- Describe the anatomical features of True, False, Floating Ribs - Which ribs are Typical vs. Atypical? - What are the anatomical features of the 1st and 2nd rib? - Describe the anatomy of the Sternum. What are the vertebral relationships to
the sternum? - What are the Joints and Movements of the Thoracic Wall? - Describe the anatomy of the muscles moving the thoracic wall inc. the
Intercostal Muscles - Describe the arrangement of the Intercostal Neurovascular Bundle - What are the landmarks for safe insertion of a Chest tube? - What layers are traversed when inserting a Chest tube? - What is the Nerve supply of the Thoracic Wall? (need to know levels at nipple,
umbilicus…) - Describe the Arterial supply and Venous drainage of the Thoracic Wall - Describe the Boundaries of the Thoracic Inlet. What structures pass through
the thoracic inlet? - What are the important landmarks w/ IJ CVC insertion?
PHYSIOLOGY
- What are the main substances which act as Neurotransmitters and Neuromodulators?
- Describe the biosynthesis of Serotonin, ACh, Catecholamines, Amino Acids - Briefly describe the Four main Neuromodulator systems in the CNS - What are the main CNS excitatory amino acids and their receptors? - What are the main CNS inhibitory amino acids and their receptors? - How are the Catecholamines Metabolised and what are the enzymes involved? - Describe the a- and b- Adrenoreceptors - What are the various Opioid Receptors and their affinity of endogenous opioid
peptides (must know Table 7.3) - Describe the Structure of the Eye - Describe the Layers of the Retina - What are the cells which make up the retina? (including Rods and Cones) - Describe how light is Phototransduced into a neuronal signal - Definitions - Myopia, Hyperopia, Strabismus, Astigmatism - Describe the neural pathways from the Retina to the Brain - What are the Direct and Consensual Light Responses?
TWH WEEK 3 ACEM PRIMARY EXAM
- What are the effects of Various Lesions of the Visual Pathway? - Describe the Primary Visual Cortex - Describe the structure of the Middle, External and Inner Ear - How are Sounds converted into a neurological signal - Describe the sensory nerves involved in Taste
PHARMACOLOGY
- Describe the pharmacology of Histamine - What are the different types of Histamine receptor? - What are the organ effects of Histamine on various tissues? - Describe the pharmacology of various different Antihistamines - Describe the pharmacology of Serotonin - What are the features of Serotonin Syndrome? - What are the various Serotonin Antagonists and their describe their clinical use
- Describe the pharmacology of Drugs used in Asthma Management (beta
- What are the various Causes of Inflammation? - What are the processes involved in Acute Inflammation? - Describe the Blood Vessel changes (e.g changes in vascular permeability)
which contribute to Acute inflammation - Definition - Transudate, Exudate, Edema - How do Leukocytes adhere to blood vessels and travel to distant sites (i.e
Chemotaxis?) - Describe the process of Phagocytosis - Describe how Acute Inflammation is terminated - What are the Chemical Mediators of Inflammation? (e.g Histamine,
Prostaglandins, Cytokines etc) Table 3.4, Table 3.6 - Describe the Arachadonic Acid Pathway (Fig 3.10) - Describe the Complement System (Fig 3.12) - Definitions - What is Serous, Fibrinous, Purulent inflammation, Ulcers, Abscess
and provide an example of each - What are the possible outcomes of Acute inflammation? (Fig 3.17) - What are the processes involved in Chronic Inflammation? - What are the causes of Chronic Inflammation? - Describe the cells and mediators involved in Chronic Inflammation
TWH WEEK 3 ACEM PRIMARY EXAM
- What is Granulomatous Inflammation? (and provide examples) - What are the Systemic effects of Inflammation (e.g Fever) - Describe the process of Tissue Repair and Regeneration - What are the steps involved in Scar Formation and Wound Healing? What are
the cells involved and their time course? What sort of strength does a scar have compared to native tissue?
- What at the factors which disrupt Wound Healing? - Describe the pathogenesis of Fibrosis and give examples - Describe the process of Angiogenesis and give examples
TWH WEEK 3 ACEM PRIMARY EXAM
Week 3 - Anatomy MCQs
Q1. Which of the following is NOT a synovial joint?
a. Costovertebral joint
b. Costotransverse joint
c. Costochondral joint
d. Interchondral joint
e. Sternocostal joint
Q2. In the intercostal space;
a. Neurovascular bundle travels between external &
internal intercostal layers
b. 1st intercostal nerve does NOT have a cutaneous
branch
c. Anterior cutaneous branch of intercostal nerve
crosses anterior to internal thoracic artery to supply
the ventral strip of skin
d. Supreme intercostal artery supplies the 1st
intercostal space posteriorly
e. There are 2 anterior intercostal arteries for each
intercostal space
3. In the chest wall;
a. The intercostal artery is more superficial than the
vein
b. The intercostal artery lies between the intercostal
nerve and vein
c. The transversus muscle lies between the ext and int
intercostals
d. The neurovascular bundle lies between the ext and
int intercostals
e. All of the above
4. Which muscle is not used in forced expiration?
a. Transversus abdominis
b. Rectus abdominis
c. Diaphragm
d. External obliques
e. Internal obliques
5. Regarding the intercostal space;
a. The neurovascular bundle lies between the external
and internal intercostal muscles
b. The vein is lowermost in the NV bundle
c. The collateral branch of the intercostal n has a
cutaneous supply
d. The 1st intercostal n has no cutaneous supply
e. The intercostal artery of the upper 3 spaces arises
from the superior intercostal artery
6. Intercostal muscles;
a. Are arranged in 4 neurological layers as the
anterior abdominal wall
b. Middle layer constitutes subcostals and innermost
intercostals
c. The outer layer corresponds to the internal oblique
of the anterior abdominal wall
d. Fibres of the middle layer muscles run in a
downwards and forwards direction
e. Neurovascular plane lies between the middle and
inner layer of muscles
7. With respect to the 1st rib;
a. Anterior rami of T1 lies in contact with the neck
b. The sympathetic chain lies in contact with the
shaft
c. Subclavian artery grooves the rib
d. Subclavian attaches to the scalene tubercle
e. Subclavian vein does not touch the rib
8. Regarding the chest wall;
a. The intercostal artery runs between the external
and internal intercostal muscles
b. The muscles of the outer thoracic wall layer are
serratus posterior superior and serratus posterior
inferior only
c. The 5th posterior intercostal vein, artery and nerve
run on the lower border of the 5th rib
d. The order of structures in the intercostal space are
AVN
e. The 1st intercostal nerve supplies skin over the
anterior chest wall
9. Intercostal nerves;
a. Arise from the posterior rami of thoracic nerves
b. Lie inferior to the intercostal artery
c. Run between the external and internal muscle
layers
d. Have no cutaneous branches
e. Do not connect to the sympathetic chain
10. Which of the following is a correct relationship in
regards to the chest wall?
a. The intercostal artery is more superficial than the
vein
b. The transversus muscle lies between the internal
and external intercostals
c. The intercostal artery lies between the nerve and
the vein
d. The neurovascular bundle lies between the
external in internal intercostals
TWH WEEK 3 ACEM PRIMARY EXAM
11. Which of the following is the most anterior
structure in the thoracic inlet?
a. Right subclavian artery
b. Vagus nerve
c. Subclavian vein
d. Thoracic duct
12. Which of the following muscles is not used in
forced expiration?
a. External Oblique muscles
b. Rectus abdominis
c. Diaphragm
d. Internal Oblique muscles
Week 3 - Anatomy MCQs Answers 1. C
2. B
3. B
4. C
5. D
6. E
7. A
8. C
9. B
10. C
11. C
12. C
TWH WEEK 3 ACEM PRIMARY EXAM
Week 3 - Physiology MCQs 1. Which of the following statements regarding
aqueous humor is FALSE?
A. Aqueous humor is produced by ciliary body by
active transport
B. Aqueous humor is reabsorbed through the
trabecular meshwork into the canal of Schlemn
C. Canal of Schlemn is found at the anterior chamber
angle
D. Acute angle closure glaucoma is due to the
obstruction of anterior chamber angle
E. Open angle glaucoma is due to reduced
permeability of the trabecular meshwork
2. Which of the followings statements regarding
visual reception is INCORRECT?
A. Rods & cones are hidden beneath an array of
neurons in the retina
B. Impulses from rods & cones converge onto a
network of neurons & ultimately to the optic nerve
C. Pigment epithelium absorbs light rays to prevent
reflection
D. Optic disk is situated at the posterior pole of the
globe
E. There are no rods or cones over the optic disk
3. Which of the following statements about the retina
is FALSE?
A. Macula lutea is the point of greatest visual acuity
B. Retinal blood vessels supply the rods & cones in
retina
C. There are no blood vessels in the macula lutea
D. There are no rods in the macula lutea
E. All of the above
4. Which of the following statements regarding
visual pathways is INCORRECT?
A. Objects in the temporal visual field is sensed by
the nasal hemiretina
B. Interruption of optic nerve leads to blindness in
the ipsilateral eye only
C. Fibres from temporal hemiretina decussate at the
optic chiasm
D. Lateral geniculate body receives fibres from the
A. Outer segment is the photosensitive part of rods &
cones that initiates the action potential in the visual
pathway
B. Inner segment is important for the metabolic
activity of rods & cones
C. Rods predominates in the retina (except in the
fovea)
D. Cones in the fovea converge onto bipolar nuclei
E. Cones are more important for acuity & color
vision
6. Which of the following retinal neurons generate
"all or none" action potentials?
A. Ganglion cell
B. Bipolar cell
C. Horizontal cell
D. Amacrine cell
E. Rods & cones
7. Which of the following statement regarding cone
& rods is FALSE?
A. Cone receptor potential has sharp onset & offset
B. Rod receptor potential has sharp onset & slow
offset
C. Cone responds to a stimulus at a level of
illumination below that of rods
D. Both cones & rods generate hyperpolarizing
potential when stimulated
E. Sodium channels in the outer segment of rods &
cones are closed when strike by light
8. Which of the following statements regarding
lateral geniculate body is TRUE?
A. Each lamina of the lateral geniculate body has a
precise mapping of the ipsilateral temporal
hemiretina & contralateral nasal hemiretina
B. Lateral geniculate body also receives input from
the visual cortex & other brain regions
C. Magnocellular pathway carries signals for
detection of movement & depth to the visual cortex
D. Parvocellular pathway carries signals for texture,
shape & fine details to the visual cortex
E. All of the above
TWH WEEK 3 ACEM PRIMARY EXAM
9. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
A. Visual cortex is arranged in 6 layers, each
responsible for processing different type of visual
information.
B. Parietal cortex, temporal cortex & cingulate gyrus
also have visual processing function
C. Reduced visual threshold of cones is responsible
for the initial rapid reduction in visual threshold in
dark adaptation
D. Time required for dark adaptation is determined
by the time required to building rhodospin stores
E. All of the above
10. Which of the following statements regarding
vision is FALSE?
A. Visual acuity is a measurement of visual threshold
B. Binocular vision relies on the fusion of images
from the central visual field of both eyes at the
cortical level
C. Depth can be perceived by monocular vision alone
D. Bilateral occipital cortical destruction results in
subjective blindness but the subject still has residual
responses to visual stimuli
E. Lesions in the lateral geniculate nuclei result in
contralateral heteronymous hemianopia with normal
pupillary reflex
11. Normal pupillary reflex can be seen in lesions at:
A. Optic nerve
B. Optic chiasm
C. Optic tract
D. Occipital cortex
E. All of the above
12. Which of the following statements regarding
superior colliculi is TRUE?
A. It is an integration centre for various visual,
auditory & sensory information
B. It contains motor map which projects to the
brainstem to control eye movements
C. It controls reflex movements of head & neck
D. It is one of the sites of highest blood flow in the
brain
E. All of the above
13. Which of the following statement regarding
reticular activating system is FALSE?
A. RAS is important for regulation of alertness &
consciousness
B. RAS is found in the anterior pontine region
C. RAS is the site of integration of various
polysynaptic reflexes
D. RAS is responsible for regulation of heart rate,
blood pressure & respiratory pattern
E. RAS projects to cortex & thalamic nuclei
14. Which of the following statements regarding
semicircular canals is FALSE?
A. Basal end of the semicircular canal is in contact
with the afferent neurons
B. Resting membrane potential is about -60mV
C. Hyperpolarization occur if the cilia is pushed in 1
direction & depolarization occurs if it is pushed in
the opposite direction
D. Perilymph has high potassium composition
E. All of the above
15. Which of the following regarding hearing is
TRUE?
A. Ossicle system serves to magnify the sound
pressure arriving at the oval window
B. Tympanic reflex is adequate to protect an
individual from excess stimulation caused by strong
sound waves
C. In a normal subject, bone conduction is faster than
air conduction
D. Amplitudes of waves set up in the perilymph in
scala vestibule are constant
E. Inner hair cells act to improve hearing by
influencing vibration patterns of the basilar
membrane
16. Causes of conduction deafness include:
A. Destruction of auditory ossicles
B. Wax or foreign bodies in the external auditory
canal
C. Ear drum thickening
D. Abnormal rigidity of stapes attached to the oval
window
E. All of the above
17. Nerve deafness can be due to:
A. Hair cell degeneration secondary to
aminoglycosides
B. Prolonged noise exposure
C. Medullary vascular damage
D. Cerebropontine angle & CN8 tumor
E. All of the above
18. Which of the following is the main inhibitory
transmitter in the spinal cord?
A. Dopamine
B. Glycine
C. GABA
D. ACh
19. The Kappa receptor is responsible for which of
the following?
A. Sedation, dysphoria, mydriasis
B. Analgesia, sedations, dysphoria
C. Dysphoria and modulation of hormone release
D. Euphoria, dependence and analgesia
TWH WEEK 3 ACEM PRIMARY EXAM
20. Which of the following is the main excitatory
transmitter in the spinal cord?
A. GABA
B. Glycine
C. Aspartate
D. Glutamate
21. Monoamine Oxidase breaks down which of the
following?
A. Glutamate
B. Seretonin
C. Tryptophan
D. Glycine
22. In the formation of Adrenaline, which of the
following is correct?
A. DOPA is formed from DOPA-decarboxylase
B. COMT produces adrenaline from noradrenaline
C. Phenylalanin is converted to Tyrosine
D. Serotonin is a vital intermediate step
TWH WEEK 3 ACEM PRIMARY EXAM
Week 3 - Physiology Answers 1. A
2. D
3. B
4. C
5. D
6. A
7. C
8. E
9. E
10. A
11. D
12. E
13. B
14. D
15. A
16. E
17. E
18. B
19. B
20. D
21. B
22. C
TWH WEEK 3 ACEM PRIMARY EXAM
Week 3 - Pharmacology MCQs 1. Which of the following regarding Theophylline is
INCORRECT?
A. It is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor
B. It inhibits cell surface adenosine receptors
C. Tolerance to its bronchodilator effect develops
after 2 weeks
D. It is metabolized in the liver
E. It has potent effect in improving diaphragmatic
contraction
2. Theophylline toxicity may manifest as:
A. Nausea & vomiting
B. Headache
C. Arrhythmia
D. Seizures
E. All of the above
3. Actions of b2 agonists includes:
A. Bronchial smooth muscle relaxation
B. Mast cell stabilizing effect
C. Increased ciliary activity
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
4. Salbutamol:
A. duration of action is 90 minutes
B. maximal action occurs at 30min
C. arrhythmia is a common side effect
D. 10% of the aerosol dose is deposited in the mouth
& pharynx
E. None of the above
5. Sodium Cromoglycate:
A. inhibits calcium influx into mast cell provoked by
IgE-Ag interaction on sensitized mast cells
B. inhibits basophil degranulation
C. has good oral bioavailability
D. is used in treatment of acute asthma as well as
prophylactic treatment of asthma
E. None of the above
6. Which of the following regarding Ipratropium
bromide is FALSE?
A. It is a competitive inhibitor of acetylcholine at
muscarinic receptors
B. It is more useful as bronchodilator in asthma than
b2 agonists.
C. Systemic side effects occurs when more than 2 mg
is inhaled
D. It is selective in causing airway smooth muscle
relaxation without causing tachycardia.
E. All of the above.
7. Histamine release can be triggered by:
A. Anaphylactoid reaction
B. Antigen binding to IgE of sensitized mast cells
C. Morphine
D. Mechanical injury to tissues
E. All of the above
8. Cardiovascular effects of histamine includes:
A. Hypertension
B. Positive inotropic & chronotropic effects
C. Vasoconstriction
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
9. Which of the following phase of the “triple
response” is a result of axonal reflex:
A. Reddening at the site of injection
B. Wheal
C. Flare
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
10. Serotonin (5HT):
A. is inactivated by MAO & alcohol dehydrogenase
B. is excreted in urine as 5HIAA
C. is found in intestinal enterochromaffin cells,
platelets, pineal gland & nervous system
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
11. Which of the following is a serotonin agonist?
A. Sumatriptan
B. Cyproheptadine
C. Ketanserine
D. Ondansetron
E. All of the above
12. Sumatriptan:
A. half life ~ 2hours
B. is a 5HT1d agonist
C. used in treatment of acute migraine & cluster
headache
D. is contraindicated in printzmetal angina as it
causes chest pain in 5%.
E. All of the above
13. Ergotamine action include the following
EXCEPT:
A. Partial agonist at a receptor
B. Partial agonist at b receptor
C. Partial agonist at 5HT receptor
D. Agonist at CNS dopamine receptor
E. None of the above
TWH WEEK 3 ACEM PRIMARY EXAM
14. Treatment of acute attacks of migraine include
the following EXCEPT:
A. Ergotamine
B. Sumatriptan
C. Methysergide
D. Propranolol
E. None of the above
15. Histamine action can be reduced by:
A. Adrenaline
B. Nedocromil
C. b2 agonists
D. Antihistamine
E. All of the above
17. Which of the following statements regarding
terfenadine is INCORRECT?
A. It does not cross blood brain barrier
B. It causes prolonged QT syndrome if used with
erythromycin, itraconazole or ketaconazole
C. It has active metabolites
D. It is safe to use in pregnancy
E. It is a reversible competitive inhibitor of H1
receptor
18. Which of the following statements regarding
ranitidine is FALSE?
A. It is renally excreted.
B. IV ranitidine can cause hypotension &
arrhythmia
C. It crosses placenta & is expressed in breast milk
D. It inhibits hepatic CYP P450 enzyme
E. It is rarely associated with blood dyscrasia
TWH WEEK 3 ACEM PRIMARY EXAM
Week 3 - Pharmacology Answers 1. C
2. E 3. D
4. B 5. A
6. B
7. E
8. B
9. C
10. D
11. E
12. E
13. B
14. D
15. E
16. B
17. D
18. D
TWH WEEK 3 ACEM PRIMARY EXAM
Week 3 - Pathology MCQs
1) The cardinal signs of acute inflammation include
all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Calor
b) Rubor
c) Dolur
d) Functio laesa
e) Angiogenesis
2) Increased endothelial permeability can be caused
by all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Endothelial cell contraction
b) Endothelial cell retraction
c) Direct endothelial injury
d) Leakage from old capillaries
e) Proleolytic enzymes released from
leukocytes
3) Which of the following chemical mediators is
involved in acute inflammation?
a) Anaphylatoxin C4a
b) Kallikrein
c) Fibrin
d) Leukotriene A4
e) PGG2
4) Regarding the action of specific complement
components, which is INCORRECT?
a) C3a increases vascular permeability
b) C5a is chemotactic to basophils
c) C3a is chemotactic to eosinophils
d) C3b is an opsonin
e) C5a increases vascular permeability
5) Which of the following is NOT a histological
hallmark of chronic inflammation?
a) Infiltration by plasma cells
b) Proliferation of small blood vessels
c) Increased connective tissue
d) Proliferation of smooth muscle
e) Infiltration by lymphocytes
6) Which of the following does NOT activate the
classical complement pathway?
a) Cobra venom
b) IgM-antigen complex
c) DNA
d) IgG-antigen complex
e) Heparin
7) Which of the following produces a diffuse
granulomatous reaction?
a) Sarcoidosis
b) Lymphogranuloma venereum
c) Cat-scratch disease
d) Coccidioidomycosis
e) Lepromatous leprosy
8) Which of the following would NOT be seen in
the setting of granulomatous inflammation?
a) Langerhans’ giant cells
b) Acid-fast bacilli
c) Epithelioid cells
d) Granulomata up to 2mm in diameter
e) Touton giant cells
9) Which complement component is present in
greatest concentration in the blood?
a) C5
b) factor D
c) C2
d) C4
e) C3
10) Which of the following is NOT a component of
pus?
a) Liquor puris
b) Neutrophils
c) Parenchymal cell debris
d) Macrophages
e) Lysosomal enzymes
11) What is the main structural component required
for organised regeneration in a wound?
a) Fibroblasts
b) Basement membrane
c) Collagen
d) Elastin
e) Capillary loops
12) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic
feature of “myofibroblasts”?
a) Folded nucleus
b) Intracytoplasmic actin
c) Tight junctions
d) Basement membrane formation
e) They resemble smooth muscle cells
13) Which of the following is NOT a cell of the
mononuclear phagocyte system?
a) Hofbauer cell
b) Histiocyte
c) Basket cell
d) Mesangial cell
e) Kupffer cell
TWH WEEK 3 ACEM PRIMARY EXAM
14) Which of the following is NOT a general
delaying factor in skin wound healing?
a) Zinc deficiency
b) Protein starvation
c) Copper deficiency
d) High temperature
e) Vitamin C deficiency
15) Which of the following substances is NOT
secreted by macrophages?
a) Collagenase
b) Hyaluronidase
c) Elastase
d) Lysosome
e) Interleukin-1
16) Which of the following is NOT a histologic
feature of granulation tissue?
a) Fibroblast proliferation
b) Macrophages
c) Budding of pre-existing small blood vessels
d) Oedema
e) Smooth muscle proliferation
17) Which of the following is NOT associated with
macrophages?
a) Expression of class 1 HLA antigens
b) Control of granulopoiesis
c) Anti-tumour activity
d) Control of erythropoiesis
e) Defence against intracellular organisms
18) Regarding healing of skin wounds by primary
intention, which statement is INCORRECT?
a) Migrating epithelial cells divide within the
wound
b) Fibroblasts invade the wound around day 3
c) Fibrin-rich haematoma forms initially
d) Final stage involves devascularisation
e) Type III collagen is the first to be laid down
19) Regarding increased vascular permeability in
acute inflammation, which statement is
INCORRECT?
a) Delayed-prolonged response involves fluid
leakage from venules
b) Immediate-transient response is elicited by
histamine
c) Immediate-sustained response involves fluid
leakage from all vessels of the
microcirculation
d) Delayed-prolonged response is elicited by
bacterial toxins
e) Immediate-transient response involves fluid
leakage from capillaries
20) Regarding healing of skin wounds by secondary
intention, which statement is INCORRECT?
a) Wound contraction is the major difference to
primary intention
b) Epithelial cells migrate deep to granulation
tissue
c) Fibroblasts resemble smooth muscle cells
d) Wound fills with coagulum initially
e) Regenerated epidermis sends short processes
into underlying tissue
21) Regarding leucocytes, which function is NOT
specifically impaired in diabetes mellitus?
a) Phagocytosis
b) Chemotaxis
c) Adherence
d) Microbicidal activity
e) Migration
22) Which of the following is NOT a recognised
complication of skin wound healing?
a) Cicatrisation
b) Proud flesh
c) Lipofuscin pigmentation
d) Epidermoid cyst
e) Neoplasia
23) Which of the following is/are NOT released into
extracellular space by leucocytes?
a) Leukotrienes
b) Hydrogen peroxide
c) Thromboxanes
d) Superoxide
e) Prostaglandins
24) Which of the following is the MOST important
cause of delayed skin wound healing?
a) Foreign body
b) Continued trauma
c) Poor blood supply
d) Infection
e) Irritants
25) Which of the following chemical mediators does
NOT induce leucocyte adhesion?
a) Leukotriene B4
b) C3a
c) Bacterial endotoxin
d) Platelet activating factor
e) Interleukin-1
TWH WEEK 3 ACEM PRIMARY EXAM
26) Regarding the triple response, which statement is
INCORRECT?
a) The red line is due to the axon reflex
b) It is still present after total sympathectomy
c) Wheal occurs due to exudation of fluid
through vascular walls
d) Is mediated by local histamine release
e) Flare occurs due to arteriolar dilatation
27) Which of the following is NOT a local delaying
factor in skin wound healing?
a) Poor blood supply
b) Neoplasia
c) Ionising radiation
d) Absence of ultraviolet radiation
e) Moist wound
28) Which of the following is CORRECT?
a) Myeloperoxidase activation leads to
increased H2O2 production
b) Opsonins are required for phagocytosis
c) TNF is a powerful leukocyte activator
d) Protein kinase C activation leads to the
oxidative burst
e) Increased avidity of selectin binding is part
of transmigration
29) Regarding leucocyte chemotaxis, which of the
following is INCORRECT?
a) Movement is mediated by phospholipase C
activation
b) Migration occurs down a concentration
gradient
c) Products of the cyclo-oxygenase pathway
are important mediators
d) IL-8 is the predominant chemotactic
cytokine
e) The leucocyte pseudopod contains actin and
myosin
30) Regarding inflammatory vascular leakage, which
is INCORRECT?
a) Exudation is typical
b) Endothelial cell contraction affects mainly
capillaries
c) Leucocyte margination occurs as stasis
develops
d) Angiogenesis causes oedema due to poorly
differentiated endothelium
e) Lymph flow is increased in inflammation
TWH WEEK 3 ACEM PRIMARY EXAM
Week 3 - Pathology Answers 1) E 2) D 3) B 4) C 5) D 6) A 7) E 8) A 9) E 10) D 11) B 12) C 13) C 14) D 15) B 16) E 17) A 18) A 19) E 20) B 21) D 22) C 23) C 24) D 25) B 26) A 27) E 28) C 29) C 30) B
