PMP QUIZ 4

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david shillito david litten

PMP Exam Primer QuizPass First

Time

1

If the NPV is $30,000 for project X and $50,000 for project Y, what is the opportunity costif project Y is selected in preference to project X

A. $50,000

B. $20,000

C. $30,000

D. $75,000

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2

Which of the following is notthe primary objective of Integrated Change Control?

A. Managing change as it occurs

B. Denying change whenever possible

C. Influencing factors that cause change

D. Determining that a change has occurred

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Time

3

The outputs of Direct and Manage Project Execution include:

A. Deliverables and work performance information

B. Deliverables and performance reports

C. Performance reports and requested changes

D. Deliverables and corrective action

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Time

4

Which of the following is true regarding NPV?

A. NPV assumes reinvestment at the prevailing rate

B. NPV assumes reinvestment at the NPV rate

C. NPV assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital

D. NPV decisions should be made based on the highest value for all of the selections

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Time

5

Which definition best describes cost aggregation?

A. Aggregating the costs associated with work packages back to a single point

in time to eliminate the time value of money

B. Multiplying the costs with each work package by a multiplier to calculate

the needed reserve

C. Adding the costs associated with each work package back up to the

parent nodes on the WBS to ultimately get a total project cost

D. A risk management technique to view costs and their risks by an

aggregated group instead of by an individual work package

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Time

6

Which of the following makes up the project scope baseline?

A. The WBS, project scope statement, and WBS dictionary

B. The project scope statement

C. The scope management plan, the WBS, and the WBS dictionary

D. The scope management plan and WBS

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Time

7

The Project Management Plan contains all the following except:

A. Project Scope Statement

B. Cost baseline

C. Resource calendar

D. Risk register

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Time

8

A technical decision is causing conflict with the project team which in turn, is affectingteam performance. What is the best source of power the project manager could use to

bring about cooperation?

A. Referent

B. Expert

C. Penalty

D. Legitimate

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Time

9

You have been brought in to take over a project that is already underwayand iscurrently executing the work. Some of the deliverables are being done by sub-

contractors, and you want to know what performance metrics are to be tracked for these

contractors. Where would you find this information?

A. The work breakdown structure

B. The project charter

C. The organization chart

D. The procurement management plan

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Time

10

Which of the following best characterizes Six Sigma?

A. Asserts that quality must be a continuous way of doing business

B. Stipulates that quality must be managed in

C. Focuses on improving the quality of people first, then improving the quality of the

process or project

D. Focuses on process improvement and variation reduction by using a measurement-

based strategy

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11

If there is more than one critical path on a project, which of the following must also betrue?

A. The schedule should be crashed in order to resolve the conflict

B. The situation should be fast-tracked in order to resolve the conflict

C. Only one path will ultimately emerge as the true critical path

D. The schedule risk will be higher with multiple critical paths than with one

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12

The Delphi technique is used primarily to provide:

A. Analytical hierarchy process

B. Intuitive expert opinion

C. Extrapolated guess

D. Extrapolation from historical records

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Time

13

Your company is soliciting bids for your projects product sales material and advertising. Arepresentative from one of the bidding organizations invites you to attend a sports event

at their expense to ask questions about your product. How should you respond?

A. Accept his offer, but tell him in advance that you cant answer questions about the

product

B. Reject the offer and invite the sales representative to pose his questions at the

bidders conference

C. Attend the event, answer all questions, then write a report on the questions andanswers and submit to the other bidders

D. Attend the event and discuss the project as requested

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Time

14

One of your team members has an attendance problem. You have scheduled severalmeetings to discuss this with them, but they always give a reason why they cannot

attend. Which conflict management technique is the member exhibiting?

A. Covering up

B. Aggressive-avoiding

C. Withdrawing

D. Diverting

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Time

15

Which of the following is a process within the Execution process group?

A. Define Activities

B. Develop Schedule

C. Report Performance

D. Distribute Information

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16

Senior management has requested that your project use an extra copyrighted documentthey obtained via the internet. It will not be sold or read outside of your organization. As

the project manager, you should:

A. As the document is outside the scope, continue the project without it

B. Investigate obtaining permission from the author to use the document

C. Use the document as requested by senior management

D. Submit the request to the change control board

PMP E P i Q i

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Time

17

A project plan is:

A. A formal, approved document used to guide both project execution and project

control

B. A document issued by senior management that provides the project manager with

the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities

C. A narrative description of products or services to be supplied

D. A document describing the organizational breakdown structure of the company

PMP E P i Q i

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Time

18

You are managing two projects, each for a different customer. While working with one,you discover a sensitive piece of information that would save the other customer

significant cost on their project budget. What should you do?

A. Excuse yourself from both projects if possible

B. Share the information with the other customer if it increases project value

C. Disclose your conflict of interest and keep the information confidential

D. Act in accordance with any legal documents you have signed

PMP E P i Q i

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Time

19

Which of the following would a project manager employ to ensure the team know clearlywhat work is included in their activities?

A. A WBS dictionary

B. A project charter

C. A project scope of work

D. A risk management plan

PMP E P i Q i

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Time

20

Communication via email is considered:

A. Formal written communication

B. Informal non-verbal communication

C. Informal written communication

D. Formal electronic communication

PMP E P i Q i

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Time

21

Control charts are:

A. Used to define a statistical sample

B. Used to chart a projects expected value

C. Used in product review

D. Used to determine if a process is in control

PMP E P i Q i

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22

What is the difference between a standard and a regulation?

A. A standard usually should be followed, and a regulation must be followed

B. There is no appreciable difference between a standard and a regulation

C. A standard is issued by ANSI and a regulation is issued by the government

D. A standard is an input into quality planning, while a regulation is an input intoinitiation

PMP E P i Q i

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23

Progressive elaboration is defined as:

A. Developing in steps and continuing by increments

B. Increasing the accuracy of estimates from phase to phase

C. Estimating detailed product specifications at the lowest level of work

D. Increasing the scope of work over time

PMP E P i Q i

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Time

24

An unplanned risk has just occurred on your project. You meet with experts anddetermine a workaround to keep the project on track. In which process are you engaged?

A. Plan Risk Responses

B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D. Monitor and Control Risks

PMP E P i Q i

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Time

25

A parametric estimate would be achieved by applying:

A. Consensus

B. An educated guess

C. Historic data

D. A mathematical formula

PMP E P i Q i

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Time

26

Three-sigma deviation from the mean is equal to:

A. 97%

B. 73%

C. 99.7%

D. 97%

PMP E am Primer Q i

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Time

27

When, in project planning, would you decide to change the project scope in order toavoid certain high-risk activities?

A. Plan Risk Responses

B. Risk Qualification

C. Risk Identification

D. Risk Monitoring

PMP Exam Primer Quiz

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Time

28

A list of the risks that could affect the project is developed as part of which process?

A. Plan Risk Management

B. Identify Risks

C. Plan Risk Responses

D. Monitor and Control Risks


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Time

29

A statement of work is:

A. Necessary for every project

B. A description of the projects product

C. A type of contract

D. A description of the part of a product to be obtained from an outside vendor


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30

A disadvantage of a cost reimbursable contract for the seller is that the buyer needs to:

A. Audit sellers costs

B. Write a detailed scope of work

C. Pay more per month

D. Constantly evaluate the fee it is paying


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31

How does PMI define leadership?

A. The ability to get things done

B. Developing a vision and strategy

C. Communicating the vision and leading from the front

D. Creating critical results to shareholder satisfaction


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32

You are responsible for a project being carried out under a time and materials contract,and you are forecasting its completion well below the original contracts estimated cost

hence reducing your organization's revenue. What will you do?

A. Implement additional checks to improve the delivered product quality

B. Complete the project for the reduced cost

C. Recommend a number of extra functions that could be added to increase the cost

D. Organize training events for the project to utilise the surplus


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33

During cost control, performance reviews areprimarilyused to:

A. Review the status of cost information against the plan

B. Meet with the customer to evaluate and enforce satisfaction

C. Evaluate new budget change requests to determine if they would have an adverse

effect on the project performance

D. Discuss the project and give the team a chance to voice any concerns


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34

During executing the work packages, one of your team expresses concern about thevalidity of the estimates for her activities. What action should you takefirst?

A. Ask another team member with appropriate expertise to perform a peer review on

the estimates to establish the validity of the concern

B. Advise the team member that planning has been completed, and ask them to do

their best to keep to the original estimates

C. Review the supporting detail for those estimates contained in the project plan to

remind yourself how they were originally derived

D. Temporarily stop execution and ask the team member for updated estimates


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35

During the execution phase of your project, your company starts to make use of controlchartscontrol charts will help you to:

A. Determine if a process is performing within its operational tolerances

B. Explore a desired future outcome

C. Focus on most critical issues to improve quality

D. Focus on stimulated brainstormed thinking


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36

In a cost plus fixed fee-contract, the fee:

A. Is waivered

B. Never changes

C. Will always decrease

D. May change as a result of change orders


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37

Which of the following statements is trueregarding risk management?

A. All known risks should be listed in the risk management plan

B. Identified risks should be added to the risk register

C. Negative risks should be qualified, while positive risks should be quantified

D. The risks that cannot be mitigated should be removed from the register


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38

_____________ is notemphasised in project quality management

A. Prevention over inspection

B. Processes split within phases

C. Team responsibility

D. Customer satisfaction


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Time

39

What level of authority does a project manager have in a Balanced Matrix structure?

A. Low to moderate

B. Little or none

C. Moderate to high

D. Limited to within a Stage


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40

The system that supports all aspects of the project management processes frominitiating through to closing is:

A. The work authorization system

B. Information technology system

C. The information distribution system

D. The project management information system


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Time

41

It has been discovered that a risk was not identified during risk planning.What must you dofirst?

A. Look for ways to mitigate the risk

B. Assess the risk

C. Stop work on the project

D. Modify the risk management plan accordingly


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42

Who issues the quality policy?

A. A standards body

B. The stakeholders

C. The project manager

D. The performing organization


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43

The verification of scope should occur:

A. Once during planning

B. During each phase of the project

C. At the beginning of the project

D. At the end of the project


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44

The work results of the project:

A. Are only considered work results if quality standards have been met

B. Are an output of the work authorization system

C. Are always products

D. Are products, services, or results


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45

You have received the sponsors approval for the scope statement.What is the nextstep to be taken?

A. Create the network diagram

B. Create a work breakdown structure

C. Develop the product description

D. Hold the kickoff meeting


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46

You have been waiting for several days for a status report from a project team member.You get it one hour before you meet with your manager for a status meeting. After

quickly scanning the report, you realize it contains bogus information. What action

should you now take?

A. Cancel the meeting, fix the report yourself, and circulate the new report to senior

management in lieu of the meeting

B. Reschedule the meeting for a later date and get the team member to

rewrite the report

C. Bring your team member with you to the meeting, and confront them with the report

inaccuracies

D. Fix what you can in the report before the meeting, and try to steer the meeting away

from the incorrect areas.


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47

Project Management is the application of:

A. Knowledge, skills, experience and techniques

B. Knowledge, skills, processes and techniques

C. Knowledge, experience, processes and techniques

D. Knowledge, skills, tools and techniques


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48

The concept of optimal quality level being reached at the point where the incrementalrevenue from product improvement equals the incremental cost to secure it is:

A. Conformance analysis

B. Standard quality analysis

C. Quality control analysis

D. Marginal analysis


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49

A project charter will always include:

A. A detailed budget

B. Historical information

C. The detailed business need underlying the project

D. The scope management plan


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50

The schedule activity list:

A. Is synonymous with the work breakdown structure

B. Is included in the project charter

C. Serves as an extension of the work breakdown structure

D. Is used to create the project scope statement


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51

The quality policy is important in quality management because:

A. It provides specific quality standards that may be used to measure the

output of the project

B. It details the constraints and assumptions the project must take into consideration

C. It defines the performing organizations formal position on quality

D. It helps benchmark the project against other similar projects


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52

You are dealing with the risks on your project by developing options to enhance theopportunities and reduce the threats to the project objectives. Which process are you

using?

A. Identify Risks

B. Plan Risk Responses

C. Risk Management Planning

D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis


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53

The peak point of Maslows hierarchy is called:

A. Self-actualization

B. The need for association

C. Attainment of survival

D. Physiological satisfaction


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54

If a project has a 60% chance of a $100,000 profit and a 40% chance of a $100,000 loss,the expected monetary value for the project is:

A. $40,000 loss

B. $20,000 profit

C. $100,000 profit

D. $60,000 loss


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QPass First

Time

55

Which of the following is not a Project Management Knowledge Area?

A. Time Management

B. Risk Management

C. Change Management

D. Integration Management


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QPass First

Time

56

If the Optimistic duration of an activity = 21 days, and the Pessimistic estimate is 29 days,what is the realistic estimate?

A. 24

B. 25

C. 26

D. Unknown Sneaky!you needed the most likely

figure to complete the calculation!


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QPass First

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57

Bringing the whole project team and the customer onto the same site to work together,is an example of:

A. Active partnerships

B. Non-distributed working

C. Collocation

D. Single-point communication


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58

The key roles of the Steering Group has in a project is to:

A. Discuss the technical issues

B. Help plan the tasks

C. Ensure the right resources are available

D. Help prevent changes to the project deliverables


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59

Activity estimates should be developed by:

A. The person or team doing the work

B. Senior Management

C. The Project Manager

D. The Customer


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60

Herzberg identified factors which, if present, will lead to increased motivation. A typicalfactor would be:

A. Good salary

B. Regular promotions

C. Good supervision

D. Health care

PMP Exam Primer QuizP Fi

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61

Whose job is it to resolve competing objectives and goals between parties on theproject?

A. The project manager

B. Senior management

C. The stakeholders

D. The sponsor

PMP Exam Primer QuizP Fi t

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62

Which of the following is nota constructive team role?

A. Clarifier

B. Gate keeper

C. Withdrawer

D. Information seeker


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Time

63

A project is best defined as:

A. A collection of tasks and products with a beginning and an objective

B. A significant change with objectives and a time frame

C. A temporary endeavour undertaken to provide a unique product,

service or result

D. A set of activities carried out by a project manager


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64

A risk register is created during:

A. Identify Risks

B. Risk Assessment

C. Risk Monitoring and Control

D. Risk Management Planning


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65

The organization type where the project manager is in charge of the projects and has

primary responsibility for the resources is:

A. Matrix

B. Projectized

C. Hierarchical

D. Functional


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66

The Create WBS process belongs to which group:

A. Planning Process Group

B. Initiation Process Group

C. Executing Process Group

D. Monitoring and Controlling Process Group


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67

Approved budget increases should be:

A. Added to the projects cost baseline

B. Added to the contingency budget reserve fund

C. Added to the variance budget

D. Added to the schedule management plan


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68

Your customer, your sponsor, and senior management have directed you to manage a

project that will have a large negative impact upon the economy and society. Despite

sharing your concerns, all parties still insist that you proceed. What should you do?

A. Contact PMI

B. Manage the project, but document your objections

C. Manage the project because all parties agree

D. Refuse to manage the project


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69

Which of the following contract types places the greatest risk upon the seller?

A. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract

B. Fixed-price-incentive-fee contract

C. Firm-fixed-price contract

D. Cost-plus-incentive-fee contract


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70

Who should the project manager consult if they are unsure who has the

authority to approve changes?

A. The scope statement

B. The sponsor

C. The customer

D. The scope management plan


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71

Which of the following is not used in Perform Quality Control?

A. Histograms

B. Benchmarking

C. Pareto charts

D. Statistical sampling


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72

Which of the following techniques is used to control the project schedule?

A. Statistical sampling

B. Parametric modelling

C. Performance measurement

D. Pareto diagram


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73

Which of the following process sequences are correct?

A. Cost Budgeting, Cost Estimating, then Create WBS

B. Create WBS, Determine Budget, then Plan Costs

C. Create WBS, Estimate Costs, then Determine Budget

D. Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, then Create WBS


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74

If earned value is $12,000, planned value is $9,000, and actual cost is $4,000, what is the

schedule variance?

A. $5,000

B. $3,000

C. $1000

D. -$1000


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75

If budgeted at complete is $1000, estimate to complete is $900, earned value is $250,

and actual cost is $250, what is the estimate at complete?

A. $500

B. $750

C. $1000

D. $300


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76

Which of the following would not be a strategy for dealing with negative risk?

A. Share

B. Avoid

C. Mitigate

D. Transfer


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77

Which of the following is a constructive team role?

A. Devils advocate

B. Information seeker

C. Recognition seeker

D. Blocker


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78

Your product has been reviewed against the scope, and now needs formal acceptance by

the customer. Which process is the project in?

A. Scope Closure

B. Scope Auditing

C. Scope Closure

D. Verify Scope


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79

Crashing differs from fast-tracking because crashing:

A. Usually increases the cost

B. Usually saves more time

C. Usually increases value

D. Usually saves more money


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Time

Which quality process is performed first?

A. Define Quality

B. Perform Quality Control

C. Plan Quality

D. Perform Quality Assurance

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