. A business man makes a 10% profit by selling a toy costing him Rs. 120. What is the selling price ?

(A) Rs. 132 (B) Rs. 232 (C) Rs. 157 (D) Rs. 253

12. A team won 65% of their matches and draw 24% of them. What percentage did they lose ?

13. In a garage, 16 of the 30 cars, which are for sale are second hand. What percentage of the cars are :

(i) new ? (ii) second hand ?

14. A mathematics book has 320 pages, 40% of which are on algebra, 25% on geometry and the remaining

on arithmetic. How many pages of arithmetic are there ?

15. Amar obtained 410 marks out of 500 in an examination while his friend Rajiv gets 536 marks out of 600.

Find whose performance is better.

16. The excise duty on a certain item has been reduced to j 3486 from j 5229. Find the percentage

reduction in the excise duty for that item.

17. Noori's weight is increased by 15% between her fifteenth and sixteenth birthdays. If she weighed 65 kg

on her fifteenth birthday, what did she weigh on her sixteenth birthday ?

DPP NO. 13

TOPIC : SIMPLE INTEREST

1. A sum of money lent by Hari at simple interest becomes double of itself in 8 years. Then the sum will

triple itself in


2. j 300 amounts to j 360 in 4 years at simple interest. If the rate of interest is increased by 1%, it would

amount to

(A) j 364 (B) j 368 (C) j 372 (D) j 384

3. The simple interest on a sum of money is 25

9 of the principal and the rate percent is equal to number of

years. The rate percent is

(A) 3% (B) 4% (C) 5% (D) 6%

4. The simple interest on a certain sum for 8 months at 4% simple interest is j 129 less than the simple

interest on the same sum for 15 months at 5% per annum. Then the sum is

(A) j 3,400 (B) j 3,500 (C) j 3,600 (D) j 3, 700

5. What rate gives j 280 as interest on a sum of j 56,000 in 2 years ?

(A) 0.25% (B) 2.5%

(C) 25% (D) None of theses

6. If interest for 't' years on j 200 at the rate 5% is j 80, then 't' is



7. In how much time will the simple interest on j 800 at 12.5% per annum be j 125 ?

(A) 14

1 years (B) 1

2

1 years (C) 1

4

3 years (D) 2

4

1 years

8. Find the simple interest when, Principal = j 600, Rate = 2% per annum and Time = 20 months.

(A) j 50 (B) j 10 (C) j 15 (D) j 20

9. Find the principal when Simple Interest = j 72, Rate = 3% per annum and Time = 3 months.

(A) j 9000 (B) j 9400 (C) j 10000 (D) j 9600

10. If Meena gives an interest of j 45 for one year at 9% rate p.a., what is the sum she has borrowed ?

(A) j 550 (B) j 500 (C) j 450 (D) j 400

11. Find the simple interest on j 3285 from May 11, 1999 to 11 September, 1999 at 10% annum.

12. For investing money in the firm Rosy and Mitthu, you get interest at the rate of 18% per annum. What

amount will you get after 6 years if you deposit j 10000 with the firm now and j 5000 three year from

hence ?

13. In what time will a sum of money put as 133

1% simple interest triple itself ?

14. A farmer borrowed Rs. 2500 and Rs. 4500 from a bank for buying seeds and fixing a tubewell

respectively at simple interest with the same rate. He paid after 3 years 3 months Rs 520 more interest

on the sum borrowed for tubewell. Find the rate of interest per annum.

15. A lends some money to B at 9% per annum on S.I. B lends the entire amount to C on the same day at

12% per annum. In this transaction after 5 years B gains Rs 1200. Find the amount lent by A to B.

DPP NO. 14

TOPIC : STATISTICS-I

1. If the arithmetic mean of 7, 5, 13, x and 9 be 10, then the value of x is :

(A) 10 (B) 12 (C)14 (D) 16

2. If the mean of five obseration x, x+2, x+4, x+6, x+8 is 11, then the mean of first three observations is :

(A) 9 (B) 11 (C) 13 (D) none

3. The mean of 100 observations is 50. If one of the observations which was 50 is replaced by 40, the

resulting mean will be :

(A) 50 (B) 49.90 (C) 70 (D) 40

4. A cricketer has a certain average run for 10 innings. In the 11 th inning, he scores 100 runs, and now

his average run is .increased by 9 runs. Then average of 11 inning is -

(A)10 runs (B) 20 runs (C) 11 runs (D) 21 runs

5. The ages in years of 10 teachers of a school are: 32, 41, 28, 54, 35, 26, 23, 33, 38, 40 What is the

range of the ages of the teachers?


6. Find the median of the following values :

37, 31, 42, 43, 46, 25, 39, 45, 32

(A) 39 (B) 43 (C) 42 (D) 32

7. Find the median of 18, 35, 10, 42, 21.

(A) 21 (B) 42 (C) 10 (D) 35


8. Find the mode of the following array of an individual series of scores 7, 7, 10, 12, 12, 12, 11, 13, 13, 17.

(A) 7 (B) 13 (C) 12 (D) 11

9. The mode of the distribution 3, 5, 7, 4, 2, 1, 4, 3, 4 is

(A) 7 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 1

10. The mode of the given numbers 2, 14, 16, 12, 14, 14, 16, 14, 10, 14, 18, 14 is _______.

(A) 12 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 18

11. Organise the following marks in a class assessment in a tabular form:

4, 6, 7, 5, 3, 5, 4, 5, 2, 6, 2, 5, 1, 9, 6, 5, 8, 4, 6, 7

(i) Which number is the highest?

(iv) Find the arithmetic mean.

12. Find the value of p, if the median of following observations is 48.

14, 17, 33, 35, p – 5, p + 7, 57, 63, 69, 80. The above observation are in ascending order.

13. Following data gives total marks (out of 600) obtained by six children of a particular class. Represent

the data on a bar graph.

Students Ajay Bali Dipti Fayaz Geetika Hari

Marks Obtained 450 500 300 360 400 540

14. If the mean of the following data is 18.75, find the value of p :

x 10 15 P 25 30

f 5 10 7 8 2

15. Read the following graph carefully and answer the following questions :

0

2

4

6

8

10

12

14

16

18

U.P. W.B. M.P. Maharashtra Haryana

States

Wheat

Rice

(i) What information does the bar graph give ?

(ii) Which state has the largest production of wheat ?

(iii) Which state has the largest production of rice ?

(iv) Which state has total production of rice and wheat maximum ?

(v) Which state has total production of rice and wheat minimum ?

DPP NO. 15

TOPIC : STATISTICS-II

1. The range of 3.5, 2, 4.5, 8.7, 1.9, 3.2, 1.9 is

(A) 1.5 (B) 2.5 (C) 6.8 (D)1.6

2. The rainfall in (mm) in a city in a particular week recorded as follows:

4.9, 5.5, 25.6, 21.3, 0, 2.2, 0. The range is equal to

(A) 0 (B) 25.6 (C) 21.3 (D) none of these


3. The mean of first 10 natural numbers is

(A) 5.5 (B) 10 (C) 5 (D) 4

4. The mean of 6,7,10,x,9,12,11 is 8, then x is equal to

(A) 7 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 12

5. The arithmetic mean is also called as

(A) mode (B) median

(C) average (D) none of these

6. The median of 48, 45, 30, 35, 44, 47, 49, 33, 46 is

(A) 44 (B) 44.5 (C) 46 (D) 45

7. The ages of 10 persons ( in years ) are

34,24,28,31,30,26,27,25,29,30. The median age is

(A) 28 years (B) 29 years

(C) 28.5 years (D) 32.5 years

8. The mode of the data 23, 26, 22, 29, 23, 29, 26, 29, 22, 23 is

(A) 23 and 29 (B) 23 only

(C) 29 only (D) 26 only

9. The mode of the following data 6,5,6,7,8,5,6,7,7,6,7,5,8,8,7,7,6,9 is

(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8

10. Out of 5 brands of chocolates in a shop, a boy has to purchase the brand which is most liked by

children. What measure of central tendency would be most appropriate if the data is provided to him?

(A) Mean (B) Mode

(C) Median (D) Any of the three

11. The marks (out of 50) obtained by a group of students in a mathematics test are :

45, 46, 40, 45, 49, 38, 46, 48, 30, 22

Find :

(i) Highest and lowest marks obtained by the students.

(ii) Range of the marks obtained.

(iii) Mean marks obtained by the group.

(iv) How many students have marks less than the mean marks ?

12. (i) The ages (in years) of 8 teachers in a school are: 50, 40, 36, 31, 43, 52, 46, 53. Find median age.

(ii) The marks of 11 students (out of 50) in an examination are : 35, 21, 24, 17, 23, 29, 25, 19, 17, 19,

40. Find the median marks.

13. Mean marks obtained by a student in his five subjects are 15. In English he secured 8 marks, in Hindi

12, in Mathematics 18, and in Science 9. Find out the marks secured by him in History.

14. Make a frequency distribution table for each of the following data :

(i) 7, 6, 5, 3, 7, 6, 7, 5, 3, 2, 5, 3

(ii) 51, 54, 61, 53, 55, 51, 54, 61, 53, 55, 51, 51, 53, 61, 55, 55, 53


15. For what value of x, the mode of the following data is 18 ?

31, 35, 17, 18, 17, 18, 40, x + 12

16. The following data gives the number of students of Delhi-state who went abroad for study during the

following years :

Year 1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000

Number of Students 1400 1600 1250 1000 2000 2200

Represent the above data with the help of bar graph.

DPP NO. 16

TOPIC : PROBABILITY

1. The probability of getting a head when a coin is tossed is

(A) 3

1 (B)

3

2 (C)

2

1 (D) 1

2. The probability of getting an even number when a die is thrown is

(A) 1/3 (B) 2

1 (C) 0 (D)

3

2

3. The probability of drawing a black ball from a bag containing 5 black and 3 red balls is

(A) 5/3 (B) 3/5 (C) 5/8 (D) 3/8

4. In a throw of a die the probability of getting 6 is

(A) 1 (B) 6 (C) 1/6 (D) none of these

5. The probability of an impossible event is

(A) 1 (B) 10 (C) 0 (D) 100

6. In a game, Erin is rolling a fair number cube with faces numbered 1 through 6. Which BEST describes

the probability of rolling an even number?

(A) impossible

(B) equal to the probability of rolling an odd number

(C) less likely than the probability of rolling an odd number

(D) more likely than the probability of rolling an odd number

7. Linda flipped a fair coin six times, and the result was heads each time. Which statement describes the

likelihood of obtaining tails on the seventh flip?

(A) It is not at all likely (B) It is less likely than heads.

(C) It is just as likely as heads. (D) It is more likely than heads.

8. The table below shows the number of each color of Mr. Logan’s pencils.

Mr. Logan’s Pencils

Color Number

Blue 2

Green 1

Red 2

Yellow 7

If he chooses one pencil without looking, what color is he least likely to choose?

(A) blue (B) green (C) red (D) yellow


9. Bernice placed 5 green paper clips, 6 blue paper clips, and 9 yellow paper clips in a container. She will

reach into the container and pull out one paper clip without looking. What is the probability that the

paper clip she chooses will be green?

(A) 0.20 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.30 (D) 0.33

10. The probability of selecting M from the word MORE is :

(A) 2

1 (B)

4

1 (C)

4

3 (D) 0

11. A coin is tossed 100 times with the following frequencies :

Head : 49, Tail : 51

When a coin is tossed at random, what is the probability of getting Head?

12. Given an example of sure chance and impossible chance.

13. In a circket match, a batsman hits a boundary 6 times out of 90 balls he plays. Find the probability that

he :

(i) hit a boundary (ii) did not hit a boundary.

14. A number from 1 to 20 is choosen at random. What in the probability of getting :

(i) a prime number. (ii) multiple of 3.

(iii) multiple of 2. (iv) multiple of 2 and 3.

(v) multiple of 2 or 3.

15. A bag contains 5 red, 2 black, and 3 green balls, find the probability of getting :

(i) Red ball (ii) Black ball (iii) Green ball (iv) Red or green ball

(v) Not black ball

DPP NO. 17

TOPIC : Mensuration

1. The sides of a triangle are 5 cm, 12 cm and 13 cm. Then its area is :

(A) 0.0024 m2 (B) 0.0026 m

2 (C) 0.003 m

2 (D) 0.0015 m

2

2. In the given figure, the area of triangle LMN is :

6 cm

M 6 cm N O

L

(A) 18 cm2 (B) 12 cm

2 (C) 36 cm

2 (D) 40 cm

2

3. If the length of a diagonal of a square is a + b, then the area of the square is :

(A) (a + b)2 (B)

2

2ba

(C) a2 + b

2 (D)

2

ba


4. A rectangle lawn 80 m × 60 m has two roads each with 10 m wide running in the middle of it, one

parallel to the length and the other parallel to the breadth. The cost of gravelling them at 30 paise sq. m

is –

10

80

60

(A) Rs. 280 (B) Rs. 320 (C) Rs. 390 (D) Rs. 480

5. A side of a parallelogram is 80 m and the length of the corresponding altitude is 26m. Its area is

(A) 1280 m2 (B) 2080 m

2 (C) 2180 m

2 (D) 2010 m

2

6. The area of a rhombus is 54 cm2. If its perimeter is 36 cm, then its altitude.

(A) 6 cm (B) 5 cm (C) 4 cm (D) 8 cm

7. The area of a trapezium is 180 cm2 and its height is 12 cm. If one of the parallel sides is double that of

the other, then the length of two parallel sides in cm are :

(A) 20, 40 (B) 15, 30 (C) 10, 20 (D) 10, 10

8. The ratio of the length of the parallel sides of a trapezium is 4 : 1. The distance between them is 10 cm.

If the area of the trapezium is 500 cm2, find the length of the parallel sides.

(A) 20 cm ,40 cm (B) 20 cm, 80 cm

(C) 30 cm ,60cm (D) 10 cm ,20cm

9. The area of the shaded region in the given figure is : (use = 3.14)

2cm

6cm

(A) 12.56 cm2 (B) 32 cm

2 (C) 100 cm

2 (D) 100.48 cm

2

10. If AB = BC = CD then find the perimeter of adjoining figure.

7m D C

B A 7m

11. The area of a square park is same as that of a rectangular park. If the side of the square park is 64 m

and length of the rectangular park is 80 m, find the breadth of the rectangular park.

12. A wire is in the shape of a rectangle. Its length is 42.7 m and breadth is 21.8 m. If the same wire is re-

bent in the shape of a square, what will be the measure of each side ? Also find which enclose more

area ?

13. The circumference of a circle exceeds the diameter by 16.8 cm. Find the radius of the circle.


14. The inner circumference of a circular track is 220 m. The track is 7m wide everywhere. Calculate the

cost of putting up a fence along the outer circle at the rate of j 2 per metre. (Use = 22/7)

15. Calculate the area of the shaded region in the given figure.

A F D

B E C

50 cm

30

cm

DPP NO. 18

TOPIC : SYMMETRY AND VISUALISING SOLID SHAPES

1. The number of lines of symmetry in Square is/are:

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) Infinitely many

2. A solid that has only one vertex is

(A) Pyramid (B) Cube (C) Cone (D) Cylinder

3. Out of the following which is a 3-D figure?

(A) Square (B) Sphere (C) Triangle (D) Circle

4. Total number of edges a cylinder has

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

5. A solid that has two opposite identical faces and other faces as parallelograms is a

(A) prism (B) pyramid (C) cone (D) sphere

6. The solid with one circular face, one curved surface and one vertex is known as:

(A) cone (B) sphere (C) cylinder (D) prism

7. If three cubes each of edge 4 cm are placed end to end, then the dimensions of resulting solid are:

(A) 12 cm × 4 cm × 4 cm (B) 4 cm × 8 cm × 4 cm

(C) 4 cm × 8 cm × 12 cm (D) 4 cm × 6 cm × 8 cm

8. Which of the following letters of English alphabets have more than 2 lines of symmetry?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

9. In a solid if F = V = 5, then the number of edges in this shape is

(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 2

10. A ……………. triangle has no line of symmetry -

(A) Equilateral triangle (B) Isosceles triangle

(C) Isosceles right angle triangle (D) Scalene triangle

11. By what minimum angle does a regular hexagon rotate so as to coincide with its original position for the

first time?

12. Which capital letters of English alphabet have no line of symmetry?


13. Match the nets with appropriate solids :

(i)

(a)

(ii)

(b)

(iii)

(c)

(iv)

(d)

14. Find the number of lines of symmetry for the following :

(i) A circle (ii) A square

(iii) A rhombus (iv) An equilateral triangle

(v) An isosceles triangle (vi) A rectangle

(vii) A parallelogram (viii) A regular octagon.

15. Which of the following are 2-D figures and which are 3-D figure

(i) rectangle (ii) cylinder

(iii) circle (iv) sphere

(v) octagon (vi) cone

16. Identical cubes are stacked in the corner of a room as shown below. The number of cubes that are not

visible are _________.


SCIENCE

CLASS – VII (CBSE)

INDEX

PHYSICS – 01 - 11

CHEMISTRY – 12 - 20

BIOLOGY – 21 - 28


DPP NO. 1

TOPIC : MEASUREMENT

1. The standard quantity used for comparision while measuring a physical quantity is called the

(A) Fundamental quantity (B) Derived quantity

(C) Unit (D) None of these

2. The fundamental unit among the following is

(A) Kelvin (B) Pascal (C) Newton (D) Watt

3. If density mass/volume then SI unit of density is

(A) kg cm-3 (B) g cm-3 (C) mg cm-3 (D) kg m-3

4. The derived unit among the following is

(A) kilogram (B) metre (C) second (D) litre

5. Which of the following is not a vector quantity ?

(A) Force (B) Acceleration (C) Energy (D) Torque

6. Which of the following is not a vector ?

(A) Speed (B) Velocity (C) Weight (D) Acceleration

7. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?

(A) Force (B) work (C) Velocity (D) Weight

8. Which of the following is a scalar quantity :

(A) Force (B) Weight (C) Pressure (D) Velocity

9. Which of following is a vector quantity :

(A) Mass (B) Distance (C) Pressure (D) Acceleration

10. Ten km is equal to :

(A) 1012 mm (B) 10–9 mm (C)109 mm (D) 107 mm

11. Which is not a vector :

(A) velocity (B) impulse (C) momentum (D) time

12. One Aº is equal to

(A) 10–13 km (B) 10–10 m (C)10–8 cm (D) All of these

13. What are scalar and vector quantities? Explain with example.

14. The speed of an aeroplane A is 600 km/h .The speed of another aeroplane B is 240 m/s .Then which of the

two will have greater speed?

15. Convert the following :

(i) 10 kg/m3 into g/cm3 (iv) 30.5 kg m2 s–2 to g cm2 s–2

(ii) 50Aº into m (iii) 280 mm into cm



PHYSICSCLASS VII - CBSE


DPP NO. 2

TOPIC : HEAT

1. A difference of temperature of 25ºC is equivalent to a difference of :

(A) 72º F (B) 45ºF (C) 25º F (D) 32ºF

2. When steam condenses into water its :

(A) temperature remains the same (B) heat dissipates

(C) both (A) and (B) (D) temperature decreases

3. Boiling point of water is :

(A) 100 ºC (B) 273 K (C) 373 K (D) Both (A) & (C)

4. Range of clinical thermometer is

(A) -100C to 1100C. (B) 420C to 1100C. (C) 350C to 420C (D) 00C to 350C

5. One joule is equal to

(A) 103 ergs. (B) 105 ergs. (C) 109 ergs. (D) 107 ergs.

6. Copper tubing is used in automobile radiators as copper is a

(A) bad conductor. (B) semiconductor. (C) good conductor. (D) radiator.

7. In vacuum, heat can be transferred through

(A) conduction & convection only. (B) conduction only.

(C) radiation only. (D) convection only.

8. 1 Joule is equal to

(A) 9.8 m/ s2. (B) 100,000 erg. (C) 1,000,000 erg. (D) 10,000,000 erg.

9. Energy produced by burning one gram of fuel is called its

(A) calorific value. (B) maximum energy. (C) activation energy. (D) threshold energy.

10. We wear light coloured clothes in summers because they are

(A) good absorber of heat. (B) good reflector of heat.

(C) poor reflector of heat. (D) poor radiator of heat.

11. Define temperature ?

12. Define conduction

13. Define good conductor and bad conductor

14. Name the three temperature scales Write the relationship between them.

15. Which two conditions must be satisfied for heat transfer by conduction


DPP NO. 3

TOPIC : MOTION & TIME

1. When is an object said to be in motion ?

(A) If object changes its position with time is said to be in motion

(B) If object position does not change with time is said to be in motion

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of these

2. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance is :

(A) always less than one (B) always equal to one

(C) always more than one (D) equal to or less than one

3. SI Unit of time is :

(A) Second (B) Minute (C) Hour (D) None

4. A ball is thrown vertically upward and after ascending a height of 15m it comes back to the same point The

total displacement of the ball is :

(A) zero (B) 15 m (C) 30 m (D) 98 m

5. What is SI units of speed :

(A) km/hour (B) m/s (C) cm/s (D) None of these

6. Distance for a moving object :

(A) Is always positive (B) Is always negative

(C) May be positive or negative (D) Is neither positive nor negative

7. Speed of a particle :

(A) May be positive or zero (B) Is always negative

(C) May be positive as well as negative (D) Is neither zero nor negative

8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of displacement :

(A) It is always positive

(B) It has both magnitude and direction

(C) It can be zero

(D) Its magnitude may be less than or equal to the actual path length of the object

9. In 10 minutes, a car with speed of 60 kmh-1 travels a distance of :

(A) 6 km (B) 600 km (C) 10 km (D) 7 km

10. When the distance covered by an object is directly proportional to time, it is said to travel with

(A) zero velocity. (B) constant speed.

(C) constant acceleration. (D) uniform acceleration.

11. Which one of the following have maximum and the least average speed ?

(i) Sanjeev moving with 12 kmh-1 (ii) Rajeev running with 5 ms-1

(iii) Kabir moving with 150 m min-1

12. Define periodic motion

13. Differentiate between uniform and non - uniform motion

14. A train covers a distance of 560 km is 8 hours Find its speed

15. Find the distance covered by an athlete in 25 seconds if it is running at a speed of 20 m/s


DPP NO. 4

TOPIC : MOTION & TIME

1. Which of the following groups have all vector quantity :

(A) Velocity, length and mass (B) Speed, length and mass

(C) Time, displacement and mass (D) Velocity, displacement and force

2. A particle moves with a uniform velocity :

(A) The particle must be at rest (B) The particle moves along a curved path

(C) The particle moves along a circle (D) The particle moves along a straight line

3. A quantity has value of –60 ms-1 It may be the :

(A) Speed of a particle (B) Velocity of a particle

(C) Position of a particle (D) Displacement of a particle

4. A force of 4 kgwt acts on a body of mass 49 kg Its acceleration is :

(A) 4 m/s2 (B) 0.8 m/s2 (C) 12 m/s2 (D) 14 m/s2

5. An object undergoes an acceleration of 10 m/s2 starting from rest, Find velocity after 5 seconds :

(A) 100 m/s (B) 125 m/s (C) 50 m/s (D) 150 m/s

6. Average speed is the total distance covered

(A) divided by the distance travelled in one hour. (B) multiplied by the total time taken.

(C) divided by the total time taken. (D) in one hour.

7. If a car is moving with a speed of 45 kilometres per hour, it implies that the body

(A) covers a distance of 45 metres in one minute.

(B) covers a distance of 45 kilometres in one hour.

(C) covers a distance of 45 miles in one hour.

(D) is moving with a variable speed of 45 kilometres per hour.

8. If the speed of an object moving along a straight line keeps on changing, then the

(A) motion is said to be a uniform motion (B) motion is said to be a non - uniform motion

(C) object is said to be stationary (D) motion is said to be a fast motion

9. Speed of 90 km/h when expressed in m/s is

(A) 2.5 (B) 25 (C) 250 (D) 2500

10. The to and fro motion is an example of

(A) circulatory motion. (B) curvilinear motion. (C) vibratory motion. (D) linear motion.

11. A bus covers a distance from A to B at 40 km/h and while returning it travels at 50 km/h. calculate the average

speed.

12. A simple pendulum takes 30 seconds to complete 6 oscillations. What is the time period of the pendulum?

13. Shruti covers a distance of 2.4 km from her house to reach her school on a bicycle. If the bicycle has a speed

of 2 m/sec, calculate the time taken by her to reach the school ?

14. The distance between two stations is 360 km. A train takes 6 hours to cover this distance. Calculate the

speed of the train ?

15. Find the weight of the body of mass 5 kg in kgwt, gwt, Newton and dyne.


DPP NO. 5

TOPIC : ELECTRICAL CURRENT AND ITS EFFECT

1. Electroplating is an application of :

(A) Heating effect of current (B) Chemical effect of current

(C) Magnetic effect of current (D) None of these

2. The strength of electromagnet increases by :

(A) increasing number of turns (B) using soft iron core

(C) increasing current (D) all of these

3. Examples of primary cells are :

(A) Voltaic (B) Daniel (C) Dry cell (D) All of them

4. Compact fluorescent lamps,

(A) results in wastage of electricity.

(B) reduces the wastage of electricity.

(C) are used for heating effect of electric current.

(D) are used as an electromagnet.

5. Certain cranes can lift heavy iron loads easily as they have

(A) an electromagnet. (B) an electric cell. (C) electric bulbs. (D) electrical switches.

6. Length of the heater coil is increased. When current passes, the amount of heat

(A) will decrease. (B) will increase. (C) remains same. (D) converts into fire.

7. When an electric current passes through a wire, it becomes

(A) weak. (B) a switch. (C) hot. (D) cold.

8. Miniature circuit breakers (MCBs)

(A) behaves like a magnet.

(B) automatically switch off when an electric current in a circuit exceeds the safe limit.

(C) do not help in maintaining safety.

(D) have wire of very low melting point .

9. The wires used for making electric fuses

(A) melt quickly. (B) are very thick.

(C) are made up of plastic. (D) are responsible for short circuiting.

10. An electromagnet

(A) is a kind of a fuse. (B) is a compass needle.

(C) is a miniature circuit breaker. (D) behaves like a magnet on passing an electric current.

11. Mention one important use of insulators.

12. Mention two uses of electromagnets.

13. Can a copper wire be used as a fuse wire ?

14. Which material is commonly used to make elements of heating appliances ? Why ?

15. What is the basic principle on which an electric bell works ?


DPP NO. 6

TOPIC : LIGHT

1. A thin plane mirror :

(A) refracts light (B) reflects light (C) transmits light (D) none of these

2. The angle of reflection is the angle between :

(A) the reflected ray and surface of mirror

(B) the incident ray and the surface of mirror

(C) the normal to the surface of a mirror and incident ray

(D) the normal to the surface of mirror and reflected ray

3. Middle point of plane mirror is :

(A) point of incidence (B) pole (C) centre of curvature (D) none

4. If angle of incidence is 30o, then glance angle of reflection is :

(A) 60o (B) 90o (C) 30o (D) 120o

5. Light travels faster in :

(A) vacuum (B) air (C) glass (D) diamond

6. A point source of light is placed in front of a plane mirror, then :

(A) all the reflected rays meet at a point when produced backward

(B) only the reflected rays close to the normal meet at a point when produced backward

(C) only the reflected rays making a small angle with the mirror, meet at a point when produced backward

(D) light of different colours make different images

7. Laws of reflection are in diffused reflection :

(A) Violated (B) Followed

(C) Followed at some points only (D) Sometimes violated and sometimes followed

8. Reflection through plane mirror is an example of :

(A) regular reflection (B) diffused reflection (C) irregular reflection (D) all are correct

9. Transparent glassses which are thicker in the middle than at the edges are

(A) concave lenses. (B) used in kaleidoscope.(C) used in periscope. (D) convex lenses.

10. Sunlight consists of

(A) black colour only. (B) five colours. (C) seven colours. (D) blue colour.

11. What is incident ray of light ?

12. What is reflected ray of light ?

13. Define lateral inversion.

14. State the difference between a luminous and a non luminous bodies

15. What is the difference between real and virtual image ?


DPP NO. 7

TOPIC : SOUND

1. What is transferred in wave motion :

(A) matter (B) energy (C) both A and B (D) none of these

2. The maximum displacement of an oscillating body from its mean position is called :

(A) amplitude (B) one meter (C) frequency (D) a wave

3. Which of the following is not a wave motion :

(A) ripples on water (B) sound propagation (C) moving bus (D) radio waves

4. Sound is produced due to :

(A) heating (B) vibrations (C) running (D) walking

5. Sound waves cannot travel through :

(A) glass (B) air (C) water (D) vacuum

6. Transverse waves travel in the form of :

(A) compressions and rarefactions (B) crests and troughs

(C) crests and compressions (D) troughs and rarefactions

7. Transverse waves can be :

(A) Mechanical (B) Non Mechanical (C) Both A and B (D) None of these

8. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(A) Both, sound and light waves in air are longitudinal

(B) Both, sound and light waves in air are transverse

(C) Sound waves in air are transverse and light waves are longitudinal

(D) Sound waves in air are longitudinal and light waves are transverse

9. Rarefractions are the regions of :

(A) Maximum pressure (B) Minimum pressure

(C) Maximum density (D) Minimum density

10. On moon, sound is :

(A) like a thunder (B) inaudible

(C) louder than on Earth (D) same as on earth

11. Explain reflection of sound. Explain some applications.

12. What is pitch ? Name the unit of physical quantity on which pitch depends ?

13. What is Rarefaction ?

14. Explain the speed of sound in different media.

15. Explain

(i) Timber or quality (ii) Loudness or softness (iii) Sound intensity


DPP NO. 8

TOPIC : UNIVERSE

1. The names of the planets in order of increasing distances from the sun are :

(A) earth, jupiter, mars (B) jupiter, mars, earth (C) jupiter, earth, mars (D) earth, mars, jupiter

2. Ursa Major is

(A) a star (B) seen only with a telescope

(C) a constellation (D) a natural satellite of Mars

3. Pole star appears to be stationary in all seasons because

(A) Pole star does not rotate on its axis

(B) Pole star happens to lie on the axis of equator

(C) Pole star happens to lie above the axis of north pole of the earth

(D) Pole star is most distant of all the stars

4. Stars are mainly made up of :

(A) oxygen and hydrogen (B) oxygen and nitrogen

(C) hydrogen and helium (D) water and helium

5. Sun is a :

(A) star (B) planet (C) galaxy (D) comet

6. Any heavenly body having light of its own is called a :

(A) nebulae (B) star (C) comet (D) meteorite

7. Lunar eclipse occurs when the :

(A) Sun comes between the earth and the moon

(B) Moon comes between the earth and the sun.

(C) Earth comes between the sun and the moon.

(D) Earth and the moon collide with each other

8. The planet having no atmosphere on it is :

(A) Earth (B) Venus (C) Mars (D) Mercury

9. Hottest planet of the solar system is :

(A) Mercury (B) Pluto (C) Jupiter (D) Venus

10. Asteroid are :

(A) Small planets (B) Shooting stars

(C) Found in a belt between earth and Venus (D) None of these

11. What are comets ?

12. What is Galaxy ?

13. Explain the difference between Galaxy and constellation in detail.

14. Why Venus is more hotter than mercury ?

15. Write short note on Solar eclipse.


DPP NO. 9

TOPIC : LIGHT

1. A virtual, erect & magnified image of an object is to be produced with a concave mirror of focal length 12 cm

Which of the following object distance should be chosen for this purpose ?

(A) 10 cm (B) 15 cm (C) 25 cm (D) 30

2. When light goes from one medium to another, the characteristic that remains unaffected is :

(A) speed (B) direction (C) wavelength (D) frequency

3. To form a real image, the mirror required is :

(A) Convex (B) concave (C) Convex or concave (D) Cannot say

4. To obtained magnified inverted image in a concave mirror, object should be held :

(A) at pole (B) at focous (C) beyond 2F (D) between F and 2F

5. The angle of incidence of a ray passing through center of curvature of a spherical mirror is :

(A) 0º (B) 90º (C) 45º (D) 180º

6. The mirror used by a dental surgeon is :

(A) Plane (B) Convex (C) concave (D) none

7. Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of the same size is obtained by a convex

lens ?

(A) At the focus (B) At infinity

(C) At twice the focal length (D) Between optical centre and focus

8. If image formed is always diminished and between F and O, then lens is :

(A) Concave (B) Convex (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

9. Which of the following diagrams correctly represent the path of a ray of light through a concave lens ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

10. In the side mirror of a car, the size of the images of all the objects appear to be

(A) same as that of the size of the objects. (B) smaller than the objects.

(C) larger than the objects. (D) of point size.

11. Define dispersion of light.

12. Gives the use of :

(i) Concave mirror (ii) Convex mirror (iii) Plane mirror

13. State two uses of convex lens.

14. What are constituent colours of light?

15. State the characteristic of image formed by concave lens.


DPP NO. 10

TOPIC : MISCELLANEOUS

1. To search for targets and threats in the surrounding sea and air, submarines make use of

(A) kaleidoscopes (B) periscopes

(C) magnifying glass (D) rear view mirror

2. The nature and size of an image depend upon the

(A) time of conducting the experiment (B) position of the object

(C) kind of the object (D) position of the object in case of mirrors only

3. An image obtained by a plane mirror, the left side of an object appears to be

(A) the left side of an image (B) the right side of an image

(C) the top of an image (D) the bottom of an image

4. Height of candle is 10 cm Height of its image seen in the plane mirror is

(A) 20 cm (B) 5 cm (C) 10 cm (D) 1 m

5. An object is kept at the distance of 6 cm from the plane mirror So, the distance of the image from the object

will be

(A) 6 cm (B) 8 cm (C) 16 cm (D) 12 cm

6. A car is at a distance of 8 m from the plane mirror If it moves 2 m towards the mirror, the image will be formed

at

(A) 10 m away from the mirror (B) 2 m away from the mirror

(C) 6 m away from the mirror (D) 4 m away from the mirror

7. We can change the path of light when it

(A) falls on a person (B) enters a dark room

(C) falls on a polished or a shiny surface (D) falls on a pinhole camera

8. In headlights of cars and searchlights, we use

(A) concave mirror (B) convex mirror (C) plane mirror (D) concave lens

9. A dentist uses

(A) convex mirror (B) plane mirror (C) concave lens (D) concave mirror

10. The centre of a concave mirror is called

(A) focal centre (B) pole

(C) centre of curvature (D) principal focus

11. What are electric fuses ?

12. What are miniature circuit breakers?

13. What are the different types of mirrors?

14. What are the characteristics of the image formed by a concave lens?

15. What are the characteristics of an image formed by a plane mirror?


DPP NO. 11

TOPIC : WIND, STORMS AND CYCLONES

1. Tornado is a dark funnel shaped cloud that reaches from the

(A) sky to the ground (B) ground to the sky (C) land to the ocean (D) ocean to the land

2. Most of the tornadoes are

(A) strong (B) weak

(C) of zero magnitude (D) detected in oceans only

3. A hurricane is

(A) a cyclone (B) land winds (C) air pressure (D) water pressure

4. In winters, the direction of winds is

(A) reversed to that in summers (B) same as in summer

(C) both from ocean to land and land to oceans (D) funnel shaped

5. Winds near the Equator blow because-

(A) Equator gets maximum heat from the Sun causing warming up of regions around the Equator

(B) Warm air rises and the cooler air from 0 – 30 degrees latitude belt on either side of the equator moves in

(C) These winds blow from the North and the South towards the equator

(D) All of these

6. A cloud region of about 150 km in size surrounds the eye of the storm This region has ____________ winds

and thick clouds with heavy rain

(A) High speed (B) Rotating (C) Slow (D) None of these

7. The center of the cyclone is a calm area called the eye of the storm, which varies from _____________ in

diameter

(A) 300 – 400 km (B) 3 – 10 km (C) 10 – 30 km (D) 300 – 400 m

8. Monsoon winds carry rains because-

(A) In summer, lands warm up faster than the water of the oceans

(B) The air above the lands is warmer than the air over the water causing the wind to flow from the oceans

towards the land

(C) These winds carry moisture and are known as the monsoon winds

(D) All of these

9. A cyclone is also known by the names

(A) hurricane in Japan.

(B) typhoon in Russia and Philippines.

(C) hurricane in America and typhoon in Japan and Philippines.

(D) tornado in Russia.

10. A safety measure during the tornado is to

(A) stand with arms raised.

(B) bow down on knees and protecting head and neck using arms.

(C) sit on a chair immediately.

(D) visit a doctor.

11. What is Typhoons ?

12. What is monsoon winds ?

13. Why cyclones are destructive?

14. What causes a thunderstorm?

15. What is lightning?


VIBRANT ACADEMY CHEMISTRY (India) Private Limited CLASS – VII (CBSE)


GENERAL CHEMISTRY

DPP NO. 01

TOPIC : LANGUAGE OF CHEMISTRY

1. An atom is represented by -

(A) formula (B) chemical equation

(C) symbol (D) chemical reaction

2. Who laid the foundation of language of chemistry -

(A) Mendal (B) Lavoiser

(C) Asphalt (D) J.J. Berzelius

3. The latin name of tin is -

(A) Plumbum (B) Stannum

(C) Cuprum (D) Argentum

4. The formula of sodium sulphate -

(A) Na2CO3 (B) Na2SO4

(C) Na2O (D) NaNO3

5. Ozone is -

(A) Diatomic (B) Monoatomic

(C) Triatomic (D) none of these

6. The valency of nitrogen in ammonia is -

(A) 3 (B) 1

(C) 4 (D) 2

7. The correct chemical formula of aluminum sulphate is -

(A) AlSO4 (B) Al(SO3)4

(C) Al3(SO4)4 (D) Al2(SO4)3

8. Identify the unbalanced chemical equation -

(A) 2Mg + O MgO (B) 2H2 + O2 2H2O

(C) H2 + Cl2 2HCl (D) 2Mg + O2 2MgO

9. An element (A) is tetravalent electropositive and another element (B) is divalent electronegative. The

formula of the compound formed from these elements will be -

(A) A2B (B) AB (C) AB2 (D) A2B3

10. The symbols of gold is -

(A) Pb (B) Au (C) Al (D) Ag

11. What is a balanced chemical equation ? Explain with example.

12. Why is the valency of inert gases zero ?

13. What does a symbol represent ?

14. What is meant by compound radicals ? Give examples.

15. What do you mean by the valency of an element ?


DPP NO. 02

TOPIC : ACIDS, BASES & SALTS

1. Acids are ………………….. in taste.

(A) sweet (B) salty

(C) sour (D) bitter

2. The acid present in sour milk is -

(A) oxalic acid (B) lactic acid

(C) citric acid (D) hydrochloric acid

3. Acid present in our stomach which helps in digestion of food -

(A) phosphoric acid (H3PO4) (B) nitric acid (NHO3)

(C) sulphuric acid (H2SO4) (D) hydrochloric acid (HCl)

4. The acid present in Tamarind is -

(A) Tartaric acid (B) Acetic acid

(C) Lactic acid (D) Citric acid

5. Acid which is used in the manufacture of explosives such as TNT -

(A) HNO3 (B) HCl

(C) H2SO4 (D) CH3COOH

6. Acids gives -

(A) H+ in water (B) OH

– in water

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

7. Acid present in tea is -

(A) tartaric acid (B) amino acid

(C) tannic acid (D) citric acid

8. pH of blood is -

(A) 6.3 (B) 7.4

(C) 8.2 (D) 4.7

9. Sulphuric acid can be neutralized by -

(A) citric acid (B) tartaric acid

(C) nitric acid (D) sodium hydroxide

10. Common name of H2SO4 is -

(A) green vitriol (B) muriatic vitriol

(C) blue vitriol (D) oil of vitriol

11. Name the acid present in -

(i) Tamarind (ii) Vinegar

(iii) Apples (iv) Tomato

12. What will be the litmus test for a solution of vitamin C ?

13. Give the difference between strong acid and weak acid. Give example.

14. Why it is desirable to add acid to water and not water to acid ?

15. What are inorganic acid ? Give examples.


DPP NO. 03


1. When magnesium oxide (MgO) reacts with water to form magnesium hydroxide (Mg(OH)2), a base, it

turns …………………… litmus to ………………….. .

(A) blue, red (B) blue, colorless

(C) red, blue (D) colorless, blue

2. An indicator that turns reddish brown when dissolved in soap solution is -

(A) litmus (B) china rose

(C) turmeric (D) methyl orange

3. When a drop of phenolphthalein is introduced in lime water, the solution turns -

(A) blue (B) red

(C) milky (D) pink

4. A base which dissolves in water is called -

(A) a soluble base (B) an alkali

(C) an acid (D) an oxide

5. A soap solution is -

(A) acidic (B) basic

(C) neutral (D) none of these

6. Which of the following is a base -

(A) ammonium hydroxide (B) sodium hydroxide

(C) potassium hydroxide (D) all the above

7. Antacids contains -

(A) weak base (B) weak acid

(C) strong base (D) strong acid

8. Calcium hydroxide (slaked lime) is used in -

(A) plastics and dyes (B) fertilizers

(C) antacids (D) white washing

9. According to Arrhenius concept, base is a substance that -

(A) gives H+ ions in aqueous solutions (B) gives OH

– ions in aqueous solution

(C) accepts electrons (D) donates electrons

10. According to the Bronsted Lowry concept an acid is a substance which -

(A) accepts proton (B) gives an electron pair

(C) gives proton (D) combines with H3O+ ion

11. What are the general properties of basic substances ?

12. Classify the following substances into acidic and basic substances : -

Tomato juice Soap solution

Toothpaste Lemon juice

Vinegar.

13. Which base is used in preparation of soap and detergents ?

14. Why are bases slippery or soapy to touch ?

15. What is the difference between an alkali and a base ?


DPP NO. 04


1. Neutralization reaction is an example of -

(A) exothermic reaction (B) endothermic reaction

(C) oxidation (D) none of these

2. In a neutralization reaction, an acid reacts with a base to give -

(A) another acid (B) another base

(C) another acid and another base (D) a salt and water

3. A compound formed by the reaction of an acid with base is -

(A) salt (B) indicator

(C) vitamins (D) all the above

4. The acidity and alkalinity of a compound is represented on a scale known as -

(A) pH scale (B) Hess's scale

(C) Kelvin scale (D) none of these

5. HCl + NaOH Product. Choose the correct product for the reaction

(A) NaCl + H2O (B) New HCl + New NaOH

(C) NaCl + H2 + O2 (D) All of the above

6. Litmus solution is …………………. colored dye.

(A) blue (B) red

(C) purple (D) green

7. Rock phosphate is -

(A) Ca3(PO4)2 (B) NaNO3

(C) NaOH (D) Al2O3.2H2O

8. Methyl orange can be classified in which category ?

(A) acid (B) base

(C) salt (D) indicator

9. Which of the following is an olfactory indicator ?

(A) methyl orange (B) turmeric

(C) vanilla essence (D) phenolphthalein

10. Salt that we add in our food is -

(A) MgCl2 (B) CaCO3

(C) NaCl (D) CaSO4

11. Define salts ? Give the reaction also.

12. What are acids, bases and indicators ?

13. What is meant by pH ? What does it indicate ?

14. What will be the colour of following indicators in neutral, acidic and basic medium :

(a) China rose

(b) Hydrangea flower

15. What are olfactory indicators? What happens when vanilla essence is added to acidic and basic

medium ?


DPP NO. 05


1. Acidic soil which is not good for healthy growth of plants is neutralized by -

(A) potassium hydroxide (KOH) (B) calcium oxide (CaO)

(C) sodium hydroxide (NaOH) (D) Magnesium hydroxide (Mg(OH)2)

2. Acetic acid is used -

(A) as soda water (B) for preparing soaps

(C) in flavoring food items (D) to manufacture detergents

3. Potassium hydroxide is -

(A) caustic soda (B) caustic potash

(C) slaked lime (D) milk of magnesia

4. Silver hydroxide is a -

(A) weak base (B) strong base

(C) weak acid (D) strong acid

5. Match the following –

Column –I Column - II

(a) tamarind (p) acetic acid

(b) vinegar (q) lactic acid

(c) lemon (r) tartaric acid

(d) sour milk (s) citric acid

(A) a – r; b – p; c – s; d – q (B) a – p; b – r; c – s; d – q

(C) a – p; b – s; c – q; d – r (D) none of these

6. The acid present in vinegar is -

(A) benzoic acid (B) citric acid

(C) tartaric acid (D) acetic acid

7. Which of the following is not a monoacidic base ?

(A) Cu(OH)2 (B) NaOH

(C) KOH (D) All of these

8. Which of the following is a tribasic acid ?

(A) H2SO4 (B) H2CO3

(C) H4SiO4 (D) H3PO4

9. A solution has pH 2 on dilution the pH value -

(A) increases (B) decreases

(C) remains same (D) none of these

10. Bases gives -

(A) OH– in water (B) H

+ in water

(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) none of these

11. Define acids and bases on the basis of Arrhenius theory ? Give reactions.

12. What are electrolytes ? Give few examples.

13. Explain the process of diluting the acids.

14. Give the classification of acids on the basis of basicity ?

15. What are organic acids ? Give their names and source.


DPP NO. 06

TOPIC : FIBRE TO FABRIC

1. Which fibres are used to make clothes ?

(A) Synthetic (B) Natural

(C) Both (D) None of these

2. Silk is obtained from –

(A) Cocoon (B) Pupa

(C) Egg (D) Moth

3. Which of the following is a synthetic fibres ?

(A) Cellulose (B) Nylon

(C) Starch (D) Cotton

4. Pashmina shawls are obtained from the skin of which animal ?

(A) Camel (B) Yak

(C) Kashmiri Goat (D) None of these

5. Which of the following is made from coconut fibres ?

(A) Sweaters (B) Shoes

(C) Mattresses (D) Sarees

6. Wool can be dissolved in

(A) acid (B) base

(C) both A & B (D) None of these

7. The hair of sheep in called

(A) Llama (B) Alphacas

(C) Pupa (D) Fleece

8. Silk thread woven by silkworm around its larva is made up of

(A) carbohydrates (B) proteins

(C) fat (D) none of these

9. Removing of silk fibre from cocoons is

(A) shearing (B) reeling

(C) sericulture (D) none of these

10. Cotton is obtained from

(A) larva of silkworms (B) hairs of sheep

(C) balls of flowers (D) patsun

11. What is cocoon ?

12. What are several health hazard in wool and silk industry ?

13. What is meant by shearing and scouring ?

14. Give the uses of cotton.

15. Define the chemical properties of wool ?


PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL CHANGES

DPP NO. 07

TOPIC : HOW THINGS REACT WITH ONE ANOTHER

1. Photosynthesis is a .......................

(A) physical change (B) chemical change

(C) both A and B (D) none of these

2. Which one of the following is a physical change ?

(A) digestion of food (B) boiling of an egg

(C) making of cup of tea (D) none of these

3. During all changes physical or chemical changes mass is

(A) gained (B) conserved

(C) loss (D) none of these

4. When food eaten by us is digested it undergoes ............................ change.

(A) periodic (B) reversible

(C) irreversible (D) physical

5. Melting of wax is a ................. change while burning of candle is .................. change.

(A) irreversible, reversible (B) reversible, irreversible

(C) physical, reversible (D) chemical, irreversible

6. A chemical reaction in which heat is evolved is called

(A) endothermic reaction (B) exothermic reaction

(C) neutralization reaction (D) displacement reaction

7. On a hot summer day ice-cream melts faster than in winters. The process of melting is

(A) chemical change (B) physical change

(C) periodic change (D) irreversible change

8. Which one of the following is a chemical change ?

(A) Photosynthesis (B) Combustion

(C) Digestion of food (D) All of the above

9. Which of the following changes include formation of new substances ?

(A) Melting (B) Sublimation

(C) Evaporation (D) Rusting

10. CO2 + Ca(OH)2 x + y. The x and y are -

(A) water and calcium (B) water and calcium hydroxide

(C) CaCO3 and H2O (D) None of these

11. Give two examples of physical change and chemical change ?

12. Discuss why the dissolving of salt in water is a physical change ?

13. Differentiate between physical and chemical changes with reference to the change in composition of

the substance and change in energy ?

14. Which gas is evolved when zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid to form zinc chloride ? Give the reaction.

15. Give differences between crystalline and amorphous substances.


DPP NO. 08


1. Coating iron with a thin layer of zinc, to prevent rusting is called -

(A) galvanization (B) anodizing (C) crystallization (D) none of these

2. During rusting, the layer deposited on the surface of iron is -

(A) FeO (B) Fe2O3 (C) Fe2O3.xH2O (D) none of these

3. A change in which one or new substances are formed is called -

(A) chemical change (B) physical change (C) corrosion (D) all of the above

4. An ice cube floats in a glass of water, when the ice cube melts, the water level will -

(A) rise (B) fall

(C) remain unchanged (D) first fall and then rise

5. Fraction of ship's iron has to be replaced every year because -

(A) rusting makes iron weak

(B) its color fades away

(C) ship can move properly in water only after replacement

(D) All the above

6. Why rusting is faster in coastal areas than in deserts ?

(A) Because air has more moisture in coastal areas than in desert areas.

(B) Because air has less moisture in coastal areas than in desert areas.

(C) None of these

(D) Both (A) and (B)

7. A ..................................... speeds up a chemical reaction.

(A) reactant (B) product (C) catalyst (D) none of these

8. The process of obtaining pure crystals of copper sulphate from copper sulphate solution is known as -

(A) crystallization (B) galvanization

(C) rusting (D) none of these

9. Favorable conditions for a chemical reaction may be-

(i) When the reactants come in close contact.

(ii) When the reactants are heated.

(iii) When the reactants are exposed to light.

(iv) When the reactants are subjected to pressure.

(v) When a catalyst is used the same chemical reaction takes place at a faster rate

(A) i, ii and iii (B) ii, iii and iv (C) ii, iv and v (D) all five options

10. For rusting the essential component is -

(A) oxygen (B) water (C) carbon (D) both oxygen and water

11. Differentiate between exothermic and endothermic reaction.

12. Why sea water is called saturated solution of salt ?

13. Write an equation for burning of magnesium in air. What happens when magnesium ribbon is heated in

a flame of bunsen burner ?

14. Why bicycle wheels and wheels of automobiles are coated with nickel and chromium ?

15. How will you explain that state changes during a chemical change ? Give reaction.


WATER & WASTEWATER MANAGEMENT

DPP NO. 09

TOPIC : WASTEWATER MANAGEMENT

1. Sewage is mainly a -

(A) liquid waste (B) solid waste

(C) gaseous waste (D) mixture of solid and gas

2. Open drain system is a breeding place for which of the following -

(A) Flies (B) Mosquitoes

(C) Organisms which cause diseases (D) All of these

3. Water polluted by various human activities causes a number of water borne diseases. Which of the

following is not a water borne disease?

(A) Cholera (B) Typhoid

(C) Asthma (D) Dysentery

4. Pick from the following one chemical used to disinfect water.

(A) Chlorine (B) Washing soda

(C) Silica (D) Coal

5. The system of a network of pipes used for taking away wastewater from homes or public buildings to

the treatment plant is known as -

(A) sewers (B) sewerage

(C) transport system (C) treatment plant

6. Which of the following is a part of inorganic impurities of the sewage?

(A) Pesticides (B) Urea

(C) Phosphates (D) Vegetable waste

7. In a filtration plant water is filtered using layers of -

(A) sand and clay (B) clay and fine gravel

(C) sand and fine gravel (D) sand, fine gravel and medium gravel

8. Which of the following is not a source of waste water?

(A) Sewers (B) Homes

(C) Industries (D) Hospitals

9. A resource much needed for fertile soil is -

(A) Septic Tank (B) Chemical Toilet

(C) Vermi - Processing Toilet (D) Composing pits

10. Better housekeeping practice includes -

(A) Cooking oil and fats should not be thrown down the drain

(B) Chemicals like paints, solvents, insecticides should not be thrown the drain

(C) Used tea leaves, solid food, cotton should not be thrown in the drain

(D) All of the above

11. What is sewage? Explain why it is harmful to discharge untreated sewage into rivers or seas.

12. How water is treated in areas having low population?

13. Outline your role as an active citizen in relation to sanitation.

14. Discuss the various steps involved in water treatment plant.

15. What are the different types of inorganic and organic impurities generally present in sewage?


VIBRANT ACADEMY BIOLOGY (India) Private Limited CLASS – VII (CBSE)


DPP NO. 01

TOPIC : NUTRITION IN PLANTS

1. Photosynthesis utilize

(A) carbon dioxide and water (B) solar energy and water

(C) solar energy and chlorophyll (D) both (A) and (C)

2. Autotrophs produce their food by the activation of

(A) solar energy (B) water (C) chlorophyll (D) air

3. Major nutrients require for the growth of plants

(A) nitrogen (B) potassium (C) phosphorus (D) all of these

4. Photosynthesis can't be proceed in

(A) leaf (B) stem (C) root (D) node

5. Algae's mode of nutrition is

(A) heterotrophic (B) autotrophic (C) parasitic (D) holozoic

6. Fungi is considered as.............. in nature

(A) producer (B) holozoic (C) autotrophic (D) decomposer

7. The final production of product of photosynthesis occur in

(A) grana (B) stroma (C) thylakoid (D) cytoplasm

8. The inducer of photosynthesis is

(A) CO2 (B) H2O (C) sunlight (D) O2

9. Excess light

(A) increases photosynthesis (B) equilibrates photosynthesis

(C) decreases photosynthesis (D) no effect on photosynthesis

10. Products of photosynthesis are

(A) H2O (B) Glucose and sunlight

(C) Glucose (D) Glucose and O2

11. Name the components of food.

12. What is the mode of nutrition of plants?

13. Name the process by which plants prepare their own food.

14. What are stomata?

15. To destarch any plant, what should be done?


DPP NO. 02

TOPIC : NUTRITION IN ANIMALS

1. The process of breaking down of food into small pieces is

(A) respiration (B) digestion (C) circulation (D) reproduction

2. The steps of nutrition by which the organism generates energy during digestion

(A) absorption (B) excretion (C) assimilation (D) ingestion

3. Mode of nutrition in Amoeba is

(A) saprotrophic (B) holozoic (C) parasitic (D) symbiotic

4. Amoeba intake food by the structure called

(A) parapodia (B) legs (C) pseudopodia (D) suckers

5. Mouth is connected with oesophagous by a structure called

(A) food pipe (B) small intestine (C) stomach (D) pharynx

6. The major digesting substance of plant eater is

(A) chitin (B) glycogen (C) cellulose (D) glucose

7. The site of food absorption is

(A) stomach (B) small intestine (C) large Intestine (D) pharynx

8. The largest gland in our body is the

(A) liver (B) pancreas (C) thyroid (D) adrenal

9. The smallest blood vessel is

(A) capillary (B) arterioles (C) venules (D) portal vein

10. Four chambered heart is found in

(A) birds (B) crocodile (C) lizards (D) both (A) and (B)

11. How many chambers are present in a ruminant stomach?

12. Name the enzymes active in acidic medium.

13. How is the nutrition in amoeba different from human beings?

14. Describe the functions of the following:

(i) saliva (ii) oesophagus (iii) liver

15. Define the following terms :

(i) assimilation (ii) intracellular digestion

(iii) villi (iv) digestive system


DPP NO. 03

TOPIC : WEATHER CLIMATE AND ADAPTATIONS

1. Animals have moist and slimy skin, which helps in breathing are the adaptations of

(A) aquatic animals (B) aerial animals (C) amphibians animals (D) a rboreal

2. Desert animals excrete

(A) dilute urine (B) concentrated urine

(C) urine with excreta (D) ammonia gas

3. Organisms that live on trees are called

(A) arial (B) arboreal (C) terrestrial (D) aquatic

4. Wool yielding animals bear thick coat of hair because

(A) the animals carry a lot of hair follicles on body only

(B) it protects them from the predators

(C) hair trap a lot of air, which is a poor conductor of heat

(D) the animals can sleep happily on the rough surfaces

5. How do desert animals adjust to very high temperature and lack of water in the area ?

(A) They shed their skin (B) They become active during day time

(C) They lose much water from their bodies (D) They use the stored water in their bodies

6. Which of the following adaptations enable a penguin to swim ?

(A) Flippers (B) Webbed feet

(C) Streamlined body shape (D) All of these

7. Elephants keep cool with the help of their

(A) tail (B) ears (C) teeth (D) trunk

8. Respiratory organs of amphibians are

(A) lungs (B) gills (C) skin (D) both (A) and (C)

9. What is the climate of a tropical rainforest region.

(A) warm and humid (B) hot and dry (C) cold and humid (D) extremely cold

10. The climatic condition is concerned with low temperature is the indication of

(A) summer (B) spring (C) winter (D) autumn

11. Name the elements that determine the weather of a place.

12. When are the maximum and minimum temperatures likely to occur during the day?

13. The tropical rainforest has a large population of animals. Explain why it is so?

14. Write a short note on migration.

15. Write characteristics of hydrophytes.


DPP NO. 04

TOPIC : SOIL

1. Soil consists of

(A) organic waste (B) decomposed material

(C) ions (D) all of these

2. C-horizon present at

(A) top position-profile (B) in each layer of soil-profile

(C) bottom position of soil profile (D) none of these

3. The removal of fertile layer from the earth crust is termed as

(A) soil transformation (B) soil implantation (C) soil erosion (D) soil culture

4. The possible reasons of soil-pollution are

(A) deforestation (B) industralisation

(C) both (A) and (B) (D) afforestation

5. The soil having good water holding capacity is

(A) loamy soil (B) clayley soil (C) sandy soil (D) all of these

6. The soil present in plateau area are

(A) red soil (B) yellow soil (C) black soil (D) brown soil

7. Bed-rock and pebbles are the characteristics of

(A) C-horizon and A-horizon (B) C-horizon and B-horizon

(C) D-horizon and C-horizon (D) A-horizon and B-horizon

8. The hot-spots of a land considers the following

(A) rainfall (B) temperature and pressure of that area

(C) biodiversity (D) both (A) and (B)

9. Soil pollution can be controlled by

(A) deforestation (B) over-grazing (C) industrialization (D) afforestation

10. The elements which are required for the fertility of soil

(A) P,K,Ca (B) N,P,K (C) Ca,Mg,K (D) H,P,K

11. What is Humus?

12. Draw a neat and labeled diagram of soil profile.

13. Why is the uppermost layer of soil dark in colour ?

14. Explain how soil pollution and soil erosion could be prevented.

15. List the differences between clayey soil and sandy soil.


DPP NO. 05 TOPIC : RESPIRATION

1. Leaves respire with the help of

(A) lenticles (B) stomata (C) plasmodesmata (D) cuticle

2. The type of respiration in mammals is called

(A) gill respiration (B) tracheal respiration

(C) cutaneous respiration (D) pulmonary respiration

3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of good respiratory surface ?

(A) Thin and moist (B) Large surface area

(C) Close to oxygen and gas transport (D) Thick and dry surface

4. In aerobic respiration ATP is formed

(A) 38 ATP (B) 32 ATP (C) 30 ATP (D) 28 ATP

5. In human normal breathing rate is

(A) 15-18 per min. (B) 25-30 per min.

(C) 30-32 per min. (D) 10-12 per min.

6. End products of aerobic respiration are

(A) CO2 and H2O (B) lactic acid

(C) alcohol (D) none of these

7. During inhalation, the ribs

(A) move outwards (B) move upwards

(C) move downwards (D) do not move at all

8. Respiration is a process opposite to

(A) blood circulation (B) digestion

(C) photosynthesis (D) none of these

9. In respiration

(A) gaseous exchange occurs (B) energy is produced

(C) breakdown of food occurs (D) all of these

10. Respiration is

(A) aerobic (B) both aerobic and anaerobic

(C) anaerobic (D) none of these

11. What is the biological fuel in respiration?

12. What is breathing rate?

13. What is anaerobic respiration?

14. Give reasons to justify that energy is required during sleep.

15. List the similarities and differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration.


DPP NO. 06

TOPIC : TRANSPORTATION IN ANIMALS AND PLANTS

1. Which one of the following is connected with transport of water in plants

(A) phloem (B) xylem (C) epidermis (D) cambium

2. Cells which transport food to the autotrophs

(A) tracheids and vessel (B) tracheids and sieve tube

(C) vessel and compansion cell (D) companion cell and sieve tube

3. Organ do the process of circulation and transportation

(A) liver (B) heart (C) kidney (D) stomach

4. The 'Main artery' is also termed as

(A) superior artery (B) aorta (C) head artery (D) aorta senior

5. The other name of RBC's are

(A) leucocytes (B) plasmalemma (C) erythrocytes (D) thrombocytes

6. Vessels forms the network between arteries and veins

(A) vena cava (B) inferior vena cava (C) capillaries (D) all of these

7. The fluidity of blood is due to

(A) RBC (B) platelets (C) WBC (D) plasma

8. Red color of blood is due to

(A) myoglobin (B) chromoplast (C) haemoglobin (D) melanin

9. Human heart is

(A) four chambered (B) one chambered (C) two chambered (D) three chambered

10. Unit of excretion in man is

(A) neuron (B) nissl's organ (C) nephron (D) none of these

11. Name the two kinds of cells of xylem.

12. Write two excretory wastes in plants.

13. What is systemic circulation of blood?

14. With a diagrammatic representation of the human heart , trace the flow of blood.

15. What is blood? Describe its composition.


DPP NO. 07

TOPIC : REPRODUCTION IN PLANT

1. The ability to generate new ones of same kind is

(A) digestion (B) reproduction (C) respiration (D) excretion

2. Gametes are formed in

(A) binary fission (B) budding (C) grafting (D) sexual reproduction

3. Single parents reproduction is termed as

(A) sexual reproduction (B) both (A) and (C)

(C) asexual reproduction (D) none of these

4. Hydra reproduce through

(A) budding (B) fragmentation (C) regeneration (D) both (A) and (C)

5. Variation are generated in

(A) budding (B) sexual reproduction (C) fragmentation (D) grafting

6. Fungi's mode of reproduction is

(A) budding (B) grafting (C) spore formation (D) cutting

7. Vegetative Reproduction includes

(A) generation of new somatic cells (B) no variation generated

(C) simple reproducing process (D) all of these

8. Amoeba reproduces through

(A) budding (B) binary fission (C) spore formation (D) fragmentation

9. Bryophyllum reproduces through

(A) vegetative reproduction (B) spore formation

(C) budding (D) fragmentation

10. 'Stock' is associated with

(A) layering (B) cutting (C) grafting (D) vegetative propagation

11. What is budding ?

12. Explain the term grafting.

13. Give one example of each of the following

(i) plant which reproduces naturally by vegetative propagation of leaf.

(ii) plant which reproduces naturally by vegetative propagation of stem.

14. Write a note on germination of seed.

15. How is zygote formed in plants?


DPP NO. 08

TOPIC : OUR FOREST

1. A huge area covered with trees and surrounded by biodiversity is

(A) agriculture land (B) both (A) and (C) (C) forest (D) none of these

2. The benefits of forest are

(A) O2 and CO2 balance (B) balance the ecosystem

(C) habitat of biodiversity (D) all of these

3. A linear arrangement of producers and consumers of eaten and being eaten is

(A) food-web (B) food-triangle (C) food-chain (D) none of these

4. The major cause of soil erosion is

(A) deforestation (B) floods (C) afforestation (D) plantation

5. The hot spots of India are

(A) eastern ghats (B) eastern himalayas (C) western ghats (D) both (B) and (C)

6. Rabbit, polar-bear, yaks gives commercialize product

(A) tusk (B) fur (C) bones (D) oil

7. The major cause of melting of glaciers is

(A) deforestation (B) extinction

(C) global warming (D) abundance of flora and fauna

8. The peculiar feature of plants of Artic region is

(A) needle shaped leaves (B) pointed branches

(C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of these

9. The group of inter linked food chain

(A) ecosystem (B) food web (C) food circle (D) food pyramid

10. Commercial products obtained from the from the forest are

(A) paper (B) honey (C) medicine (D) all of these

11. Why is energy flow considered as unidirectional?

12. What happens when in a food-chain tertiary consumers are destroyed?

13. Write any four significances of forest.

14. List any three measures for the protection of wildlife.

15. "Nothing is waste in forests". Can you explain this statement?


DPP NO. 1

TOPIC : TRACING CHANGES THROUGH A THOSAND YEARS

1. What do you mean by the Archives?

(A) a place where government documents are kept

(B)a place where people are kept

(C) a place where animala are kept

(D) none of these

2. Match the following

(a) Kalhana (i) Akbarnama

(b) Al-beruni (ii) Rajatarangini

(c) Abul Fazl (iii) Shahnama

(d) Firdausi (iv) Tarikh-al Hind

(A) a (ii) b (iv) c (i) d (iii) (B) a (iii) b (iv) c (ii) d (i)

(C) a (i) b (ii) c (iv) d (ii) (D) none of thses

3. British historians divided the history of India into

(A) six periods (B) five periods (C) four periods. (D) three periods.

4. Coins,inscriptions and architecture are few of the important methods through which we come to know about

(A) Our economy (B) Our past (C) Our political status (D) Our Trade

5. Prophet Mohammadís son-in-law was the legitimate leader of Muslim community as per the

(A) Sunni community (B) Shia community (C) The Khalifas (D) The Sufis

6. Cartographer is an important person in the study of history as he is the

(A) one who rules over a kingdom (B) one who does trade by oceanic routes.

(C) one who makes maps (D) one who carves out empires.

7. Al-Idrisi was

(A) an artist (B) an Arabic sailor (C)an Arabic geographer (D) an historian

8. The term ëHindustaní was used to refer to area of Punjab, Haryana and Doab of Ganga Yamuna by

(A) Minhaj-us-Siraj (B) Harisena (C) Kalidas (D) Al beruni

9. Babar used the term ëHindustaní in the

(A) political sense (B) geographical sense (C) historical sense (D) poetic terms.

10. In past the term ëforeignerí meant

(A) The one who was not an Indian

(B) The one who was not a part of a specific social unit like village or city etc

(C) One who came from the region of Afghanistan

(D) One who came from the southern region of the sub continent

11. Who was James Mill ?

12. What do you mean by inscriptions?

13. List some of the historical accounts during the medieval period. Ans.

(i) Tuhfat - un - Nuzzar Gharibi - il - Amsar by lbn - e - Batuta

(ii) Accounts of Marco Polo (13th century A.D.)

(iii) Accounts of Nicolo Conti (16th century A.D.)

(iv) Tarikh - i- firishta (16th century A.D.) by Firishta

14. What were ëjatisí? How were the affairs of jatis regulated?

15. In what ways has the meaning of the term “Hindustan” changed over the centuries ?



SOCIAL SCIENCECLASS VII - CBSE


DPP NO. 2

TOPIC : NEW KINGS AND KINGDOMS

1. Sultan Mahmud Ghazniís ruled Afghanistan from

(A) 900 to 950. (B) 950 to 970. (C) 970 to 990. (D) 997 to 1030.

2. The foundation of Rashtrakutas dynasty was laid down by

(A) Amoghavarsha-I (B) Dantidurga (C) Indra-III (D) Krishna-I

3. Prithviraja III defeated Sultan Muhammad Ghori in

(A) 1191. (B) 1192. (C) 1193. (D) 1194.

4. The Rashtrakutas dynasty was founded in the region of

(A) Deccan. (B) Warrangal. (C) Kalinga. (D) Karnataka

5. The river that flowed in the regions of the Chola dynasty was

(A) Godavari. (B) Krishna. (C) Tungabhadra . (D) Kaveri.

6. At the time of Cholas, the tax ëVettií was levied in the form of

(A) cash. (B) food grain. (C) forced labour. (D) irrigation tax.

7. Match the following

List I List II

(A) Gurjara-prathiharas (i) Western Deccan

(B) Rashtrakutas (ii) Bengal

(C) Pala (iii) Gujarat and Rajastan

(D) Cholas (iv) Tamil Nadu

(A) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iv) (B) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv)

(C) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (i) (D) A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (iv), D - (i)

8. Among the crafts associated with the Chola temples the most distinctive was that of the

(A) bronze images. (B) woven silk.

(C) tall statues. (D) carvings on walls.

9. The author of Kitab-ul-Hind was

(A) Al-Beruni. (B) Amir-khusru.

(C) Firdausi. (D) Isami.

10. Rashtrakutas were subordinate to

(A) Cholas. (B) Chalukyas.

(C) Pandyas. (D) Mauryas.

11. What were the titles adopted by the kings during this period?

12. Who were Gurjar-Pratiharas?

13. What was the significance of the Pala Rule in Bengal and Bihar?

14. How did the kings demonstrate their power ?

15. What are Prashastis?


DPP NO. 3

TOPIC : ON EQUALITY

1. The Civil Rights Movement took place

(A) U.S.A. (B) South Africa. (C) Latin America. (D) Chile.

2. What does the term Dalit stand for?

(A) It symbolises inequalities among upper castes

(B) It is a term which symbolises inequalities among lower caste

(C) Gender Inequalities

(D) Discrimination on religious grounds

3. What do you understand by mid-day meal scheme?

(A) It refers to the programme that provides lunch for the students

(B) Providing financial aid to the students

(C) Meal only for disabled students

(D) Programme for non-resident indians

4. Where is Universal Adult Franchise practiced ?

(A) India (B) The world

(C) Most of the democratic countries of the world (D) China

5. What does the term ‘people’s participation’ in democracy mean?

(A) It means that people participate in all the democratic processes like elections etc

(B) It means that people observe, suggest and criticise the policy and work of the government

(C) It implies involvement of people in judicial decisions.

(D) It impies people’s participation in the formation of non-governmental agencies.

6. India holds which form of government?

(A) Democratic (B) Autocratic

(C) Communist (D) Presidential form of government.

7. The concept of Universal Adult Franchise is based on-

(A) Equality (B) Inequality (C) Justice (D) Conflict

8. The mid-day meal scheme in India was first introduced in the state of

(A) Tamil Nadu. (B) Andhra Pradesh. (C) Karnataka. (D) Mumbai.

9. Who was Rosa Parks?

(A) She was an actress

(B) Painter

(C) She was an activist who started agitation against racial discrimination

(D) Musician

10. What does the term ’dignity’ symbolise?

(A) Self respect (B) Verbal abuse (C) Confrontation (D) Non-violence

11. How is political equality established in India?

12. What does equality before law mean?

13. Which Indian Dalit leader came to be known as the messiah of Dalits ?

14. Who are minorities?

15. What were the positive outcomes of mid-day meal scheme?


DPP NO. 4

TOPIC : ENVIRONMENT

1. 5th June is celebrated as

(A) agricultural day. (B) forest day.

(C) water day. (D) environment day.

2. Which of the following is not a part of human environment?

(A) Society (B) Religion

(C) Jungles (D) Communities

3. Ecosystem í is associated with

(A) Biotic and Abiotic Factors (B) Biotic factors

(C) Abiotic Factors (D) Atmosphere

4. The major threat to our environment is the growing

(A) animals (B) population

(C) crops (D) plants

5. The term 'Abiotic' includes:

(A) Land (B) Plants

(C) Animals (D) Human beings

6. The basic life support system is commomly known as

(A) Lithosphere (B) environment

(C) hydrosphere (D) atmosphere

7. Choose the wrongly matched pair:

(A) Biotic ó Forest (B) Atmosphere ó Air

(C) Hydrosphere ó Land (D) Abioticó Building

8. Excessive population threatens environment because:

(A) It increases oxygen level in the atmosphere (B) It maintains balance in ecosystem

(C) It exerts pressure on natural resources (D) It increases forest cover

9. Family is a part of

(A) natural environment (C) abiotic environment

(B) human environment (D) human made environment

10. Biosphere is the

(A) narrow zone where land, water and air interact.

(B) combination of natural and human phenomena.

(C) hard layer of the earth.

(D) source of mineral wealth.

11. How is environment important to us ? Explain.

12. What are the major domains of the environment?

13. How is atmosphere important to us ?

14. What is biosphere ? How is it made up ?

15. How do humans affect/modify the natural environment?


DPP NO. 5

TOPIC : INSIDE OUR EARTH

1. The earth interior consist of

(A) 4 layers (B) 3 layers

(C) 2 layers (D) 1 layer

2. The uppermost layer of earth is called:

(A) Crust (B) Mantle

(C) Core (D) Asthenosphere

3. The main consituents of continenet are

(A) Silica, alumina (B) Alumina, magnesium

(C) Magnesium, copper (D) Silica, iron

4. Where is Granite found in India?

(A) Rajasthan (B) Madhya pradesh

(C) Karnataka (D) All of them

5. Sedimentary rocks are made up of

(A) lava. (B) buried rocks.

(C) compressed layers of sediments. (D) molten magma.

6. Sandstones is an example of

(A) Sedimentary Rock (B) Igneous rock

(C) Metamorphic rock (D) volcanic rock

7. Fossils are

(A) the remains of the dead plants and animals. (B) molten magma.

(C) igneous rocks. (D) solid lava.

8. Under heat and pressure clay changes into

(A) Slate (B) Marble

(C) Diamond (D) Coal

9. Petroleum and coal are example of

(A) Fossils fuels (B) abiotic resource

(C) forest fuels (D) biotic resource

10. The transformation of one rock into another is known as the:

(A) Geological Cycle (B) Rock Cycle

(C) Flluvial Cycle (D) Water cycle

11. What are the three layers of the earth?

12. What do you mean by ‘Sial’ ?

13. What do you mean by rock cycle ? What are the types of rock ?

14. What are sedimentary rocks ? Give an example.

15. How are metamorphic rocks formed ? Give examples


DPP NO. 6

TOPIC : THE DELHI SULTANS

1. The sultanate reached its farthest extent during the reign of

(A) Qutubuddin Aibak. (B) Alauddin Khilji.

(C) Ghiyasuddin Balban. (D) Mohammad Tuglaq.

2. Delhi was made capital by the rulers of

(A) Tomar dynasty. (B) Slave dynasty.

(C) Chauhana dynasty. (D) Pratihara dynasty.

3. The number of taxes levied by the Delhi Sultans were

(A) two (B) three.

(C) four. (D) five.

4. Kharaj was a tax on

(A) house. (B) pastures.

(C) cultivation. (D) water.

5. Market control policy was introduced by

(A) Mohammad bin Tughluq. (B) Firoz Shah Tughluq.

(C) Iltutmish. (D) Alauddin Khilji.

6. Iqta was abolished by

(A) Balban. (B) Alauddin Khilji.

(C) Mohammad Tughluq. (D) Ibrahim Lodi.

7. Mohammad Tughluqís innovative token currency failed because,

(A) he could not control its circulation. (B) token currency was useless.

(C) it was not popularised. (D) people were against it.

8. The tarikh and tawarikh provides us a lot of information about Delhi was written in

(A) Persian. (B) Arabic.

(C) Iranian. (D) Hindavi.

9. Which of the folowing did not belong to slave dynasty?

(A) Iltutmish (B) Qutbuddin Aibak

(C) Balban (D) Khizr Khan

10. Moth Ki Masjid was constructed during the time of

(A) Bahlol lodi. (B) Sher Shah Lodi.

(C) Ibrahim Lodi. (D) Sikander Lodi.

11. Why was Raziya, daughter of Sultan Iltutmish removed from the throne of Delhi?

12. Who were the iqtadars or the muqti and what was their role?

13. Why did large parts of the subcontinent remain outside the control of the Delhi sultans?

14. What were the duties of the authors of the Histories?

15. What were the results of the first campaigns of the rulers of the Delhi Sultanate to extend the empire?


DPP NO. 7

TOPIC : HOW THE STATE GOVERNMENT WORKS

1. The political party, which is unable to get a majority in Legislative Assembly is known as the

(A) Ruling party (B) Opposition party.

(C) Private party. (D) Assembly party.

2. Who is the Chief Minister in a state?

(A) Head of state (B) Leader of the ruling party

(C) Head of the opposition (D) Judicial Head

3. The functions of Governor are:

(A) He appoints members of the parliament (B) He heads the centre during emergency

(C) Appoints Chief Minister (D) Elects MLAs

4. In India what is the most important organ of the state ?

(A) Legislative Assembly (B) Lok Sabha

(C) Rajya Sabha (D) Chief Election Commissioner

5. What do you mean by majority?

(A) When a decision is supported by more than half the number in the group

(B) One third number of MLAs strength in an assembly is called as majority

(C) Less than one third of the total strength of assembly is called majority

(D) Half of the stregth

6. The Members of the Legislative Assembly (MLAs ) belong to the

(A) same political party. (B) different political parties.

(C) pressure groups. (D) non governmental organisations

7. How is a governor appointed?

(A) Governor is appointed by the central government

(B) Governor is appointed by the state government

(C) He is elected by the people

(D) Appointed by the President

8. The state with the largest number of MLA constituencies is

(A) Uttar Pradesh. (B) Bihar.

(C) Delhi. (D) Rajasthan.

9. In India, how many states have assemblies?

(A) All states (B) 22 states

(C) 15 states (D) 20 States

10. To be a member of Vidhan Sabha, person should not be less than

(A) 19 years of age. (B) 22 years of age.

(C) 25 years of age. (D) 30 years of age.

11. What do you mean by the word “majority” and “the ruling party”?

12. What is a Legislative Assembly?

13. What is the composition of the state legislature?

14. What is the role of opposition in a democracy?

15. Who is an MLA and how is he elected.


DPP NO. 8

TOPIC : OUR CHANGING EARTH

1. Following is the endogenic force

(A) River (B) Volcano

(C) Wind (D) Glacier

2. The lithospheric plates are continuously moving due to :

(A) Molten magma (B) Deforestation

(C) Rainfall (D) Volcanic activities

3. Sand-dunes are depostional feature formed due to action of

(A) Wind (B) Glacier

(C) River (D) Earthquakes

4. A volcano is a phenomenon in which

(A) earth plates move. (B) high winds blow.

(C) molten material erupts suddenly. (D) sun rays become hotter.

5. Earthquakes occur when

(A) magma inside the earth comes out.

(B) high pressure wind blows.

(C) lithosphere plates move and cause earth surface to vibrate.

(D) cyclones develop over Bay of Bengal.

6. The earthquake is measured by

(A) Seismograph. (B) Crescograph.

(C) Rectograph. (D) Barometer.

7. When the river falls at steep angles over hard rocks, it forms :

(A) Waterfalls (B) Meanders

(C) Flood plains (D) Cirques

8. When river enters a plain, it twists and forms a large bend known as:

(A) Waterfall (B) Meander

(C) Flood plain (D) Delta

9. The cut-off lake formed from meanders by erosion is called:

(A) Ox-Bow lake (B) Salt lake

(C) tectonic lake (D) fresh water lake

10. Two processes, which are continuously breaking down the landscape, are

(A) earthquakes and volcanoes. (C) weathering and erosion.

(B) sedimentation and transportation. (D) rotation and revolution.

11. What are mushroom rocks?

12. Which landforms are created by the sea ?

13. Define Delta?

14. What creates different landforms on the surface of the earth?

15. What are meanders and ox-bow lakes?


DPP NO. 9

TOPIC : THE MUGHAL EMPIRE

1. Sher Khan defeated Humayun at Chausa in

(A) 1539 (B) 1540

(C) 1541 (D) 1542

2. Who was Prince Khurram?

(A) Jahangir (B) Humayun

(C) Shah jahan (D) Akbar

3. Sher Shah died while fighting in ;

(A) Chausa (B) Kalinga

(C) Kalinjar (D) None of these

4. Subas in Mughal empire stands for

(A) provinces. (B) districts.

(C) taluka. (D) villages.

5. Todarmal was the Revenue Minister of

(A) Akbar. (B) Jahangir

(C) Shah Jahan (D) Aurangzeb.

6. Prince Akbar rebelled against

(A) Humayun (B) Jahangir

(C) Shah Jahan (D) Aurangzeb.

7. The coparcenary inheritence was followed by the Mughal ruler

(A) Babur. (B) Humayun.

(C) Akbar. (D) Shahjahan.

8. Mughals permanently lost Qandhar during the reign of

(A) Jahangir. (B) Shah Jahan.

(C) Aurangzeb. (D) Humayun.

9. The battle of Chanderi was fought in the year

(A) 1526. (B) 1527.

(C) 1528. (D) 1530.

10. Chittor was the capital of

(A) Chauhana Rajputs. (B) Parmara Rajputs

(C) Sisodiya Rajputs. (D) Hindushahi dynasty.

11. Who were Mughals?

12. Explain the rule of Babur?

13. Who were Mansabdars?

14. Explain Akbar’s Empire?

15. Who were Zamindars?


DPP NO. 10

TOPIC : STATE GOVERNMENT AND ITS ROLE IN HEALTH

1. What does the medical term OPD stand for?

(A) Out Patient Department (B) Our Patient Donor

(C) Out Patient Donation (D) Out parent door

2. One of the healthiest countries in South America is

(A) Argentina. (B) Brazil.

(C) Venezuela (D) Costa Rica.

3. Right to Life is a

(A) Legal right only. (C) Human Right.

(B) Fundamental Right (D) Directive Principle of State Policy.

4. Who owns the Private health facilities ?

(A) Private sector (B) Government sector

(C) Medical Supritendent (D) Medical Council of India

5. Why Private Health care system is not accessable to all?

(A) It is more expensive (C) Inexperienced medical practitioners

(B) It is mainly concentrated in rural areas (D) Non availability of equipments

6. The two categories of health facilities are:

(A) Public health services and private health facilities

(B) Government and public heath

(C) Private clinics and government hospitals

(D) Health centres and hospitals

7. Public healthcare system is run by .

(A) the doctors (B) the teachers

(C) the people (D) the government

8. Health means our ability to remain free of and .

(A) government, health (B) welfare, health measures

(C) Active, good spirits (D) illness, injuries

9. People in the rural areas have to travel long distances to reach a

(A) postman. (B) police.

(C) trader. (D) physician.

10. PBKMS stands for

(A) Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samity (B) Purab Bengal Khet Mangalmay Samity

(C) Paschim Bengal Khet Mangalmay Samity (D) Purab Banga Khet Mazdoor Samity

11. What are the main resources to run public health centres?

12. Who appoints the Governor?

13. Explain the public health services.

14. What do you mean by private health centre ?

15. What do you mean by ëhealthí?


DPP NO. 11

TOPIC : AIR

1. Precipitation in the liquid form is called

(A) frost (B) Snow

(C) Dew (D) Rain

2. Pilots prefer to fly their aeroplanes in

(A) troposphere. (B) stratosphere.

(C) thermosphere. (D) exosphere.

3. The following is a type of permanent wind

(A) Trade Winds (B) Cyclonic winds

(C) Sea breeze (D) Monsoon winds

4. The gas that holds the least share in total composition is

(A) Oxygen (B) Nitrogen

(C) CO (D) Argon

5. Which one is considered as green house gas?

(A) Carbon Dioxide (B) Oxygen

(C) Nitrogen (D) Helium

6. The following is the consequence of global warming

(A) Winds (B) Rise in sea level

(C) Earthquakes (D) Increase in population

7. Weather phenomena is generally associated with

(A) Troposphere (B) Stratosphere

(C) Mesosphere (D) Exosphere

8. If an area has low temperature then:

(A) It will have high pressure (B) It will have heavy rains

(C) It will many varieties of trees (D) It will have many rivers

9. The state that is prone to cyclones and originates in the Bay of Bengal is

(A) Punjab. (B) Orissa.

(C) Bihar. (D) Kerala.

10. A type of rainfall is

(A) Heavy rainfall. (B) Convectional rainfall.

(C) Sudden rainfall. (D) Systematic rainfall.

11. What is atmosphere?

12. How is carbon dioxide useful to plants?

13. Explain Stratosphere?

14. Describe briefly the composition of the atmosphere.


DPP NO. 12

TOPIC : RULERS AND BUILDINGS

1. Qibla stands for the

(A) pedestal on which kingís throne was placed. (B) place where the royal guard stood.

(C) entrance of the kingdom. (D) The side facing Mecca in a mosque

2. The Agra fort was constructed during the reign of

(A) Babar. (B) Shahjahan.

(C) Jahangir. (D) Akbar.

3. Taj Mahal was constructed by Shah Jahan on the bank of river

(A) Ganga. (B) Yamuna.

(C) Gomati. (D) Hindon.

4. Muslim Sultans and Badshahs claimed to be

(A) a shadow of God. (C) generous to their people.

(B) kind hearted rulers. (D) equivalent to God.

5. Construction of Qutub Minar was initiated (begin) by

(A) Qutab- ud- din Bakhtiyar Kaki. (B) Qutbuddin Aibak

(C) Iltutmish. (D) Firoz Shah.

6. Trabeateí means a form of

(A) architecture. (B) dance.

(C) painting. (D) clothing.

7. The reservoir constructed on the orders of Sultan Illtutmish was

(A) Delhi-I Kuhna. (B) Hauz-i Sultani.

(C) Harminder Sahib. (D) Holy Sarovar.

8. Match the following according to the code given below : Column A Column B

A Chola King Rajendra I (i) Buddha

B Sri Lankan King Sena I (ii) Shiva

C Palas of Bengal (iii) Bhairava and Bhairavi

D Kalingas of Orissa (iv)Kali

(A) A(ii), B(i), C(iv), D(iii) (B) A(iv) ,B(iii), C(ii), D(i)

(C) A(i), B(ii) ,C(iii), D(iv) (D) None of them

9. Chahar Bagh means

(A) a huge garden. (B) a garden along a river.

(C) four gardens. (D) five gardens.

10. Hasht Bihishtî was a

(A) architectural technique. (B) accounts register.

(C) council of eight writers. (D) name of a Persian text.

11. Give a description of Chahar Bagh.

12. What do you know about ëHumayun’s Tombí?

13. What is Quibla ?

14. What is ‘Hauz-i-Sultanií?

15. Why were the temples destroyed?


DPP NO. 13

TOPIC : MEDIA AND ADVERTISEMENT

1. The Government of India censored the media in(A) 1768-1980 (B) 1890-1960

(C) 1990-1998 (D) 1975-1977

2. What is the local language of Uttar Pradesh?

(A) Bundeli (B) Pali(C) Prakrit (D) Sanskrit

3. How does media play an important role in the democracy?(A) Media acts only on the advice of the government(B) Highlights weaknesses of the government

(C) Media is not free(D) Only achivements of the government are highlighted

4. What do you mean by media?(A) It describes the various problems that we face while communicating in the society(B) It refers to all means of communication

(C) Only newspapers(D) Visual mode of communication

5. Give an impact of technology on media?(A) It helps in reaching out to millions of people (B) It is time consuming(C) It is unaffordable for the majority (D) People misuse technology

6. Who invented television?(A) John L Baird (B) Graham Bell

(C) Abraham Lincoln (D) Newton

7. How does the media earns money?

(A) Through advertisements (B) With the help of non- governmental organisations(C) Government aid (D) Co-operatives resources

8. How people can show their dissent against governmental actions?(A) By writing letters to their friends (B) By organising a public protest(C) By avoiding a signature campaign (D) Using violent means

9. What do you mean by a ëBalanced Reportí?(A) It is the report that discusses any particular story from all the points of view and then leaves it to the

readers to analyze it(B) Points out only the government perspective(C) Highlights record of employees

(D) Deals with financial aspects

10. What is most important for writing a ëBalance Reportí?

(A) To be secular (B) Independent(C) Dependent on government (D) Democratic

11. What are the reasons that prevent the media from being independent?

12. What is media?

13. What impact does the changing technology have on media and the minds of people?

14. What is a Balanced Report?

15. What is political advertising ?


DPP NO. 14

TOPIC : TOWNS, TRADERS AND CRAFTSPERSON’S

1. Spices and cloth sold by Indian merchants in the Red sea ports were purchased by

(A) Roman traders. (B) British traders.

(C) Italian traders. (D) French traders.

2. The ìdevadasisî perform their dances on the occasion of

(A) Mahanavmi. (B) Dashmi.

(C) Saptami. (D) Panchami.

3. The ancient capital of Vijayanagara is located in the

(A) Govadri basin. (B) Kaveri basin.

(C) Krishna-Tungabhadra basin. (D) Tungabhadra basin.

4. The most important festival celebrated at Hampi was

(A) Shivratri (B) Diwali

(C) Mahanavami (D) Holi

5. The city of Ahmedabad is located in

(A) Gujarat. (B) Maharashtra.

(C) Andhra Pradesh. (D) Rajasthan.

6. Surat declined, due to the decline of the

(A) Delhi Sultanate. (B) Gujarat kingdom.

(C) Portuguese. (D) Mughal Empire.

7. Murshidabad became the capital of Bengal in

(A) 1701 (B) 1702

(C) 1703 (D) 1704

8. Which city is called the city of ruins ?

(A) Hampi (B) Vijay nagar

(C) Surat (D) Bangalore

9. Rulers built temples to demonstrate their

(A) religion (B) devotion

(C) generosity (D) wealth

10. Temple towns represented an early pattern of

(A) life (B) religion

(C) urbanisation (D) brahmanical ideas

11. What kind of market did the small towns have?

12. What was the role of a ‘Samanta’ or a ‘Zamindar’ ?

13. What were guilds ? Name two famous guilds?

14. Who were Devdasis?

15. Why did European traders come to India?


DPP NO. 15

TOPIC : WATER

1. Tsunami are rare in the(A) Indian ocean. (B) Pacific ocean. (C) Arctic ocean. (D) Antarctic ocean.

2. Tsunami is a(A) Hindi word. (B) French word. (C) Japanese word. (D) Sanskrit word.

3. An advantage of high tide(A) It bring about warm temperature over land surface.(B) It raise the water level close to the shores. This helps the ships to arrive at the harbour more easily(C) It help in predicting weather conditions.(D) It helps in formation of islands

4. What do you mean by water cycle?(A) Process of keeping house plants and growing them naturally(B) Process by which water continuously changes its form and circulates between the oceans, atmosphereand the land(C) Process in which a bi-cycle is used wherein the water is spread all over the place(D) Filtering of water

5. Why is the ocean water salty?(A) The ocean water contains large amount of dissolved salts(B) The ocean water contains all the industrial wastes which is salty(C) The ocean water contains salty animals(D) The ocean water contains salty plants

6. The Indira Point is located(A) on Laguna Beach. (B) on Lakshwadeep Islands.(C) on Andaman & Nicobar Islands. (D) at Kerala.

7. A tide is:(A) The rhythmic rise and fall of the ocean water twice in a day(B) The huge waves which can destroy the harbours(C) Rise and fall of ocean water alternatively(D) Flooding of coastal areas by rising water

8. What do the cold currents do?(A) They carry water from polar latitudes to tropical latitudes(B) They carry water from lower latitudes to higher latitudes(C) They help in fish breeding(D) They help in navigation

9. Which of the following is a warm current?(A) Labrador ocean current (B) Gulf Stream ocean current(C) Oyashio current (D) Peru currents

10. The chemical name for common salt is(A) Potassium Chloride (B) Calcium Chloride(C) Sodium Chloride (D) Magnesium Chloride

11. Why the world water day is celebrated?

12. What are the major movements of the ocean water?

13. Why people do not sink in the saline water?

14. How do the high tides help in navigation?

15. What is a water cycle?


DPP NO. 16

TOPIC : TRIBES NOMADS AND SETTLED COMMUNITIES

1. Akbar was contemporary of Gakkar chief

(A) Sib Singh (B) Kamal Khan

(C) Aman Das (D) Salbahan

2. The meaning of ëbhuiyansí is

(A) tenants (B) landlords

(C) nomads (D) rulers

3. Cheros were finally subdued by

(A) Akbar (B) Raja Man Singh

(C) Raja Ajit Singh (D) Aurangzeb

4. In 1662, Mughal forces attacked Ahoms kingdom under

(A) Prince Khurram (B) Aurangzeb

(C) Madho Singh (D) Mir Jumla

5. In the Mughal period, Cheros were defeated by

(A) Raja Todar Mal (B) Raja Man Singh

(C) Raja Ajeet Singh (D) Prince Salim

6. The deliberations, to determine the status of Rathakaras is given in the inscription recovered from

(A) Uyyakondan Udaiyar (B) Uyyakondan Uraiyur

(C) Uyyakondan Udaipur (D) Uyyakondan Jaipur

7. The Chaurasi were subdivided into

(A) garhs (B) barhots

(C) subas (D) maujas

8. In the 13th and 14th century, khokkars were influential in the

(A) Punjab region (B) Himachal region

(C) Delhi region (D) Rajasthan region

9. In Ahom society, khel was referred to as

(A) caste. (B) land

(C) clan (D) God

10. Banjaras were used to carry grains to the city markets by

(A) Sultan Alauddin Khalji (B) Sultan Muhammad Tughluq

(C) Balban (D) Akbar

11. What is Shifting cultivation?

12. Describe briefly the origin of Rajput.

13. Give the characteristic features of Gond’s administrative system?

14. Who were Adivasis?

15. Write about the Banjara tribal communities.


DPP NO. 17

TOPIC : GROWING UP AS BOYS AND GIRLS

1. How the status of Women can be improved in the society ?

(A) Through education (B) Financial Assistance

(C) Denying them social recognition (D) Providing them limited number of job opportunities

2. What are the steps taken by the women for their empowerment?

(A) Campaigning (B) Raising awareness

(C) Protesting (D) All of these

3. Being a boy or a girl is an important part of one's

(A) identity. (B) culture.

(C) gift. (D) right.

4. Choose the correct statement:

(A) Societies do not make clear distinction between boys and girls

(B) Boys enjoy more priviledges than girls

(C) Men and women do enjoy the same status

(D) Boys are more intelligent than girls

5. Anganwadi caters to children in the age group of

(A) 0-6. (B) 1-6.

(C) 0-5. (D) 1-5.

6. The physical works that women in rural areas do are

(A) washing clothes, cleaning and lifting up loads.

(B) teaching and working in the office.

(C) picking up children from school.

(D) drive automobiles.

7. The Samoan Islands are a part of a large group of small

(A) province. (B) nation.

(C) islands. (D) territory.

8. In Samoan society, during 1920's children did not go to

(A) temple. (B) fields.

(C) church. (D) school.

9. In 1920's, Samoan children used to learn many things from older children and

(A) adults. (B) mothers.

(C) teachers. (D) grand parents.

10. On Samoan Islands, the most important activity was

(A) agriculture. (B) hunting.

(C) fishing. (D) food gathering.

11. What is gender?

12. What do you understanding by sexual inequality ?

13. Give reasons, why boys are given more importance than girls in many societies?

14. Discuss any three major areas of discrimination against women in India.

15. Write a note on gender inequalities found in economic fields.


DPP NO. 18

TOPIC : NATURAL VEGETATION AND WILD LIFE

1. The main trees that are found in tropical deciduous forest are

(A) rosewood, ebony and mahogany. (C) oak, pine, and eucalyptus.

(B) sal, teak, neem and shisham. (D) beech, ash and oak.

2. Softwood trees are used for making

(A) houses. (B) furniture.

(C) vehicles. (D) match boxes.

3. Tropical evergreen forests are also known as

(A) tropical deciduous forest. (B) temperate evergreen forest.

(C) tropical rain forest. (D) temperate deciduous forest.

4. Hardwood trees like rosewood, ebony and mahogany are found in

(A) temperate evergreen forest. (B) tropical deciduous forest.

(C) tropical evergreen forest. (D) temperate deciduous forest.

5. Mediterranean Vegetation is found in:

(A) Polar areas

(B) Areas around the Mediterranean sea in Europe, Africa and Asia

(C) Areas near the equator

(D) In the islands

6. In which region do the shrubs and scrubs grow?

(A) Region of heavy rain (B) Region of moderate rain

(C) Region of less rain (D) Region of no rain

7. Into how many categories is the natural vegetation generally classified?

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

8. Why are Tropical Evergreen Forests called evergreen?

(A) Because there is no particular dry season and the trees do not shed their leaves altogether

(B) The thick canopies of the closely spaced trees do not allow the sunlight to penetrate inside the forest

even in the day time

(C) Because the stems of all the trees are also green

(D) Because the smaller plants remain green throughout the year

9. The Savannah grasslands of Africa are type of

(A) Tropical (B) Temperate (C) Mediterranean (D) Tundra

10. In Brazil, Tropical Grasslands are locally known as

(A) Savannah (B) Campos (C) Llanos (D) Pampas

11. Mention the two factors on which the growth of vegetation mostly depends?

12. Name the two hardwood trees commonly found in tropical evergreen forests. Ans. Hardwood trees like

Rosewood, ebony, mahogany are common here.

13. In which part of the world, the tropical deciduous forests are found?

14. What is meant by conservation?

15. What do you mean by wildlife sanctuary?


DPP NO. 19

TOPIC : DEVOTIONAL PATHS TO THE DIVINE

1. By the word Mayaí, Shankara means

(A) illusion. (B) devotion.

(C) a Goddess. (D) money.

2. The idea of bhakti was advocated in

(A) Bhagavadgita. (B) Ramayana.

(C) Mahabharta. (D) Bible.

3. The Pulaiyar and the Panars were

(A) brahmans. (B) kshatriyas.

(C) untouchables. (D) vaishyas.

4. Nayanars were devoted to

(A) Buddha. (B) Shiva.

(C) Vishnu. (D) Durga.

5. The earliest example of Tamil Literature is

(A) Sangam. (B) Pali.

(C) Prakrit. (D) Hindi.

6. Bhakti saints of south drew upon the ideals of love and heroism as given in

(A) Bhagvadgita. (B) Puranas.

(C) Ramayana. (D) Sangam literature.

7. Sakkubai and Janeshwar belonged to

(A) Bihar. (B) Maharashtra.

(C) Delhi. (D) Punjab.

8. What did the saints of Maharashtra reject?

(A) All forms of ritualism, outward display of piety and social differences based on birth

(B) The idea of renunciation

(C) Living with family earning their livelihood, while humbly serving fellow human beings in need

(D) Both ëaí and ëbí

9. Sufis were

(A) Muslim mystics. (B) German mystics.

(C) Spanish mystics. (D) French mystics.

10. The holy law developed by Muslim scholars is called

(A) Hudud. (B) Shariat.

(C) Hadis. (D) Fatwa.

11. Why did people turn to Buddhism and Jainism during this period?

12. Who were the major deities worshipped by the people during the Common Era?

13. Write about the emergence of new religious movements during the seventh and ninth centuries.

14. Explain Guru Nanak's Bhakti movement?

15. Who was kabir and why did he bacome popular?


DPP NO. 20

TOPIC : WOMEN CHANGE THE WORLD

1. What was the provision of 2006 Law for women?

(A) The law provided legal protection to women who face physical and mental violence within their homes

(B) Every girl must be educated

(C) Health facilities for women

(D) Provision of early Marriage

2. Name one of the means to spread awareness among women?

(A) Campaigning (B) Writing Articles

(C) Use of media (D) Joining hands with political parties

3. What kind of stereotypes regarding women prevail in the society?

(A) Women are capable of handling any job (B) Healthier than men

(C) Marriage is the not an ultimate aim of their life (D) Inability of women to handle to handle any job

4. The language learnt by Ramabai on her own was

(A) Pali. (B) Hindi. (C) Sanskrit. (D) English.

5. What is the objective of the Mission set up by Ramabai at Khedgaon near Pune?

(A) Discourage women not to be independent

(B) To teach a variety of skills from carpentry to running a printing press

(C) Encourage them to go for early marriage

(D) Discouraged to pursue education

6. What was the prevalent belief regarding woman's educate in 1800?

(A) If a woman was educated then she was titled as an untouchable

(B) Education would bring bad luck to her husband, would lead to widowhood

(C) Educated women would be a great help for the society

(D) Education would enhance women's personaliy

7. According to Rokeya Sakhawat, 'lady land' is a place where

(A) women had the freedom to study, work and create inventions.

(B) men had freedom to use guns.

(C) women were not treated equally.

(D) freedom of women was curtailed.

8. What was the dream that motivated Rashsundari to learn reading and writing?

(A) She is reading the manuscript of Chaitanya Bhagabat

(B) She is a lecturer of Kolkata University

(C) She has been a scholar of Sanskrit

(D) Writings of Valmiki

9. The term Dalits refers to the people groped as the

(A) Backward Castes (BCs). (B) Other Backward Castes (OBCs).

(C) Scheduled Castes (SCs). (D) Forward Castes (FCs).

10. Name movement responsible for the women's upliftment?

(A) Peasant's Movement (B) Men's Movement

(C) Women's Movement (D) Dalit's Movement

11. Why was Rokeya prevented from learning English?

12. How can the gender wall in society be brought down?

13. Discuss the contribution of Ramabai to women's education?

14. Write a note on the efforts of Rashasundari Devi to educate herself.

15. How does domestic violence affect society?


DPP NO. 21

TOPIC : HUMAN ENVIRONMENT-SETTLEMENT, TRANSPORT AND COMMUNICATION

1. Scattered settlement is mostly found in the

(A) plains. (B) coastal area.

(C) regions of extreme climate. (D) along the river banks.

2. The highest roadways of the world is

(A) Manali - Leh highway (B) Golden Quadrilateral

(C) Col de la Bonette Europe (D) Trail Ridge Road USA

3. What is/are the characteristic(s) of houses in the regions that recieve heavy rainfall?

(A) Houses have flat roof

(B) Houses are constructed on a raised platform or stilts

(C) Houses are made of mud

(D) Houses are very small

4. The country with largest railway network in Asia is

(A) Japan (B) China

(C) India (D) Pakistan

5. What is the word for the roads built underground?

(A) overhead paths (B) Subways

(C) Tunnels (D) Tracks

6. The most commonly used means of transport is

(A) roadways. (B) railways.

(C) waterways. (D) airways.

7. Temporary Settlement can be defined as the

(A) Settlements which are made out of mud (B) Settlements which are occupied for a short time

(C) Settlements which are near ponds (D) Settlements which are in urban areas

8. The Ganga - Brahmaputra river system, the Great Lakes in North America and the river Nile in Africa are the

important .

(A) Inland Waterways (B) Sea Routes

(C) Under- Sea Railway Routes (D) Ports

9. Satellite has helped us in

(A) increasing foreign tourists. (B) bringing more rainfall.

(C) weather forecasting and disaster warning. (D) checking population growth.

10. The place, where a building or a settlement develops is called its

(A) site. (B) position.

(C) location. (D) spot.

11. What do you understand by the term ësettlementí?

12. What are rural settlements like?

13. Name any four international airports in the world.

14. What is the significance of sea routes?

15. What are the major advantages of road transport?


DPP NO. 22

TOPIC : THE MAKING OF THE REGIONAL CULTURES

1. The author of Rasamanjari was

(A) Bannabhatta. (B) Devadatta.

(C) Bhanudatta. (D) Kulukabhatta.

2. Kathak caste was traditionally worked as

(A) dancers. (B) drama players.

(C) story tellers. (D) priests.

3. Lilatilakam deals with

(A) grammar and poetics. (B) nature and science.

(C) art and dance forms. (D) plays and short stories.

4. The Brahmanical authorities allowed the Brahmins of Bengal to eat

(A) fish. (B) chicken.

(C) mutton. (D) pork.

5. The last Nawab of Awadh was

(A) Saadat Khan. (B) Ayam Ali Shah.

(C) Wajid Ali Shah. (D) Birjis Qadir.

6. The term, Ras-lila was used to describe

(A) dance forms. (B) traditional paintings.

(C) folk plays. (D) music form.

7. Jagannatha temple is located in the state of

(A) Orissa. (B) Rajasthan.

(C) Bihar. (D) Chhatisgarh.

8. Since time immemorial, Bengali people are engaged in

(A) trading. (B) fishing.

(C) crafts. (D) weaving.

9. The dance form popular in the state of Orissa is

(A) Kathak. (B) Kutchipuddi.

(C) Odissi. (D) Bharatnatyam.

10. Match the following with the codes given below-:

Column A Column B

A. Bharatnatyam (i) Manipur

B. Kathakali (ii) Tamil Nadu

C. Kuchipudi (iii) Andhra Pradesh

D. Manipuri (iv) Kerala

(A) A(ii), B(iv), C(iii), D(i) (B) A(iii), B(i), C(ii), D(iv)

(C) A(i), B(iv), C(ii), D(iii) (D) A(iv), B(ii), C(iii), D(i)

11. Name the Mughal emperors who patronised the miniature paintings.

12. What was the Kangra School of painting?

13. Define classical dances? Name some of the classical dances and their states?

14. What is the literal meaning of Jagannatha?

15. Why did all those who conquer Orissa attempted to gain control over the temple?


DPP NO. 23

TOPIC : MARKETS AROUND US

1. The Government of India buys grains from farmers at a

(A) very low cost. (B) minimum support price.

(C) profit price. (D) retailer price.

2. A product reach us through a shopkeeper, behind him there is a big

(A) factory. (B) weekly market.

(C) money. (D) chain of markets.

3. Mall is an enclosed

(A) living area. (B) shopping space.

(C) restaurant. (D) cinema theatre.

4. Chain of markets mean

(A) a cluster of shopping mall. (B) series of markets that are connected like links.

(C) small retail shops. (D) special markets designed for challenged people.

5. The fast moving consumer good is

(A) fridge. (B) micro-oven.

(C) newspaper. (D) dishwasher.

6. Weekly markets, the neighbourhood market place and shopping mall are different types of

(A) markets. (B) production unit.

(C) cooperatives. (D) fair price shops.

7. The famous wholesale market in the city of Delhi is

(A) Azadpur. (B) India Gate.

(C) Kalka. (D) Super market.

8. An online shopping mall is called

(A) facebook. (B) ebay.

(C) orkut. (D) twitter.

9. What is the advantage of shops in neighbourhood?

(A) They are nearby to us and fulfill our daily needs

(B) Goods on credit are available

(C) Cheap rates

(D) Variety of products

10. What is the advantage of Chain Markets?

(A) Whatever is produced in one place reaches the people everywhere.

(B) Only brand products are encouraged.

(C) Chain markets are only in urban areas.

(D) Non- availability of products to everyone.

11. What are the benefits of a weekly market?

12. What is a 'Shopping complex'?

13. How are shops in the neighbourhood usefull.

14. What is a 'putting out system'?

15. What are weavers cooperatives?


DPP NO. 24

TOPIC : HUMAN ENVIRONMENT INTERACTION- THE TROPICAL AND THE SUB-TROPICAL REGION

1. Kaziranga National Park is located in the state of

(A) Assam. (B) Bihar.

(C) Uttar Pradesh. (D) Kolkata.

2. An important port on river Hooghly is

(A) Mumbai. (B) Kolkata.

(C) Goa. (D) Chennai.

3. The one horned rhinoceros is found in the

(A) Ganga plain. (B) Brahmaputra plain.

(C) coastal region. (D) Himalayas.

4. Varanasi is located along the banks of river

(A) Yamuna. (B) Godavari.

(C) Ganga. (D) Brahamaputra.

5. Taj Mahal is located on the bank of river

(A) Ganga. (B) Yamuna.

(C) Son. (D) Chambal.

6. Some tributaries of river Ganga are

(A) the Ghaghra, the Son and the Kosi. (B) the Krishna, the Kaveri.

(C) the Tapi, the Mahanadi. (D) the Luni and the Mahi.

7. The Amazon basin is also referred to as the equatorial region because it

(A) lies very close to the equator (C) has extreme climate

(B) ha thick flora (D) lies on the equator

8. The bird found in the Amazon basin rainforest is

(A) Ostrich (B) Humming bird

(C) Weaver bird (D) Peacock

9. In West Bengal and Assam the main cash crop that is grown is

(A) coffee. (B) maize.

(C) cocoa. (D) tea.

10. Number of persons living in one sq. km. of area is known as

(A) population density. (B) population distribution.

(C) population growth. (D) population explosion.

11. What are the main crops of the Ganga ñ Brahmaputra plain?

12. Name the largest delta of the world?

13. Describe the life of the people of Amazonian rain forest?

14. The rain forests are depleting. Why ?

15. What is slash and burn agriculture?


DPP NO. 25

TOPIC : EIGHTEENTH - CENTURY POLITICAL FORMATIONS

1. Chauth was imposed by the

(A) Deccan Sultans. (B) Nawabs.

(C) Sikhs. (D) Marathas.

2. Sikhs organised themselves into a number of bands called

(A) Jathas. (B) Mathas.

(C) Khalsa. (D) Panth.

3. The Sikhs of Punjab organized themselves into a political community in the

(A) 17th century. (B) 16th century.

(C) 15th century. (D) 14th century.

4. The independent state of Jats was established by

(A) Suraj Mal. (B) Churaman.

(C) Jawahir Shah. (D) Rajaram.

5. The group that was considered as the back bone of Maratha army was the

(A) Kunbis. (B) Deshmukhs.

(C) Pindaris. (D) Peshwa.

6. The leader of the Sikh revolt after 1708 AD was

(A) Raja Ranjit Singh. (B) Guru Govind Singh.

(C) Banda Bahadur. (D) Raja Dilip Singh.

7. Marathas successfully raided Delhi in

(A) 1721 AD. (B) 1727 AD.

(C) 1731 AD. (D) 1737 AD.

8. The Third battle of Panipat took place in

(A) 1757. (B) 1758.

(C) 1761. (D) 1765.h

9. Jagat Seth was a banker in

(A) Bharatpur. (B) Gujrat.

(C) Bengal. (D) Awadh.

10. The system of rakhi was introduced in

(A) Awadh. (B) Bengal.

(C) Punjab. (D) Hyderabd.

11. Who was the founder of Hyderabad?

12. What were three prominent states that emerged after the decline of the Mughal empire?

13. What were the reasons for the decline of Mughal Empire?

14. Who was the founder of Awadh after the decline of the Mughal Empire?

15. Who was the founder of the state of Bengal ?


DPP NO. 26

TOPIC : STRUGGLES FOR EQUALITY

1. The construction of the Tawa dam completed in the year

(A) 1978. (B) 1976. (C) 1967. (D) 1963.

2. The dam built on the Tawa river began in 1958 and was completed in the year

(A) 1974. (B) 1975. (C) 1976. (D) 1978.

3. Name the most important issue that affect economic and social equality in the country?

(A) Dcreasing control of business houses on the media.

(B) High value given to women and their work.

(C) Low earnings made by small farmers who grow cotton.

(D) Gender equality

4. Universal Adult Franchise is a concept based on

(A) moral right. (B) political equality.

(C) ethical values. (D) dirctive principles.

5. Private contractors were given the rights for fishing in the Tawa reservoir in the year

(A) 1994. (B) 1993. (C) 1992. (D) 1991.

6. Privatisation of health services had made it difficult for poor people to get good

(A) doctors. (B) clinic. (C) medicine. (D) health care.

7. Originating in the Mahadeo Hills of Chindwara district, the Tawa flows through

(A) Beetil. (B) Batal. (C) Beutl. (D) Betul.

8. Lack of school facilities was the reason for drop out of girl students from the communities of

(A) Dalit, Adivasi and Muslim. (B) Hindus, Adivasi and Christian.

(C) Jain, Buddha and Muslims. (D) Dalit, Adivasi and Hindus.

9. What is/are the reason(s) for existence of inequality in our country?

(A) Poverty

(B) Availability of resources

(C) Non discrimination on the basis of religion, caste and sex

(D) Gender Equality

10. The rights for fishing in 1994 were given by the government to

(A) forest dwellers. (B) chindwara district residents.

(C) private constructors. (D) rural women.

11. What are some of the creative methods used by groups struggling for equality?

12. What role does the constitution play in people's struggle for equality?

13. What issue is the Tawa Matsya Sangh (TMS) fighting for?

14. How can we protect the rights of tribal people with regard to environment?

15. Define Displacement.


DPP NO. 27

TOPIC : LIFE IN THE TEMPERATE GRASSLANDS

1. The grassland that have mild climate is

(A) Pampas. (B) Prairies.

(C) Veld. (D) Down.

2. The major crop of grasslands of Prairies is

(A) wheat. (B) maize.

(C) jute. (D) paddy.

3. Temperate grasslands of North America are known as

(A) praries (B) pampas

(C) velds (D) savvana

4. Chinook is a

(A) cool breeze. (B) hot wind.

(C) type of Tsunami. (D) type of a plant.

5. Velds means

(A) temperate grasslands of South Africa. (B) tropical grasslands of South America.

(C) grasslands of North America. (D) grasslands of Asia.

6. The coldest month experienced by people of Velds is

(A) June (B) July

(C) August (D) September

7. Two of the most developed countries in the world are

(A) USA and Canada. (B) Australia and France.

(C) India and Pakistan. (D) China and Japan.

8. The most important occupation of the people living in the veld is

(A) agriculture. (B) fishing.

(C) sheep rearing. (D) None of these

9. Chicago, Minneapolis, Indianapolis, Kansas and Denver are important cities of

(A) USA. (B) South Africa.

(C) Australia. (D) Canada.

10. Large cattle farms in Prairies is called

(A) Ranches (B) Bison

(C) Apache (D) None of these

11. What does the term 'Sea of Grassí denote?

12. Who names the 'Velds'?

13. Which factors are responsible for the formation of grasslands in the world?

14. What are the Prairies? Which two countries are covered by them?

15. What factors make North America the most industrialized region?


DPP NO. 28

TOPIC : LIFE IN THE DESERTS

1. The worldís largest desert is situated in

(A) Asia. (B) Africa.

(C) Australia. (D) South America.

2. The cold desert, Ladakh, is situated in

(A) the Great Himalayas. (B) the Andes.

(C) the Aravallis. (D) the Alps.

3. The height of Kargil situated in the Great Himalayas is

(A) 5000m. (B) 3000m.

(C) 4000m. (D) 1000m.

4. The National Highway 1A connects Leh to Kashmir through

(A) Rohtang pass. (B) Baralacha pass.

(C) Lungalacha pass. (D) Zojila pass.

5. Climate found in Sahara desert is

(A) moderate. (B) extreme.

(C) rainy. (D) cloudy.

6. The worldís largest desert is

(A) Kalahari desert. (B) Gobi desert.

(C) Sahara desert. (D) Thar desert.

7. Animals like camels, hyenas, jackals, foxes, scorpions and many varieties of snakes and lizards are found

in the

(A) Sahara desert. (B) Western Ghats of India.

(C) Gobi desert. (D) Coastal areas of India.

8. Al Azizia is located in the

(A) Sahara desert. (B) Thar desert.

(C) Kalahari desert. (D) Gobi desert.

9. The two groups of people living in the Sahara desert are

(A) Bedouins and Tuaregs. (B) Apache and Crow.

(C) Cree and Pawnee. (D) Crow and Cree.

10. The Nile valley is located in

(A) Egypt. (B) Algeria.

(C) Libya. (D) Mauritania.

11. In which continent is the Sahara desert located?

12. What mainly attracts people to Ladakh deserts?

13. Describe the flora and fauna of Sahara deserts?

14. Define Desert.

15. Explain the geography of Ladakh ?




MENTAL ABILITYCLASS VII

DPP NO. 1

TOPIC : NUMBER SERIES

Direction (1 to 15) find the missing term.

1. 16, 19, 22, 25, ?

(A) 27 (B) 28 (C) 29 (D) 25

2. 67, 62, 57, ? , 47

(A) 52 (B) 53 (C) 54 (D) 50

3. 4, 8, 16, ? , 64

(A) 30 (B) 33 (C) 32 (D) 35

4. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?

(A) 35 (B) 49 (C) 36 (D) 64

5. 11, 15, 21, 29, ?

(A) 38 (B) 35 (C) 37 (D) 39

6. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, ?

(A) 25 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 17

7. 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, ?

(A) 13 (B) 11 (C) 8 (D) 12

8. 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, ?

(A) 10 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 20

9. 4, 8, 12, 16, 20, 24, ?

(A) 24 (B) 17 (C) 28 (D) 32

10. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?

(A) 81 (B) 49 (C) 36 (D) 28


11. 2, 5, 7, 11, 14

(A) 7 (B) 11 (C) 5 (D) 14

12. 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 96

(A) 4 (B) 32 (C) 64 (D) 96

13. 2, 6, 11, 17, 23, 32, 41

(A) 6 (B) 17 (C) 23 (D) 32

14. 3, 6, 10, 16, 21, 28

(A) 16 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 28

15. 1, 9, 25, 50, 81

(A) 1 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 81


DPP NO. 2

TOPIC : ALPHABET AND LETTER REPEATING SERIES


1. A, C, ?, G, I

(A) D (B) E (C) F (D) H

2. Q, N, K, ?, E

(A) H (B) I (C) J (D) G

3. V, T, R, ?, N, ?

(A) P, M (B) O, L (C) P, L (D) O, M

4. CG, DI, ?, IP, MU

(A) FM (B) EL (C) EM (D) FL

5. AB, BA, ABD, DBA, PQRS, ?

(A) SRQP (B) SRPQ (C) SQRP (D) RSQP

Directions (6 to 10) Find the wrong term (s) :

6. ECA, JHF, OMK, TQP, YWU

(A) ECA (B) JHF (C) TQP (D) YWU

7. DKY, FJW, HIT, JHS, LGQ

(A) FJW (B) LGQ (C) JHJ (D) HIT

8. DVG, FSI, HPK, JNM, LJO

(A) DVG (B) JNM (C) HPK (D) LJO

9. CDF, DEG, EFH, FHI

(A) CDF (B) DEG (C) FHI (D) EFH

10. ZLA, BMY, CNW, FOU, HPS

(A) ZLA (B) BMY (C) FOU (D) CNW

Directions (11 to 15) Which sequence of letters when placed at the blanks one after the other will complete the given

letter series ?

11. – bca – ca – c – b –

(A) aabbc (B) abbbc (C) aabcc (D) abbac

12. a – abb – aa – ba – a – b

(A) ababa (B) aabba (C) aabab (D) aaabb

13. abc – d – bc – d – b – cda

(A) bacdc (B) cdabc (C) dacab (D) dccbd

14. – a a b b – a b b a – b

(A) b a b (B) a b a (C) b b a (D) b a a

15. a – b a a – b a a – b a

(A) a a b (B) b a b (C) b b a (D) b b b


DPP NO. 3

TOPIC : MISSING TERM IN FIGURES


1.

(A) 38 (B) 64 (C) 4 (D) 16

2.

(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 14

3.

(A) 32 (B) 22 (C) 18 (D) 27

4.

(A) 14 (B) 22 (C) 32 (D) 320

5.

(A) 33 (B) 145 (C) 135 (D) 18

6.

(A) 125 (B) 25 (C) 625 (D) 156

7.

(A) 117 (B) 36 (C) 32 (D) 26

8.

(A) 64 (B) 36 (C) 34 (D) 60


9.

(A) 64 (B) 81 (C) 100 (D) 125

10.

(A) 262 (B) 274 (C) 320 (D) 132

11.

(A) 15 (B) 20 (C) 25 (D) 40

12.

(A) 48 (B) 9 (C) 44 (D) 64

13.

(A) 184 (B) 210 (C) 241 (D) 425

14.4 7 3 2

416 749 309 ?

(A) 304 (B) 104 (C) 204 (D) 404

15.

(A) 120 (B) 100 (C) 125 (D) 64


DPP NO. 4

TOPIC : ALPHABET TEST

1. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct

sequence.

1. Select 2. Seldom 3. Send 4. Selfish 5. Seller

(A) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3 (B) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3 (C) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3 (D) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3

2. In a telephone directory, which of the following names will appear in the middle ?

(A) Sajewat (B) Segvan (C) Sajevar (D) Sajewet

3. How many independent words can 'Stainless' be divided into without changing the order of the letters and

using each letter only once ?

(A) Nil (B) One (C) Two (D) Three

4. If the following words are arranged as found in the dictionary, then what will be the fourth letter from the left in

the last word ?

INTIMATION, INFORMATION, INTEREST, INTERROGATION, INSTIGATION

(A) R (B) O (C) T (D) I

5. Arrange the given words in the order they occur in dictionary.

1. SIGN 2. SOLID

3. SCENE 4. SIMPLE

(A) 3, 1, 2, 4 (B) 3, 1, 4, 2 (C) 3, 4, 1, 2 (D) 3, 4, 2, 1

6. Which letter is midway between 22nd letter from the left and 21st letter from the right ?

(A) L (B) M (C) O (D) None of these

7. If the positions of the first and sixth letters of the word ‘BENEFICIAL’ are interchanged; similarly the positions

of the second and seventh letters are interchanged and so on, which letter will be third from the right end after

rearrangement ?

(A) C (B) E (C) F (D) N

8. If the first and the fifth letters in the word ‘ORDINARY’ are interchanged, the second and the sixth, the third

and the seventh and so on what will be the fifth letter from the right end after rearrangement ?

(A) R (B) I (C) Y (D) N

9. If the first and second letters of the word ‘INORDINATE’ were interchanged, also the third and the fourth letter,

the fifth and sixth and so on, which letter would be eighth counting from right to left ?

(A) A (B) D (C) N (D) R

10. Which letter will be the midway between the fourteenth letter from the left end and nineteenth letter from the

right end of the following alphabet?

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

(A) I (B) K (C) M (D) G


11. Arrange the following group such that when arranged in a specific order, meaningful word is formed.

V A H Y E

1 2 3 4 5

(A) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 (B) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4 (C) 3, 5, 2, 1, 4 (D) 1, 5, 2, 3, 4

12. Find which one word can not be made from the letters of the given word.

CORRESPONDING

(A) DROPERS (B) SUPERIOR (C) GRINDER (D) DISCERN

13. Choose the one word which can be formed from the letters of the given word.

RATIONALISATION

(A) NATIONALISTIC (B) NATIONALIST (C) SITUATION (D) REALISATION

14. If the following scrambled letters are rearranged to form the name of a city, the city so formed is famous for

its :

WILGARO

(A) Locks (B) Steel Plant (C) Temples (D) Pottery

15. If the following scrambled letters are rearranged to form the name of a city, which letter will appear in the

middle?

AIDMURA

(A) M (B) R (C) U (D) D


DPP NO. 5

TOPIC : CODING-DECODING

1. If in any code language, KUMAR is coded on LVNBS, How is EMOTIONAL coded in that language

(A) FNQUJQBM (B) FNPUJPOBM (C) GNPUJPOBM (D) GNQUJQOBM

2. In a code A is denoted by B, B by C, C by D, and so on till V then FRACTIONS is denoted in the same code

by–

(A) GSBDUJPOT (B) GSBDVJPOT (C) GSBDUJPQT (D) GSBDUJOPT

3. In a code BOY is written as $¶l and HOUR is written as @¶£O than RUBY is written in the indicating

language as –

(A) O£$l (B) O$£l (C) l$£O (D) l£$O

4. In a code BOXER word is written as AQWGQ then VISIT is written as –

(A) UKRKU (B) UKRKS (C) WKRKU (D) WKRKS

5. In a certain code CONSTITUTION is written as SNOCUTITNOIT. How is DISTRIBUTION written in that

code?

(A) DISTRTUBTINO (B) TSIDUBIRNOIT (C) TSIDUIBRNOIT (D) DTTSRIBTINO

6. In a certain code language TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT. How is CHILDREN written in that code ?

(A) EJKNFGTO (B) EJKNEGTP (C) EJKNFHTP (D) EJKNFTGP

7. If the code for ALLOWANCE is ZMKPVBMDD the word DEARNESS would be coded as

(A) CFBAODTR (B) EDZQMFRT (C) CDZTMFTR (D) CFZSMFRT

8. If MERCHANT is NDSBIZOS, then CANCER is

(A) BZMBDQ (B) BBMBDQ (C) DBODFS (D) DZOBFQ

9. If RADIO is written PYBGM then how would OQDKNG be written in that code ?

(A) MOBIEL (B) MOBLIE (C) MOIBLE (D) MOBILE

10. If BOOK is coded as 43, what will be the code number for PEN ?

(A) 53 (B) 33 (C) 35 (D) 43

11. In a certain code, RIPPLE is written as 613382 and LIFE is written as 8192. How is PILLER written in that

code ?

(A) 318826 (B) 318816 (C) 618826 (D) 338816

12. In a certain code DELHI is written as 29874 CULCUTTA is written as 35835661 then the word CALICUT willbe coded as :

(A) 3185463 (B) 3184635 (C) 3184563 (D) 3184356

13. If watch is called room, room is called bag, bag is called rain, rain is called air and air is called water,

Which is used to carry the books.?

(A) room (B) bag (C) rain (D) air

14. If for Cloud is said Rain for Rain is said Tree; for Tree is said Axe for Axe is said House and for House is

said Mason then from which of the following wood can be obtained ?

(A) Tree (B) Rain (C) Axe (D) House

15. If air is called green, green is called blue, blue is called sky, sky is called yellow, yellow is called water

and water is called pink then what is the colour of clean sky ?

(A) pink (B) sky (C) blue (D) yellow


DPP NO. 6

TOPIC : DIRECTION SENSE TEST

1. Anil left home and cycled 10 km Southwards, turned right and cycled 5 km & turned right and cycled 10 km

and turned left and cycled 10 km. How many kilometres will he have to cycle to reach his home straight ?

(A) 10 km (B) 15 km (C) 20 km (D) 25 km

2. Amit faces towards North.Turning to his right he walks 25 metres. He then turns to his left and walks 30

metres. Next, he moves 25 metres to his right. He then turns to his right again and walks 55 metres. Finally,

he turns to the right and moves 40 metres. In which direction is he now from his starting point ?

(A) South-West (B) South (C) North-West (D) South-East

3. Kishen walks 10 km towards North. Form there, he walks 6 km towards South. Then, he walks 3 km towards

East. How far and in which direction is he with reference to his starting point ?

(A) 5 km, North (B) 5 km, North-East (C) 7 km, East (D) 7 km, West

4. I am facing South. I turn right and walk 20 m. Then I turn right again and walk 10 m. Then I turn left and walk

10 m and then turning right walk 20 m. Then I turn right again and walk 60 m. In which direction am I from the

starting point?

(A) North (B) North-west (C) East (D) North-east

5. From his house, Rajan went 25 kms to the North. Then he turned West and covered 20 kms.Then he turned

South and covered 15 Kms. Finally, turning to East, he covered 20 kms. In which direction was he from his

house ?

(A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South

6. Mohan travels 7 km Eastwards, then he turns right and travels 3 km and further turns right again and travels

11 km. How far is he from the starting point ?

(A) 5 (B) 14 (C) 21 (D) 23

7. Amar travels one km due East ; then 5 km due south, then 2 km due East and finally 9 km due North. How

far is from the starting point ?

(A) 16 kms. (B) 8 kms. (C) 6 kms. (D) 5 kms.

8. A man walks 9 km due East and then 12 km due South. How far is he from the starting point?

(A) 15 kms. (B) 6 kms. (C) 7 kms. (D) none of these

9. Amit walks 2 km South, turned right and walked 1 km, again turned north and walked 5 km; turned East and

walked 5 km. How far is he from the starting point ?

(A) 3 kms. (B) 7 kms. (C) 5 kms. (D) 6 kms.

10. A man was facing East. He took Three paces forward, turned right, walked another two paces and then

turned right again, took three paces and turned about. Which direction was he last facing ?

(A) East (B) North (C) South (D) None of these


11. If I stand on my head with my face pointing Northwards, in what direction will my right-hand point ?

(A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South

12. Kumar stands with his face pointing to the South-East direction. He walked 15 metres and then turned

Northwards and walked another 12 metres. How far was he then from the starting point ?

(A) 12 metres (B) 10 metres (C) 9 metres (D) 5 metres

13. A man walked 3 metres towards North, turned West and walked 2 metres then turned North and walked 1

metre and finally turned East and walked 5 metres. How far is he from the starting point ?

(A) 5 m (B) 8 m (C) 10 m (D) 12 m

14. I went 15 m to the North, then turned West and covered 10 m, then turned South, and covered 5 m then

turned East and covered 10 m. In which direction am I now from my house ?

(A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West

15. 'A' travelled Westwards 5 km, turned left and travelled 3 km, turned right and travelled 9 km. He then travelled

North 3 km. How far was 'A' from the starting point now ?

(A) 3 kms (B) 5 kms (C) 10 kms (D) 14 kms


DPP NO. 7

TOPIC : SEATING ARRANGEMENT & RANKING AND ORDERING TEST

1. Who among P, Q, R, S and T is in the exactly middle while standing in a line ?

(i) Q is to the immediate right of T. (ii) S is exactly between P and T.

(iii) Q is exactly between T and R.

(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) T

Directions : (2 to 4) Study the given information and answer the question that following.

Five persons are standing in a queue. One of the two persons at the extreme ends is a Professor and the

other is a Businessman. An Advocate is standing to the right of a student. A Author is to the immediate left

of the Businessman. The Student is between the Professor and the Advocate.

2. Counting from the left the Author is at whichplace ?

(A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth

3. Which of the following is in the exactly middle of the queue ?

(A) Professor (B) Advocate (C) Student (D) Businessman

4. If Advocate and the Businessman exchange their positions, also the Author and the Student, then who will be

standing to the left of the student ?

(A) Author (B) Businessman (C) Professor (D) Advocate

5. Five persons were playing cards game sitting in a circle all facing the centre. Mukund was to the immediate

left of Rajesh, Vijay was to the right of Anil and between Anil and Nagesh. Who was to the immediate right

of Nagesh ?

(A) Vijay (B) Rajesh (C) Anil (D) Mukund

Directions : (6 to 8) Read the following information and answer the questions that follow :

(i) Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a closed circle facing the centre.

(ii) E is to the immediate left of D.

(iii) C is exactly between A and B.

(iv) F is between E and A.

6. Who is to the immediate left of B ?

(A) A (B) C (C) D (D) E

7. Who is to the immediate right of C ?

(A) A (B) B (C) D (D) E

8. Which of the above given statements is superfluous ?

(A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (iii) (D) All are required.

9. How many 5's are there in the following sequence which are immediately followed by 3 but not immediately

preceded by 7 ?

8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8

(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four

10. In the following number series how many 8’s are there which are exactly divisible by the numbers which are

preceded and followed by it ?

8 2 4 5 1 7 2 8 4 8 4 2 2 8 2 6 9 8 4 5 4 8 3 2 8 4 3 1 8 3

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4


11. How many W's are there in the following series which are immediately followed by W but not immediately

preceded by K ?

D W W D H K V D W Z D W W W D D W K W W D K K D H C

(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) None

12. How many L’s are there which do not have R preceding them and have T following them ?

Z Q S T L R M N Q N R T U V X R L T A S L T Q R S L T

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5

Directions : (13 to 15) Study the following arrangement of symbols, letters and numbers to answer the questions

given below it : d = b F 2 § K S 7 5 # $ P L V 8 @ M U E 6 Q G Ó 9 3 & T Y j

13. How many such letters are there in the arrangement each of which is either immediately preceded by a

symbol or immediately followed by a number, but not both ?

(A) Three (B) Four (C) Five (D) None of these

14. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a

consonant but not immediately preceded by a symbol ?

(A) Nil (B) One (C) Two (D) Three

15. A is shorter than B but much taller than E. C is the tallest and D is shorter than A and taller than E. Which

one is the shortest ?

(A) A (B) E (C) B (D) D


DPP NO. 8

TOPIC : MATHEMATICAL OPERATIONS

1. If 'x' means '÷' , '–' means 'x', '÷' means ' +' and '+' means '–' then what will be the value of

(3 – 15 ÷ 19 ) × 8 + 6 = ?

(A) 8 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) –1

2. If 'A' means '+', 'B' means '–' , 'C' means 'x', then what will be the value of ( 10C 4) A (4C4) B6=?

(A) 60 (B) 56 (C) 50 (D) 46

Directions : (3 to 4) Solve the questions if the symbols are as given below :x = –+ = ¸¸ = ×– = +* = ¸

3. 8 ¸ 2 + 2 – 7 = ?(A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 17 (D) 19

4. 9 + 3 ¸ 3 – 8 * 2 = ?

(A) 27 (B) 17 (C) 13 (D) 26

5. If ‘+’ means ‘ ¸ ’ ; ‘–’ means ‘x’ ; ‘x’ means ‘–’, ‘ ¸ ’means ‘+’ then –16 ¸ 8 – 4 + 2 × 4 = ?(A) 16 (B) 44 (C) 28 (D) 32

6. If ¸ means +, – means ¸ ,× means – and + means ×, then

198184

28832

¸+´+

´-´ = ?


7. If ‘P’ means ‘+’ ; ‘R’ means ‘x’ ; ‘S’ means ‘–’ ; T‘ means ‘ ¸ ’ then what is the value of

5 R 9 P 7 S 9 T 3 P 6 = ?

(A) 54 (B) 128 (C) 59 (D) 55

8. If a means ‘plus’, b means ‘minus’, c means ‘multiplied by’ and d means ‘divided by’ then

16c 12 b 6d 2a 17 = ?

(A) 65 (B) 55 (C) 216 (D) 206

9. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘ ×’ means ‘—’, ‘ ¸ ’ means ‘+’ and ‘—’ means ‘ ¸ ’, then

175 – 25 ¸ 5 + 20 × 3 + 10 = ?

(A) 160 (B) 77 (C) 2370 (D) 240

10. If + is x,– is +, x is ¸ and ¸ is –, then what is the value of given equation

21 ÷ 8 + 2 – 12 × 3 = ?

(A) 14 (B) 9 (C) 13.5 (D) 11

11. If – means¸, + means ×, ÷ means –,× means +, then which of the following equations is correct?

(A) 52 ¸ 4 + 5 × 8 – 2 = 36 (B) 43 × 7 ¸ 5 + 4 – 8 = 25

(C) 36 × 4 – 12 + 5 ¸ 3= 420 (D) 36 – 12 × 6 ¸ 3 + 3= 60


12. If + means ×, × means –, – means ÷ and ÷ means + then 18 ÷ 4 + 3 × 2 – 2 = ?

(A) 45 (B) 48 (C) 29 (D) 39

Directions : (13 to 15) Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. If ‘$’ represents ‘+’,

‘,’ represents ‘–’, ‘#’ represents ‘×’ and ‘@’ represents ‘/’ then answer the following questions

based on the above given representation.

13. What is the value of 4 # 3 $ 10 @ 5 $ 8 # 2 , 18 ?

(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 6.8 (D) 11.2

14. Which of the following has the value equivalent of 5 $ 6 # 2 $ 8 @ 4 ?

(A) 4 # 7 , 12 $ 2 # 1 (B) 8 # 2 , 3 $ 6 @ 3 (C) 8 @ 2 , 3 $ 6 # 3 (D) 4 $ 7 , 12 $ 2 # 1

15. Which of the given values is greater than 7 $ 3 , 2 $ 12 @ 4 ?

(A) 4 # 3 $ 6 @ 3 , 4 (B) 5 # 2 , 8 @ 4 $ 3 # 3 , 7

(C) 6 # 3 , 18 @ 2 $ 1 # 2 (D) 9 @ 3 $ 6 # 2 , 2 # 1


DPP NO. 9

TOPIC : ANALOGY & CLASSIFICATION

Direction : (1 to 4) In the following questions, choose the words that show the same relationship as given

in the each questions.

1. Captain is related to Soldier in the same way as Leader is related to

(A) Follower (B) Party (C) Vote (D) Chair

2. ‘Dog’ is related to ‘Puppy’ in the same way as ‘Donkey’ is related to

(A) Foal (B) Colt

(C) Calf (D) Filly

3. Bank is related to 'Money' in the same way as 'Transport' is related

(A) Goods (B) Road (C) Terrace (D) Floor

4. 'Good' is related to 'Bad' in the same way as 'Roof' is related to:

(A) Wall (B) Pillar (C) Terrace (D) Floor

5. India Gate : Delhi : : _______ : _______

(A) Chicago : USA (B) Albany : New York (C) Agra : Taj Mahal (D) Chandigarh : Rock Garden

6. PUNJAB : AMRITSAR : : _____ : ______

(A) Golden Temple : Amritsar (B) Moscow : Russia

(C) India : Asia (D) Agra : Taj Mahal

7. 7584 : 4251 : : 4673 : ?

(A)1367 (B) 1340 (C)1531 (D) None of these

8. 1236 : 6321 : : 8251 : ?

(A) 1358 (B) 1628 (C) 1528 (D) 8152

Directions : (9 to 15) In the following questions, three out of the four alternatives are same in a certain

way and so form a group. Find the odd one that does not belong to the group.

9. (A) Huge (B) Tiny (C) Heavy (D) Small

10. (A) Silk (B) Cotton (C) Nylon (D) Wool

11. (A) Triangle (B) Tangent (C) Square (D) Rhombus

12. (A) Wool (B) Nylon (C) Jute (D) Cotton

13. (A) July (B) May (C) June (D) March

14. (A) Gold (B) Silver (C) Bronze (D) Zinc

15. (A) Society (B) Family (C) Church (D) Club


DPP NO. 10

TOPIC : FIGURE PARTITION, MIRROR AND WATER IMAGES & MISCELLANEOUS

1. What is the number of straight lines in the following figure ?

(A) 11 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 17

2. What is the number of rectangles in the following figure ?

(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9

3. How many squares are there in the following figure ?

(A) 13 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 15

4. Count the number of triangles and squares in the following figure ?

(A) 28 triangles, 10 squares (B) 28 triangles, 8 squares

(C) 32 triangles, 10 squares (D) 32 triangles, 8 squares

5. Count the number of squares in the following figure ?

(A) 16 (B) 17 (C) 30 (D) 55

Directions : (6 to 7) In each of the following questions, choose the correct mirror image from alternatives A,B, C, and D of the figure (X).

6.


7.

Directions : (8 to 10) In each of the following question, a figure marked (X) is followed by four figures (A),(B), (C) and (D) which show the possible water images of figure (X). Choose one out of these fourfigures which shows the correct water image of the figure (X).

8.

(X)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

9.

(X)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

10.

(X)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions : (11 to 12) In each of the following questions, choose the alternative figure in which the

question figure (X) is embedded.

11.

12.


Directions : Select a figure from the four alternatives, which when placed in the blank space of figure (X) wouldcomplete the pattern.

13.

14.

15.



ANSWER KEY

CLASS – VII (CBSE)

INDEX

PHYSICS – 1 - 2

CHEMISTRY – 3

BIOLOGY – 4

MATHEMATICS – 5 - 8

SOCIAL SCIENCE – 9 - 10

ENGLISH – 11 - 14

MENTAL ABILITY – 15 - 16


DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS SHEET ANSWER KEY


PHYSICSCLASS VII - CBSE

DPP - 01

TOPIC : MEASUREMENT

1. C 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. B

8. C 9. D 10. D 11. D 12. B 14. B

15. (i) 10–2 (ii) 5 × 10–9 (iii) 30.5 × 107 (iv) 28

DPP - 02

TOPIC : HEAT

1. D 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. D 6. C 7. C

8. D 9. A 10. B

DPP - 03

TOPIC : MOTION AND TIME

1. A 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. D

8. A 9. C 10. B 14. 19.44 m/s 15. 500 m

DPP - 04

TOPIC : MOTION AND TIME

1. D 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. B

8. B 9. B 10. C 11. 45 m/s 12. 5 s 13. 1,200 s

14. 60 km/hr 15. 5 kgwt, 5 × 103 gwt , 50 N , 5 × 106 dyne

DPP - 05

TOPIC : ELECTRICAL CURRENT AND ITS EFFECT

1. B 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. C

8. B 9. A 10. D

DPP - 06

TOPIC : LIGHT

1. B 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. B

8. A 9. D 10. C

DPP - 07

TOPIC : SOUND

1. B 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. C

8. D 9. B,D 10. B


DPP - 08

TOPIC : UNIVERSE

1. D 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. C

8. D 9. D 10. C

DPP NO. 09

TOPIC : LIGHT

1. A 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. C

8. A 9. B 10. B

DPP NO. 10

TOPIC : MISCELLANEOUS

1. B 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. C

8. A 9. C 10. C

DPP NO. 11

TOPIC : WIND, STORMS AND CYCLONES

1. A 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. C

8. D 9. C 10. B




CHEMISTRYCLASS VII - CBSE

GENERAL CHEMISTRY

DPP NO. 01

TOPIC : LANGUAGE OF CHEMISTRY

1. C 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. D

8. A 9. D 10. B

DPP NO. 02


1. C 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. C8. B 9. D 10. D

DPP NO. 03


1. C 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. A8. D 9. B 10. C

DPP NO. 04


1. A 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. C 7. A

8. D 9. C 10. C

DPP NO. 05


1. B 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. D 7. A

8. D 9. A 10. A

DPP NO. 06

TOPIC : FIBRE TO FABRIC

1. C 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. C 6. C 7. D8. B 9. B 10. C

PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL CHANGES

DPP NO. 07


1. B 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. B8. D 9. D 10. C

DPP NO. 08


1. A 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. C

8. A 9. A 10. D

WATER & WASTEWATER MANAGEMENT

DPP NO. 09

TOPIC : WASTEWATER MANAGEMENT

1. A 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. D8. A 9. C 10. D




BIOLOGYCLASS VII - CBSE

DPP - 01

TOPIC : NUTRITION IN PLANTS

1. D 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. D 7. B

8. C 9. C 10. D

DPP - 02

TOPIC : NUTRITION IN ANIMALS

1. B 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. C 7. B

8. A 9. A 10. D

DPP - 03

TOPIC : WEATHER CLIMATE AND ADAPTATIONS

1. C 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. D 7. B

8. D 9. A 10. C

DPP - 04

TOPIC : SOIL

1. D 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. C 7. C

8. C 9. D 10. B

DPP - 05

TOPIC : RESPIRATION

1. B 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. A

8. A 9. D 10. B

DPP - 06

TOPIC : TRANSPORTATION IN ANIMALS AND PLANTS

1. B 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. D

8. C 9. A 10. C

DPP - 07

TOPIC : REPRODUCTION IN PLANT

1. B 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. D

8. B 9. A 10. C

DPP - 08

TOPIC : OUR FOREST

1. C 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. C

8. C 9. B 10. D




MATHEMATICSCLASS VII - CBSE

DPP NO. 1

TOPIC : INTEGERS

1. C 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. D

8. D 9. B 10. B 11. (i) 10 (ii) –1 (iii) 34 (iv) 109

12. (i) 99, 10, 5, 0, –1, – 3, – 100 (ii) 89, 70, 54, 0, – 3, – 99

13. (i) Commutative (ii) Associative

14. (i) 0 (ii) 10 (iii) – 10 (iv) – 750 (v) 0 (vi) 42

(vii) – 24 (viii) – 1 (ix) – 5 (x) – 2 (xi) 301 (xii) 75

(xiii) 1 (xiv) 5 (xv) 0

DPP NO. 2

TOPIC : FRACTIONS AND DECIMALS

1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. B

8. C 9. C 10. D 11.53

3312. 2.68

13. (i) (a) Rs. 3.35 (b) Rs. 8.05 (ii) 2.34, 2.34005, 2.3415, 2.3450

(iii) 45mm = 4.5 cm = 0.045 m = 4.5 × 10–5 km

14. (i) 0.027 (ii) 0.333 (iii) 30.1 (iv) 2730 (v) 0.003

DPP NO. 3

TOPIC : RATIONAL NUMBER

1. D 2. D 3. D 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. A

8. D 9. C 10. D 11.5

7,

5

4,

20

1, 15

2,5

312. (i)

–1

6(ii)

11

18

14. a = 16, b = 35 15. (i) – 1 (ii) –40

49

DPP NO. 4

TOPIC : LINEAR EQUATIONS IN ONE VARIABLE

1. A 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. D

8. C 9. A 10. B

11. (i) x + y = 5 (ii) 5a = 60 (iii) 2x + 5y = 99 (iv) x = y + 99 (v) a + 1

a4

= 25

12. (i) m = 4 (ii) p = 40

3(iii) x =

7

3

(iv) x = 0 (v) t =

43

5(vi) t = – 13

13. 24 14. 37, 39 15. price of chair Rs. 325 & price of table Rs. 400


DPP NO. 5

TOPIC : LINES AND ANGLES

1. B 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. B

8. B 9. C 10. C 11. (i) 25º, 65º (ii) 61º, 119º 12. (178 – 4x)º

13. x = 2

14. (i) COE & EOA ; EOA & AOD, AOD & DOB

(ii) BOC & COA ; COA & AOD

(iii) AOC & DOB ; AOD & BOC

DPP NO. 6

TOPIC : TRIANGLES

1. D 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. D

8. A 9. C 10. D 11. x = 70º 12. x = 30º

13. (a) yes (b) no (c) yes (d) no (e) no (f) no 14. 10 m

DPP NO. 7

TOPIC : CONGRUENCY OF TRIANGLES

1. B 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. A

8. B 9. C 10. A 12. SSS, 40º 14. yes

15. (i) yes (ii) yes

DPP NO. 8

TOPIC : EXPONENTS

1. B 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. A

8. B 9. C 10. A 11.81

62512.

145

4

13. (i) x = 7 (ii) x = 6 14. 4 × 103 + 9 × 102 + 6 × 101 + 3 × 100

15. (i) 253125 (ii) 192x5 (iii) 5 (iv) 1 (v) 2 (vi) 81

DPP NO. 9

TOPIC : ALGEBRAIC EXPRESSIONS

1. D 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. A

8. C 9. D 10. D

11. (i) trinomial (ii) monomial (iii) binomial (iv) monomial

12. – 4.5 x5 + 5x4 + 0.2 x2 – 7.3x – 5.7 13. 9 14. 11xy2 15. 4x + 1

DPP NO. 10

TOPIC : RATIO AND PROPORTION

1. D 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. C

8. B 9. C 10. A

11. (i) 1 : 3 (ii) 69 : 12 (iii) 12 : 15 (iv) 13 : 20 (v) 1 : 20

12. (i) 7 : 20 (ii) 7 : 3 (iii) 1 : 2 : 3 (iv) 4 : 3 : 2

13. (i) x = 7

2(ii) x = 10 14. 8 years, 12 years 15. (i) and (ii)


DPP NO. 11

TOPIC : PERCENTAGE

1. C 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. D

8. C 9. B 10. B 11. 200 12. 7100 13. 6 months

14. C.P. of rice = Rs. 350 & C.P. of wheat = Rs. 275 , Loss = Rs. 9 15. Rs. 1200

DPP NO. 12

TOPIC : PROFIT,LOSS AND DISCOUNT

1. C 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. B

8. B 9. C 10. A 11. A 12. 11%

13. (i) 140

3% (ii)

160

3% 14. 112 pages 16. 33.33% 17. 74.75 kg

DPP NO. 13

TOPIC : SIMPLE INTREST

1. A 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. A

8. D 9. D 10. B 11. Rs. 109.50 12. Rs.13500

13. 15 years 14. 16% 15. Rs. 8000

DPP NO. 14

TOPIC : STATISTICS-I

1. D 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. A

8. C 9. B 10. B

11. (i) 9 (ii) 5 12. p = 47 14. p = 20

15. (i) production of rice and wheat in different states

(ii) U.P. (iii) W.B. (iv) U.P. (V) Maharashtra

DPP NO. 15

TOPIC : STATISTICS-II

1. C 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. C

8. A 9. C 10. B 11. (i) 49 and 22 (ii) 27 (iii) 40.9 (iv) 4

12. (i) 44.5 (ii) 23 13. 28 15. x = 6

DPP NO. 16

TOPIC : PROBABILITY

1. C 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. B

8. B 9. B 10. B 11.49

100

13. (i) 1

15(ii)

14

15

14. (i) 9

20(ii)

6

20(iii)

1

2(iv)

3

20(v)

4

5

15. (i) 1

2(ii)

1

5(iii)

3

10(iv)

4

5(v)

4

5


DPP NO. 17

TOPIC : MENSURATION

1. C 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. C

8. B 9. D 10. 58 m 11. 51.2 m 12. 32.25 m, 1040.0625 m2

13. 3.92 cm 14. Rs. 528 15. 750 cm2

DPP NO. 18

TOPIC : SYMMETRY AND VISUALISING SOLID SHAPES

1. C 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. A

8. B 9. C 10. D 11. 60º

13. (i) c (ii) a (iii) d (iv) b

14. (i) infinite (ii) 4 (iii) 2 (iv) 3 (v)1 (vi) 2 (vii) 2 (viii) 8

15. (i) 2D (ii) 3D (iii) 2D (iv) 3D (v) 2D (vi) 3D 16. 20




SOCIAL SCIENCECLASS VII - CBSE

DPP NO. 01

TOPIC : TRACING CHANGES THROUGH A THOSAND YEARS

1. A 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. D8. D 9. B 10. B

DPP NO. 02

TOPIC : NEW KINGS AND KINGDOMS

1. D 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. A

8. A 9. A 10. B

DPP NO. 03

TOPIC : ON EQUALITY

1. A 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. A8. A 9. C 10. A

DPP NO. 04

TOPIC : ENVIRONMENT

1. D 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. C

8. C 9. B 10. A

DPP NO. 05

TOPIC : INSIDE OUR EARTH

1. B 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. A

8. A 9. A 10. B

DPP NO. 06

TOPIC : THE DELHI SULTANS

1. D 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. A8. A 9. D 10. D

DPP NO. 07

TOPIC : HOW THE STATE GOVERNMENT WORKS

1. B 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. D8. A 9. A 10. C

DPP NO. 08

TOPIC OUR CHANGING EARTH

1. B 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. A 7. A

8. B 9. A 10. C

DPP NO. 09

TOPIC : THME MUGHAL EMPIRE

1. A 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. D 7. A

8. B 9. C 10. C


DPP NO. 10

TOPIC : STATE GOVERNMENT AND ITS ROLE IN HEALTH

1. A 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. D

8. D 9. D 10. A

DPP NO. 11

TOPIC : AIR

1. D 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. A

8. A 9. B 10. B

DPP NO. 12

TOPIC : RULERS AND BUILDINGS

1. C 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. B

8. D 9. A 10. A

DPP NO. 13

TOPIC : MEDIA AND ADVERTISEMENT

1. D 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. A 7. A

8. B 9. A 10. B

DPP NO. 14

TOPIC : TOWNS, TRADERS AND CRAFTSPERSON’S

1. C 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. C8. A 9. D 10. C

DPP NO. 15

TOPIC : WATER

1. A 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. A8. A 9. B 10. C\

DPP NO. 16

TOPIC : TRIBES NOMADS AND SETTLED COMMUNITIES

1. B 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. B 6. A 7. B

8. A 9. C 10. A

DPP NO. 17

TOPIC : GROWING UP AS BOYS AND GIRLS

1. A 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. A 7. C

8. D 9. A 10. C

DPP NO. 18

TOPIC : NATURAL VEGETATION AND WILD LIFE

1. B 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. B

8. A 9. A 10. A

DPP NO. 19

TOPIC : DEVOTIONAL PATHS TO THE DIVINE

1. A 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. A 7. B

8. D 9. A 10. B




ENGLISHCLASS VII - CBSE

DPP NO. 1

TOPIC : READING COMPREHENSION

1. A 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. C

8. C 9. C 10. A 11. A 12. B 13. A 14. D

15. A

DPP NO. 2

TOPIC : SENTENCES

1. D 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. C 6. C 7. B

8. A 9. A 10. A 11. A 12. C 13. A 14. C

15. D 16. D 17. C 18. C 19. B 20. A

DPP NO. 3

TOPIC : NOUNS

1. C 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. D 7. D

8. A 9. D 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. A 14. A

15. C 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. C 20. C

DPP NO. 4

TOPIC : PRONOUNS

1. A 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. D 7. A

8. D 9. D 10. A 11. D 12. A 13. C 14. D

15. C 16. B 17. C 18. C 19. B 20. C

DPP NO. 5

TOPIC : ADJECTIVES

1. A 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. C 6. D 7. B

8. A 9. A 10. B 11. B 12. A 13. B 14. A

15. B 16. B 17. B 18. C 19. A 20. B

DPP NO. 6

TOPIC : DEGREE OF COMPARISION

1. better 2. the fastest 3. healthier 4. better

5. more 6. the heaviest 7. bigger 8. more comfortable

9. the most untidy 10. worse 11. the longest 12. more difficult

13. the coldest 14. hotter 15. prettiest 16. most popular

17. taller, younger 18. the richest 19. poorest 20. better

DPP NO. 7

TOPIC : VERBS

1. B 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. B

8. D 9. A 10. D 11. A 12. D 13. C 14. A

15. C 16. A 17. B 18. D 19. C 20. A


DPP NO. 8

TOPIC : ADVERBS

1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. D 7. D

8. A 9. B 10. C 11. B 12. A 13. A 14. C

15. B 16. C 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. C

DPP NO. 9

TOPIC : PREPOSITIONS

1. A 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. C

8. B 9. A 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. C 14. D

15. D 16. C 17. C 18. A 19. B 20. D

DPP NO. 10

TOPIC : DETERMINERS

1. D 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. A 7. A

8. B 9. C 10. D 11. D 12. B 13. A 14. C

15. C 16. D 17. D 18. B 19. A 20. D

DPP NO. 11

TOPIC : CONJUNCTIONS

1. A 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. B

8. D 9. D 10. C 11. D 12. D 13. C 14. D

15. B 16. D 17. C 18. D 19. C 20. A

DPP NO. 12

TOPIC : ACTIVE & PASSIVE VOICE

1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. D

8. B 9. B 10. B

1. Food has been taken. 2. You are asked to stand up.

3. You are requested to have a seat. 4. Let the door be opened.

5. It is liked. 6. Slogans are being shouted.

7. A mouse was killed. 8. Her grandpa’s death was being mourned.

9. You are ordered to shut up. 10. Let it be done by John.

DPP NO. 13

TOPIC : DIRECT INDIRECT SPEECH

1. B 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. C 6. C 7. C

8. C 9. D 10. A 11. A 12. B 13. D 14. C

15. D 16. D 17. B 18. B 19. C 20. C

DPP NO. 14

TOPIC : SUBJECT VERB CONCORD

1. A 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. B

8. B 9. C 10. A 11. D 12. D 13. A 14. A

15. D 16. A 17. B 18. D 19. A 20. A


DPP NO. 15

TOPIC : MODALS

1. A 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. C

8. D 9. A 10. A 11. B 12. D 13. D 14. D

15. B 16. D 17. A 18. B 19. B 20. C

DPP NO. 16

TOPIC : PUNCTUATIONS

1. D 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. B

8. B 9. C 10. B 11. C 12. B 13. A 14. B

15. A 16. A 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. C

DPP NO. 17

TOPIC : ONE WORD SUBSTITUTION

1. C 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. B 6. B 7. A

8. C 9. B 10. A 11. D 12. A 13. D 14. A

15. D 16. A 17. B 18. C 19. A 20. C

DPP NO. 18

TOPIC : IDIOMS

1. C 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. B

8. B 9. B 10. C 11. D 12. C 13. B 14. E

15. A 16. C 17. A 18. A

DPP NO. 19

TOPIC : PHRASAL VERBS

1. C 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. A 7. A

8. B 9. A 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. B 14. C

15. C 16. C 17. A 18. A 19. B 20. B

DPP NO. 20

TOPIC : PROVERBS

1. A 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. D 7. C

8. C 9. A 10. D 11. A 12. B 13. D 14. A

15. C 16. B 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. B

DPP NO. 21

TOPIC : SYNONYMS AND ANTONYMS

1. A 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. B

8. A 9. C 10. C 11. A 12. C 13. B 14. D

15. D 16. B 17. C 18. C 19. A 20. C

DPP NO. 22

TOPIC : JUMBLED WORDS

1. The internet is accessed on televisions.

2. We can carry laptop easily.

3. It is important to eat breakfast.

4. Education is about learning and teaching.

5. Columbus discovered America.

6. The room was being cleaned by Sharda.


7. The naughty boy broke the window pane.

8. The battle was fought by soldiers.

9. Who wrote Mahabharata?

10. The sweepers sweep the floor.

11. It is caused by differences in air temperature.

12. Warm air weighs less than cold air and so, it rises.

13. Then , cooler air rushes in to take its place underneath, creating winds.

14. The village is free from din and noise of the city.

15. Atmosphere there is open and crowd free.

DPP NO. 23

TOPIC : GAP FILLING

1. (a) as (b) whenever (c) into (d) either (e) for (f) could

(g) no (h) that

2. (a) about (b) of (c) in (d) where (e) anyone (f) should

3. (a) of (b) was (c) on (d) most (e) would (f) under

4. (a) the (b) and (c) in (d) been (e) after (f) were

DPP NO. 24

TOPIC : OMISSION + ERROR SPOTING

Omission

1. (a) all of (b) have some tea (c) Being the eldest (d) wasn't enough milk

(e) very little butter (f) prepare some tea (g) enjoyed the tea (h) wasn't any tea

2. (a) Macbeth did not (b) witches had promised (c) had been proved (d) mind began to

(e) It was only (f) ambition started (g) mind began to (h) king was a

Error Spoting

1. (a) in – at (b) hiding – hidden (c) tree – trees (d) from – of

(e) were – was (f) be – being (g) they – we (h) which – whose

2. (a) for – but (b) in– to (c) a – the (d) on – of

(e) a – an (j) over – out (g) for – of (h) with – to




MENTAL ABILITYCLASS VII - CBSE

DPP NO. 1

TOPIC : NUMBER SERIES

1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (A)

8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (A)

15. (C)

DPP NO. 2

TOPIC : ALPHABET AND LETTER REPEATING SERIES

1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (D)

8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (D) 11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (D)

15. (D)

DPP NO. 3

TOPIC : MISSING TERM IN FIGURES

1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (B)

8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (C)

15. (C)

DPP NO. 4

TOPIC : ALPHABET TEST

1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (D)

8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (C)

15. (C)

DPP NO. 5

TOPIC : CODING-DECODING

1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (D)

8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (C)

15. (B)

DPP NO. 6

TOPIC : DIRECTION SENSE TEST

1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (A) 7. (D)

8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (A)

15. (D)

DPP NO. 7

TOPIC : SEATING ARRANGEMENT & RANKING AND ORDERING TEST

1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (D) 3. (C) 7. (A)

8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (D) 11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (B)

15. (B)


DPP NO. 8

TOPIC : MATHEMATICAL OPERATIONS

1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (D)

8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (B) 11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (C)

15. (D)

DPP NO. 9

TOPIC : ANALOGY & CLASSIFICATION

1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (B)

8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (C)

15. (C)

DPP NO. 10

TOPIC : FIGURE PARTITION, MIRROR AND WATER IMAGES & MISCELLANEOUS

1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (C)

8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (C)

15. (D)

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